Semester Exam Pharm Tech Wisd

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1. What does FDA stand for?

Explanation

The correct answer is Food and Drug Administration. The FDA is a government agency in the United States responsible for protecting public health by ensuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and veterinary drugs, biological products, and medical devices. They also oversee the safety and labeling of food products, cosmetics, and radiation-emitting products. The FDA plays a crucial role in regulating and monitoring the production, distribution, and sale of these products to ensure they meet the necessary standards and do not pose any harm to consumers.

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About This Quiz
Semester Exam Pharm Tech Wisd - Quiz

The 'Semester Exam Pharm Tech WISD' assesses knowledge in pharmacology, focusing on medication identification, handling, and administration technologies. It tests understanding of generic drugs, packaging, IV solutions, chemotherapy... see morestorage, and migraine treatments, crucial for pharmacy technicians. see less

2. The drug information source for a pharmacy technician to check for a possible drug interaction would be?

Explanation

The Drug Facts and Comparisons is the correct answer because it is a widely used drug information source that provides comprehensive information on drug interactions, including potential interactions between different drugs. It is a trusted resource for pharmacy technicians to check for possible drug interactions before dispensing medications to patients. The other options, such as the Remington, the American Drug Index, and the Red Book, may also contain drug information, but they are not specifically known for their comprehensive coverage of drug interactions.

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3. Which of the following drugs is the generic form of coumadin

Explanation

Warfarin is the generic form of Coumadin. Coumadin is a brand name for the drug warfarin, which is commonly used as an anticoagulant medication to prevent blood clots. Therefore, warfarin is the correct answer as it is the generic name for the drug Coumadin.

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4. Which of the following workplace habits may contribute to making a prescription mistake?

Explanation

Multitasking may contribute to making a prescription mistake because it involves dividing attention between multiple tasks, which can lead to distractions and errors. When a person is multitasking, they may not give their full attention to each task, including filling prescriptions accurately. This can result in overlooking important details, misreading instructions, or making mistakes in medication dosage or labeling. Therefore, multitasking in a workplace setting can increase the likelihood of prescription errors occurring.

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5. AWP is the acronym for:

Explanation

AWP stands for Average Wholesale Price. This term refers to the average price at which a product is sold to wholesalers or retailers. It is commonly used in the pharmaceutical industry to determine the reimbursement rates for prescription drugs. The AWP is calculated by taking the average price of a drug across multiple wholesalers and is often used as a benchmark for pricing negotiations between manufacturers, wholesalers, and insurers.

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6. Which of the following injectable drugs would be stored in the refrigerator?

Explanation

Calcitonin - salmon is the correct answer because it is an injectable drug that needs to be stored in the refrigerator. The cold temperature helps to maintain the stability and effectiveness of the medication. Ciprofloxacin, cyanocobalamin, and clindamycin do not require refrigeration for storage.

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7. OSHA mandates that healthcare facilities have specific plans in place to protect heatlhcare workers from which of the following infectious diseases?

Explanation

OSHA mandates that healthcare facilities have specific plans in place to protect healthcare workers from Hepatitis B. This is because Hepatitis B is a highly contagious viral infection that can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or bodily fluids. Healthcare workers are at a higher risk of exposure to Hepatitis B due to their frequent contact with patients and potential exposure to blood and other bodily fluids. Therefore, OSHA requires healthcare facilities to have plans in place to prevent and control the spread of Hepatitis B among healthcare workers.

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8. What volume in milliliters of a drug for injection 250mg/10mL should be used to fill an order for 15mg?

Explanation

To find the volume of the drug needed, we can use a proportion. The given drug concentration is 250mg/10mL. We can set up the proportion as (250mg/10mL) = (15mg/x mL). Cross-multiplying, we get 250x = 150. Dividing both sides by 250, we find that x = 0.6 mL. Therefore, 0.6 mL of the drug should be used to fill the order for 15mg.

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9. Chemotherapy agents should be stored

Explanation

Chemotherapy agents should be stored in a separate identified area to ensure proper segregation and prevent any potential mix-ups or contamination. This helps in maintaining the safety and integrity of these potent medications. Storing them separately also allows for easy identification and access when needed, minimizing the risk of errors and ensuring that the correct chemotherapy agents are used for each patient.

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10. The auxiliary label for amoxicillin oral suspensions should contain which of the following instructions?

Explanation

The correct answer is "shake well" because amoxicillin oral suspensions often settle and separate, so shaking the suspension ensures that the medication is evenly distributed before administration. This instruction helps to ensure that the correct dosage is given to the patient.

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11. According to the DEA all record related to controlled substances must be maintained and be available for inspection for a minimum of how many years?

Explanation

According to the DEA, all records related to controlled substances must be maintained and available for inspection for a minimum of 2 years. This ensures that there is a sufficient recordkeeping period to track the distribution and use of controlled substances, allowing for accountability and regulatory compliance. By keeping these records for at least 2 years, it enables the DEA to monitor and investigate any potential misuse or illegal activities involving controlled substances.

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12. A patient presents a prescription for alendronate 70 mg with directions "1 tab PO q Wk".How many must be dispensed for a 3 month supply?

Explanation

The prescription states to take 1 tablet of alendronate 70 mg orally every week. To calculate the number of tablets needed for a 3-month supply, we need to determine the number of weeks in 3 months. Since there are 4 weeks in a month, 3 months would have a total of 12 weeks. Therefore, 12 tablets must be dispensed for a 3-month supply.

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13. Special IV tubing is recommended for the administration of :

Explanation

Special IV tubing is recommended for the administration of nitroglycerin because it is a highly potent medication that is sensitive to light, heat, and plasticizers commonly found in regular IV tubing. Special tubing, known as non-PVC tubing, is made of materials that do not react with nitroglycerin and help maintain its stability and efficacy. Using regular tubing can lead to degradation of the medication, reducing its effectiveness and potentially causing harm to the patient. Therefore, it is important to use special IV tubing specifically designed for nitroglycerin administration.

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14. A pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for eyedrops that reads "2 gtt OD tid"  How many drops will the patient use a day?

Explanation

The prescription indicates that the patient should use 2 drops in the right eye (OD) three times a day (tid). Therefore, the patient will use a total of 6 drops per day.

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15. Which of the following is a common symptom of Digoxin (dig) toxicity?

Explanation

Nausea is a common symptom of Digoxin (dig) toxicity. Digoxin is a medication used to treat heart conditions, but an overdose or toxicity can occur, leading to various symptoms. Nausea is a common symptom in cases of digoxin toxicity, along with other symptoms such as vomiting, loss of appetite, and abdominal pain. It is important to recognize and treat digoxin toxicity promptly to prevent further complications.

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16. A package insert contains instructions to store medication at 10 degrees Celsius. What is the temperature in degrees Fahrenheit

Explanation

The temperature in degrees Fahrenheit is 50. To convert Celsius to Fahrenheit, you can use the formula: F = (C * 9/5) + 32. In this case, 10 degrees Celsius would be (10 * 9/5) + 32 = 50 degrees Fahrenheit.

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17. Which of the following is an administration route for insulin?

Explanation

Subcutaneously is a correct administration route for insulin. This means that insulin is injected into the layer of fat just below the skin. This route allows for the slow and consistent absorption of insulin into the bloodstream, providing a more stable blood sugar level. It is a commonly used route for insulin administration due to its convenience and effectiveness.

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18. The last 2 numbers of the NDC# indicate

Explanation

The last 2 numbers of the NDC# indicate the package size. This means that the numbers provide information about the quantity or volume of the product contained in the package. The NDC# is a unique identifier for pharmaceutical products, and the last 2 numbers specifically represent the size of the package in which the product is sold.

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19. A common side effect of magnesium-based antacid is____________.

Explanation

A common side effect of magnesium-based antacids is diarrhea. This is because magnesium can have a laxative effect on the digestive system, leading to loose and watery stools. Antacids containing magnesium can increase the amount of water in the intestines, which can result in diarrhea. It is important to note that not everyone will experience this side effect, as individual reactions to medications can vary.

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20. What is the proper way to write Coumadin five milligrams to prevent a medication error

Explanation

The proper way to write Coumadin five milligrams is 5 mg. This is the correct answer because milligrams (mg) is the appropriate unit of measurement for medication dosage.

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21. What does the term inventory mean?

Explanation

The term inventory refers to a list of all items available for sale. It includes a comprehensive record of all products or goods that a business has in stock and is ready to be sold to customers. This list helps businesses keep track of their available stock, manage their supply chain, and ensure efficient sales and customer service.

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22. Which of the following is not a side effect of Augmentin?

Explanation

Augmentin is an antibiotic medication that is commonly prescribed to treat bacterial infections. It is known to have several side effects, including diarrhea, rash, and allergic reactions. However, constipation is not typically listed as a side effect of Augmentin. This means that while Augmentin may cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea, it is unlikely to cause constipation.

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23. All of the following drugs are classified as an NSAID except:

Explanation

Soma is not classified as an NSAID because it is a muscle relaxant. NSAIDs, or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, are a class of medications that reduce inflammation, pain, and fever. Naproxen, Ibuprofen, and Mobic are all NSAIDs commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation. However, Soma works by blocking pain sensations between the nerves and the brain, making it a different type of medication than the other options listed.

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24. Which of the following is the generic name for Fosamax?

Explanation

Alendronate is the generic name for Fosamax. Generic names are the non-proprietary names given to drugs, which are usually derived from the drug's chemical composition. In this case, Fosamax is the brand name for the drug, while Alendronate is the generic name. The other options, Raloxifene, Allopurinol, and Aspirin, are different drugs with their own generic and brand names, and are not related to Fosamax.

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25. Which of the following is responsible for drug recalls?

Explanation

The FDA (Food and Drug Administration) is responsible for drug recalls. The FDA is a government agency that regulates and supervises the safety and effectiveness of drugs in the United States. They have the authority to recall drugs if they are found to be unsafe or ineffective, or if they violate any regulations or standards. The FDA plays a crucial role in protecting public health by ensuring that drugs on the market are safe and effective for use.

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26. Which classifications of medication may have side effects such as dry mouth, difficult urination, and constipation

Explanation

Anticholinergics are a classification of medication that can cause side effects such as dry mouth, difficult urination, and constipation. These medications work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that plays a role in various bodily functions including saliva production, urinary function, and bowel movements. By blocking the action of acetylcholine, anticholinergics can lead to a decrease in saliva production, making the mouth feel dry. They can also affect the muscles involved in urination, leading to difficulty in emptying the bladder, and affect the muscles in the digestive system, causing constipation.

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27. Niacin is which B vitamin?

Explanation

Niacin is also known as vitamin B3. It is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in energy production and metabolism. Niacin is important for maintaining healthy skin, nerves, and digestive system. It also helps in lowering cholesterol levels and improving cardiovascular health. Therefore, the correct answer is B3.

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28. The correct strength in a sodium chloride in a normal saline IV bag is 

Explanation

The correct strength in a sodium chloride in a normal saline IV bag is 0.9%. This concentration is commonly used in medical settings as it closely resembles the salt concentration in the human body. It is considered isotonic, meaning it has the same osmotic pressure as bodily fluids, making it safe for intravenous administration without causing damage to cells or altering fluid balance.

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29. Which of the following does HIPAA set standards to protect?

Explanation

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) sets standards to protect PHI (Protected Health Information). PHI includes any individually identifiable health information that is created, received, or maintained by a covered entity (such as healthcare providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses). HIPAA ensures the privacy and security of PHI by establishing guidelines for its use, disclosure, and protection. This includes measures to safeguard electronic PHI and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure, thereby ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of individuals' health information.

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30. A pharmacy can receive a prescription by all of the following methods except:

Explanation

A pharmacy cannot receive a prescription by the patient calling it in. This is because it is important for the prescription to be verified and confirmed by the physician before it can be filled. The other methods mentioned - faxed in from the doctor's office, called in by the physician's designated staff, and called in by the physician - allow for this verification process to take place. However, if the patient were to call in the prescription themselves, there would be no way to ensure that it is accurate and appropriate for their condition.

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31. Which of the following deals specifically with practicing pharmacist and requires pharmacists to counsel all patients receiving new prescriptions?

Explanation

OBRA, which stands for the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act, deals specifically with practicing pharmacists and requires them to counsel all patients receiving new prescriptions. This legislation was enacted in 1990 to improve the quality of care provided to Medicaid patients, and one of its provisions is the requirement for pharmacists to offer counseling to patients about their medications. This ensures that patients have a clear understanding of their prescriptions and any potential side effects or interactions. The FDA (Food and Drug Administration) is a regulatory agency responsible for ensuring the safety and efficacy of drugs, but it does not specifically address pharmacist counseling. PPPA (Poison Prevention Packaging Act) requires child-resistant packaging for certain medications and household products, while the DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing controlled substance laws and regulations.

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32. How often can a schedule III to V medication be refilled?

Explanation

A schedule III to V medication can be refilled up to 5 times in a 6-month period. This means that the prescription can be filled and refilled up to 5 times within a span of 6 months. After reaching the maximum number of refills or the 6-month period, a new prescription would be required to continue obtaining the medication.

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33. Which form is used to report theft or loss of controlled substances?

Explanation

DEA 106 is the correct form used to report theft or loss of controlled substances. This form is specifically designed for registrants to report any loss or theft of controlled substances to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA). It is important to promptly report such incidents to ensure proper investigation and prevent potential misuse or diversion of these substances.

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34. Which medication should be dispensed in its original brown container?

Explanation

Nitroglycerin is a medication that is sensitive to light and moisture. Therefore, it should be dispensed in its original brown container to protect it from these environmental factors. The brown container helps to block out light and prevent moisture from entering, ensuring the stability and effectiveness of the medication.

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35. Which of the following pregnancy risk level meant the drug is a definite risk?

Explanation

The pregnancy risk level "X" indicates that the drug is a definite risk during pregnancy. This means that studies have shown evidence of fetal abnormalities or adverse effects on the fetus when the drug is taken during pregnancy. Pregnant women should avoid taking drugs with this risk level to minimize potential harm to the developing baby.

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36. When an order is received in the pharmacy, the order invoice must be carefully checked against the?

Explanation

The purchase order is a document that specifies the details of the order placed by the pharmacy. When an order is received, it is important to check the order invoice against the purchase order to ensure accuracy. This helps in verifying the items ordered, quantities, prices, and any special instructions. By comparing the invoice with the purchase order, any discrepancies or errors can be identified and resolved, ensuring that the correct items are received and billed for. Checking against the purchase order helps maintain inventory accuracy and prevents any issues with stock management.

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37. A physician asks you to prepare 15g of Benadryl 0.5% cream.Benadryl 1% cream is available over the counter.How many grams of Benadryl will be needed to complete this order?

Explanation

To prepare the 0.5% cream, we need to dilute the 1% cream by half. This means that for every 1g of 1% cream, we need to add 1g of a diluent to make it 0.5%. Therefore, to prepare 15g of 0.5% cream, we need 15g of the 1% cream and 15g of the diluent. Since the question asks for the amount of Benadryl needed, we only need to consider the 1% cream. Therefore, we need 15g of Benadryl, which is equivalent to the 7.5g of the 1% cream.

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38. In the Orange Book the letters "AB" ratings indicate that products are

Explanation

The correct answer is "considered bio-equivalent." In the Orange Book, the letters "AB" ratings indicate that products are considered bio-equivalent. Bio-equivalence means that two pharmaceutical products contain the same active ingredient(s) in the same strength or concentration, and they have similar bioavailability when administered to patients under the same conditions. This rating suggests that these products are expected to have the same therapeutic effect and safety profile.

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39. The information contained in the manufacturer's package insert may also be found in the..

Explanation

The Physician's Desk Reference (PDR) is a comprehensive reference book that contains information about prescription drugs, including their indications, dosages, side effects, and contraindications. It is commonly used by healthcare professionals as a trusted source of drug information. Since the manufacturer's package insert also contains detailed information about a drug, it is likely that the same information can be found in the PDR. Therefore, the PDR is a reliable resource to find the information contained in the manufacturer's package insert.

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40. The primary routing mechanism for a real-time third party prescription claim is a__________

Explanation

The primary routing mechanism for a real-time third party prescription claim is the BIN (Bank Identification Number). This number is used to identify the pharmacy and the insurance plan involved in the transaction. It helps in ensuring that the claim is processed correctly and efficiently. The BIN is an essential component in the electronic communication between the pharmacy, insurance provider, and the claims processor, allowing for seamless and accurate prescription claim processing.

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41. The requirement that a non-formulary medication be covered only if approved by the third party payer is called a?

Explanation

Prior authorization is the requirement that a non-formulary medication be covered only if approved by the third party payer. This means that before a patient can receive a non-formulary medication, their healthcare provider must obtain approval from the insurance company or other third party payer. This is done to ensure that the medication is medically necessary and appropriate for the patient's condition, and to control costs by limiting the use of expensive or non-preferred medications.

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42. Under which part of Medicare may durable medical equipment (DME) be reimbursed to the pharmacy?

Explanation

Durable medical equipment (DME) may be reimbursed to the pharmacy under Part B of Medicare. Part B covers medically necessary services and supplies, including DME, that are needed to diagnose or treat a medical condition. This includes items such as wheelchairs, walkers, and oxygen equipment. Part B is different from Part A, which covers hospital stays and inpatient care. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

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43. The information contained in the manufacture's package insert may also be found in the ...

Explanation

The Physician's Desk Reference (PDR) is a comprehensive reference book that contains information about prescription drugs, including their indications, dosages, side effects, and contraindications. It is commonly used by healthcare professionals as a trusted source of information about medications. Therefore, it is likely that the information contained in the manufacturer's package insert can also be found in the PDR.

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44. Which of the following is the generic name for Evista?

Explanation

Raloxifene is the generic name for Evista. The other options listed (Allopurinol, Aspirin, and Alendronate) are not generic names for Evista.

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45. How many continuing education hours does a technician need to complete in order to be eligible to re-certify?

Explanation

A technician needs to complete 20 hours of continuing education in order to be eligible to re-certify. This means that they must engage in educational activities related to their field for a total of 20 hours. These activities could include attending workshops, conferences, or online courses, or participating in other forms of professional development. By completing these hours, the technician demonstrates their commitment to staying up-to-date with the latest advancements and knowledge in their field, which is crucial for maintaining their certification.

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46. An outpatient prescription requires which of the following

Explanation

An outpatient prescription requires the physician's phone number and address because this information is necessary for the pharmacist to contact the prescribing doctor if there are any questions or concerns about the prescription. Additionally, the physician's address is needed for record-keeping purposes and to ensure that the prescription is being issued by a legitimate healthcare provider. The medical conditions, pharmacy address and phone number, and medication lot number are not typically required for an outpatient prescription.

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47. Which of the following would the prescriber need to provide their DEA number for?

Explanation

The prescriber would need to provide their DEA number for both Suboxone and Zolpidem. The DEA number is required for controlled substances, and both Suboxone and Zolpidem fall under this category. Controlled substances have the potential for abuse and dependence, so the DEA number helps to regulate and track their distribution.

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48. Among the following, which is not considered and antiviral medication?

Explanation

Clotrimazole is not considered an antiviral medication because it is an antifungal medication. It is commonly used to treat fungal infections such as athlete's foot, ringworm, and yeast infections. Antiviral medications, on the other hand, are specifically designed to target and inhibit the growth of viruses in the body. Acyclovir, Didanosine, and Zidovudine are examples of antiviral medications that are used to treat viral infections such as herpes, HIV, and hepatitis.

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49. Which of the following insurance providers is a federally funded?

Explanation

Medicaid is a federally funded insurance provider that offers health coverage to low-income individuals and families. It is a joint program between the federal government and individual states, with the federal government providing a significant portion of the funding. Medicaid aims to ensure that vulnerable populations have access to necessary healthcare services, and it operates under specific guidelines and regulations set by the federal government. Unlike Blue Cross Blue Shield, United Health, and Aetna, which are private insurance providers, Medicaid is directly funded by the federal government.

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50. Calculate the last digit of the following DEA number AL264936__

Explanation

The last digit of the DEA number AL2649361 can be calculated by taking the sum of the digits and finding the remainder when divided by 10. In this case, the sum of the digits is 26+4+9+3+6+1 = 49. When divided by 10, the remainder is 9. However, the answer is 1, so there might be a mistake in the question or the given answer.

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51. What type of filter is used in a laminar flow hood?

Explanation

A laminar flow hood is a device used in laboratories and cleanrooms to provide a sterile and particle-free environment. The type of filter used in a laminar flow hood is a HEPA (High Efficiency Particulate Air) filter. HEPA filters are designed to remove particles as small as 0.3 micrometers with an efficiency of 99.97%. These filters are highly effective in trapping bacteria, viruses, and other contaminants, ensuring a clean and safe working environment within the laminar flow hood.

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52. How many refills are allowed on a schedule II medication?

Explanation

Refills are not allowed on a schedule II medication. A schedule II medication is classified as a highly addictive substance with a high potential for abuse. Therefore, these medications require a new prescription from a healthcare provider each time they are needed, and refills are not permitted.

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53. Which of the following concepts does federal law OBRA-90 require?

Explanation

Federal law OBRA-90 requires counseling. This means that healthcare providers are required to offer counseling services to patients in certain situations. OBRA-90 aims to improve the quality of care provided to individuals in long-term care facilities, and counseling plays a crucial role in ensuring that patients receive the necessary information and support for their healthcare needs. This requirement helps promote patient well-being and informed decision-making.

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54. Which of the following medications are included iPledge restricted drug program?

Explanation

Accutane and Claravis are included in the iPledge restricted drug program. This program is designed to prevent pregnancy while taking medications that contain isotretinoin, which is the active ingredient in both Accutane and Claravis. Isotretinoin is known to cause severe birth defects if taken during pregnancy. The iPledge program requires patients to take certain precautions, such as using two forms of contraception and undergoing regular pregnancy tests, to ensure the safe use of these medications.

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55. When a patient is required to go to a network healthcare provider, the patient would be insured through?

Explanation

A health maintenance organization (HMO) is a type of insurance plan that requires patients to go to a network healthcare provider for medical services. This means that if a patient is insured through an HMO, they would be required to visit healthcare providers within the HMO's network in order to receive coverage for their medical expenses.

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56. Which of the following serves as a guide to the specifications required for pharmaceutical manufacturing and quality control?

Explanation

The USP-NF (United States Pharmacopeia-National Formulary) serves as a guide to the specifications required for pharmaceutical manufacturing and quality control. It contains official standards for drug substances, dosage forms, and compounded preparations, providing information on the identity, strength, quality, and purity of pharmaceutical products. The USP-NF is widely recognized and used by pharmaceutical manufacturers and regulatory agencies to ensure the safety and efficacy of medications. It is an essential resource for maintaining quality standards in the pharmaceutical industry.

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57. Which of the following standards must be followed while compounding?

Explanation

GMP stands for Good Manufacturing Practices, which are a set of guidelines and regulations that ensure the quality, safety, and consistency of pharmaceutical products. These standards must be followed while compounding medications to ensure that the compounding process is carried out in a controlled and standardized manner, minimizing the risk of contamination, errors, and other quality issues. GMP covers various aspects such as personnel training, facility design, equipment calibration, documentation, and quality control procedures. By following GMP, compounding pharmacies can ensure that the medications they produce are safe, effective, and of high quality.

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58. The most appropriate container in ounces for dispensing 360mL of liquid medication is?

Explanation

To find the most appropriate container in ounces for dispensing 360mL of liquid medication, we need to convert 360mL to ounces. Since 1 ounce is equal to 29.57 mL, we can divide 360 by 29.57 to get approximately 12.16 ounces. Since we cannot have a fraction of an ounce, the closest whole number is 12. Therefore, the most appropriate container in ounces for dispensing 360mL of liquid medication is 12 ounces.

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59. The technology that automatically documents the administration of medication using electronic sensors is known as

Explanation

BCMA stands for Barcode Medication Administration, which is a technology that uses electronic sensors to automatically document the administration of medication. It involves scanning a barcode on the medication and the patient's identification to ensure the correct medication is given to the right patient at the right time. This technology helps to reduce medication errors and improve patient safety by providing real-time information about medication administration.

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60. Which of the following techniques reduces a medication into fine particles using a mortar and pestle?

Explanation

Triturition is the technique of reducing a medication into fine particles using a mortar and pestle. This process involves grinding or crushing the medication to create a powder or a fine consistency. Spatulation refers to the mixing of medications using a spatula, dilution is the process of reducing the concentration of a medication by adding a solvent, and crushing refers to breaking down a medication into smaller pieces. Therefore, the correct answer is triturition.

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61. The laminar flow hood should be given a thorough cleaning with isopropyl alcohol________

Explanation

The laminar flow hood should be given a thorough cleaning with isopropyl alcohol several times a day to maintain a clean and sterile environment. This is necessary to remove any potential contaminants and ensure the safety of the samples or materials being handled in the hood. Regular cleaning helps prevent the buildup of dust, particles, and microorganisms that can compromise the integrity of the hood and the experiments or processes being conducted within it.

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62. Antineoplastic medications should be prepared in which type of hood?

Explanation

Antineoplastic medications should be prepared in a biological hood because it provides a controlled environment that minimizes the risk of exposure to hazardous drugs. Biological hoods are specifically designed to protect the operator and the surrounding environment by filtering and removing harmful particles and vapors. This type of hood ensures the safety of the operator and prevents contamination of the medication during preparation.

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63. Serum potassium levels should be checked on patients taking which drug?

Explanation

Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, from the body. This can lead to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, it is important to regularly check serum potassium levels in patients taking furosemide to monitor and prevent any potential complications associated with low potassium levels.

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64. The label on a medication that has been re-packaged should include the_____________

Explanation

When a medication is re-packaged, it is important to include the generic name on the label. The generic name is the official, non-proprietary name of the medication, which is universally recognized and understood. This helps to ensure that the correct medication is being dispensed and administered, regardless of the brand or manufacturer. Including the generic name on the label also promotes transparency and allows patients and healthcare professionals to easily identify the medication and its intended use.

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65. A patient walks into your pharmacy and immediately starts complaining about an itch on her arm. She precedes to lift her sleeve up, and when she does you notice a rash. What is the best way to respond to the patient? 

Explanation

The best way to respond to the patient is by apologizing and informing them that you are unable to help them. You should then offer to get the pharmacist to assist them. This shows that you acknowledge their concern and are willing to find someone who can provide the necessary help and advice.

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66. Decipher the order below and choose the best day supply to submit to the patients insurance.  Physician order: Motrin 600 mg i po q4-q8h #24

Explanation

The physician order states "Motrin 600 mg i po q4-q8h #24", which means the patient should take Motrin 600 mg orally every 4 to 8 hours, and they need a supply for 24 doses. The answer "4" is the best day supply to submit to the patient's insurance because it represents the minimum number of days needed to cover the 24 doses, assuming the patient takes the medication every 4 hours.

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67. The average adult dose of Amoxicillin is 1g daily. Using Young's Rule, calculate the dose for a child that weighs 36 lbs. and is 48 months old.  

Explanation

Young's Rule is a formula used to calculate the pediatric dose of a medication based on the child's age and weight. According to Young's Rule, the pediatric dose is calculated by dividing the child's age in years by the sum of the child's age in years plus 12, and then multiplying it by the adult dose. In this case, the child is 48 months old, which is equivalent to 4 years. The child weighs 36 lbs. Using Young's Rule, the calculation would be: (4 / (4 + 12)) * 1000 mg = 250 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 250 mg.

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68. A patient has been prescribed eye drops for an eye infection.  The prescription reads: 0.15 mL ou daily.  How many drops does the patient need to instill in each eye?

Explanation

The prescription states that the patient needs to instill 0.15 mL of eye drops in each eye daily. Since 1 mL is approximately equal to 20 drops, 0.15 mL would be approximately equal to 3 drops. Therefore, the patient needs to instill 3 drops in each eye.

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69. A patient who is allergic to penicillin has a chance of cross sensitivity to which of the following medications?

Explanation

Cephalexin is a cephalosporin antibiotic, which is structurally related to penicillin. Cross-reactivity between penicillin and cephalosporins can occur in patients who are allergic to penicillin. Therefore, a patient who is allergic to penicillin has a chance of cross sensitivity to cephalexin. The other medications listed (moxifloxacin, doxycycline, azithromycin) do not belong to the same class as penicillin and are less likely to cause cross-reactivity in patients with a penicillin allergy.

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70. You have received the following physicians order:Amoxicillin 400 mg/5 mL for a 5 year old child.  The prescription reads: ii tsp po daily x 2 wks.  The stock bottle is 50 cc.  How many bottles need to be given to complete the above order?

Explanation

The prescription states that the child should take 2 teaspoons (tsp) of Amoxicillin orally (po) daily for 2 weeks. The concentration of Amoxicillin in the stock bottle is 400 mg/5 mL. To calculate the amount of medication needed for 2 weeks, we need to determine the total volume required. Since 1 teaspoon is approximately 5 mL, the child will need 2 tsp x 5 mL/tsp = 10 mL per day. Multiplying this by 14 days (2 weeks) gives a total of 140 mL required. Since the stock bottle contains 50 cc (which is equivalent to 50 mL), we need 140 mL / 50 mL = 2.8 bottles. Since we cannot give a fraction of a bottle, we need to round up to the nearest whole number, which is 3 bottles. Therefore, 3 bottles need to be given to complete the above order.

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71. Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?

Explanation

Dexlansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. Proton pump inhibitors are a class of drugs that reduce the production of stomach acid by blocking the enzyme in the stomach wall that produces acid. Dexlansoprazole specifically inhibits the proton pump, thus reducing acid secretion. Sucralfate, cimetidine, and metoclopramide are not proton pump inhibitors and have different mechanisms of action.

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72. Treximet is a combination tablet for treating migraines that contains naproxen and which other medication?

Explanation

Treximet is a combination tablet for treating migraines that contains naproxen and sumatriptan. Sumatriptan is a medication commonly used to treat migraines by narrowing blood vessels in the brain and reducing inflammation. It belongs to a class of drugs called triptans, which are specifically designed to target migraines. Ibuprofen, diclofenac, and acetaminophen are all common pain relievers, but they are not included in Treximet. Therefore, the correct answer is sumatriptan.

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73. The trade name fluoxetine is ____________

Explanation

Fluoxetine is the generic name for the antidepressant medication commonly known as Prozac. Prozac is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that is used to treat depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder, panic disorder, and other mental health conditions. It works by increasing the levels of serotonin, a neurotransmitter, in the brain, which helps to improve mood and reduce symptoms of depression. Prozac has been widely prescribed and is one of the most well-known and commonly used antidepressant medications.

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74. Medicare Part A is what type of Insurance?

Explanation

Medicare Part A is considered hospital insurance. This type of insurance covers inpatient hospital stays, skilled nursing facility care, hospice care, and some home health care services. It does not typically cover medications or medical equipment, which are usually covered under Medicare Part D and Medicare Part B, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is hospital insurance.

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75. This DUR rejection often occurs when a medication dose is not adjusted correctly for an elderly patient with liver failure.

Explanation

The correct answer is contraindication. Contraindication refers to a situation where a medication should not be used or adjusted for a specific patient due to certain factors, such as age or medical condition. In this case, the DUR rejection is occurring because the medication dose is not adjusted correctly for an elderly patient with liver failure, which is a contraindication for that specific medication.

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76. Mrs. James asked you to refill her GERD medication.  Which of the following medications on her profile will you refill

Explanation

The correct answer is Nexium because it is a medication commonly used to treat GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease). Cardizem is a medication used to treat high blood pressure, Premarin is a hormone replacement therapy medication, and Zoloft is an antidepressant. Therefore, Nexium is the most appropriate medication to refill for Mrs. James' GERD.

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77. Which of the following medication pairs makes safe use of tall man letters?

Explanation

Tall man letters are a technique used to reduce the risk of medication errors by highlighting the dissimilarities in the spelling of look-alike or sound-alike drug names. In this case, the correct answer is ALPRAZolam / LORazapam. By capitalizing the dissimilar letters in each drug name, it helps to differentiate between them and minimize the chance of confusion or administration errors.

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78. How much epinephrine is in 10 mL of a 1:10,000 solution?

Explanation

In a 1:10,000 solution, the ratio indicates that there is 1 part of epinephrine in every 10,000 parts of the solution. Since we are given 10 mL of the solution, we can calculate the amount of epinephrine by dividing 10,000 by 10 (to account for the 1:10,000 ratio) which equals 1,000. Therefore, there is 1 mg of epinephrine in 10 mL of the solution.

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79. What is the direction of the airflow in a horizontal laminar flow hood?

Explanation

The correct answer is "from the back of the hood to the front of the hood." In a horizontal laminar flow hood, the airflow is designed to move in a unidirectional manner, from the back of the hood towards the front. This direction ensures that any contaminants or particles are pushed away from the work area and towards the exhaust, providing a clean and sterile environment for the work being done inside the hood.

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80. The first 4 or 5 digits of an NDC number represent:

Explanation

The first 4 or 5 digits of an NDC number represent the labeler code. This code identifies the manufacturer or distributor of the medication. It is used to track and identify the specific company that produced the product.

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81. What does the acronym HIPAA stand for?

Explanation

The correct answer is Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. HIPAA is a federal law in the United States that was enacted in 1996. It aims to protect the privacy and security of individuals' health information, as well as to ensure the portability of health insurance coverage. The law establishes standards for the electronic exchange, privacy, and security of health information. It also provides individuals with certain rights regarding their health information and sets penalties for violations of the law.

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82. The name for the official list of medications approved for use in an institution is called ____________

Explanation

A formulary is the official list of medications approved for use in an institution. It serves as a reference for healthcare professionals to ensure that the medications prescribed are safe, effective, and appropriate for the patients. The formulary is typically developed and maintained by a pharmacy and therapeutics committee, which consists of healthcare professionals who review and select medications based on their clinical efficacy, safety, and cost-effectiveness. By having a formulary, healthcare institutions can standardize medication use, promote rational prescribing practices, and ensure consistent quality of care. The Orange Book is a publication that lists approved drug products with therapeutic equivalence evaluations, while the United States Pharmacopeia is a compendium of drug information and standards.

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83. A medicare patient hands you a brand name prescription with DAW 1 written on it.  The patient requests generic.  How is DAW 1 interpreted?

Explanation

The answer "brand name medically" is correct because DAW 1 stands for "Dispense as Written" and it indicates that the prescriber specifically requested the brand name medication. In this case, the patient prefers the brand name medication for medical reasons, rather than requesting the generic version.

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84. What do the following medication give an example of?  hydrOXYzine     hydrALAZINE

Explanation

The medications hydrOXYzine and hydrALAZINE give an example of tall man lettering. Tall man lettering is a technique used in medication labeling to highlight the differences between similar drug names that may look alike or sound alike. By capitalizing certain letters in the drug name, such as "OXY" and "ALAZ," it helps to differentiate between the two medications and reduce the risk of medication errors.

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85. How many milligrams of hydrocortisone are in a 30g tube of 2% hydrocortisone?

Explanation

The question asks for the amount of hydrocortisone in a 30g tube of 2% hydrocortisone. To find the answer, we need to calculate 2% of 30g. 2% of 30g is equal to 0.02 * 30g = 0.6g. Since 1g is equal to 1000mg, 0.6g is equal to 0.6 * 1000mg = 600mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 600mg.

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86. Which of the following is a valid DEA number for Dr. Thomas Jones?

Explanation

The correct answer is AT1234560. A DEA number is a unique identifier assigned to healthcare providers who can prescribe controlled substances. The DEA number consists of two letters followed by seven digits. In this case, "AT" represents the first two letters of Dr. Thomas Jones' DEA number, which is a valid format. The following seven digits, 1234560, make up the unique identifier.

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87. A physician wrote a prescription for a generic medication.  The patient wants the brand name medication.  Which DAW code do you use when billing the insurance?

Explanation

DAW 2 is used when the patient requests the brand name medication instead of the generic medication prescribed by the physician. This code is used to indicate that the prescription was not filled as written and a substitution was made.

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88. Which diuretic is potassium-sparing?

Explanation

Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic because it works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium in the distal tubules of the kidneys, while promoting the excretion of potassium. This helps to increase urine output and lower blood pressure without causing excessive loss of potassium. Hydrochlorothiazide, metolazone, and furosemide are not potassium-sparing diuretics, as they can cause potassium depletion due to their mechanism of action.

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89. Which DEA Form is used to dispense a controlled substance?

Explanation

Form 224 is used to dispense a controlled substance. This form is specifically for retail pharmacies, hospitals/clinics, practitioners, and teaching institutions. It allows them to apply for a DEA registration to dispense controlled substances. This form helps ensure that the dispensing of controlled substances is properly regulated and monitored to prevent misuse or illegal distribution.

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90. A medication was recalled for being defective.  What classification would this fall under?

Explanation

A Class I recall is the most serious type of recall issued by the FDA. It is used when there is a reasonable probability that the use or exposure to a defective product could cause serious adverse health consequences or even death. In the case of a medication being recalled for being defective, it would fall under a Class I recall because the defective medication poses a significant risk to the health and safety of the consumers.

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Which form is used to report theft or loss of controlled substances?
Which medication should be dispensed in its original brown container?
Which of the following pregnancy risk level meant the drug is a...
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A physician asks you to prepare 15g of Benadryl 0.5% cream.Benadryl 1%...
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The requirement that a non-formulary medication be covered only if...
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The technology that automatically documents the administration of...
Which of the following techniques reduces a medication into fine...
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Antineoplastic medications should be prepared in which type of hood?
Serum potassium levels should be checked on patients taking which...
The label on a medication that has been re-packaged should include...
A patient walks into your pharmacy and immediately starts complaining...
Decipher the order below and choose the best day supply to submit to...
The average adult dose of Amoxicillin is 1g daily. Using Young's Rule,...
A patient has been prescribed eye drops for an eye infection....
A patient who is allergic to penicillin has a chance of cross...
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Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?
Treximet is a combination tablet for treating migraines that contains...
The trade name fluoxetine is ____________
Medicare Part A is what type of Insurance?
This DUR rejection often occurs when a medication dose is not adjusted...
Mrs. James asked you to refill her GERD medication.  Which of the...
Which of the following medication pairs makes safe use of tall man...
How much epinephrine is in 10 mL of a 1:10,000 solution?
What is the direction of the airflow in a horizontal laminar flow...
The first 4 or 5 digits of an NDC number represent:
What does the acronym HIPAA stand for?
The name for the official list of medications approved for use in an...
A medicare patient hands you a brand name prescription with DAW 1...
What do the following medication give an example of?  hydrOXYzine...
How many milligrams of hydrocortisone are in a 30g tube of 2%...
Which of the following is a valid DEA number for Dr. Thomas Jones?
A physician wrote a prescription for a generic medication.  The...
Which diuretic is potassium-sparing?
Which DEA Form is used to dispense a controlled substance?
A medication was recalled for being defective.  What...
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