National Board Study Questions

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National Board Study Questions - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following drugs concentrates in sulcular exudate?

    • A.

      Penicillin

    • B.

      Tetracycline

    • C.

      Keflex

    • D.

      Sulfa Drugs

    Correct Answer
    B. Tetracycline
    Explanation
    Tetracycline is known to concentrate in sulcular exudate, which is the fluid that accumulates in the gingival sulcus, a narrow space between the tooth and the gum. This drug has a high affinity for the gums and is able to penetrate the gingival tissues. As a result, it accumulates in the sulcular exudate, allowing it to effectively treat periodontal infections and other oral diseases. Penicillin, Keflex, and Sulfa Drugs do not have the same affinity for the gum tissues and therefore do not concentrate in sulcular exudate.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following drugs does NOT usually cause gingival enlargement?

    • A.

      Advil

    • B.

      Niphedipine

    • C.

      Dilatin

    • D.

      Cyclosporine

    Correct Answer
    A. Advil
    Explanation
    Gingival enlargement, also known as gingival hyperplasia, is a condition characterized by the overgrowth of gum tissue. While drugs like Niphedipine, Dilatin, and Cyclosporine are known to commonly cause gingival enlargement, Advil (ibuprofen) does not usually cause this side effect. Advil is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is commonly used for pain relief and reducing inflammation. Unlike the other drugs listed, Advil is not associated with gingival enlargement.

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  • 3. 

    Which incisal angle is more rounded, the distal or mesial?

    • A.

      Mesial

    • B.

      Distal

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesial
    Explanation
    The incisal angle refers to the angle formed by the cutting edges of the teeth. A more rounded incisal angle indicates a less sharp and more curved edge. In this case, the correct answer is "Mesial," suggesting that the incisal angle is more rounded on the mesial side of the tooth compared to the distal side.

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  • 4. 

    The height of contour on the facial surface of all anterior teeth are located on the:

    • A.

      Incisal third

    • B.

      Middle third

    • C.

      Gingival third

    • D.

      Proximal third

    • E.

      Occlusal third

    Correct Answer
    C. Gingival third
    Explanation
    The height of contour on the facial surface of all anterior teeth is located on the gingival third. This means that the highest point on the facial surface of these teeth is closer to the gum line or gingiva. The height of contour is an important consideration in dental anatomy as it affects the aesthetics and function of the teeth. Placing the height of contour on the gingival third helps to provide proper support and stability to the gingival tissues and ensures a natural appearance of the teeth.

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  • 5. 

    The smallest tooth in the permanent dentition is the?

    • A.

      Maxillary lateral incisor

    • B.

      Mandibular lateral incisor

    • C.

      Mandibular central incisor

    • D.

      Maxillary third molar

    • E.

      Mandibular third molar

    Correct Answer
    C. Mandibular central incisor
    Explanation
    The mandibular central incisor is the smallest tooth in the permanent dentition. This tooth is located in the lower jaw and is the most anterior tooth in the mandibular arch. It is smaller in size compared to the other teeth in the permanent dentition, including the maxillary lateral incisor, mandibular lateral incisor, maxillary third molar, and mandibular third molar.

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  • 6. 

    Which tissue covers the root of the tooth?

    • A.

      Pulp

    • B.

      Bone

    • C.

      Dentin

    • D.

      Enamel

    • E.

      Cementum

    Correct Answer
    E. Cementum
    Explanation
    Cementum is the correct answer because it is the tissue that covers the root of the tooth. Cementum is a hard, calcified substance that helps anchor the tooth to the surrounding bone and provides protection to the root. It is a vital component of the tooth structure and plays a crucial role in maintaining the tooth's stability and function.

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  • 7. 

    The largest root of the mandibular first molar is the?

    • A.

      Mesial root

    • B.

      Distal root

    • C.

      Palatal root

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesial root
    Explanation
    The largest root of the mandibular first molar is the mesial root. The mandibular first molar typically has two roots, the mesial root and the distal root. However, the mesial root is usually larger and stronger compared to the distal root. The palatal root is not applicable in this case as it is a feature of maxillary molars, not mandibular molars.

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  • 8. 

    A certain premolar has a buccolingual crown dimension which is larger bucccolingually than mesiodistally, and is generally larger than the other premolar in the same arch is?

    • A.

      Maxillary first premolar

    • B.

      Maxillary second premolar

    • C.

      Mandibular first premolar

    • D.

      Mandibular second premolar

    Correct Answer
    A. Maxillary first premolar
    Explanation
    The maxillary first premolar is generally larger buccolingually than mesiodistally and is also larger than the other premolar in the same arch. This is because the maxillary first premolar has a larger occlusal surface and more complex anatomy compared to the maxillary second premolar and the premolars in the mandibular arch. The larger size of the maxillary first premolar allows it to withstand greater chewing forces and perform more functions such as grinding and crushing food.

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  • 9. 

    The buccal cusp ridge of the lingual cusp of the maxillary premolars is also known as a(n)?

    • A.

      Lingual ridge

    • B.

      Oblique ridge

    • C.

      Marginal ridge

    • D.

      Triangular ridge

    • E.

      Transverse ridge

    Correct Answer
    D. Triangular ridge
    Explanation
    The buccal cusp ridge of the lingual cusp of the maxillary premolars is known as the triangular ridge. This ridge is located on the lingual surface of the tooth and extends from the tip of the lingual cusp towards the central fossa. It forms a triangular shape when viewed from the occlusal surface of the tooth. The triangular ridge helps to provide support and stability during chewing and biting forces.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following premolars usually has 3 cusps?

    • A.

      Maxillary first

    • B.

      Mandibular first

    • C.

      Maxillary second

    • D.

      Mandibular second

    • E.

      Both the mandibular first and second

    Correct Answer
    D. Mandibular second
    Explanation
    The mandibular second premolar usually has 3 cusps.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following types of ridges is unique to maxillary molars?

    • A.

      Transverse

    • B.

      Triangular

    • C.

      Cusp

    • D.

      Oblique

    • E.

      Occlusal

    Correct Answer
    D. Oblique
    Explanation
    The oblique ridge is a unique feature found only in maxillary molars. It is an elevated ridge that extends obliquely from the mesiolingual cusp to the distobuccal cusp. This ridge helps to provide support and stability to the occlusal surface of the tooth during chewing and grinding. It also helps to prevent food from becoming trapped in between the cusps. The other types of ridges mentioned in the options (transverse, triangular, and cusp) are not unique to maxillary molars and can be found in other teeth as well.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following should NOT be used to clean implants?

    • A.

      Yarn

    • B.

      Floss

    • C.

      Pipe cleaners

    • D.

      Rubber tip/gum stimulator

    Correct Answer
    C. Pipe cleaners
    Explanation
    Pipe cleaners should not be used to clean implants because they are not designed for dental use and may cause damage to the implant surface or surrounding tissues. Implants require special care and should be cleaned using non-abrasive tools such as floss, yarn, or rubber tip/gum stimulators that are specifically designed for oral hygiene. Using pipe cleaners can lead to scratching or loosening of the implant, which can compromise its stability and increase the risk of infection.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following BEST represents why the probe must be walked along the entire gingival sulcus?

    • A.

      Patient trauma is reduced

    • B.

      Operator efficiency is increased

    • C.

      Reintroduction of bacteria is avoided

    • D.

      Depth of epithelial attachment varies

    Correct Answer
    D. Depth of epithelial attachment varies
    Explanation
    The probe must be walked along the entire gingival sulcus because the depth of epithelial attachment varies. This means that the attachment of the gum tissue to the tooth can be different at different points along the sulcus. By walking the probe along the entire sulcus, the dentist or hygienist can accurately measure the depth of attachment and identify any areas of concern. This allows for proper diagnosis and treatment planning.

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  • 14. 

    At what AAP classification would you use likely take vertical BWX instead of horizontal BWX?

    Correct Answer
    AAP Type IV and above, or dependent on bone levels
    Explanation
    Vertical bone width expansion (BWX) is a surgical technique used to increase the width of the alveolar ridge in cases where there is insufficient bone for dental implant placement. In the context of the given question, the correct answer suggests that vertical BWX would be used in cases classified as AAP Type IV and above, or when bone levels are inadequate. This means that when there is severe bone loss or insufficient bone width, vertical BWX would be the preferred approach to create a suitable site for dental implant placement.

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  • 15. 

    The presence of purulant exudate indicates?

    • A.

      Acute inflammation

    • B.

      Chronic periodontitis

    • C.

      Deformans osteitis

    • D.

      Condensing osteitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute inflammation
    Explanation
    The presence of purulent exudate indicates acute inflammation. Purulent exudate refers to a thick, yellowish fluid that contains dead white blood cells, bacteria, and tissue debris. It is a characteristic sign of an active infection and is commonly seen in acute inflammatory conditions. Chronic periodontitis is a long-standing gum disease characterized by the destruction of the supporting structures of the teeth. Deformans osteitis refers to a condition where bone is being replaced by fibrous tissue. Condensing osteitis refers to a localized increase in bone density.

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  • 16. 

    When a patient returns for an evaluation following debridement, a dental hygienist notices bleeding and edema on the lingual and mesial of tooth #19.  Which represents the best treatment of choice?

    • A.

      Do a pulp test

    • B.

      Provide no treatment

    • C.

      Remove residual calculus

    • D.

      Probe the sulcus

    Correct Answer
    C. Remove residual calculus
    Explanation
    When a dental hygienist notices bleeding and edema on the lingual and mesial of tooth #19 following debridement, the best treatment of choice would be to remove residual calculus. Residual calculus refers to the remaining deposits of hardened plaque that can cause inflammation and lead to bleeding and edema. By removing these deposits, the hygienist can improve the patient's oral health and prevent further complications.

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  • 17. 

    A college student comes in during exams with severe pain, odor, a temperature of 101 degrees F, gingival bleeding and gingival ulceration.  Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Juvenile periodontitis

    • B.

      Herpetic gingivostomatitis

    • C.

      Apthous stomatitis

    • D.

      Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

    Correct Answer
    D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, such as severe pain, odor, gingival bleeding, and gingival ulceration, the likely diagnosis is necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. This condition is characterized by the inflammation and ulceration of the gum tissue, which can lead to severe pain, bad breath, and bleeding. The presence of a temperature of 101 degrees F suggests an infection, which is consistent with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. Juvenile periodontitis, herpetic gingivostomatitis, and apthous stomatitis may present with different symptoms and are less likely to fit the described scenario.

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  • 18. 

    A 35-year-old patient presents for a maintenance appointment.  Which of the following should be treated first?

    • A.

      Heavy plaque

    • B.

      Purulis lesion around tooth #3

    • C.

      Smoking habit

    • D.

      Class V caries on tooth #27

    Correct Answer
    B. Purulis lesion around tooth #3
    Explanation
    The purulis lesion around tooth #3 should be treated first. A purulis lesion is an infection or abscess in the gum tissue caused by bacteria. It is important to address this issue promptly to prevent the infection from spreading and causing further damage. Additionally, treating the purulis lesion will help alleviate any pain or discomfort the patient may be experiencing.

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  • 19. 

    Gingival hyperplasia is associated with which of the following histological findings?

    • A.

      An increase in cell numbers

    • B.

      An increase in cell size

    • C.

      An increase in nuclear number

    • D.

      An increase in nuclear size

    Correct Answer
    A. An increase in cell numbers
    Explanation
    Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an excessive growth of gum tissue. The correct answer, "An increase in cell numbers," explains that this condition is caused by an increase in the number of cells in the gum tissue. This means that there is an overgrowth of cells, leading to the thickening and enlargement of the gums. The other options, such as an increase in cell size, nuclear number, or nuclear size, do not accurately describe the histological findings associated with gingival hyperplasia.

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  • 20. 

    Neutrophil chemotaxis refers to which of the following events?

    • A.

      Formation of the neutrophil

    • B.

      Movement of cells

    • C.

      Adherence of the cell

    • D.

      Phagocytosis of the cell

    Correct Answer
    B. Movement of cells
    Explanation
    Neutrophil chemotaxis refers to the movement of neutrophil cells towards a specific chemical signal or gradient. This process allows neutrophils to migrate to sites of infection or inflammation in order to carry out their immune response functions. Chemotaxis is a crucial step in the immune response, as it ensures that neutrophils are directed towards the appropriate location where they are needed to combat pathogens or remove cellular debris.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is not a bacterial product?

    • A.

      Prostaglandin

    • B.

      Endotoxin

    • C.

      Exotoxin

    • D.

      Enzyme

    Correct Answer
    A. Prostaglandin
    Explanation
    Prostaglandin is not a bacterial product. Prostaglandins are lipid compounds that are derived from fatty acids and are produced by various cells in the body, including immune cells, but not by bacteria. On the other hand, endotoxin and exotoxin are both bacterial products. Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, while exotoxins are proteins secreted by bacteria that can cause damage to host cells. Enzymes can also be produced by bacteria as a part of their metabolic processes.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is NOT an appropriate surgical treatment for hyperplastic tissue

    • A.

      Gingivectomy

    • B.

      Laser tissue removal

    • C.

      Gingivoplasty

    • D.

      Bone grafting

    Correct Answer
    D. Bone grafting
    Explanation
    Bone grafting is not an appropriate surgical treatment for hyperplastic tissue because it involves the transplantation of bone tissue to repair or replace damaged bone. It is typically used to treat bone defects, fractures, or to promote bone growth, rather than to remove or reduce hyperplastic tissue. Gingivectomy, laser tissue removal, and gingivoplasty are all appropriate surgical treatments for hyperplastic tissue, as they involve the removal or reshaping of excess gum tissue.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is NOT a sign of occlusal trauma?

    • A.

      Decreased mobility

    • B.

      Recession

    • C.

      Radiographic widening of PDL

    • D.

      Tooth migration

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased mobility
    Explanation
    Decreased mobility is NOT a sign of occlusal trauma. Occlusal trauma refers to excessive forces placed on the teeth during biting or chewing. It can result in various signs, such as recession (gum tissue pulling away from the tooth), radiographic widening of the periodontal ligament (the space between the tooth and its surrounding bone), and tooth migration (shifting of the tooth position). However, decreased mobility, which refers to limited movement or stiffness of the tooth, is not typically associated with occlusal trauma.

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  • 24. 

    True or False.  Patients with diabetes are more susceptible to periodontal disease.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Patients with diabetes are more susceptible to periodontal disease because diabetes affects the body's ability to control blood sugar levels. High blood sugar levels can weaken the immune system and make it harder for the body to fight off infections, including gum infections. Additionally, diabetes can lead to reduced blood flow to the gums, which can further increase the risk of gum disease. Therefore, individuals with diabetes need to be extra vigilant about maintaining good oral hygiene and visiting their dentist regularly to prevent and manage periodontal disease.

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  • 25. 

    Of the following crown surfaces, which one exhibits the greatest curvature of its CEJ?

    • A.

      Mesial of #7

    • B.

      Distal of #11

    • C.

      Mesial of #25

    • D.

      Distal of #9

    • E.

      Mesial of #23

    Correct Answer
    C. Mesial of #25
    Explanation
    The mesial of tooth #25 exhibits the greatest curvature of its CEJ. The CEJ (cementoenamel junction) is the point where the enamel of the tooth meets the cementum. Curvature refers to the degree of bending or curving of a surface. In this case, the mesial surface of tooth #25 has the highest degree of curvature at its CEJ compared to the other options listed.

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  • 26. 

    During scaling and root planning, we would expect ____________________ based on the patient taking 8 aspirins/day?

    Correct Answer
    increased bleeding
    more bleeding
    Explanation
    During scaling and root planning, the process involves deep cleaning of the teeth and gums to remove plaque and tartar buildup. Aspirin is a blood-thinning medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, if the patient is taking 8 aspirins per day, we would expect an increased amount of bleeding during the scaling and root planning procedure.

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  • 27. 

    Casseous necrosis is most commonly seen in which of the following disease processes?

    • A.

      Tuburculosis

    • B.

      Pneumonia

    • C.

      Syphilis

    • D.

      Necrosis

    • E.

      Karyolysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Tuburculosis
    Explanation
    Casseous necrosis is most commonly seen in tuberculosis. This type of necrosis is characterized by the formation of a soft, cheese-like material in the affected tissue. In tuberculosis, the necrotic material is typically found in the center of granulomas, which are small nodules that form in response to the infection. This type of necrosis is caused by the body's immune response to the tuberculosis bacteria, leading to the death of infected cells and the formation of the characteristic caseous material.

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  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Feb 16, 2010
    Quiz Created by
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