California Life Insurance Practice Exam

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1. How does the IRS classify the two different types of retirement accounts?

Explanation

"Qualified" means a plan meets certain IRS guidelines so it receives beneficial tax treatment, such as tax deferred. "Non-Qualified" means it does not meet those guidelines, and therefore doe not receive beneficial tax treatment.

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About This Quiz
California Quizzes & Trivia

Practice examination for Life Insurance Licensing in California. Combines exams A, B, and C with 125 questions.

2. What type of insurance would a person select as the most efficient method of paying the outstanding debt on their home in the event of death?

Explanation

Mortgage redemption insurance, structured as decreasing term life insurance, is designed to pay off a debt as it amortizes. The decreasing death benefit pays just enough to cover the balance should pre-mature death occur.

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3. In a seven year vesting schedule, what percentage of employer contributions is vested after seven years?

Explanation

If employment terminates, the employee own 100% of the employer's contributions after 7 years. They earn 20% each year for years 3 through 7. Employee contributions are immediately vested.

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4. Bob and Neal are partners in a law firm together. If one of them were to pass away, the want to make sure that their surviving family will receive a fair value for their stake in the business. What life insurance arrangement would be most suited for transitioning the business during this time of loss?

Explanation

Buy-sell agreements allow surviving partners to buy out the family of the deceased partner so the business may continue past the death of the insured.

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5. To authorize the release of an attending physician's report, the applicant must:

Explanation

Physicians require the patient’s written authorization to release patient information.

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6. An applicant for an insurance license has had a previous application for a professional license denied for cause within the last five years. The insurance commissioner will:

Explanation

The loss of a professional license, or the previous denial of an application for a license, within five years of the submission of the current application will result in the application being denied without a hearing.

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7. The applicant works 2 different jobs. The underwriter will rate him according to which job?

Explanation

Regardless of hours worked or income, the most hazardous job will be used in the rating process.

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8. At what age does Social Security Medicare program Part B start providing benefits?

Explanation

Medicare Part B provides medical expense coverage to those 65 and older.

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9. Which best describes industrial insurance?

Explanation

By law, industrial insurance must be paid in person. Since it involves high risk insureds, very low amounts are purchased.

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10. Which is a false statement? The California Insurance Commissioner is:

Explanation

The commissioner is no longer appointed by the governor. He/she has various duties and authorities.

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11. Tommy Greene has a CLU certification. Which of th following names would automatically approve for use as his agency's name?

Explanation

No name is ever automatically approved for licensee use. There are always procedures and background checks to administer.

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12. Mrs. Anderson need to invest the proceeds from her late husband's life insurance. She invests a portion of the money into an annuity. Since she is 62, and is still working, she decides to purchase a single premium deferred annuity. She won' t need an income for a few more years. What should the agent make sure Mrs. Anderson understands?

Explanation

As someone who is 60+, she gets the 30-day free-look period, and should invest cautiously.

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13. According to the California Insurance Code, what information is the agent required to include on their business card?

Explanation

There are many rules related to business cards on full disclosure, clear communications, and proper identification of agent and insurer.

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14. A beneficiary decides to take the option that will the largest amount per payment, knowing after death no monies will be paid out to any descendants. The settlement option is:

Explanation

The life income settlement option pays the beneficiary an income until they die. Since no further payments will be made to their survivors, the insurer can afford to pay them a larger income versus the other options given.

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15. Which qualified plan is characterized by having a non-deductible contribution and tax-free distribution?

Explanation

Contributions to a Roth IRA are not tax deductible. To encourage investing for retirement, Roth IRAs allow for tax-free withdrawal after 5 years and at least age 591/2.

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16. Members of the MIB are required to report

Explanation

Made up of member insurance companies, the MIB only reports medical impairments found during underwriting; not policy information nor medical record information.

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17. E&O coverage

Explanation

One of the main purposes of errors and omission (E&O) coverage is to protect the agent in case of unintentional negligence.

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18. When a client is declined after submitting a prepaid application for life insurance:

Explanation

Declining an application for insurance rescinds the contract, requiring a return of all premiums paid. It is as though the contract never existed.

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19. Which pair are Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)?

Explanation

ADLs are personal care, nutrition, and health issues such as walking, hygiene, dressing, transferring, and eating. Seeing, hearing, speaking, and sleeping are not used as an evaluation for paying benefits.

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20. The Commissioner can deny an applicant for a license after a hearing:

Explanation

Applicants allowing others to violate the insurance code would be suspect for further violations.

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21. An insured has a terminal illness and needs to access 1/3 of his death benefit to pay mounting medical expenses. Which rider would meet the insured's current needs?

Explanation

The accelerated death benefit, or living need rider, pays a portion of the death benefit before death is the insured has a terminal illness.

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22. In disability insurance, the period of time between when the disability started and the commencement of benefits is the:

Explanation

LTC and disability income policies don't begin to pay out benefits until a certain number of days of illness have elapsed.

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23. An agent follows the rules and terms of his agent contract. He is excersising his _______ authority.

Explanation

Express authority is legitimate authority written into a contract.

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24. Per the Code, the best definitions of "shall" and "may" are:

Explanation

While "shall" means required or mandatory, "may" means permissible or allowed.

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25. The future account value of the annuity Alex purchased is connected to the S&P500 index. What type of annuity did he purchase?

Explanation

The S&P 500 is an index made up of the stock of 500 publicly traded companies. Stocks are an 'equity' investment. This type of annuity is indexed to the market so that. as the economy grows, so does the value of the annuity. The money in the account is not invested directly into the 500 stocks.

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26. Every admitted insurer in California must maintain a unit, or department, responsible for investigating which of the following?

Explanation

While every insurer faces possible fraudulent claims, not every insurer deals with arson. The state would investigate insurer abuses such as fraud, not the companies themselves.

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27. Which of the following transactions would most likely be declined due to lack of insurable interest?

Explanation

While “blood and business” can be used as a way to remember the insurable interest relationship; employees do not have an insurable interest relationship with their employer.

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28. According to the CIC, life-only agents must keep records of their transactions for:

Explanation

Agent records must be kept for 5 years.

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29. Which party has the legal authority to name or change the beneficiary?

Explanation

The policy owner/policy holder is usually the payor and has authority to decide who receives the proceeds.

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30. Any person who misappropriates fiuciary funds for personal use is guilty of:

Explanation

A 'person' with fiduciary responsibilities is an agent. If and agent steals their clients' money, the agent is guilty of theft.

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31. For an insurance contract, utmost good faith means:

Explanation

The policy owner will be indemnified in case of loss.

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32. In insurance, the agents have authorization to represent the company. The producers may exercise this relationship through:

Explanation

An agent has three (3) types of authority which stem from the agency relationship. Express authority is written in the contract. Implied authority is not written, but is assumed based on common business practices. Apparent authority is action taken by the agent leading the consumer to believe the agent works for the insurer, i.e. business cards.

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33. Ashley, the policy owner and insured, named Wendell as primary beneficiary and Barbara as contingent beneficiary. Just six (6) weeks prior to Ashley's death, Wendell and Barbara are killed in a common disaster. The insurance proceeds will be received by whom?

Explanation

If both the primary and the contingent beneficiaries predecease the insured and no other beneficiaries are named, the face amount distribution will be paid to the insured’s estate.

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34. Situations where the risk is increased by slippery floors, a habit of lying, or reckless drunk driving are best described by which of the following?

Explanation

A hazard is any factor that increases the likelihood that a loss may occur. This statement contains examples of physical hazard, moral hazard and morale hazard.

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35. The beneficiary chooses to receive the policy proceeds in the form of monthly income at the rate of $3,000 per month, until principal and interest are exhausted. What settlement option did the beneficiary select?

Explanation

Under the fixed amount settlement option the beneficiary receives a stated amount for each benefit payment until the original lump-sum death benefit amount, plus some interest, are paid out. It this case, $3000 a month is the stated amount of the benefit payment.

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36. In the insurance planning processes, the blackout period is:

Explanation

The blackout period is a feature of Social Security designating when no benefits will be paid to the surviving spouse of the deceased worker.

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37. Upon the death of a primary breadwinner who is fully insured under Social Security, a dependent child is eligible to receive an income benefit until the age of

Explanation

Under Social Security the unmarried children of a “fully insured” deceased worker will receive benefits until 18, or 19 if still in elementary or secondary school.

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38. For a flexible premium deferred annuity, the time during which the owner makes premium payments and the time before benefit payments begin is known as the:

Explanation

The time during which the account owner invests money in the annuity is known as the accumulation period.

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39. In life insurance, beneficiary succession is the method used to determine who will receive death proceeds. If the primary beneficiary is not living upon the death of the insured who will receive the payment?

Explanation

Contingent/secondary beneficiary is the individual who has the right to receive the face amount of the policy if the primary beneficiary has died and no new primary beneficiary has been named.

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40. Which of the following characteristics would not stop an insurance company from accepting an insurance risk? The item to be insured:

Explanation

Insurance companies prefer insured's that are part of a large group with similar risks so they can understand the scope of the risk, and charge the appropriate premium.

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41. Which of the following is not a personal use of life insurance?

Explanation

Buy-sell agreements are typically bought by partners in a business as a personnel/business use of insurance. The others are examples personal/family uses of insurance.

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42. According to the code, any person legally capable of making an insurance policy is considered:

Explanation

Legally, a corporation is a "person". The insurer makes/produces the insurance policies the agents and brokers sell.

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43. A client receives a lump-sum inheritance. He'd like to use some of the money to create a lifetime income since he'll be retiring soon. He purchases an annuity and wishes to receive payments beginning in 2 months. What did he buy?

Explanation

Any annuitization in 12 months or less from the effective date is an immediate annuity. A single premium annuity involves depositing one premium payment.

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44. A universal life policy may be surrendered for its cash value:

Explanation

With universal life the cash value can always be surrendered. There might be surrender charges in the early years, or a loan to pay off, but any available cash value can always be obtained at any time by surrendering the policy.

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45. California rules for annuity sales require all agents to present a specific disclosure document in advance to any senior citizen who is not already a client whenever a sales appointment will be conducted in the person's home. How far in advance must the prospect receive the written notice?

Explanation

This rule is designed to protect seniors. It is written as “at least 24 hours” in advance of the first meeting in the client’s home.

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46. In a non-contributory group policy:

Explanation

In a non-contributory plan, the employer pays all of the premium, so they must cover all eligible employees.

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47. A life-only agent issues a binding receipt to his client since the client did include a check for the initial premium with his completed application. Which is true?

Explanation

Binding receipt gives immediate coverage in the field of property insurance. Issuing a binding receipt to a life client could result in license suspension for jeopardizing and misleading the client. Life only agents do not have authority to issue binding receipts.

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48. Which of the following would not be considered a speculative risk?

Explanation

Any situation that could result in harm, but no chance for financial gain, is a pure risk, not a speculative risk.

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49. Pete, who is 35 years old, has a life insurance policy with a death benefit of $150,000. At the age of 65 the cash value of his policy will be $150,000. What policy does he have?

Explanation

Policy that matures at any age earlier than 100 is an endowment.

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50. Roger, who is 35 years old, has a whole life insurance policy with a death benefit of $150,000. At the age of 65 he will no longer make premium payments. When will the cash value of his policy be $150,000?

Explanation

Whole Life, even if a limited payment plan, still matures at age 100.

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51. A life settlement broker

Explanation

This is the definition of a life settlement broker.

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52. All of the following are characteristics of the social insurance program known as Social Security, except:

Explanation

While 65 is commonly though of as retirement age, the law now states that full retirement age is based upon the worker's year of birth.

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53. According to the California DOI, an insurer whose articles of incorporation are registered in Oslo, Norway, is considered:

Explanation

An insurer incorporated in a foreign country is considered to be an alien insurer.

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54. An applicant has the right to know that the insurance company will collect certain personal information about their credit, character and reputation. The insurer may gain such information from:

Explanation

A consumer report includes information about a potential client’s credit, character and reputation. This report may be obtained by the insurer during the underwriting process.

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55. Which statement about life insurance code and ethics is not true?

Explanation

Acts of fair discrimination such as charging older clients a higher premium are legal.

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56. An employee has lost access to their group term life insurance plan, but they are allowed to convert to a new plan. Which best describes this new plan?

Explanation

Conversion from group to individual can be any insurance except term. The insured who lost their coverage is now paying the entire premium.

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57. The term aleatory is best defined by which of the following?

Explanation

Insurance is designed so that those who don't make claims help pay for those who do make claims. Thus, it is possible that a policyholder could pay a small amount of premium before the insured dies, and the beneficiary would receive a large death benefit.

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58. What is the minimum number of members required for group life insurance?

Explanation

10 is the minimum per the CIC.

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59. Brian purchased a variable life policy and died 25 months after the issue date. It is then discovered that Brian understated his age on the application. What will the insurer do in regard to the payment of the death benefit to the beneficiary?

Explanation

The misstatement of age provision states that the insurer will “make it right” by adjusting the death benefit accordingly. This provision is not subject to the incontestable clause.

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60. A policyowner who cannot borrow the equity, change beneficiaries, assign a policy or stop paying premiums without the beneficiary's written consent has designated the beneficiary as a(n):

Explanation

Explanation: An irrevocable beneficiary shares many vested (ownership) rights with the policyowner. Therefore, the policyowner must obtain approval from the irrevocable beneficiary to make any of these policy changes.

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61. What is the usual federal income tax treatment of individual life insurance?

Explanation

Because premiums are a non-deductible expense, death benefits are tax-free to the beneficiary. In a sense, the money has already been taxed when first earned and before the premium was paid.

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62. How many hours of continuing education are required per renewal for a life-only agent?

Explanation

According to the CIC, 24 hours of continuing education must be completed each renewal. Of the 24 hours, at least 4 must be in ethics.

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63. Which of the following is most likely to have a TSA?

Explanation

Tax Sheltered Accounts (TSA) are retirement programs for not-forprofit institutions such as school districts, churches, charities, etc.

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64. After 12 years, the policyowner decides she no longer needs the large death benefit on her whole life policy. She calls you, her agent, and you tell her she can use the reduced paid-up non-forfeiture option. Which of the following is not true about the new policy?

Explanation

With the reduced paid-up non-forfeiture option, the policy will still be a whole life policy. Therefore it will mature at age 100 life the original policy. It will have a lower death benefit than the original.

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65. A policy illustration may not include:

Explanation

The term "vanishing premiums" can only be used if they are based on guaranteed elements.

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66. The definition of mortality and morbidity:

Explanation

Mortal related to death, while morbid relates to illness/disability.

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67. Under the terms of the 10-day free-look period, a claim will be paid

Explanation

When a client dies during the free-look period they are covered, if consideration had been given (initial premium paid with application), and the policy has not been returned
for a refund.

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68. When a policy continues because of a payor benefit clause, it means

Explanation

A payor benefit is a feature of a juvenile policy. If the parent/guardian (owner) dies or becomes disabled, the premium is waived until the child reaches adulthood. The child’s
policy will continue in force during the waiver period.

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69. The insured dies 6 months after the policy issue date. Upon death of the insured, it is determined that the applicant made a material misstatement on the application. What is the most likely course of action for the insurer?

Explanation

The contestability period is still in force so the policy can be rescinded by the company for material misrepresentation on the application.

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70. At age 72, Mrs. Smith is considering applying for Medi-Cal so she can afford her medical bills. Today Agent Charles is visiting her home and wanting to sell her an annuity product. Which of the following is true?

Explanation

Agents must be mindful of the effects of an annuity purchase on Medi-Cal eligibility.

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71. All of the following statements about a policy grace period are false, except:

Explanation

According to the CIC, the grace period is 31 days.

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72. A forty-five year old investor has been laid off from his job. In order to pay bills he takes a premature distribution from his traditional IRA account. What tax penalties, if any, will he face?

Explanation

Early withdrawals from qualified plans before the age of 59 ½ require the normal taxes owed, plus an additional 10% tax penalty for early distribution except for hardship withdrawals.

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73. A client has purchased an annuity with an annual bonus she received at the end of last year. She has requested annual benefit payments to start at the end of this year. What type of annuity did she purchase?

Explanation

The client has purchased an annuity with one payment (single premium) and has requested that the benefit payments begin within 12 months or less of the contract date (immediate annuity).

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74. Profit Sharing Plans:

Explanation

In profit sharing plans, companies earmark a portion of their profits to be contributed to the employee.

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75. Term insurance is best described by which of the following?

Explanation

Term insurance provides a substantial amount of coverage at a low cost. The lower price is possible due to no cash value.

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76. Which rider pays a multiple of the original face amount?

Explanation

Also known as "double indemnity," accident riders pay a larger death benefit if the death is due to accidental means.

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77. Gloria owns an annuity in which she has invested $5,000 a year for 10 years. She is currently receiving $8,000 annually from her annuity. By the time all of the principal and interest is paid out, Gloria will have been paid $100,000. How much of the annual benefit is taxable?

Explanation

Total invested amount is $50,000; total account value is $100,000. $50,000 divided by $100,000 = ½. ½ of $8,000 is $4000. That means $4000 is excluded from taxation, and $4000 is taxable.

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78. The provision that protects the proceeds of a life insurance policy from attachment by the beneficiary's creditors after the insured's death is known as the:

Explanation

The “Spendthrift Clause” keeps the beneficiary’s creditors from attaching the death benefit while held by the insurance company

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79. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about a client's privacy rights?

Explanation

The client does have access to his/her MIB report.

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80. Which action by an insurer, or its representatives, is not considered an unfair claims violation?

Explanation

It is only an unfair claims practice to advise a claimant to NOT obtain an attorney. A claimant always has the right to seek council.

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81. When an applicant makes a material statement believed to be true to the best of their knowledge, the statement is considered to be a/an

Explanation

A representation is true to the best of the applicant’s knowledge.

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82. Agent Darren offers life insurance for no cost to people buying property in a local development. When the Commissioner investigates his actions, which of the following is not a likely consequence?

Explanation

Violations of the Unfair Practices Act customarily result in a hearing, a fine, and a cease and desist order.

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83. Which of the following cannot be used in a policy illustration if nonguaranteed elements are intended to pay future premiums?

Explanation

This is true about policy illustrations according to the California Insurance Code.

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84. All of the following statements about agents are true, except:

Explanation

Exclusive agents work for or represent one insurer at a time. Independent agents work for themselves and can be appointed by multiple insurers.

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85. Which of the following statements about a resident life-only agent licensing is incorrect?

Explanation

Changes of address must be filed immediately.

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86. After the insured passes away, it is discovered that the policy was rated based upon an incorrect age. The client lied about their age when filling out the application 8 years earlier. What effect will this have on the benefit?

Explanation

When the age is misstated on the application, the death benefit paid will be adjusted to reflect the correct age.

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87. How does the incontestability clause benefit the insured?

Explanation

The incontestability clause keeps the policy from being cancelled after the insured's death despite the applicant's misdeeds.

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88. An agent who knowingly misrepresents material information for the purpose of inducing a client to lapse, forfeit, change or surrender a life insurance policy or annuity has committed an illegal practice known as:

Explanation

This is the definition of twisting, which is an unfair trade practice.

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89. The entire contract can include many components. Which of the following cannot be a part of the entire contract.

Explanation

The entire contract cannot reference any "outside" documents.

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90. Of the following, which is not one of the three major loss exposures faced by insured?

Explanation

According to the code, financial losses are not one of the 3 major loss exposures.

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91. Variable insurance and variable annuity products are regulated by:

Explanation

Variable products are governed at the national level by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA), and at the state level by the Department of Insurance (DOI).

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92. Of the following, which best descirbes the difference between life insuracne and annuities?

Explanation

Life insurance replaces the income the insured would have earned if the insured had lived to retirement age. During the annuitant's retirement years, the annuities slowly pay out money the annuitant already owns.

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93. Which statement is an accurate description of life insurance policy dividends?

Explanation

Policy dividends, considered a return of excess premium by a mutual insurer, are not taxable since the original premium was paid with after-tax dollars. Thus, these refunds are not taxable. Future dividends cannot be predicted nor guaranteed.

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94. A client has a history of DUIs. To his insurer, they see him as a ________ hazard.

Explanation

Morale hazards are characterized by an indifference towards risk. DUIs show apathy towards hurting oneself and others.

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95. Which of the following is not an acceptable underwriting classification?

Explanation

Even though a sub-standard rating results in a higher premium, the risk (insured) has been accepted by the insurer. Declined means the risk is too high and therefore is not accepted by the insurer.

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96. Candee owns a participating whole life policy and uses her policy dividends to buy more of the same type of coverage for herself. Candee has chosen the:

Explanation

Paid-up additions are of the same type of insurance as the base plan.

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97. Sam has a $200,000 convertible life insurance policy. If he chooses, he can:

Explanation

Conversion allows a term policy to be changed into a cash value policy (often whole life). While the premium will increase for the same amount of death benefit, no evidence of insurability is required.

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98. In a group life policy with a death benefit of more than $50,000:

Explanation

Any premiums paid by an employer for an employee’s coverage of more than $50,000 are taxable to the employee. Premiums for coverage of $50,000 or less are not taxable to the employee.

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99. In order to be financially solvent, an insurer must accomplish all of the following, except:

Explanation

Reserves are retained by the insurer to pay future claims; they are not paid to the state.

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100. Concerning qualified plans, which statement is false?

Explanation

ESOP's invest in the employer's stock.

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101. A client's flexible premium is invested into a seperate account. What type of insurance product did he purchase?

Explanation

Any universal policy is characterized by a flexible premium. Any variable product is characterized by the use of separate accounts.

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102. Which of the following can be written as a group policy?

Explanation

All of the above can be written as ordinary, or individual, policies. Only credit life can also be written as a group policy.

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103. All of the following statements about assignments are not false, except:

Explanation

Changes in ownership always need to be filed with the insurer.

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104. All of the following statements about mutual insurance companies are correct, except:

Explanation

Insurance policy dividends are not guaranteed and are not taxable.

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105. The person who will receive the benefit of an annuity and whose life the payout is based upon when the contract is purchased is the:

Explanation

This is the definition of annuitant. The owner does not have to be the annuitant, there may not be a beneficiary, and an annuity is a retirement plan, not insurance

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106. A partial payment of proceeds to cover final expenses is paid to someone not designated as a beneficiary but acting in a legal or fiduciary capacity. This is provided in which provision?

Explanation

Facility of payment is a process whereby someone who is not a beneficiary could make a claim for reimbursement of final expenses

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107. Your policy contains the guaranteed insurability rider. When can you purchase additional insurance on you policy?

Explanation

Contractually, you can only add to the policy when permitted, since no medical qualification is required. Otherwise, the insured would wait for an illness to add to their policy.

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108. In which type of policy does the insurer apply flexible premium to pay for the cost of insurance and expenses and then uses the remaining balance plus interest to build the cash value account?

Explanation

Universal life insurance is also known as “flexible premium” The calculation for gross premium is: Mortality risk – Interest + Expense, any remaining premium will be applied to cash value.

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109. All of the following needs to be included on an application for life insurance except:

Explanation

Disability income insurance is not material to a life insurance contract.

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110. Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining a life insurance license in California?

Explanation

To obtain a life insurance license in California, one of the primary requirements is to complete a pre-licensing education course. This course ensures that the applicant has the necessary knowledge and understanding of insurance laws, regulations, and ethical practices. While being a resident of California, holding a college degree, or having extensive work experience might be beneficial, they are not specific requirements for obtaining the license.

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111. Premiums paid into a variable annuity purchase which of the following?

Explanation

Variable annuity premiums purchase accumulation units during the accumulation period.

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112. All of the following statements about survivorship life are true, except:

Explanation

Survivorship life, sometimes referred to as "second-to-die" joint life, insures two people on the same policy, but pays the death benefit only after the second insured dies.

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113. A client has missed her premium payment on her cash value policy, and the grace period has also lapsed. The policy is still in force because her insurer has been deducting the cost of the premium from her cash value. What provision allows this?

Explanation

If included in a cash value policy, APLs allow insurers to subtract the missed premiums from the cash value as a loan to keep a policy from inadvertently lapsing for non-payment. This will continue until the client begins paying again or the cash value runs out. Interest will be charged on these loans.

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114. Which of the following are characteristics of renewable term?

Explanation

Renewable term Insurance may be renewed at the end of the specified term for another term of the same length. When renewed, renewable term premiums will be higher to reflect the insured’s attained age.

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115. All of the following are dividend options, except:

Explanation

"Interest only" is a settlement option, not a dividend option.

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116. Under the cost of living adjustment rider, the policy:

Explanation

The COLA rider is tied to an inflation index, which permits the death benefit to increase periodically to offset the effects of inflation. The face amount will not decrease in times of deflation.

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117. A policy pays the face amount if the insured dies before a specified date, or lives to that specified date. This best describes:

Explanation

Endowment policies mature, or endow at any time specified in the contract.

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118. All of these statements about life insurance settlement options are false, except:

Explanation

“Lump sum” is the default option. Life settlement options are good for those who cannot handle large sums of money, but the interest portion of each payment is taxable income. Only the face amount or lump sum amount is tax free.

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119. Which of the following statements is false in regard to a Life Paid-up at-65 whole life policy?

Explanation

Limited pay policies limit the length of time for premium payment, all other features remain the same, such as length of coverage, maturity, and endowment. Because the number of premium payments is reduced in a limited pay policy, the premium must be higher than straight life.

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120. The Roth and Traditional IRAs have some similarities. Which of the following is not true?

Explanation

The Roth has non-deductible contributions, while the Traditional IRA allows tax deductible contributions.

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121. Under which life settlement option does the insurer retain the death benefit but pays the beneficiary the earnings on the death benefit?

Explanation

The “accumulate with interest” option and the “cash option” are dividend options, not settlement options. The “interest only” option is the settlement option that pays earnings on the death benefit.

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122. Which of the following is not a qualified 1035 exchange?

Explanation

“A 1035 exchange includes an exchange from one life policy to anther life policy, a life policy to an annuity, or from one annuity to another annuity. Exchanging an annuity for a life policy is not a “1035 exchange.”

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123. Which of the following statements about the process of replacement is incorrect?

Explanation

To protect the client, disclosures need to be signed and left with the client, as well as submitted to all insurers involved. Anything used to make the sale should also be submitted.

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124. What is not likely to happen with a return of premium policy?

Explanation

This benefit is payable to policy maturity.

Submit
125. Who submits a request for life insurance to a company?

Explanation

While the agent often handles the paperwork; it’s the applicant who is technically requesting life insurance coverage.

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126. Which insurance is known for having a level premium with a fixed rate of return resulting in guaranteed cash value?

Explanation

Because whole life has a level premium and a fixed rate of return, the resulting cash value is predictable.

Submit
127. Any person to whom the commissioner has issued a seizure order and who refuses to deliver any books, records, or assets of an insurer faces:

Explanation

Crimes of this nature are misdemeanors. There are various levels of punishment based upon the level of damage done to the insurer and its clients.

Submit
128. All of the following are true about key person insurance, except:

Explanation

Key person life insurance premium is not deductible by the business and the death benefit is not taxable to the business.

Submit
129. Which statement is false concerning insurance company regulations?

Explanation

Insurers suffering from an impairment of paid-in capital are insolvent.

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130. All of the following statements about life insurance policy illustrations and the senior market are correct, except:

Explanation

Non-guaranteed elements will change over time. Guaranteed elements show the minimum, guaranteed performance that will occur

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131. Which of the following riders would provide for an insured to increase the face amount of their life insurance policy without proof of insurability?

Explanation

The guaranteed insurability rider/option allows the insured to purchase additional amounts of insurance at specified times, regardless of health status, but at an increased premium.

Submit
132. Which type of insurer requires an attorney-in-fact overseen by an advisory committee of subscribers?

Explanation

A committee of subscribers holds the attorney-in-fact accountable in reciprocal insurance agreements.

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133. Which of the following becomes part of the contract, is guaranteed to be true, and if untrue, may be grounds for rescinding the policy?

Explanation

A warranty must be literally true. A violation of a material warranty permits the other party to rescind the contract.

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134. An insurer invests the cash value of a fixed annuity in which of the following assets?

Explanation

An insurer guarantees the cash value in a fixed product and therefore assumes the risk of the investment. Money in fixed products is held in the general account which is invested in relatively safe and low risk instruments such as bonds, mortgages, and real estate.

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135. Rank from lowest to highest, the amount of monthly income that would result from the following annuity settlement options:

Explanation

The larger the guarantee of payments, or returned monies, the lower the guaranteed income,. The more risk the annuitant takes during the annuity period, the higher the monthly income.

Submit
136. In comparing the purchase of individual life insurance to acquiring group life, which statement is not true?

Explanation

Group insurance premium paid by the employer is tax deductible to the employer, while individual insurance premium is non-deductible.

Submit
137. Which statement best describes "agreement" as it relates to contracts?

Explanation

Agreement includes both an offer and its acceptance.

Submit
138. Which statement about reinstatement is false?

Explanation

A reinstated policy will be contestable again for another two years.

Submit
139. While collecting underwriting information, certain rules must be followed. Which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

Post-claims underwriting is a prohibited process in disability insurance. All underwriting must be completed prior to issuing the policy; it is illegal to do more underwriting after a claim has been filed.

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140. Starting from lowest to highest, rank the initial premium paid by the client for these insurance policies below:

Explanation

Modified whole life allows the insured to pay a lower premium than traditional/ordinary whole life for the first few years. Single premium whole life requires a large, one-time, up-front payment to begin the policy; thus, it costs more than traditional whole life.

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141. In contrasting stock insurers with mutual insurers, which statement is not false?

Explanation

Stock insurers are owned by their shareholders/stockholders. Their policies are labeled non-participating since the clients do not share in the divisible surplus (dividends).

Submit
142. Which of the following is not excluded from the California Life and Annuity Replacement Law?

Explanation

Any transaction in which a client purchases a new policy with the intention of cancelling an existing policy is considered to be a replacement transaction.

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143. Which of the following is considered ordinary insurance?

Explanation

Mortgage redemption must be ordinary or individual insurance, while whole life and term can be group or individual. Blanket insurance is group insurance.

Submit
144. Which statement is not true about insurance sales?

Explanation

An agent or broker must exercise care when using apparent authority during the sales process.

Submit
145. Which of the following are common provisions found within many life insurance policies?

Explanation

This is the only answer for which all items are policy provisions.

Submit
146. All of the following describe differences between binding receipts and conditional receipts, except:

Explanation

Under a binding receipt a claim would be paid even if the policy was not issued yet. Binding receipts tend to be used for property insurance.

Submit
147. All of the following statements about policy provisions are true, except:

Explanation

The missed premium will be deducted from the full death benefit if death occurs during the grace period.

Submit
148. What nonforfeiture option allows a policyowner to use the existing cash value to purchase a policy of the same face amount as the original policy but for a reduced amount of time?

Explanation

The nonforfeiture option that results in a paid-up policy with the same face amount as the original policy is the “Extended Term” option.

Submit
149. Which statement below is least correct regarding the type of insurance that fits best with the applicant's needs?

Explanation

Convertible term converts to a cash value policy with the same death benefit but at a higher premium.

Submit
150. All of the following statements are true about participating and nonparticipating policies, except:

Explanation

Dividends on non-participating policies are paid to shareholders.

Submit
151. Which of the following statements is not included in the Entire Contract clause?

Explanation

This describes the Insuring clause.

Submit
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Which insurance is known for having a level premium with a fixed rate...
Any person to whom the commissioner has issued a seizure order and who...
All of the following are true about key person insurance, except:
Which statement is false concerning insurance company regulations?
All of the following statements about life insurance policy...
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Which of the following becomes part of the contract, is guaranteed to...
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In comparing the purchase of individual life insurance to acquiring...
Which statement best describes "agreement" as it relates to contracts?
Which statement about reinstatement is false?
While collecting underwriting information, certain rules must be...
Starting from lowest to highest, rank the initial premium paid by the...
In contrasting stock insurers with mutual insurers, which statement is...
Which of the following is not excluded from the California Life and...
Which of the following is considered ordinary insurance?
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All of the following statements about policy provisions are true,...
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