California Life Insurance Quiz

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Life Insurance Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz for california life insurance.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following best describes teh concept of risk?

    • A.

      Any reduction in the quantity, quality, or value of something.

    • B.

      The potential or actual cause of a loss.

    • C.

      A possibility of a loss and uncertainty about wether it will occur.

    • D.

      A condition that might increase the severity of a loss.

    Correct Answer
    C. A possibility of a loss and uncertainty about wether it will occur.
    Explanation
    The concept of risk is best described as a possibility of a loss and uncertainty about whether it will occur. Risk refers to the chance of experiencing harm, damage, or loss, and it involves the unknown factor of whether the negative outcome will actually happen. It encompasses the element of uncertainty and the potential for something undesirable to occur, highlighting the inherent unpredictability of risk.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following characterizes a speculative risk?

    • A.

      Having a financial interest in the thing at risk.

    • B.

      A possibility for loss or gain.

    • C.

      Transfering the risk of loss to another party.

    • D.

      Human carelessness or irresponsibility.

    Correct Answer
    B. A possibility for loss or gain.
    Explanation
    A speculative risk is characterized by the possibility of both loss and gain. This means that there is a chance of either experiencing a financial loss or achieving a financial gain when taking part in a speculative risk. This type of risk is often associated with investments or gambling, where the outcome is uncertain and there is potential for both positive and negative outcomes.

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  • 3. 

    Causes of loss are also known as

    • A.

      Perils

    • B.

      Hazards

    • C.

      Pure risks

    • D.

      Exposure units.

    Correct Answer
    A. Perils
    Explanation
    The term "causes of loss" refers to events or circumstances that result in a loss or damage. These events or circumstances are also known as perils. Perils can include natural disasters such as fires, floods, and earthquakes, as well as man-made events such as theft or vandalism. Identifying and understanding the perils that can cause loss is essential for managing risk and implementing appropriate insurance coverage. Therefore, the correct answer is "Perils."

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  • 4. 

    If an insurance company doing business in your state has been incorporated inder the laws of another state within the United States, it would be considered to be.

    • A.

      A domestic insurer

    • B.

      An alien insurer

    • C.

      A foreign insurer

    • D.

      An unauthorized insurer.

    Correct Answer
    C. A foreign insurer
    Explanation
    If an insurance company doing business in your state has been incorporated under the laws of another state within the United States, it would be considered a foreign insurer. This is because it is operating in a state other than the one in which it was incorporated.

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  • 5. 

    According to the law of large numbers, if large numbers of similar risks are combined in a group, future losses become more

    • A.

      Measurable

    • B.

      Predictable

    • C.

      Catastrophic

    • D.

      Uncertain

    Correct Answer
    B. Predictable
    Explanation
    The law of large numbers states that if a large number of similar risks are combined in a group, the average outcome becomes more predictable. This means that as the number of similar risks increases, the variability of individual outcomes decreases, leading to a more accurate prediction of future losses. Therefore, the correct answer is "predictable".

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following types of insurance company is referred to as a participating company?

    • A.

      An assesment insurer.

    • B.

      A stock insurer.

    • C.

      A reciprocal insurer.

    • D.

      A mutual insurer.

    Correct Answer
    D. A mutual insurer.
    Explanation
    A mutual insurer is referred to as a participating company because it is owned by its policyholders. Policyholders have the right to participate in the company's profits through dividends or reductions in premiums. This means that policyholders have a say in the company's operations and can benefit from its financial success. In contrast, other types of insurance companies, such as stock insurers, are owned by shareholders who do not have the same participation rights.

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  • 7. 

    Submitting premium payments promptly to the insurer is part of an agent's

    • A.

      Implied authority

    • B.

      Apparent authority

    • C.

      Fiduciary responsibilities

    • D.

      Express authority

    Correct Answer
    C. Fiduciary responsibilities
    Explanation
    Submitting premium payments promptly to the insurer is part of an agent's fiduciary responsibilities. Fiduciary responsibilities refer to the agent's duty to act in the best interests of the client and handle their financial affairs with care, trust, and loyalty. By promptly submitting premium payments, the agent ensures that the client's insurance coverage remains in effect and their interests are protected. This action aligns with the agent's fiduciary duty to act in the client's best interest and fulfill their obligations as an insurance professional.

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  • 8. 

    A failure to disclose known facts would be an act of

    • A.

      Concealment

    • B.

      Adhesion

    • C.

      Consideration

    • D.

      Misrepresantation

    Correct Answer
    A. Concealment
    Explanation
    Concealment refers to the act of intentionally hiding or keeping secret known facts or information. It involves the deliberate omission or suppression of relevant details that should have been disclosed. In this context, a failure to disclose known facts implies that someone is intentionally hiding information, which aligns with the concept of concealment. Adhesion refers to a type of contract, consideration refers to something of value exchanged in a contract, and misrepresentation refers to providing false or misleading information.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is a consumer publication that describes the type of coverage being offered and provides general information to help an applicant compare different policies?

    • A.

      Sales presentation

    • B.

      Conditional receipt

    • C.

      Buyers guide

    • D.

      Disclosure authorization form

    Correct Answer
    C. Buyers guide
    Explanation
    A buyer's guide is a consumer publication that provides general information about the type of coverage being offered and helps applicants compare different policies. It is designed to assist consumers in making informed decisions about their insurance purchases. This publication typically includes details about the different types of coverage available, the benefits and limitations of each policy, and other relevant information that can aid in the comparison process.

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  • 10. 

    The human value approach to determining insurance needs focuses mostly on

    • A.

      Inflationary trends in the economy

    • B.

      Future income needs of survivors

    • C.

      An individual's future stream of income

    • D.

      Probate and estate taxes

    Correct Answer
    C. An individual's future stream of income
    Explanation
    The human value approach to determining insurance needs focuses on an individual's future stream of income. This means that when calculating insurance needs, the focus is on how much income the individual is expected to earn in the future and how much insurance coverage is needed to replace that income in the event of death or disability. This approach takes into consideration the individual's financial responsibilities and the needs of their dependents, ensuring that they are adequately protected and provided for in the future.

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  • 11. 

    A social Security blackout period is the period of time.

    • A.

      Between the date of an early retirement and the date an individual first becomes elibible for Social Security retirement benefits

    • B.

      After survivor benefits for the youngest child end and before the surviving spouse becomes eligible for Social Security retirement benefits.

    • C.

      That a disabled worker has to wait before Social Security disability benefits begin.

    • D.

      During which income earned after age 65 is no longer subject to Social Security taxes.

    Correct Answer
    B. After survivor benefits for the youngest child end and before the surviving spouse becomes eligible for Social Security retirement benefits.
    Explanation
    A social Security blackout period refers to the period of time after survivor benefits for the youngest child end and before the surviving spouse becomes eligible for Social Security retirement benefits. During this period, the surviving spouse may not receive any Social Security retirement benefits.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is provided by the Fair Credit Reporting Act?

    • A.

      The availability of credit life insurance on an impartial basis

    • B.

      Protection to debtors against credit collection agencies

    • C.

      The requirement that an applicant for insurance be informed that a consumer report may be requested regarding his application

    • D.

      Information concerning any previous applications for insurance by an applicant

    Correct Answer
    C. The requirement that an applicant for insurance be informed that a consumer report may be requested regarding his application
    Explanation
    The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that an applicant for insurance be informed that a consumer report may be requested regarding their application. This means that insurance companies must inform applicants that they may access their credit report in order to evaluate their eligibility for insurance. This requirement aims to promote transparency and ensure that applicants are aware of the information that may be used to make decisions about their insurance application.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the existance of insurable interest in a life or health insurance policy?

    • A.

      Insurable interest must exist at the time of loss

    • B.

      Insurable interest must exist at the time of application.

    • C.

      Insurable interest must exist throughout the duration of the policy.

    • D.

      Insurable interest must exist at the time of the insured's death.

    Correct Answer
    B. Insurable interest must exist at the time of application.
    Explanation
    Insurable interest refers to the financial or emotional stake that a person has in the life or health of the insured individual. It is necessary for the person applying for the insurance policy to have insurable interest at the time of application. This ensures that the person has a legitimate reason to protect the insured's life or health and prevents individuals from obtaining insurance policies on the lives of strangers or unrelated individuals. Insurable interest does not necessarily have to exist at the time of loss, throughout the duration of the policy, or at the time of the insured's death.

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  • 14. 

    All of the following statements are correct regarding the completion of a life or health insurance application EXCEPT

    • A.

      Any life insurance application submitted to the underwriting department must include the signatures of the policyowner, proposed insured, and agent

    • B.

      Any changes made to an application before its submission to the insurer must be initialed by the applicant

    • C.

      The initial premium must be submitted to the insurer with the completed application

    • D.

      Incomplete applications may be delay the underwriting process

    Correct Answer
    C. The initial premium must be submitted to the insurer with the completed application
  • 15. 

    Which of the following most accurately defines a representation?

    • A.

      A statement guaranteed to be absolutely true

    • B.

      A statement that is true to the best knowledge of the applicant

    • C.

      A statement that is material to the risk involved

    • D.

      A statement pertaining to the substandard nature of the risk to be insured

    Correct Answer
    B. A statement that is true to the best knowledge of the applicant
    Explanation
    A representation is a statement made by the applicant that is true to the best of their knowledge. This means that the applicant is providing information based on what they genuinely believe to be true. It does not guarantee absolute truth, as there may be information that the applicant is unaware of or unintentionally omits. However, the applicant is expected to provide accurate and truthful information to the best of their knowledge.

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  • 16. 

    All of the following are primary sources of information available to a life or health insurance company's underwriting department concerning insurance applicants EXCEPT

    • A.

      Medical examination

    • B.

      Application

    • C.

      Agent's report

    • D.

      Statement of good health

    Correct Answer
    D. Statement of good health
    Explanation
    A statement of good health is not considered a primary source of information for a life or health insurance company's underwriting department. Primary sources typically include a medical examination, application, and agent's report. These sources provide detailed and objective information about the applicant's health status, medical history, and lifestyle habits, which are crucial for the underwriting process. On the other hand, a statement of good health is a document signed by the applicant, confirming that they are in good health at the time of application. While it may be considered as supporting evidence, it is not as reliable or comprehensive as the other primary sources mentioned.

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  • 17. 

    Mr James borrows funds form a bank to make improvements to his home. The bank suggests that he purchase life insurance that will pay that will pay off his loan amount in the event of his premature death. Which of the following would best help him achieve this objective?

    • A.

      Level term

    • B.

      Decreasing term

    • C.

      Increasing term

    • D.

      Convertible term

    Correct Answer
    B. Decreasing term
    Explanation
    The best option to help Mr. James achieve the objective of paying off his loan amount in the event of his premature death would be a decreasing term life insurance policy. This type of policy provides a death benefit that decreases over time, which aligns with the decreasing balance of his loan as he makes payments. This ensures that the insurance coverage remains sufficient to pay off the loan if he were to pass away before it is fully repaid.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following statements regarding variable life universal insurance is CORRECT?

    • A.

      It offers a combination of investment options and a guaranteed death benefit.

    • B.

      The premiums paid are fixed at a level amount.

    • C.

      This policy combines whole life and decreasing term coverage.

    • D.

      Lower premiums are charged in the early years of the policy.

    Correct Answer
    A. It offers a combination of investment options and a guaranteed death benefit.
    Explanation
    Variable life universal insurance offers a combination of investment options and a guaranteed death benefit. This means that policyholders have the opportunity to invest their premiums in various investment options, such as stocks or bonds, and the policy also provides a guaranteed death benefit to the beneficiaries upon the policyholder's death. This combination of investment and protection makes variable life universal insurance a flexible and potentially lucrative option for individuals seeking both investment growth and life insurance coverage.

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  • 19. 

    The contract which at issue provides the maximum amount of insurance protection at the lowest outlay of funds best describes

    • A.

      Term insurance

    • B.

      Whole life insurance

    • C.

      Universal life insurance

    • D.

      Endowments

    Correct Answer
    A. Term insurance
    Explanation
    Term insurance is the correct answer because it provides the maximum amount of insurance protection at the lowest outlay of funds. Unlike whole life or universal life insurance, term insurance is a type of temporary coverage that lasts for a specific term, usually 10, 20, or 30 years. It does not accumulate cash value or provide lifelong coverage like whole life or universal life insurance. Term insurance is typically more affordable than other types of insurance because it only pays out a death benefit if the insured dies during the specified term.

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  • 20. 

    Credit life insurance protects

    • A.

      The debtor

    • B.

      The employer

    • C.

      The lender

    • D.

      The beneficiary

    Correct Answer
    C. The lender
    Explanation
    Credit life insurance is a type of insurance that pays off the outstanding debt of the insured individual in case of their death. It is typically purchased by borrowers to ensure that their loans are repaid even if they pass away. In this context, the lender is the party that has provided the loan, and credit life insurance protects them by guaranteeing that the debt will be repaid even if the borrower dies. Therefore, the correct answer is "the lender."

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of a renewable term insurance policy?

    • A.

      The insured can demand renewal at the end of the original term

    • B.

      Premiums for a renewal policy cannot be increased.

    • C.

      Evidence of insurability cannot be required at renewal

    • D.

      Limits may be placed on the number of permitted renewals.

    Correct Answer
    B. Premiums for a renewal policy cannot be increased.
    Explanation
    A renewable term insurance policy allows the insured to renew the policy at the end of the original term without having to provide evidence of insurability. Limits may be placed on the number of renewals, meaning that there may be a maximum number of times the policy can be renewed. However, the premiums for a renewal policy can be increased, which means that the answer "Premiums for a renewal policy cannot be increased" is not one of the characteristics of a renewable term insurance policy.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following characterizes a limited payment whole life insurance policy?

    • A.

      It becomes a fully paid-up policy prior to maturity.

    • B.

      Death benefits are payable for a limited period of time.

    • C.

      Cash value withdrawals are permitted only for a limited number of years.

    • D.

      Proceeds may be paid only to the policyowner or a primary beneficary, and not to any other individual or party.

    Correct Answer
    A. It becomes a fully paid-up policy prior to maturity.
    Explanation
    A limited payment whole life insurance policy becomes a fully paid-up policy prior to maturity. This means that the policyholder does not have to continue making premium payments for the entire duration of the policy. Once the policy is fully paid, the policyholder will still receive the death benefits and the cash value will continue to grow. This type of policy provides the advantage of having lifelong coverage without the burden of premium payments for the entire life of the policy.

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  • 23. 

    At what age of the insured would a whole life insurance policy reach maturity?

    • A.

      Whatever age is elected by the policyowner

    • B.

      At age 75

    • C.

      At age 90

    • D.

      At age 100

    Correct Answer
    D. At age 100
    Explanation
    A whole life insurance policy reaches maturity at the age of 100. This means that the policy will continue to provide coverage and accumulate cash value until the insured reaches this age. The policyowner has the option to select a different age for maturity if they wish, but by default, it is set at age 100.

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  • 24. 

    Which type of policy permits the policyowner to request changes in the face amount, premium payments, and/or type of protection during the policy term?

    • A.

      Adjustable life insurance

    • B.

      Universal life insurance

    • C.

      Variable life insurance

    • D.

      Modified life insurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjustable life insurance
    Explanation
    Adjustable life insurance is a type of policy that allows the policyowner to make changes to the face amount, premium payments, and/or type of protection during the policy term. This flexibility allows the policyowner to adjust the coverage and payments to better suit their changing needs and financial situation. It provides the policyowner with more control and adaptability compared to other types of life insurance policies such as universal life insurance, variable life insurance, and modified life insurance.

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  • 25. 

    How many months is the typical waiting period connected with the waiver of premium provision found in a life insurance contract?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    D. 6
    Explanation
    The typical waiting period connected with the waiver of premium provision found in a life insurance contract is 6 months. During this period, if the policyholder becomes disabled or unable to work, the insurance company will waive the premium payments for the policy, ensuring that the coverage remains in force. This waiting period allows the insurance company to assess the nature and extent of the disability before granting the waiver.

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  • 26. 

    The payor clause in a life insurance policy sates that premims will be

    • A.

      Waived until the insured child reaches age 30

    • B.

      Increased upon death of a the premium payor

    • C.

      Decreased upon the activation of the automatic premium loan provision

    • D.

      Waived until the insured child reaches the age of majority.

    Correct Answer
    D. Waived until the insured child reaches the age of majority.
    Explanation
    The payor clause in a life insurance policy states that premiums will be waived until the insured child reaches the age of majority. This means that the person responsible for paying the premiums (the payor) does not have to make any payments until the child reaches the age at which they are legally considered an adult. This provision is put in place to ensure that the policy remains in force and the child's coverage is maintained even if the payor is unable to make the premium payments.

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  • 27. 

    John Jones applies for a policy on September 1. It is received by the underwiting department on September 5, approved on Septmeber 7, and delivered to John on September 9. The 10-day free look period would expire on

    • A.

      September 11

    • B.

      September 15

    • C.

      September 17

    • D.

      September 19

    Correct Answer
    D. September 19
    Explanation
    The 10-day free look period starts from the date the policy is delivered to John, which is September 9. Therefore, the 10-day period would end on September 19.

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  • 28. 

    With life insurance, the form of assignment where all  rights are transferred to another person is knows as

    • A.

      Collateral assignment

    • B.

      Absolute assignment

    • C.

      Consignment assignment

    • D.

      Split owner assignment

    Correct Answer
    B. Absolute assignment
    Explanation
    Absolute assignment is the correct answer because it refers to the form of assignment in life insurance where all rights and ownership of the policy are transferred to another person. This means that the policyholder no longer has any control or ownership over the policy and the assignee becomes the new owner. This type of assignment is often used in situations where the policyholder wants to transfer ownership to a beneficiary or a third party.

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  • 29. 

    Glady's is the beneficiary of her husband Ben's life insurance policy. When Glady's dies, Ben neglects to name another benefiary. At Ben's five years later, the proceeds of his insurance policy will be paid to

    • A.

      Gladys' heirs as named in her will

    • B.

      Ben's heirs as named in his will

    • C.

      Ben's estate

    • D.

      The state in which Ben resided at the time of his death

    Correct Answer
    C. Ben's estate
    Explanation
    When Glady's dies, Ben neglects to name another beneficiary for his life insurance policy. In this case, the proceeds of the insurance policy will be paid to Ben's estate. This means that the money will become part of Ben's assets and will be distributed according to the instructions in his will or through the laws of intestacy if there is no will.

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  • 30. 

    Ed has $50,000 life policy with cash value of $10,000. A $2,000 loan is outstanding. Ed finds he can no longer make premium payments on this policy. If Ed chooses the cash surrender value option, he will receive

    • A.

      10,000

    • B.

      9,000

    • C.

      8,000

    • D.

      7,000

    Correct Answer
    C. 8,000
    Explanation
    If Ed chooses the cash surrender value option, he will receive $8,000. This is because the cash surrender value is the amount that the insurance company will pay out to the policyholder if they choose to surrender the policy before it matures or if they can no longer make premium payments. In this case, the cash value of the policy is $10,000, but there is an outstanding loan of $2,000. Therefore, the cash surrender value will be $10,000 - $2,000 = $8,000.

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  • 31. 

    For a life insurance policy, the least expensive mode of premium is 

    • A.

      Annual

    • B.

      Semiannual

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual
    Explanation
    The least expensive mode of premium for a life insurance policy is annual because it allows the policyholder to pay the premium once a year, resulting in lower administrative costs for the insurance company. This mode also reduces the risk of missed payments and ensures a consistent cash flow for the insurer. On the other hand, options like semiannual, quarterly, or monthly premiums require more frequent administrative work and increase the chances of missed payments, leading to additional costs for the insurance company. Therefore, annual premiums are the most cost-effective option for both the policyholder and the insurer.

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  • 32. 

    All the following are types of nonforfeiture options EXCEPT

    • A.

      Fixed-period

    • B.

      Extended term

    • C.

      Reduced paid-up insurance

    • D.

      Surrender for cash

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed-period
    Explanation
    Fixed-period is not a type of nonforfeiture option. Nonforfeiture options are available to policyholders who choose to surrender their life insurance policies before they mature. These options allow the policyholder to receive some value from the policy, such as extended term insurance, reduced paid-up insurance, or surrendering the policy for cash. However, fixed-period is not a valid nonforfeiture option.

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  • 33. 

    A customer funds an annuity with a lump sum and wants to receive income 3 years from now. She funded

    • A.

      An indexed equity annuity

    • B.

      An immediate annuity

    • C.

      A fixed annuity

    • D.

      A deferred annuity

    Correct Answer
    D. A deferred annuity
    Explanation
    A deferred annuity is the correct answer because it allows the customer to fund the annuity with a lump sum and receive income at a later date, in this case, 3 years from now. With a deferred annuity, the funds are invested and accumulate over time, allowing for potential growth. This type of annuity is suitable for individuals who want to delay receiving income until a specific future date.

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  • 34. 

    In which type of annuity contract is the interest rate tied to an index (i.e., S&P 500)?

    • A.

      Equity indexed

    • B.

      Fixed

    • C.

      Variable

    • D.

      Joint

    Correct Answer
    A. Equity indexed
    Explanation
    Equity indexed annuity contracts are tied to an index, such as the S&P 500. The interest rate on these contracts is based on the performance of the index. As the index increases, the interest rate on the annuity contract may also increase, providing the potential for higher returns. However, if the index decreases, the interest rate may be lower or even zero, ensuring that the principal investment is protected. This type of annuity contract offers a balance between the potential for growth and the security of a guaranteed minimum return.

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  • 35. 

    When an investor purchases a variable annuity what does she receive in the separate account?

    • A.

      Units

    • B.

      Shares

    • C.

      Equities

    • D.

      Bonds

    Correct Answer
    A. Units
    Explanation
    When an investor purchases a variable annuity, they receive units in the separate account. These units represent the investor's ownership in the underlying investments of the annuity, which can include a variety of assets such as stocks, bonds, or other securities. The value of the units can fluctuate based on the performance of the underlying investments, allowing the investor to potentially benefit from market gains.

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  • 36. 

    Mr. and Mrs. Jones are receiving a monthly annuity distribution of $1,000. If Mr. Jones dies and Mrs. Jones continues to receive the same ammount, which payout option was selected?

    • A.

      Joint with last survivor

    • B.

      Joint income

    • C.

      Joint life

    • D.

      Cash refund

    Correct Answer
    C. Joint life
    Explanation
    The selected payout option is Joint life. This means that both Mr. and Mrs. Jones were receiving the monthly annuity distribution of $1,000 while they were both alive. However, if Mr. Jones dies, Mrs. Jones will continue to receive the same amount until she passes away as well. This ensures that the annuity payments continue for the lifetime of both spouses, with the surviving spouse receiving the same amount even after the other spouse's death.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following types of annuities provides guaranteed unit amounts rather than guarnateed dollar amounts?

    • A.

      Fixed

    • B.

      Single premium

    • C.

      Variable

    • D.

      Flexible

    Correct Answer
    C. Variable
    Explanation
    Variable annuities provide guaranteed unit amounts rather than guaranteed dollar amounts. This means that the value of the annuity is determined by the performance of the underlying investments, such as stocks or bonds. The number of units remains constant, but the dollar value can fluctuate based on market conditions. This type of annuity offers the potential for higher returns but also carries more risk compared to fixed annuities, which provide guaranteed dollar amounts. Single premium and flexible annuities can be either fixed or variable, depending on the terms of the contract.

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  • 38. 

    All of the following are true about an annuity EXCEPT

    • A.

      The annuitant shows proof of insurability

    • B.

      Earnings grow tax-deferred

    • C.

      Premiums for a fixed annuity are invested in the general account

    • D.

      10% penalty for distributions prior to age 59 1/2

    Correct Answer
    A. The annuitant shows proof of insurability
    Explanation
    An annuity is a financial product that provides a series of regular payments to the annuitant. In this context, the annuitant refers to the person who receives the payments. Unlike life insurance policies, annuities do not typically require the annuitant to show proof of insurability. Insurability refers to the ability of an individual to obtain insurance coverage based on their health, age, and other factors. In the case of an annuity, the focus is on the payout structure and the growth of earnings, rather than the insurability of the annuitant. Therefore, the statement "the annuitant shows proof of insurability" is not true about an annuity.

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  • 39. 

    Who receives the benefit form an annuity?

    • A.

      Owner

    • B.

      Annuitant

    • C.

      Beneficiary

    • D.

      Insured

    Correct Answer
    B. Annuitant
    Explanation
    The annuitant is the person who receives the benefit from an annuity. An annuity is a financial product that provides a series of payments to the annuitant over a specified period of time. The annuitant is typically the person whose life is used as the basis for calculating the payments, and they are the one who will receive the regular income from the annuity. The owner of the annuity is the person who purchases and controls the annuity contract, while the beneficiary is the person who will receive any remaining funds in the annuity after the annuitant's death. The insured refers to a person who is covered by an insurance policy, which is not directly related to annuities.

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  • 40. 

    An immediate annuity must be purchased with which of the following premiums?

    • A.

      Flexible

    • B.

      Periodic

    • C.

      Level

    • D.

      Single

    Correct Answer
    D. Single
    Explanation
    An immediate annuity must be purchased with a single premium. This means that the annuitant pays a lump sum amount upfront to the insurance company in exchange for regular income payments that start immediately. This is in contrast to other types of annuities, such as flexible, periodic, or level annuities, where the premiums are paid in installments over a period of time.

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  • 41. 

    In a contributory plan, what percentage of empolyees must participate in the plan before a policy will be issued?

    • A.

      50%

    • B.

      75%

    • C.

      90%

    • D.

      100%

    Correct Answer
    B. 75%
    Explanation
    In a contributory plan, the policy will be issued only if at least 75% of employees participate in the plan. This means that a significant majority of employees must be enrolled in the plan for it to be implemented. This requirement ensures that there is a sufficient pool of participants to spread the risk and make the plan financially viable. A lower participation rate may indicate a lack of interest or support from employees, which could impact the effectiveness and sustainability of the plan.

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  • 42. 

    A group life insurance plan where employer pays the entire cost is known as

    • A.

      A contributory plan

    • B.

      A noncontributory plan

    • C.

      A credit life plan

    • D.

      A risk-sharing plan

    Correct Answer
    B. A noncontributory plan
    Explanation
    A noncontributory plan is a group life insurance plan where the employer bears the entire cost. In this type of plan, employees do not contribute any portion of the premium, and the employer covers the full expense. This can be seen as a benefit provided by the employer to its employees, as they are not required to make any financial contributions towards the coverage.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following affects the deductibility of contributions made to a traditional IRA?

    • A.

      The IRA owner's age

    • B.

      Wether or not the IRA owner participates in a qualified employer plan.

    • C.

      The type of investment the IRA purchases with the contributions

    • D.

      The IRA owner's marital status

    Correct Answer
    B. Wether or not the IRA owner participates in a qualified employer plan.
    Explanation
    The deductibility of contributions made to a traditional IRA is affected by whether or not the IRA owner participates in a qualified employer plan. If the IRA owner participates in a qualified employer plan, the deductibility of contributions to a traditional IRA may be limited based on their income level. However, if the IRA owner does not participate in a qualified employer plan, the contributions to a traditional IRA may be fully deductible regardless of income level. The other factors mentioned (age, type of investment, marital status) do not directly affect the deductibility of contributions to a traditional IRA.

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  • 44. 

    Keogh plans are designed for and available to

    • A.

      An employer with more than 100 employees

    • B.

      A self-employed professional

    • C.

      A businessowner who becomes disabled

    • D.

      An employee without a qualified plan

    Correct Answer
    B. A self-employed professional
    Explanation
    Keogh plans are retirement savings plans specifically designed for self-employed professionals. These plans allow self-employed individuals to contribute a portion of their income to a tax-deferred retirement account. Unlike other retirement plans, Keogh plans are not available to employees without a qualified plan, employers with more than 100 employees, or business owners who become disabled. Therefore, the correct answer is a self-employed professional.

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  • 45. 

    All of the following statements regarding Roth IRAs are true EXCEPT

    • A.

      They provide for tax-free accumulation of funds

    • B.

      The limit contributions each year

    • C.

      The mandate distributions no later than age 70 1/2

    • D.

      They are not available to individuals in the upper income tax brackets.

    Correct Answer
    C. The mandate distributions no later than age 70 1/2
    Explanation
    Roth IRAs provide for tax-free accumulation of funds, have contribution limits each year, and are not available to individuals in the upper income tax brackets. However, the statement that they mandate distributions no later than age 70 1/2 is not true. Unlike traditional IRAs, Roth IRAs do not have required minimum distributions at any age.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following statements concerning spit-dollar life insurance is CORRECT?

    • A.

      This type of plan may utilize any form of life insurance contract.

    • B.

      It is useful to the key employee who needs protection but has insufficient funds to meet his needs.

    • C.

      Two life policies are required; one for the employee and one for the employer.

    • D.

      All policy death proceeds are paid directly to the employer.

    Correct Answer
    B. It is useful to the key employee who needs protection but has insufficient funds to meet his needs.
    Explanation
    Spit-dollar life insurance is a type of plan that is beneficial for key employees who require protection but lack sufficient funds to meet their needs. This type of plan allows the key employee to receive the necessary life insurance coverage without having to pay for the entire policy themselves. Instead, the employer pays a portion of the premium, while the employee pays the remaining amount. This arrangement helps the key employee obtain the necessary protection while managing their financial limitations.

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  • 47. 

    Premiums paid on an individual life insurance policy are generally

    • A.

      Not deductible

    • B.

      Deductible until cash values exceed premium payments

    • C.

      Deductible once they exceed 7.5% of AGI

    • D.

      Deductible as long as the policy is less than $100,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. Not deductible
    Explanation
    Premiums paid on an individual life insurance policy are generally not deductible. This means that individuals cannot claim these premiums as a deduction on their tax returns. Life insurance premiums are considered personal expenses and are not eligible for tax deductions unless certain conditions are met, such as the policy being part of a business or estate planning. However, in general, individuals cannot deduct the premiums paid on their individual life insurance policies.

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  • 48. 

    All of the following types of plans are reserved for small employers EXCEPT

    • A.

      401(k)s

    • B.

      SEPs

    • C.

      SIMPLE IRAs

    • D.

      SIMPLE 401(k)s

    Correct Answer
    A. 401(k)s
    Explanation
    The question asks for the type of plan that is NOT reserved for small employers. 401(k)s are a type of retirement plan that is commonly offered by large employers, so they are not reserved exclusively for small employers. On the other hand, SEPs, SIMPLE IRAs, and SIMPLE 401(k)s are specifically designed for small employers.

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  • 49. 

    Misrepresenting an insurance policy for the purpose of inducing a policyholder to lapse, forfeit, or surrender existing insurance is an illegal practice

    • A.

      Intimidation

    • B.

      Coercion

    • C.

      Twisting

    • D.

      Restraint of trade

    Correct Answer
    C. Twisting
    Explanation
    Twisting is the correct answer because it refers to the act of misrepresenting an insurance policy to convince a policyholder to cancel or surrender their existing insurance. This practice is illegal as it deceives the policyholder and can lead to financial loss or inadequate coverage. Intimidation, coercion, and restraint of trade are not specifically related to this practice of misrepresentation and inducing policyholders to lapse their insurance.

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  • 50. 

    If an act or practice appears to be unfair or deceptive, but there is no specific California citation prohibiting it, the Commissioner 

    • A.

      Cannot take action without a specific Code

    • B.

      May call for a hearing in the matter

    • C.

      May immediately issue an enjoin and restrain order

    • D.

      Must seek arbitration through the Attorney General's office

    Correct Answer
    B. May call for a hearing in the matter
    Explanation
    If an act or practice appears to be unfair or deceptive, but there is no specific California citation prohibiting it, the Commissioner may call for a hearing in the matter. This means that the Commissioner has the authority to investigate the situation further by holding a hearing to gather more information and determine if any action needs to be taken. This allows for a fair and thorough evaluation of the situation before any potential actions are decided upon.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 20, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    LAproprofpagina
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