Microbiology: Mycobateria And Other Bacteria With Unusual Growth Requirements

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Microbiology: Mycobateria And Other Bacteria With Unusual Growth Requirements - Quiz

This is a 50 item quiz. Time limit: 1 hour.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Runyon's classification of NTM are based on:

    • A.

      Colony texture

    • B.

      Colonial pigmentation

    • C.

      Epidemiology

    • D.

      Rate of growth

    • E.

      B and D

    Correct Answer
    E. B and D
    Explanation
    Runyon's classification of NTM is based on colony texture and rate of growth. Colony texture refers to the appearance and structure of the colonies formed by NTM on agar plates. This characteristic helps in differentiating between different species of NTM. Rate of growth refers to the speed at which NTM colonies grow on agar plates. This characteristic is also used to distinguish between different species of NTM. Therefore, the correct answer is B and D.

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  • 2. 

    Reservoir of M. kansasii

    • A.

      Humans with cavitary diseases

    • B.

      Tap water

    • C.

      Children

    • D.

      Natural waters

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Tap water
    Explanation
    M. kansasii is a bacterium that can cause lung infections in humans, particularly those with cavitary diseases. The reservoir of M. kansasii is tap water, meaning that the bacterium can be found in water sources such as faucets and pipes. It is important to note that M. kansasii can also be found in natural waters, but the primary reservoir is tap water. Children are not specifically mentioned as a reservoir for M. kansasii.

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  • 3. 

    Which does NOT develop pigment following exposure to light after being grown in the dark for more than 7 days?

    • A.

      M. asiaticum

    • B.

      M. kansasii

    • C.

      M. szulgai

    • D.

      A and B

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. M. szulgai
    Explanation
    M. szulgai does not develop pigment following exposure to light after being grown in the dark for more than 7 days.

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  • 4. 

    VeHabitat of M. scrofulaceum

    • A.

      Soil

    • B.

      Water

    • C.

      Raw milk

    • D.

      Dairy products

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". M. scrofulaceum can be found in various habitats including soil, water, raw milk, and dairy products. This bacterium is known to be widespread and can survive and grow in these different environments. Therefore, it is found in all of the mentioned habitats.

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  • 5. 

    Which is NOT true

    • A.

      M. gordonae is nonpathogenic

    • B.

      Mycobacteria are slow growers

    • C.

      Mycobacteria are nonpigmented

    • D.

      Mycobacteria contain N-acteylmuramic acid in their cell wall

    • E.

      Tuberculin testing is the primary means of identifying individuals with M. tuberculosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Mycobacteria contain N-acteylmuramic acid in their cell wall
    Explanation
    The incorrect statement is that Mycobacteria contain N-acetylmuramic acid in their cell wall. N-acetylmuramic acid is a component of the cell wall of bacteria in the phylum Firmicutes, but not in Mycobacteria. Mycobacteria have a unique cell wall structure that contains mycolic acids, which are responsible for their acid-fast staining property. This distinctive cell wall composition is one of the reasons why Mycobacteria are slow growers and can cause chronic infections. Tuberculin testing is indeed used to identify individuals with M. tuberculosis, making the other statements true.

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  • 6. 

    Which is does NOT belong to the Mycobacterium avium complex?

    • A.

      M. avium

    • B.

      M. lepraemurium

    • C.

      M. silvaticum

    • D.

      M. leprae

    • E.

      M. intracellure

    Correct Answer
    D. M. leprae
    Explanation
    M. leprae does not belong to the Mycobacterium avium complex because it is the causative agent of leprosy, while the other options are all members of the complex.

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  • 7. 

    Which is NOT true?

    • A.

      Translucent or tranparent colonies of MAC are more virulent than opaque colonies

    • B.

      M. leprae cannot be cultivated in vitro

    • C.

      Numerous AFB can be obtained from lesions of Tuberculoid leprosy

    • D.

      Wade-Fite technique is used for acid fast staining of paraffinized tissue

    • E.

      M. marinum grows at RT

    Correct Answer
    C. Numerous AFB can be obtained from lesions of Tuberculoid leprosy
    Explanation
    Numerous AFB (Acid-Fast Bacilli) cannot be obtained from lesions of Tuberculoid leprosy. Tuberculoid leprosy is a milder form of leprosy where the immune response is strong and the bacterial load is low. As a result, there are fewer AFB present in the lesions compared to other forms of leprosy. Therefore, this statement is not true.

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  • 8. 

    Specimen of choice for NTM

    • A.

      Sputum

    • B.

      Gastric aspirate

    • C.

      Urine

    • D.

      Fecal specimen

    • E.

      Bronchial washings

    Correct Answer
    E. Bronchial washings
    Explanation
    Bronchial washings are an appropriate specimen of choice for NTM (Non-Tuberculous Mycobacteria) testing because they provide a sample directly from the lungs. NTM infections primarily affect the respiratory system, so collecting a specimen from the bronchial washings allows for a more accurate diagnosis and identification of the specific NTM strain causing the infection. Sputum, gastric aspirate, urine, and fecal specimens may also be used for NTM testing, but bronchial washings are considered the most reliable and specific for detecting NTM in the lungs.

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  • 9. 

    Which is not a desirablespecimen for mycobacteria?

    • A.

      Gastric aspirate

    • B.

      Blood

    • C.

      CSF

    • D.

      24 hr urine

    • E.

      Semen

    Correct Answer
    D. 24 hr urine
    Explanation
    Mycobacteria is a type of bacteria that can cause diseases such as tuberculosis. When testing for mycobacteria, specimens that are commonly used include gastric aspirate, blood, CSF (cerebrospinal fluid), and semen. However, 24-hour urine is not a desirable specimen for mycobacteria testing. This is because mycobacteria are not typically found in urine and therefore testing this specimen would not provide accurate results for diagnosing mycobacterial infections.

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  • 10. 

    Specimen of choice for MAC in AIDS patients

    • A.

      Blood

    • B.

      CSF

    • C.

      Stool

    • D.

      Sputum

    • E.

      A and D

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood
    Explanation
    In AIDS patients, the specimen of choice for MAC (Mycobacterium avium complex) would be blood. This is because MAC is a systemic infection that can affect various organs, including the blood. Therefore, blood samples are commonly used to diagnose and monitor MAC infections in AIDS patients. Other specimens like CSF (cerebrospinal fluid), stool, and sputum may be used for specific cases or to assess the involvement of other organs, but blood is generally the preferred specimen for MAC testing in AIDS patients.

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  • 11. 

    Which is a mucolytic agent in decontamination and concentration?

    • A.

      N-Acetyl-L-Cystein

    • B.

      NaOH

    • C.

      Zerphiran Chloride

    • D.

      Trisodium Phosphate

    • E.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. N-Acetyl-L-Cystein
    Explanation
    N-Acetyl-L-Cystein is a mucolytic agent that is commonly used in decontamination and concentration processes. It helps in breaking down and thinning mucus, making it easier to remove from the body. This property of N-Acetyl-L-Cystein makes it useful in various medical and industrial applications where the removal of mucus or other thick substances is required. The other options, NaOH, Zerphiran Chloride, and Trisodium Phosphate, do not possess mucolytic properties and are not commonly used for decontamination and concentration purposes. Therefore, the correct answer is N-Acetyl-L-Cystein.

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  • 12. 

    A milder decontaminating solution allowing longer time period for decontamination

    • A.

      NALC-NaOH method

    • B.

      Benzalkonium Chloride-Trisodium Phosphate Method

    • C.

      Modfied Benzalkonium Chloride-Trisodium Phosphate Method

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    B. Benzalkonium Chloride-Trisodium Phosphate Method
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Benzalkonium Chloride-Trisodium Phosphate Method. This method is a milder decontaminating solution that allows for a longer time period for decontamination compared to the other methods listed. The NALC-NaOH method and modified Benzalkonium Chloride-Trisodium Phosphate Method may also be effective decontamination methods, but they do not specifically mention a longer time period for decontamination. Therefore, the correct answer is the Benzalkonium Chloride-Trisodium Phosphate Method.

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  • 13. 

    Which is NOT true?

    • A.

      For culture, use 2 solid media and 1 liquid media

    • B.

      Voided urine does not require decontamination

    • C.

      Bottle caps should be loose in the first 2 weeks of incubation

    • D.

      NaOH is a toxic decontaminating agent

    • E.

      B and D

    Correct Answer
    B. Voided urine does not require decontamination
    Explanation
    Voided urine does not require decontamination because it is a sterile sample that is collected directly from the bladder and does not come into contact with external contaminants. Therefore, there is no need to decontaminate voided urine before performing culture tests on it.

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  • 14. 

    Excellent medium for MOTT especially MAC

    • A.

      Lowenstein-Jensen with pyruic acid

    • B.

      L-J with iron

    • C.

      Bactec 12B medium

    • D.

      Mitchison's selective 7H 11

    • E.

      Wallenstein

    Correct Answer
    E. Wallenstein
  • 15. 

    Which is NOT correctly matched?

    • A.

      M. tuberculosis - tapered ends

    • B.

      MOTT - thicker and more beaded

    • C.

      M. avium-intracellulare - short and coccobacillary

    • D.

      M. kansasii - barber's pole appearance

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. None of the above
    Explanation
    All of the given options are correctly matched. M. tuberculosis is known to have tapered ends, MOTT (Mycobacteria Other Than Tuberculosis) is thicker and more beaded, M. avium-intracellulare is short and coccobacillary, and M. kansasii is associated with a barber's pole appearance. Therefore, none of the above options is incorrectly matched.

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  • 16. 

    A buff colored, slow growing, rough colony, and a positive niacin test is a preliminary ID for:

    • A.

      M. tuberculosis

    • B.

      M. bovis

    • C.

      M. kansasii

    • D.

      MAC

    • E.

      MOTT

    Correct Answer
    A. M. tuberculosis
    Explanation
    A buff colored, slow growing, rough colony, and a positive niacin test are characteristic features of M. tuberculosis. This bacterium is known for its slow growth and rough colony morphology. Additionally, a positive niacin test is a specific biochemical test used to differentiate M. tuberculosis from other mycobacteria. Therefore, based on these features, M. tuberculosis can be preliminarily identified.

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  • 17. 

    Which does NOT reduce nitrate?

    • A.

      M. tuberculosis

    • B.

      M. scrofulaceum

    • C.

      M. szulgai

    • D.

      M. fortuitum

    • E.

      M. kansasii

    Correct Answer
    B. M. scrofulaceum
    Explanation
    M. scrofulaceum is the correct answer because it does not reduce nitrate. Nitrate reduction is a metabolic process where bacteria convert nitrate (NO3-) into nitrite (NO2-) or other nitrogenous compounds. However, M. scrofulaceum lacks the necessary enzymes to carry out this conversion. On the other hand, M. tuberculosis, M. szulgai, M. fortuitum, and M. kansasii are capable of reducing nitrate.

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  • 18. 

    Heating at 68 degress Celsius for 20min inactivates catalase in:

    • A.

      M. bovis

    • B.

      M. tuberculosis

    • C.

      M. gastri

    • D.

      M. haemophlium

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    Heating at 68 degrees Celsius for 20 minutes is an effective method to inactivate catalase in various Mycobacterium species such as M. bovis, M. tuberculosis, M. gastri, and M. haemophlium. This process denatures the catalase enzyme, rendering it inactive. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 19. 

    Which are rapid growers?

    • A.

      M. fortuitum

    • B.

      M. gordonae

    • C.

      M. chelonae

    • D.

      B and C

    • E.

      A and C

    Correct Answer
    E. A and C
    Explanation
    M. fortuitum and M. chelonae are considered rapid growers. These organisms are capable of growing quickly and producing visible colonies within a short period of time. M. gordonae, on the other hand, is a slow grower and takes longer to form visible colonies. Therefore, the correct answer is A and C, as both M. fortuitum and M. chelonae are rapid growers.

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  • 20. 

    Inhibited by thiophene-2-carboxylic acid hydrazide

    • A.

      M. marinum

    • B.

      M. bovis

    • C.

      M. tuberculosis

    • D.

      M. asiaticum

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. M. bovis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is M. bovis. Thiophene-2-carboxylic acid hydrazide inhibits the growth of M. bovis. It does not inhibit the growth of M. marinum, M. tuberculosis, or M. asiaticum.

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  • 21. 

    Chlamydia are:

    • A.

      Cell wall deficient

    • B.

      Produce endotoxin and exotoxin

    • C.

      Obligate intracellular parasites

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      Only A and C

    Correct Answer
    C. Obligate intracellular parasites
    Explanation
    Chlamydia are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they cannot survive and replicate outside of a host cell. They rely on the host cell's machinery and resources to complete their life cycle. This makes them highly dependent on invading and infecting host cells in order to survive and reproduce. Chlamydia do not have a cell wall, which is a characteristic feature of many bacteria. They also do not produce endotoxins or exotoxins, which are toxic substances released by certain bacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is that Chlamydia are obligate intracellular parasites.

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  • 22. 

    Has pear shaped elemental bodies

    • A.

      C. psittaci

    • B.

      C. trachomatis

    • C.

      C. pneumoniae

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    C. C. pneumoniae
    Explanation
    C. pneumoniae has pear-shaped elemental bodies.

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  • 23. 

    Which is NOT true?

    • A.

      C. trachomatis causes trachoma

    • B.

      C. trachomatis has 18 species specific Ag while C. psittaci has 15

    • C.

      Chlamydia has tropism for columnar cells

    • D.

      Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by C. trachomatis

    • E.

      Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by C. psittaci

    Correct Answer
    E. Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by C. psittaci
  • 24. 

    Cell lines used in culture for C. trachomatis

    • A.

      HL cell line

    • B.

      HeLa cells

    • C.

      Hep 2 cells

    • D.

      McCoy cells

    • E.

      B and D

    Correct Answer
    E. B and D
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B and D because HeLa cells and McCoy cells are commonly used in culture for C. trachomatis. HeLa cells are derived from cervical cancer cells and have been extensively used in research, including studies on C. trachomatis. McCoy cells, on the other hand, are derived from the kidney of a dog and are also commonly used for culturing C. trachomatis. HL cell line and Hep 2 cells are not commonly used for culturing C. trachomatis.

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  • 25. 

    Levinthal-Cole-Lillie bodies are inclusions in

    • A.

      C. trachomatis

    • B.

      C. psittaci

    • C.

      C. pneumoniae

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. C. psittaci
    Explanation
    Levinthal-Cole-Lillie bodies are inclusions that are found in C. psittaci. This means that these bodies are not present in C. trachomatis or C. pneumoniae. Therefore, the correct answer is C. psittaci.

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  • 26. 

    Which is NOT true for C. pneumoniae

    • A.

      Causes walking pneumonia

    • B.

      Specimen of choice is sputum

    • C.

      Culture in Hep 2 cells and HL cells

    • D.

      Inactivated at RT

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Causes walking pneumonia
    Explanation
    The statement "causes walking pneumonia" is NOT true for C. pneumoniae. Walking pneumonia is typically caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, not C. pneumoniae.

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  • 27. 

    What is caused by Coxiella buernetti

    • A.

      Scrub typhus

    • B.

      Q fever

    • C.

      Rocky mountain spotted fever

    • D.

      Sennetsu fever

    • E.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    B. Q fever
    Explanation
    Coxiella burnetii is the bacteria that causes Q fever. This infectious disease primarily affects animals, such as cattle, sheep, and goats, but can also be transmitted to humans. It is typically acquired through inhalation of contaminated particles from infected animals or their products. Q fever can present with flu-like symptoms, including fever, headache, muscle pain, and fatigue. In some cases, it can lead to more severe complications, such as pneumonia or hepatitis. Therefore, Q fever is the correct answer as it is directly caused by Coxiella burnetii.

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  • 28. 

    Which is NOT true

    • A.

      Rickettsia and Ehrlichia do not undergo intracellular development cycle

    • B.

      Tsutsugamushi disease can be caused by R. orientalis

    • C.

      Scrub typhus is transmitted by the larva of trombiculid mites

    • D.

      Small cell variant and large cell variant of Coxiella are both infectious

    • E.

      Coxiella divides by transverse fission

    Correct Answer
    A. Rickettsia and Ehrlichia do not undergo intracellular development cycle
  • 29. 

    Causees Rickettsialpox

    • A.

      R. akari

    • B.

      R. rickettsii

    • C.

      R. tsutsugamushi

    • D.

      E. sennetsu

    • E.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. R. akari
    Explanation
    R. akari is the correct answer because it is one of the causative agents of Rickettsialpox. Rickettsialpox is a mild febrile illness caused by the bacteria Rickettsia akari. It is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mites. R. akari is commonly found in mice and mites that infest mice. The other options listed (R. rickettsii, R. tsutsugamushi, E. sennetsu) are causative agents of different diseases like Rocky Mountain spotted fever, scrub typhus, and ehrlichiosis, respectively, but they are not associated with Rickettsialpox.

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  • 30. 

    NOT true to the Weil-Felix Reaction

    • A.

      Uses proteus antigens

    • B.

      Significant titer is >1:160

    • C.

      There are false (-) reaction is proteus infections

    • D.

      It is used as a test for Ricketssia

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. There are false (-) reaction is proteus infections
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "there are false (-) reaction is proteus infections." This means that in cases of proteus infections, the Weil-Felix reaction may produce false negative results. The Weil-Felix reaction is a test used to detect antibodies against Rickettsia bacteria, not proteus antigens. A significant titer in this test is considered to be greater than 1:160. Therefore, the given answer accurately states that false negative reactions can occur in proteus infections.

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  • 31. 

    Calymmatobacterium granulomatis...

    • A.

      Causes granuloma inguinale

    • B.

      Forms painless lesions which bleed easily

    • C.

      Causes Donovanosis

    • D.

      Has a safety pin appearnace

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". Calymmatobacterium granulomatis is a bacterium that causes granuloma inguinale, a sexually transmitted infection. It forms painless lesions which bleed easily and has a characteristic appearance resembling a safety pin. Therefore, all of the statements mentioned in the options are correct.

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  • 32. 

    Which is NOT true?

    • A.

      Mycoplasma lacks a true cell wall

    • B.

      Mycoplasma is a pleuropneuominia-like organism

    • C.

      Mycoplasma has a fried egg apearance

    • D.

      Mycoplasma hyrdolyzes urea

    • E.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a mulberry appearance in mod. NYC medium

    Correct Answer
    D. Mycoplasma hyrdolyzes urea
    Explanation
    Mycoplasma hydrolyzes urea is not true. Mycoplasma is a group of bacteria that lack a true cell wall, making them unique among bacteria. They have a fried egg appearance due to their small size and lack of a cell wall. Mycoplasma pneumoniae, a specific species of Mycoplasma, has a mulberry appearance in mod. NYC medium, which is a type of culture medium. However, Mycoplasma hydrolyzing urea is not a characteristic of this group of bacteria.

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  • 33. 

    Media for Mycoplasma

    • A.

      SP-4 medium

    • B.

      Edward Hayflick agar

    • C.

      EMJH medium

    • D.

      Barbour-Stoenner-Kelly medium

    • E.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    E. A and B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A and B. SP-4 medium and Edward Hayflick agar are both suitable media for the cultivation of Mycoplasma. SP-4 medium is a liquid medium that contains a mixture of horse serum, yeast extract, and glucose, which provides the necessary nutrients for Mycoplasma growth. Edward Hayflick agar is a solid medium that contains horse serum, yeast extract, and agar, and is used for the isolation and cultivation of Mycoplasma. Both media provide the appropriate conditions for the growth and survival of Mycoplasma bacteria.

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  • 34. 

    True to leptospira:

    • A.

      Have Diaminopimelic acid

    • B.

      Do not have hooked ends

    • C.

      Microaerophilic

    • D.

      Use CHO as their carbon source

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Have Diaminopimelic acid
    Explanation
    Leptospira is a genus of bacteria that is known to have Diaminopimelic acid. Diaminopimelic acid is an amino acid that is found in the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls. This acid is not found in all bacteria, but it is a characteristic feature of Leptospira. Therefore, the statement "have Diaminopimelic acid" is a correct description of Leptospira.

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  • 35. 

    Which moves sluggishly with a drifting motion and flexous movements?

    • A.

      Treponema

    • B.

      Borrelia

    • C.

      Leptospira

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Treponema
    Explanation
    Treponema is the correct answer because it is a genus of bacteria that moves sluggishly with a drifting motion and flexous movements. Borrelia and Leptospira are also genera of bacteria, but they do not exhibit the same type of movement described in the question. Therefore, the correct answer is Treponema.

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  • 36. 

    EWhich is TRUE

    • A.

      T. pallidum subsp. pertenue causes syphilis

    • B.

      Treponema has intracytoplasmic tubules

    • C.

      T. carateum causes pinta

    • D.

      B and C

    • E.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. B and C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "B and C". This means that both the statement "Treponema has intracytoplasmic tubules" and the statement "T. carateum causes pinta" are true. The first statement refers to the fact that Treponema, the genus to which T. pallidum, T. carateum, and other species belong, has intracytoplasmic tubules. These tubules are structures within the cytoplasm of the bacteria. The second statement is true as well, as T. carateum is indeed the causative agent of pinta, a tropical skin disease.

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  • 37. 

    Uses reagin and cardiolipin

    • A.

      VDRL

    • B.

      Weil-Felix Reaction

    • C.

      Wasserman test

    • D.

      RPR

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Wasserman test
    Explanation
    The Wasserman test is used for the diagnosis of syphilis. It detects the presence of antibodies in the blood that are produced in response to the Treponema pallidum bacterium, the causative agent of syphilis. The test utilizes reagin and cardiolipin, which are substances that react with the antibodies present in the patient's blood. Therefore, the correct answer is Wasserman test.

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  • 38. 

    Causes lyme disease

    • A.

      B. hermsii

    • B.

      B. recurrentis

    • C.

      B. burgdorferi

    • D.

      Borrelia with 7-11 axial fibrils/cell

    • E.

      C and D

    Correct Answer
    E. C and D
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C and D. Borrelia burgdorferi is a bacterium that causes Lyme disease. It is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. Borrelia burgdorferi is known to have 7-11 axial fibrils per cell, which helps in its identification. Therefore, options C and D, which include Borrelia burgdorferi, are the correct answers.

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  • 39. 

    Which is NOT true to leptospira?

    • A.

      Is an obligate aerobe

    • B.

      Culture medium = Stewart's medium, Fletcher's medium and EMJH medium

    • C.

      Best specimen during the first week of infection is urine

    • D.

      Causes Weil's disease

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Best specimen during the first week of infection is urine
    Explanation
    Leptospira is a bacterium that causes leptospirosis, a disease that can affect both humans and animals. The given answer states that the best specimen to test for leptospira during the first week of infection is urine. This statement is NOT true because during the first week of infection, the bacteria may not have reached the urine yet. Instead, the best specimen to test for leptospira during the first week of infection is blood.

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  • 40. 

    Has cauliflower colonies

    • A.

      M. tuberculosis

    • B.

      M. bovis

    • C.

      M. bovis BCG

    • D.

      M. africanum

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. M. tuberculosis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "M. tuberculosis" because it is the only option that is specifically mentioned in the question. The question asks for the bacteria that has cauliflower colonies, and M. tuberculosis is the only bacteria listed. The other options, M. bovis, M. bovis BCG, and M. africanum, are not mentioned in relation to cauliflower colonies in the question. Therefore, the correct answer is M. tuberculosis.

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  • 41. 

    Treponema pallidum is cultivated

    • A.

      In vitro

    • B.

      In footpads of mice

    • C.

      Armadillo

    • D.

      Testicles of rabbits

    • E.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    D. Testicles of rabbits
    Explanation
    The correct answer is testicles of rabbits. Treponema pallidum, the bacterium that causes syphilis, can be cultivated in vitro (outside of a living organism) in the testicles of rabbits. This method allows for the study and experimentation on the bacterium in a controlled environment.

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  • 42. 

    M. leprae is cultivated

    • A.

      In vitro

    • B.

      In footpads of mice

    • C.

      Armadillo

    • D.

      In footpads of mice

    • E.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    E. B and C
    Explanation
    M. leprae is cultivated in vitro, meaning it is grown outside of its natural environment in a laboratory setting. It can be cultivated in the footpads of mice or in the footpads of armadillos. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C.

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  • 43. 

    True to Weil-Felix reaction

    • A.

      Diagnoses Weil's disease

    • B.

      Uses Proteus vulgaris antigen OX-19, OX-2 and Proteus mirabilis OX-K

    • C.

      False (+) in leptospirosis

    • D.

      A and B

    • E.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    E. B and C
    Explanation
    The Weil-Felix reaction is a serological test used to diagnose Weil's disease, which is caused by the bacteria Leptospira. This test uses Proteus vulgaris antigens OX-19 and OX-2, as well as Proteus mirabilis antigen OX-K. A positive reaction in this test indicates the presence of antibodies against these antigens, which suggests a possible infection with Leptospira. Therefore, options B and C, which include the antigens used in the Weil-Felix reaction, are the correct answer.

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  • 44. 

    Has a fried egg appearance EXCEPT

    • A.

      Mycoplasma genitalium

    • B.

      Ureaplasma urealyticum

    • C.

      Mycoplasma pneuomoniae

    • D.

      Mycoplasma genitalium

    • E.

      Mycoplasma hominis

    Correct Answer
    C. Mycoplasma pneuomoniae
    Explanation
    Mycoplasma pneumoniae does not have a fried egg appearance. This term is used to describe the characteristic appearance of mycoplasma colonies on agar plates, where the colonies have a central dense area surrounded by a translucent outer ring, resembling a fried egg. However, Mycoplasma pneumoniae colonies do not exhibit this appearance and therefore do not fit the pattern seen in the other options.

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  • 45. 

    Diagnosed by the cold hemagglutination test

    • A.

      C. trachomastis

    • B.

      C. psittaci

    • C.

      C. pneumoniae

    • D.

      M. pneumoniae

    • E.

      R. tsutsugamushi

    Correct Answer
    D. M. pneumoniae
    Explanation
    M. pneumoniae is diagnosed by the cold hemagglutination test. The other options, C. trachomastis, C. psittaci, C. pneumoniae, and R. tsutsugamushi, are not diagnosed using this specific test.

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  • 46. 

    Reiters syndrome is associated with

    • A.

      C. trachomatis

    • B.

      C. psittaci

    • C.

      C. pneumoniae

    • D.

      M. pneumoniae

    • E.

      R. tsutsugamushi

    Correct Answer
    A. C. trachomatis
    Explanation
    Reiters syndrome, also known as reactive arthritis, is an inflammatory condition that typically affects the joints, eyes, and urinary tract. It is commonly associated with an infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, a sexually transmitted bacterium. This infection can trigger an abnormal immune response in susceptible individuals, leading to the development of Reiters syndrome. Other pathogens listed in the options, such as C. psittaci, C. pneumoniae, M. pneumoniae, and R. tsutsugamushi, are not typically associated with Reiters syndrome.

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  • 47. 

    Susceptible to sulfonamides

    • A.

      C. trachomastis

    • B.

      C. psittaci

    • C.

      C. pneumoniae

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. C. trachomastis
    Explanation
    C. trachomastis is susceptible to sulfonamides.

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  • 48. 

    Causes post-operative infection after breast augmentation

    • A.

      M. kansasii

    • B.

      M. fortuitum

    • C.

      M. chelonae

    • D.

      M. asiaticum

    • E.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    B. M. fortuitum
    Explanation
    M. fortuitum is a type of bacteria that can cause post-operative infections after breast augmentation. It is known to be a common cause of surgical site infections, particularly in procedures involving implants. M. fortuitum is a rapidly growing mycobacterium that can contaminate surgical instruments, water, or other sources during the surgery. It can lead to symptoms such as redness, swelling, pain, and discharge at the surgical site. Prompt identification and treatment with appropriate antibiotics are crucial to prevent complications from this infection.

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  • 49. 

    Vector of the agent of scrub typhus.

    • A.

      Larval stage of lice

    • B.

      Larval stage of mites

    • C.

      Adult stage of lice

    • D.

      Adult stage of mites

    • E.

      Fleas

    Correct Answer
    B. Larval stage of mites
    Explanation
    The correct answer is larval stage of mites. Scrub typhus is a bacterial infection caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mites. The larval stage of mites is the stage at which they are most likely to be carrying the bacteria and can transmit it to humans. Therefore, the larval stage of mites is the vector of the agent of scrub typhus.

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  • 50. 

    Which are incubated in the dark?

    • A.

      Mycobacterium

    • B.

      Chlamydia

    • C.

      Leptospira

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A and B only

    Correct Answer
    E. A and B only
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium and Chlamydia are the only organisms that are incubated in the dark. Leptospira is not incubated in the dark.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 30, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Outsider_matthew
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