Semester Exam Pharm Tech Wisd

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  • 1/90 Questions

    What does FDA stand for?

    • Food and Drug Association
    • Food and Drug Administration
    • Food and Drug Abuse
    • Food and Drug Act
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About This Quiz

The 'Semester Exam Pharm Tech WISD' assesses knowledge in pharmacology, focusing on medication identification, handling, and administration technologies. It tests understanding of generic drugs, packaging, IV solutions, chemotherapy storage, and migraine treatments, crucial for pharmacy technicians.

Semester Exam Pharm Tech Wisd - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following drugs is the generic form of coumadin

    • Metroprolol

    • Triclopidine

    • Warfarin

    • Clopidrogel

    Correct Answer
    A. Warfarin
    Explanation
    Warfarin is the generic form of Coumadin. Coumadin is a brand name for the drug warfarin, which is commonly used as an anticoagulant medication to prevent blood clots. Therefore, warfarin is the correct answer as it is the generic name for the drug Coumadin.

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  • 3. 

    The drug information source for a pharmacy technician to check for a possible drug interaction would be?

    • The Remington

    • The American Drug Index

    • The Drug Facts and Comparisons

    • The Red Book

    Correct Answer
    A. The Drug Facts and Comparisons
    Explanation
    The Drug Facts and Comparisons is the correct answer because it is a widely used drug information source that provides comprehensive information on drug interactions, including potential interactions between different drugs. It is a trusted resource for pharmacy technicians to check for possible drug interactions before dispensing medications to patients. The other options, such as the Remington, the American Drug Index, and the Red Book, may also contain drug information, but they are not specifically known for their comprehensive coverage of drug interactions.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following workplace habits may contribute to making a prescription mistake?

    • Working in a quiet environment

    • Filling one medication at a time

    • Compounding medications in the order they were received

    • Multitasking

    Correct Answer
    A. Multitasking
    Explanation
    Multitasking may contribute to making a prescription mistake because it involves dividing attention between multiple tasks, which can lead to distractions and errors. When a person is multitasking, they may not give their full attention to each task, including filling prescriptions accurately. This can result in overlooking important details, misreading instructions, or making mistakes in medication dosage or labeling. Therefore, multitasking in a workplace setting can increase the likelihood of prescription errors occurring.

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  • 5. 

    AWP is the acronym for:

    • Average Wholesale Promotion

    • Average Wholesale Price

    • Average Warehouse Price

    • Average Warehouse Promotion

    Correct Answer
    A. Average Wholesale Price
    Explanation
    AWP stands for Average Wholesale Price. This term refers to the average price at which a product is sold to wholesalers or retailers. It is commonly used in the pharmaceutical industry to determine the reimbursement rates for prescription drugs. The AWP is calculated by taking the average price of a drug across multiple wholesalers and is often used as a benchmark for pricing negotiations between manufacturers, wholesalers, and insurers.

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  • 6. 

    What volume in milliliters of a drug for injection 250mg/10mL should be used to fill an order for 15mg?

    • 16.6 ml

    • 10 ml

    • 6 ml

    • 0.6 ml

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.6 ml
    Explanation
    To find the volume of the drug needed, we can use a proportion. The given drug concentration is 250mg/10mL. We can set up the proportion as (250mg/10mL) = (15mg/x mL). Cross-multiplying, we get 250x = 150. Dividing both sides by 250, we find that x = 0.6 mL. Therefore, 0.6 mL of the drug should be used to fill the order for 15mg.

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  • 7. 

    OSHA mandates that healthcare facilities have specific plans in place to protect heatlhcare workers from which of the following infectious diseases?

    • Influenza

    • Hepatitis B

    • C-difficile

    • Pneumonia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis B
    Explanation
    OSHA mandates that healthcare facilities have specific plans in place to protect healthcare workers from Hepatitis B. This is because Hepatitis B is a highly contagious viral infection that can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or bodily fluids. Healthcare workers are at a higher risk of exposure to Hepatitis B due to their frequent contact with patients and potential exposure to blood and other bodily fluids. Therefore, OSHA requires healthcare facilities to have plans in place to prevent and control the spread of Hepatitis B among healthcare workers.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following injectable drugs would be stored in the refrigerator?

    • Ciprofloxacin

    • Calcitonon - salmon

    • Cyanocobalamin

    • Clindamycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcitonon - salmon
    Explanation
    Calcitonin - salmon is the correct answer because it is an injectable drug that needs to be stored in the refrigerator. The cold temperature helps to maintain the stability and effectiveness of the medication. Ciprofloxacin, cyanocobalamin, and clindamycin do not require refrigeration for storage.

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  • 9. 

    Chemotherapy agents should be stored

    • In a locked cabinet

    • Alphabetically by brand name

    • Alphabetically by generic name

    • In a separate identified area

    Correct Answer
    A. In a separate identified area
    Explanation
    Chemotherapy agents should be stored in a separate identified area to ensure proper segregation and prevent any potential mix-ups or contamination. This helps in maintaining the safety and integrity of these potent medications. Storing them separately also allows for easy identification and access when needed, minimizing the risk of errors and ensuring that the correct chemotherapy agents are used for each patient.

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  • 10. 

    A pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for eyedrops that reads "2 gtt OD tid"  How many drops will the patient use a day?

    • 12 gtt

    • 8 gtt

    • 6 gtt

    • 3 gtt

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 gtt
    Explanation
    The prescription indicates that the patient should use 2 drops in the right eye (OD) three times a day (tid). Therefore, the patient will use a total of 6 drops per day.

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  • 11. 

    A patient presents a prescription for alendronate 70 mg with directions "1 tab PO q Wk".How many must be dispensed for a 3 month supply?

    • 1 tablet

    • 4 tablets

    • 12 tablets

    • 30 tablets

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 tablets
    Explanation
    The prescription states to take 1 tablet of alendronate 70 mg orally every week. To calculate the number of tablets needed for a 3-month supply, we need to determine the number of weeks in 3 months. Since there are 4 weeks in a month, 3 months would have a total of 12 weeks. Therefore, 12 tablets must be dispensed for a 3-month supply.

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  • 12. 

    According to the DEA all record related to controlled substances must be maintained and be available for inspection for a minimum of how many years?

    • 1 year

    • 2 years

    • 3 years

    • 4 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 years
    Explanation
    According to the DEA, all records related to controlled substances must be maintained and available for inspection for a minimum of 2 years. This ensures that there is a sufficient recordkeeping period to track the distribution and use of controlled substances, allowing for accountability and regulatory compliance. By keeping these records for at least 2 years, it enables the DEA to monitor and investigate any potential misuse or illegal activities involving controlled substances.

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  • 13. 

    The auxiliary label for amoxicillin oral suspensions should contain which of the following instructions?

    • Shake well

    • Take with food

    • May cause drowsiness

    • May cause urine discoloration

    Correct Answer
    A. Shake well
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "shake well" because amoxicillin oral suspensions often settle and separate, so shaking the suspension ensures that the medication is evenly distributed before administration. This instruction helps to ensure that the correct dosage is given to the patient.

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  • 14. 

    Special IV tubing is recommended for the administration of :

    • Penicillin

    • Gentamicin

    • Nitroglycerin

    • Ciprofloxacin

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitroglycerin
    Explanation
    Special IV tubing is recommended for the administration of nitroglycerin because it is a highly potent medication that is sensitive to light, heat, and plasticizers commonly found in regular IV tubing. Special tubing, known as non-PVC tubing, is made of materials that do not react with nitroglycerin and help maintain its stability and efficacy. Using regular tubing can lead to degradation of the medication, reducing its effectiveness and potentially causing harm to the patient. Therefore, it is important to use special IV tubing specifically designed for nitroglycerin administration.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is a common symptom of Digoxin (dig) toxicity?

    • Angioedema

    • Nausea

    • Total body rash

    • Muscle aches and pains

    Correct Answer
    A. Nausea
    Explanation
    Nausea is a common symptom of Digoxin (dig) toxicity. Digoxin is a medication used to treat heart conditions, but an overdose or toxicity can occur, leading to various symptoms. Nausea is a common symptom in cases of digoxin toxicity, along with other symptoms such as vomiting, loss of appetite, and abdominal pain. It is important to recognize and treat digoxin toxicity promptly to prevent further complications.

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  • 16. 

    A package insert contains instructions to store medication at 10 degrees Celsius. What is the temperature in degrees Fahrenheit

    • 68

    • 40

    • 50

    • 37

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    The temperature in degrees Fahrenheit is 50. To convert Celsius to Fahrenheit, you can use the formula: F = (C * 9/5) + 32. In this case, 10 degrees Celsius would be (10 * 9/5) + 32 = 50 degrees Fahrenheit.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is an administration route for insulin?

    • Intradermally

    • Intramuscular

    • Intravenous

    • Subcutaneoulsy

    Correct Answer
    A. Subcutaneoulsy
    Explanation
    Subcutaneously is a correct administration route for insulin. This means that insulin is injected into the layer of fat just below the skin. This route allows for the slow and consistent absorption of insulin into the bloodstream, providing a more stable blood sugar level. It is a commonly used route for insulin administration due to its convenience and effectiveness.

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  • 18. 

    The last 2 numbers of the NDC# indicate

    • Expiration date

    • Package size

    • Manufacter

    • Ingredients

    Correct Answer
    A. Package size
    Explanation
    The last 2 numbers of the NDC# indicate the package size. This means that the numbers provide information about the quantity or volume of the product contained in the package. The NDC# is a unique identifier for pharmaceutical products, and the last 2 numbers specifically represent the size of the package in which the product is sold.

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  • 19. 

    A common side effect of magnesium-based antacid is____________.

    • Hives

    • Constipation

    • Diarrhea

    • Heartburn

    Correct Answer
    A. Diarrhea
    Explanation
    A common side effect of magnesium-based antacids is diarrhea. This is because magnesium can have a laxative effect on the digestive system, leading to loose and watery stools. Antacids containing magnesium can increase the amount of water in the intestines, which can result in diarrhea. It is important to note that not everyone will experience this side effect, as individual reactions to medications can vary.

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  • 20. 

    What is the proper way to write Coumadin five milligrams to prevent a medication error

    • 0.5 mg

    • .0005 g

    • 5 mg

    • 5.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 mg
    Explanation
    The proper way to write Coumadin five milligrams is 5 mg. This is the correct answer because milligrams (mg) is the appropriate unit of measurement for medication dosage.

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  • 21. 

    What does the term inventory mean?

    • Record of drugs sold

    • Record of drugs purchased

    • List of all items available for sale

    • Value of merchandise in stock

    Correct Answer
    A. List of all items available for sale
    Explanation
    The term inventory refers to a list of all items available for sale. It includes a comprehensive record of all products or goods that a business has in stock and is ready to be sold to customers. This list helps businesses keep track of their available stock, manage their supply chain, and ensure efficient sales and customer service.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is not a side effect of Augmentin?

    • Diarrhea

    • Rash

    • Allergic reaction

    • Constipation

    Correct Answer
    A. Constipation
    Explanation
    Augmentin is an antibiotic medication that is commonly prescribed to treat bacterial infections. It is known to have several side effects, including diarrhea, rash, and allergic reactions. However, constipation is not typically listed as a side effect of Augmentin. This means that while Augmentin may cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea, it is unlikely to cause constipation.

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  • 23. 

    Which classifications of medication may have side effects such as dry mouth, difficult urination, and constipation

    • Beta-Blockers

    • Anticholinergics

    • Cholinergics

    • Alpha-Blockers

    Correct Answer
    A. Anticholinergics
    Explanation
    Anticholinergics are a classification of medication that can cause side effects such as dry mouth, difficult urination, and constipation. These medications work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that plays a role in various bodily functions including saliva production, urinary function, and bowel movements. By blocking the action of acetylcholine, anticholinergics can lead to a decrease in saliva production, making the mouth feel dry. They can also affect the muscles involved in urination, leading to difficulty in emptying the bladder, and affect the muscles in the digestive system, causing constipation.

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  • 24. 

    All of the following drugs are classified as an NSAID except:

    • Naproxen

    • Ibuprofen

    • Mobic

    • Soma

    Correct Answer
    A. Soma
    Explanation
    Soma is not classified as an NSAID because it is a muscle relaxant. NSAIDs, or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, are a class of medications that reduce inflammation, pain, and fever. Naproxen, Ibuprofen, and Mobic are all NSAIDs commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation. However, Soma works by blocking pain sensations between the nerves and the brain, making it a different type of medication than the other options listed.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is responsible for drug recalls?

    • FDA

    • DEA

    • PPPA

    • Board of Pharmacy

    Correct Answer
    A. FDA
    Explanation
    The FDA (Food and Drug Administration) is responsible for drug recalls. The FDA is a government agency that regulates and supervises the safety and effectiveness of drugs in the United States. They have the authority to recall drugs if they are found to be unsafe or ineffective, or if they violate any regulations or standards. The FDA plays a crucial role in protecting public health by ensuring that drugs on the market are safe and effective for use.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is the generic name for Fosamax?

    • Raloxifene

    • Allopurinol

    • Aspirin

    • Alendronate

    Correct Answer
    A. Alendronate
    Explanation
    Alendronate is the generic name for Fosamax. Generic names are the non-proprietary names given to drugs, which are usually derived from the drug's chemical composition. In this case, Fosamax is the brand name for the drug, while Alendronate is the generic name. The other options, Raloxifene, Allopurinol, and Aspirin, are different drugs with their own generic and brand names, and are not related to Fosamax.

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  • 27. 

    The correct strength in a sodium chloride in a normal saline IV bag is 

    • 0.45%

    • 0.225%

    • 0.9%

    • 9%

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.9%
    Explanation
    The correct strength in a sodium chloride in a normal saline IV bag is 0.9%. This concentration is commonly used in medical settings as it closely resembles the salt concentration in the human body. It is considered isotonic, meaning it has the same osmotic pressure as bodily fluids, making it safe for intravenous administration without causing damage to cells or altering fluid balance.

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  • 28. 

    Niacin is which B vitamin?

    • B 1

    • B 2

    • B 3

    • B 4

    Correct Answer
    A. B 3
    Explanation
    Niacin is also known as vitamin B3. It is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in energy production and metabolism. Niacin is important for maintaining healthy skin, nerves, and digestive system. It also helps in lowering cholesterol levels and improving cardiovascular health. Therefore, the correct answer is B3.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following does HIPAA set standards to protect?

    • FDA

    • PHI

    • USP

    • OSHA

    Correct Answer
    A. PHI
    Explanation
    HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) sets standards to protect PHI (Protected Health Information). PHI includes any individually identifiable health information that is created, received, or maintained by a covered entity (such as healthcare providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses). HIPAA ensures the privacy and security of PHI by establishing guidelines for its use, disclosure, and protection. This includes measures to safeguard electronic PHI and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure, thereby ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of individuals' health information.

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  • 30. 

    How often can a schedule III to V medication be refilled?

    • Never

    • As many times as the prescription is written for

    • Up to 5 times in a 6-month period

    • Up to 6 times in a year

    Correct Answer
    A. Up to 5 times in a 6-month period
    Explanation
    A schedule III to V medication can be refilled up to 5 times in a 6-month period. This means that the prescription can be filled and refilled up to 5 times within a span of 6 months. After reaching the maximum number of refills or the 6-month period, a new prescription would be required to continue obtaining the medication.

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  • 31. 

    A pharmacy can receive a prescription by all of the following methods except:

    • Faxed in from the doctor's office

    • Called in by the physicians designated staff

    • Called in by the patient

    • Called in by the physician

    Correct Answer
    A. Called in by the patient
    Explanation
    A pharmacy cannot receive a prescription by the patient calling it in. This is because it is important for the prescription to be verified and confirmed by the physician before it can be filled. The other methods mentioned - faxed in from the doctor's office, called in by the physician's designated staff, and called in by the physician - allow for this verification process to take place. However, if the patient were to call in the prescription themselves, there would be no way to ensure that it is accurate and appropriate for their condition.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following deals specifically with practicing pharmacist and requires pharmacists to counsel all patients receiving new prescriptions?

    • OBRA

    • FDA

    • PPPA

    • DEA

    Correct Answer
    A. OBRA
    Explanation
    OBRA, which stands for the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act, deals specifically with practicing pharmacists and requires them to counsel all patients receiving new prescriptions. This legislation was enacted in 1990 to improve the quality of care provided to Medicaid patients, and one of its provisions is the requirement for pharmacists to offer counseling to patients about their medications. This ensures that patients have a clear understanding of their prescriptions and any potential side effects or interactions. The FDA (Food and Drug Administration) is a regulatory agency responsible for ensuring the safety and efficacy of drugs, but it does not specifically address pharmacist counseling. PPPA (Poison Prevention Packaging Act) requires child-resistant packaging for certain medications and household products, while the DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing controlled substance laws and regulations.

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  • 33. 

    Which form is used to report theft or loss of controlled substances?

    • DEA 222

    • DEA 106

    • DEA 766

    • DEA 356

    Correct Answer
    A. DEA 106
    Explanation
    DEA 106 is the correct form used to report theft or loss of controlled substances. This form is specifically designed for registrants to report any loss or theft of controlled substances to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA). It is important to promptly report such incidents to ensure proper investigation and prevent potential misuse or diversion of these substances.

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  • 34. 

    Which medication should be dispensed in its original brown container?

    • Oxycodone 5 mg tablets

    • Levoloxacin 500 mg tablets

    • Digoxin 0.125 mg tablets

    • Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg tablets

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg tablets
    Explanation
    Nitroglycerin is a medication that is sensitive to light and moisture. Therefore, it should be dispensed in its original brown container to protect it from these environmental factors. The brown container helps to block out light and prevent moisture from entering, ensuring the stability and effectiveness of the medication.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following pregnancy risk level meant the drug is a definite risk?

    • A

    • C

    • D

    • X

    Correct Answer
    A. X
    Explanation
    The pregnancy risk level "X" indicates that the drug is a definite risk during pregnancy. This means that studies have shown evidence of fetal abnormalities or adverse effects on the fetus when the drug is taken during pregnancy. Pregnant women should avoid taking drugs with this risk level to minimize potential harm to the developing baby.

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  • 36. 

    When an order is received in the pharmacy, the order invoice must be carefully checked against the?

    • Floor stock

    • Want book

    • Purchase order

    • Pharmacy inventory

    Correct Answer
    A. Purchase order
    Explanation
    The purchase order is a document that specifies the details of the order placed by the pharmacy. When an order is received, it is important to check the order invoice against the purchase order to ensure accuracy. This helps in verifying the items ordered, quantities, prices, and any special instructions. By comparing the invoice with the purchase order, any discrepancies or errors can be identified and resolved, ensuring that the correct items are received and billed for. Checking against the purchase order helps maintain inventory accuracy and prevents any issues with stock management.

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  • 37. 

    A physician asks you to prepare 15g of Benadryl 0.5% cream.Benadryl 1% cream is available over the counter.How many grams of Benadryl will be needed to complete this order?

    • 0.5 g

    • 7.5 g

    • 50 g

    • 750 g

    Correct Answer
    A. 7.5 g
    Explanation
    To prepare the 0.5% cream, we need to dilute the 1% cream by half. This means that for every 1g of 1% cream, we need to add 1g of a diluent to make it 0.5%. Therefore, to prepare 15g of 0.5% cream, we need 15g of the 1% cream and 15g of the diluent. Since the question asks for the amount of Benadryl needed, we only need to consider the 1% cream. Therefore, we need 15g of Benadryl, which is equivalent to the 7.5g of the 1% cream.

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  • 38. 

    The information contained in the manufacturer’s package insert may also be found in the..

    • Orange book

    • Drug Index

    • PDR (Physician's Desk Reference)

    • Merck manual

    Correct Answer
    A. PDR (Physician's Desk Reference)
    Explanation
    The Physician's Desk Reference (PDR) is a comprehensive reference book that contains information about prescription drugs, including their indications, dosages, side effects, and contraindications. It is commonly used by healthcare professionals as a trusted source of drug information. Since the manufacturer's package insert also contains detailed information about a drug, it is likely that the same information can be found in the PDR. Therefore, the PDR is a reliable resource to find the information contained in the manufacturer's package insert.

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  • 39. 

    In the Orange Book the letters "AB" ratings indicate that products are

    • Require clinical trials to determine the preferred route of administration

    • Require clinical trials to determine the efficacy of the drug

    • Considered bio-equivalent

    • Condidered therapeutic equivalent

    Correct Answer
    A. Considered bio-equivalent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "considered bio-equivalent." In the Orange Book, the letters "AB" ratings indicate that products are considered bio-equivalent. Bio-equivalence means that two pharmaceutical products contain the same active ingredient(s) in the same strength or concentration, and they have similar bioavailability when administered to patients under the same conditions. This rating suggests that these products are expected to have the same therapeutic effect and safety profile.

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  • 40. 

    The primary routing mechanism for a real-time third party prescription claim is a__________

    • Group code

    • BIN

    • Person code

    • Member number

    Correct Answer
    A. BIN
    Explanation
    The primary routing mechanism for a real-time third party prescription claim is the BIN (Bank Identification Number). This number is used to identify the pharmacy and the insurance plan involved in the transaction. It helps in ensuring that the claim is processed correctly and efficiently. The BIN is an essential component in the electronic communication between the pharmacy, insurance provider, and the claims processor, allowing for seamless and accurate prescription claim processing.

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  • 41. 

    The requirement that a non-formulary medication be covered only if approved by the third party payer is called a?

    • Claims reconciliation

    • Clams adjudication

    • Prior authorization

    • Capitation payment

    Correct Answer
    A. Prior authorization
    Explanation
    Prior authorization is the requirement that a non-formulary medication be covered only if approved by the third party payer. This means that before a patient can receive a non-formulary medication, their healthcare provider must obtain approval from the insurance company or other third party payer. This is done to ensure that the medication is medically necessary and appropriate for the patient's condition, and to control costs by limiting the use of expensive or non-preferred medications.

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  • 42. 

    Under which part of Medicare may durable medical equipment (DME) be reimbursed to the pharmacy?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. B
    Explanation
    Durable medical equipment (DME) may be reimbursed to the pharmacy under Part B of Medicare. Part B covers medically necessary services and supplies, including DME, that are needed to diagnose or treat a medical condition. This includes items such as wheelchairs, walkers, and oxygen equipment. Part B is different from Part A, which covers hospital stays and inpatient care. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

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  • 43. 

    The information contained in the manufacture's package insert may also be found in the ...

    • Orange Book

    • PDR (Physician's Desk Reference)

    • Drug Index

    • Merck Manual

    Correct Answer
    A. PDR (Physician's Desk Reference)
    Explanation
    The Physician's Desk Reference (PDR) is a comprehensive reference book that contains information about prescription drugs, including their indications, dosages, side effects, and contraindications. It is commonly used by healthcare professionals as a trusted source of information about medications. Therefore, it is likely that the information contained in the manufacturer's package insert can also be found in the PDR.

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  • 44. 

    An outpatient prescription requires which of the following

    • Medical conditions

    • Pharmacy address and phone number

    • Physician phone number and address

    • Medication lot number

    Correct Answer
    A. Physician phone number and address
    Explanation
    An outpatient prescription requires the physician's phone number and address because this information is necessary for the pharmacist to contact the prescribing doctor if there are any questions or concerns about the prescription. Additionally, the physician's address is needed for record-keeping purposes and to ensure that the prescription is being issued by a legitimate healthcare provider. The medical conditions, pharmacy address and phone number, and medication lot number are not typically required for an outpatient prescription.

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  • 45. 

    How many refills are allowed on a schedule II medication?

    • One

    • Up to 5 times in a 6-month period

    • As many times as the prescription is written for

    • Zero

    Correct Answer
    A. Zero
    Explanation
    Refills are not allowed on a schedule II medication. A schedule II medication is classified as a highly addictive substance with a high potential for abuse. Therefore, these medications require a new prescription from a healthcare provider each time they are needed, and refills are not permitted.

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  • 46. 

    Calculate the last digit of the following DEA number AL264936__

    • 1

    • 3

    • 5

    • 51

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The last digit of the DEA number AL2649361 can be calculated by taking the sum of the digits and finding the remainder when divided by 10. In this case, the sum of the digits is 26+4+9+3+6+1 = 49. When divided by 10, the remainder is 9. However, the answer is 1, so there might be a mistake in the question or the given answer.

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  • 47. 

    What type of filter is used in a laminar flow hood?

    • EPA

    • HVAP

    • HAPA

    • HEPA

    Correct Answer
    A. HEPA
    Explanation
    A laminar flow hood is a device used in laboratories and cleanrooms to provide a sterile and particle-free environment. The type of filter used in a laminar flow hood is a HEPA (High Efficiency Particulate Air) filter. HEPA filters are designed to remove particles as small as 0.3 micrometers with an efficiency of 99.97%. These filters are highly effective in trapping bacteria, viruses, and other contaminants, ensuring a clean and safe working environment within the laminar flow hood.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following insurance providers is a federally funded?

    • Blue Cross Blue Shield

    • United Health

    • Medicaid

    • Aetna

    Correct Answer
    A. Medicaid
    Explanation
    Medicaid is a federally funded insurance provider that offers health coverage to low-income individuals and families. It is a joint program between the federal government and individual states, with the federal government providing a significant portion of the funding. Medicaid aims to ensure that vulnerable populations have access to necessary healthcare services, and it operates under specific guidelines and regulations set by the federal government. Unlike Blue Cross Blue Shield, United Health, and Aetna, which are private insurance providers, Medicaid is directly funded by the federal government.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is the generic name for Evista?

    • Allopurinol

    • Aspirin

    • Alendronate

    • Raloxifene

    Correct Answer
    A. Raloxifene
    Explanation
    Raloxifene is the generic name for Evista. The other options listed (Allopurinol, Aspirin, and Alendronate) are not generic names for Evista.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Apr 21, 2016
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