Abdominal And Small Parts Sonography Quiz!

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| By Mn.clark124
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Abdominal And Small Parts Sonography Quiz! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In what direction does the term caudal refer?

    • A.

      Towards the front or anterior

    • B.

      Reduced angle or bent joint

    • C.

      Away from the attachment

    • D.

      Away from the head

    Correct Answer
    D. Away from the head
    Explanation
    The term caudal refers to a direction away from the head. This means that when something is described as caudal, it is moving or located in a direction opposite to the head or towards the tail end of the body.

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  • 2. 

    What term means on the opposite side of the body?

    • A.

      Contralateral

    • B.

      Transverse

    • C.

      Oblique

    • D.

      Ipsilateral

    Correct Answer
    A. Contralateral
    Explanation
    Contralateral refers to the opposite side of the body. It is used to describe structures or conditions that are located on the opposite side of the body from a reference point. This term is commonly used in medical and anatomical contexts to describe the relationship between body parts or functions. For example, if a person has pain in their right leg, a contralateral movement would involve the left leg.

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  • 3. 

    Which term means towards the midline of the body or toward the median plane?

    • A.

      Lateral

    • B.

      Anterior

    • C.

      Proximal

    • D.

      Medial

    Correct Answer
    D. Medial
    Explanation
    The term "medial" refers to a position or direction that is towards the midline of the body or towards the median plane. In anatomical terms, the midline is an imaginary line that divides the body into left and right halves. Therefore, when something is described as medial, it means it is closer to the midline or towards the center of the body.

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  • 4. 

    Which term describes the application of sound to an object?

    • A.

      Isotropic

    • B.

      Irradiation

    • C.

      Insonation

    • D.

      Intensity modulation

    Correct Answer
    C. Insonation
    Explanation
    Insonation is the term that describes the application of sound to an object. This term is commonly used in medical imaging techniques like ultrasound, where sound waves are directed towards a specific area of the body to create an image. Insonation involves the transmission of sound waves and their interaction with the object, allowing for the detection and analysis of various properties such as density, shape, and movement.

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  • 5. 

    Which plane divides the body into right and left sections?

    • A.

      Sagittal

    • B.

      Oblique

    • C.

      Coronal

    • D.

      Transverse

    Correct Answer
    A. Sagittal
    Explanation
    The sagittal plane is the plane that divides the body into right and left sections. This plane runs vertically from front to back, dividing the body into symmetrical halves. It is commonly used in anatomical and medical studies to describe the orientation and location of body structures. The other options, oblique, coronal, and transverse, do not specifically divide the body into right and left sections.

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  • 6. 

    The term sonolucent is a misnomer when it is used to describe which echogenicity?

    • A.

      Isoechoic

    • B.

      Hypoechoic

    • C.

      Anechoic

    • D.

      Heterogeneous

    Correct Answer
    C. Anechoic
    Explanation
    Sonolucent is a term used to describe an area in an ultrasound image where sound waves pass through easily, resulting in a black or dark appearance. Anechoic is the correct answer because it refers to a structure or area that appears black or without echoes on an ultrasound image, indicating the absence of any sound wave reflection. Therefore, using the term sonolucent to describe anechoic echogenicity is a misnomer, as anechoic structures are actually devoid of echoes.

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  • 7. 

    What reference plane divides the body into right and left halves?

    • A.

      Transverse

    • B.

      Coronal

    • C.

      Horizontal

    • D.

      Sagittal

    Correct Answer
    D. Sagittal
    Explanation
    The reference plane that divides the body into right and left halves is called the sagittal plane. This plane runs from front to back and separates the body into two symmetrical halves. It is commonly used in anatomy to describe the positions and movements of structures within the body. The other options, transverse, coronal, and horizontal, refer to different planes that divide the body in different directions.

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  • 8. 

    Which plane is perpendicular to both the sagittal and transverse planes?

    • A.

      Longitudinal

    • B.

      Median

    • C.

      Oblique

    • D.

      Coronal

    Correct Answer
    D. Coronal
    Explanation
    The coronal plane is perpendicular to both the sagittal and transverse planes. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, while the transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower halves. The coronal plane, also known as the frontal plane, divides the body into front and back halves. Therefore, it is the only option that satisfies the condition of being perpendicular to both the sagittal and transverse planes.

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  • 9. 

    What term describes layers of flat fibrous sheets composed of strong connective tissue?

    • A.

      Fascia

    • B.

      Aponeurosis

    • C.

      Cartilage fibers

    • D.

      Deep membranous layer

    Correct Answer
    B. Aponeurosis
    Explanation
    Aponeurosis is the correct answer because it refers to layers of flat fibrous sheets composed of strong connective tissue. It is a type of dense connective tissue that serves to attach muscles to bones or other muscles. Aponeurosis provides strength and stability to the body, allowing for efficient transmission of forces generated by muscle contractions. It is commonly found in areas such as the abdomen, back, and scalp.

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  • 10. 

    Which bilaterally paired flat muscles are the innermost of the anterolateral abdominal wall muscles?

    • A.

      Rectus abdominis

    • B.

      Internal oblique

    • C.

      Pyramidalis

    • D.

      Transversus abdominis

    Correct Answer
    D. Transversus abdominis
    Explanation
    The transversus abdominis muscles are the innermost muscles of the anterolateral abdominal wall. These muscles are flat and are paired bilaterally. They are located deep within the abdomen and are responsible for providing stability and support to the abdominal region. The rectus abdominis, internal oblique, and pyramidalis muscles are also part of the anterolateral abdominal wall muscles, but they are not the innermost muscles.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the diaphragmatic crura is longer and larger?

    • A.

      Right crus

    • B.

      Left crus

    • C.

      Aperture crus

    • D.

      Medial crus

    Correct Answer
    A. Right crus
    Explanation
    The right crus is longer and larger compared to the left crus, aperture crus, and medial crus. The diaphragmatic crura are muscular bands that attach the diaphragm to the spine. The right crus extends further down the spine and provides more support to the diaphragm, making it longer and larger than the other options.

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  • 12. 

    In addition to a falling hematocrit, what is another clinical indication of a hematoma?

    • A.

      Lymphoma

    • B.

      Leukocytosis

    • C.

      Ecchymosis

    • D.

      Elevated enzymes

    Correct Answer
    C. Ecchymosis
    Explanation
    Ecchymosis is a clinical indication of a hematoma. Ecchymosis refers to the discoloration of the skin caused by bleeding underneath, often due to trauma or injury. It appears as a purple or blue bruise-like patch on the skin. This is a common symptom of a hematoma, which is a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels. The falling hematocrit mentioned in the question is another clinical indication of a hematoma, as it indicates a decrease in the volume of red blood cells in the blood.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is one of the three parts of an abdominal wall hernia? 

    • A.

      Content

    • B.

      Paraherniated cords

    • C.

      Location

    • D.

      Substance

    Correct Answer
    A. Content
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Content." In an abdominal wall hernia, the content refers to the organ or tissue that protrudes through a weakness or defect in the abdominal wall. This can include organs such as the intestines, omentum, or bladder. The content is what causes the visible bulge or lump that is characteristic of a hernia.

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  • 14. 

    What is the most common location for a hernia?

    • A.

      Quadratus lumborum

    • B.

      Diaphragm

    • C.

      Rectus abdominis

    • D.

      Inguinal

    Correct Answer
    D. Inguinal
    Explanation
    The most common location for a hernia is the inguinal area. An inguinal hernia occurs when a part of the intestine or abdominal tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the inguinal canal, which is located in the groin area. This type of hernia is more common in men and can cause a visible bulge or swelling in the groin region. Inguinal hernias may be caused by factors such as heavy lifting, straining during bowel movements, or weak abdominal muscles. Surgical repair is often necessary to treat an inguinal hernia.

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  • 15. 

    Which type of tumor can grow for a long time without evidence of clinical symptoms?

    • A.

      Neuroma

    • B.

      Sarcoma

    • C.

      Endometrioma

    • D.

      Lipoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Sarcoma
    Explanation
    Sarcoma is the correct answer because it is a type of tumor that can grow for a long time without showing any clinical symptoms. Sarcomas are often deep-seated tumors that develop in the connective tissues of the body, such as the bones, muscles, and blood vessels. They can grow silently for a significant period before causing noticeable symptoms, making early detection and diagnosis challenging.

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  • 16. 

    What condition presents with anechoic areas demonstrated on one or both sides of the chest superior to the diaphragm?

    • A.

      Pleural effusion

    • B.

      Eventration

    • C.

      Paralysis

    • D.

      Inversion

    Correct Answer
    A. Pleural effusion
    Explanation
    Pleural effusion is a condition where there is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This fluid can cause anechoic areas, which are areas that appear black on ultrasound, to be demonstrated on one or both sides of the chest superior to the diaphragm. Anechoic areas indicate the presence of fluid, and in the context of this question, it is suggestive of pleural effusion.

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  • 17. 

    How can the sonographer obtain better near field images of the abdominal wall?

    • A.

      Increase the Near field gain

    • B.

      Used transducer pressure

    • C.

      Scan with a stand off device

    • D.

      Select a lower frequency transducer

    Correct Answer
    C. Scan with a stand off device
    Explanation
    Using a stand off device during abdominal wall imaging can help the sonographer obtain better near field images. A stand off device is a gel pad or standoff pad that is placed between the transducer and the patient's skin. This creates a gap between the transducer and the body, allowing for better visualization of structures in the near field. By reducing the direct contact between the transducer and the patient's skin, the stand off device helps to eliminate artifacts and improve image quality.

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  • 18. 

    Which peritoneal layer lines the walls of the abdominopelvic cavity?

    • A.

      Omental

    • B.

      Visceral

    • C.

      Parietal

    • D.

      Ligamentous

    Correct Answer
    C. Parietal
    Explanation
    The peritoneal layer that lines the walls of the abdominopelvic cavity is called the parietal peritoneum. The parietal peritoneum is a serous membrane that covers the inner surface of the abdominal wall and pelvic cavity. It provides protection and support to the organs within the abdominopelvic cavity.

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  • 19. 

    What method would the sonographer incorporate to determine if the fluid is complex, loculated, or freely moveable?

    • A.

      Use multiple angles of incidence

    • B.

      Use a lower frequency transducer

    • C.

      Decrease gain settings

    • D.

      Increase overall power

    Correct Answer
    A. Use multiple angles of incidence
    Explanation
    To determine if the fluid is complex, loculated, or freely moveable, the sonographer would incorporate the method of using multiple angles of incidence. This technique involves changing the angle at which the ultrasound waves are directed into the body, allowing for a more comprehensive evaluation of the fluid. By examining the fluid from different angles, the sonographer can assess its characteristics and determine if it is complex (containing debris or solid components), loculated (confined to specific areas), or freely moveable (able to flow freely).

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  • 20. 

    Where does freely mobile fluid primarily drain?

    • A.

      Lesser sac

    • B.

      Dependent body side

    • C.

      Subphrenic spaces

    • D.

      Hepatorenal space

    Correct Answer
    B. Dependent body side
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Dependent body side." The dependent body side refers to the lowermost part of the body when lying down. In the context of fluid drainage, it means that the freely mobile fluid primarily drains towards the lowermost part of the body. This is because of gravity, which causes the fluid to move downwards. Therefore, the dependent body side is the area where fluid accumulation is most likely to occur.

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  • 21. 

    Which ascites are characterized by a high concentration of protein, cells, or solid material derived from cells?

    • A.

      Hydremic

    • B.

      Chylous

    • C.

      Exudative

    • D.

      Transudative

    Correct Answer
    C. Exudative
    Explanation
    Exudative ascites is characterized by a high concentration of protein, cells, or solid material derived from cells. This type of ascites occurs due to inflammation or infection, causing increased permeability of blood vessels in the peritoneum. As a result, fluid and other substances leak into the peritoneal cavity, leading to the accumulation of protein, cells, and solid material.

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  • 22. 

    What space separates the pancreas from the stomach?

    • A.

      Hepatorenal

    • B.

      Gastrorenal

    • C.

      Lesser compartment

    • D.

      Lesser sac ( omental bursa)

    Correct Answer
    D. Lesser sac ( omental bursa)
    Explanation
    The space that separates the pancreas from the stomach is called the lesser sac or omental bursa. This space is located behind the stomach and is formed by the layers of the lesser omentum and the greater omentum. It is an important anatomical space that allows for movement and communication between the different organs in the abdominal cavity.

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  • 23. 

    Sonographically, what may be observed when excessive and abnormal amounts of fluid are present in the peritoneal cavity?

    • A.

      To and from motion with respiration

    • B.

      Abdominal atrophy

    • C.

      Increased attenuation

    • D.

      Entrapped bowel loops

    Correct Answer
    A. To and from motion with respiration
    Explanation
    When excessive and abnormal amounts of fluid are present in the peritoneal cavity, sonographically, a to and from motion with respiration may be observed. This refers to the movement of the fluid within the peritoneal cavity that corresponds to the inhalation and exhalation of the patient. This motion can be visualized using ultrasound and is indicative of the presence of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.

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  • 24. 

    What term describes a large fluid collection observed when scanning the abdomen of a patient with the cardiac disease?

    • A.

      Ascites

    • B.

      Empyema

    • C.

      Abscess

    • D.

      Flatus

    Correct Answer
    A. Ascites
    Explanation
    Ascites is the correct answer because it refers to a large fluid collection that can be observed when scanning the abdomen of a patient with cardiac disease. Ascites is commonly seen in conditions such as congestive heart failure, liver cirrhosis, and certain types of cancer. It is caused by an imbalance in fluid regulation in the body, leading to the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity.

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  • 25. 

    What extrahepatic anechoic collection of bile is located within the peritoneal cavity?

    • A.

      Lymphocele

    • B.

      Seroma

    • C.

      Biloma

    • D.

      Hematoma

    Correct Answer
    C. Biloma
    Explanation
    A biloma is an extrahepatic anechoic collection of bile that is located within the peritoneal cavity. This can occur as a result of bile leakage from the biliary system, such as after a surgical procedure or trauma. It appears as a fluid-filled cavity on imaging studies, with no internal echoes. Treatment may involve drainage of the biloma and addressing the underlying cause of the bile leakage.

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  • 26. 

    What happens to the normal aorta as it progresses inferiorly? 

    • A.

      Plasticity increases

    • B.

      Diameter decreases

    • C.

      Walls become thickened

    • D.

      Joins other arteries and becomes larger

    Correct Answer
    B. Diameter decreases
    Explanation
    As the normal aorta progresses inferiorly, its diameter decreases. This means that the size of the aorta becomes smaller as it moves downwards.

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  • 27. 

    What instrumentation adjustment can help remove artifact echoes that may appear in the lumen of the abdominal aorta? 

    • A.

      Decrease time game compensation (TGC)

    • B.

      Decrease sensitivity

    • C.

      Use a longer focus transducer

    • D.

      Use a higher frequency transducer

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease time game compensation (TGC)
    Explanation
    Decreasing time gain compensation (TGC) can help remove artifact echoes in the lumen of the abdominal aorta. TGC adjusts the amplification of the ultrasound signal at different depths, allowing for better visualization of structures at different depths. By decreasing TGC, the amplification in the lumen of the abdominal aorta is reduced, which can help remove artifact echoes and improve the clarity of the image. This adjustment allows for better identification and evaluation of the abdominal aorta without interference from artifacts.

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  • 28. 

    On transverse scans, what is the course of the left renal vein?

    • A.

      Posterior to the aorta

    • B.

      Posterior to the inferior vena cava

    • C.

      Anterior to the superior mesenteric artery and posterior to the inferior vena cava

    • D.

      Between the superior mesenteric artery in the aorta

    Correct Answer
    D. Between the superior mesenteric artery in the aorta
    Explanation
    The left renal vein courses between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta on transverse scans.

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  • 29. 

    What is a possible explanation for a 63-year-old patient who presents with multiple low-level echoes within the aorta that persist with gain and sensitivity changes? 

    • A.

      Blood flow

    • B.

      Reverberations

    • C.

      Tortuous aorta

    • D.

      Thrombus within the aorta

    Correct Answer
    D. Thrombus within the aorta
    Explanation
    A possible explanation for a 63-year-old patient presenting with multiple low-level echoes within the aorta that persist with gain and sensitivity changes could be the presence of a thrombus within the aorta. A thrombus is a blood clot that forms within a blood vessel, and if it occurs within the aorta, it can cause abnormal echoes on an ultrasound. The persistence of these echoes despite changes in gain and sensitivity suggests that they are not due to reverberations or artifacts, but rather a real abnormality within the aorta.

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  • 30. 

    Which vessel lies posterior to the bile duct and anterior to the portal vein?

    • A.

      Hepatic vein

    • B.

      Hepatic artery

    • C.

      Cystic duct artery

    • D.

      Gastroduodenal artery

    Correct Answer
    B. Hepatic artery
    Explanation
    The hepatic artery is the correct answer because it is the vessel that lies posterior to the bile duct and anterior to the portal vein. The hepatic artery supplies oxygenated blood to the liver and is an important component of the liver's blood supply.

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  • 31. 

    In which vessel does an increase in blood flow occur after eating? 

    • A.

      Portal vein

    • B.

      Aorta

    • C.

      Superior mesenteric artery

    • D.

      Pancreatic artery

    Correct Answer
    C. Superior mesenteric artery
    Explanation
    After eating, blood flow increases in the superior mesenteric artery. The superior mesenteric artery is responsible for supplying blood to the small intestine, large intestine, and parts of the stomach and pancreas. When we eat, the digestive system requires more blood flow to aid in the digestion and absorption of nutrients from the food. Therefore, an increase in blood flow occurs in the superior mesenteric artery to meet the increased demand for oxygen and nutrients in the digestive organs.

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  • 32. 

    What condition may cause thrombosis with venous inflammation or trauma?

    • A.

      Valve damage

    • B.

      Venous stasis

    • C.

      Hypocoagulability

    • D.

      Capillaria permeability

    Correct Answer
    B. Venous stasis
    Explanation
    Venous stasis refers to the slowing or stagnation of blood flow in the veins. This condition can cause thrombosis, which is the formation of blood clots within the veins. When blood flow is slow or stagnant, it increases the risk of clot formation. These clots can lead to venous inflammation or trauma, resulting in thrombosis. Therefore, venous stasis is a condition that can cause thrombosis with venous inflammation or trauma.

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  • 33. 

    Most of the aortic aneurysms are?

    • A.

      Mycotic

    • B.

      Fusiform

    • C.

      Saccular

    • D.

      Thoracic

    Correct Answer
    B. Fusiform
    Explanation
    Fusiform aortic aneurysms are the most common type of aortic aneurysms. They are characterized by a gradual and symmetric dilation of the aorta, resulting in a spindle-shaped bulge. Mycotic aneurysms are caused by infection, saccular aneurysms are localized outpouchings, and thoracic aneurysms occur in the thoracic aorta. Therefore, fusiform is the correct answer as it represents the most common type of aortic aneurysms.

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  • 34. 

    What is the term applied to the aorta where there are areas of dilation less than 3 cm or irregular margins and a non tapering profile? 

    • A.

      Ulcerated

    • B.

      Ectatic

    • C.

      Mycotic

    • D.

      Aneurysmal

    Correct Answer
    B. Ectatic
    Explanation
    The term applied to the aorta where there are areas of dilation less than 3 cm or irregular margins and a non-tapering profile is "ectatic." This term describes a condition in which the aorta is abnormally dilated or stretched, but the dilation is not large enough to be considered an aneurysm. The irregular margins and non-tapering profile further support the diagnosis of ectatic aorta.

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  • 35. 

    What is the extent of the retroperitoneum?

    • A.

      From the coastal margins to the pelvic brim inferiorly

    • B.

      From the coastal margins to the symphysis pubis

    • C.

      From the diaphragm to the symphysis pubis

    • D.

      From the diaphragm superiorly to the pelvic brim inferiorly

    Correct Answer
    D. From the diaphragm superiorly to the pelvic brim inferiorly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "From the diaphragm superiorly to the pelvic brim inferiorly." The retroperitoneum is a space located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. It extends from the diaphragm, which is the muscle separating the chest and abdominal cavities, superiorly to the pelvic brim, which is the edge of the pelvis, inferiorly. This space contains various organs, such as the kidneys, adrenal glands, and parts of the digestive system.

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  • 36. 

    Which retroperitoneal compartment contains the pancreas, the ascending colon, and the descending colon? 

    • A.

      Posterior pararenal space

    • B.

      Anterior pararenal space

    • C.

      Parirenal space

    • D.

      Perinephric space

    Correct Answer
    B. Anterior pararenal space
    Explanation
    The anterior pararenal space is the correct answer because it is the compartment that contains the pancreas, the ascending colon, and the descending colon. The retroperitoneal compartments are divided into different spaces, and the anterior pararenal space is located in front of the kidneys and extends from the diaphragm to the iliac fossa.

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  • 37. 

     Which statement describes the perirenal or pariphrenic space?

    • A.

      It contains the pancreas and the ascending and descending:

    • B.

      It is between the renal fascia and transversalis fascia and contains fat

    • C.

      It contains the kidney, the renal vessels, the adrenal gland, periphrenic fat, aorta and inferior vena cava

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    C. It contains the kidney, the renal vessels, the adrenal gland, periphrenic fat, aorta and inferior vena cava
    Explanation
    The perirenal or pariphrenic space is the space between the renal fascia and the transversalis fascia. It contains various structures including the kidney, renal vessels, adrenal gland, periphrenic fat, aorta, and inferior vena cava.

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  • 38. 

     Which lymphatic nodes are located in the retroperitoneum? 

    • A.

      Mesenteric

    • B.

      Perisplenic

    • C.

      Gastrohepatic

    • D.

      parapancreatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesenteric
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Mesenteric. The mesenteric lymph nodes are located in the retroperitoneum, which is the area behind the peritoneum in the abdominal cavity. These lymph nodes are responsible for draining lymph fluid from the intestines and other abdominal organs. They play a crucial role in immune response and can become enlarged in certain conditions such as infection or cancer.

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  • 39. 

     Which of the following anatomical landmarks is important when determining the management of patients with lower extremity ischemia?

    • A.

      The level of superficial and profunda femoral artery by furcation

    • B.

      The bifurcation of the common iliac artery into the external and internal iliac arteries

    • C.

      The bifurcation of the common iliac vessels

    • D.

      The Inguinal ligament

    Correct Answer
    D. The Inguinal ligament
    Explanation
    The inguinal ligament is an important anatomical landmark when determining the management of patients with lower extremity ischemia. This ligament marks the transition from the lower abdomen to the upper thigh and serves as a reference point for identifying the location of various structures in the groin area. In cases of lower extremity ischemia, the inguinal ligament can help determine the extent and location of the arterial blockage, which is crucial for planning appropriate treatment strategies.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jul 20, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Mn.clark124
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