Huc Test 1

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Huc  Test 1 - Quiz

Overview of doctors orders in patient medication,dietary orders,and patient treatment and activity orders.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

     Which of the following is considered a vital sign?

    • A.

      BP

    • B.

      CPM

    • C.

      CBC

    • D.

      HOB

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. BP
    Explanation
    Blood pressure (BP) is considered a vital sign because it provides important information about a person's cardiovascular health. It measures the force of blood against the walls of arteries as the heart pumps it around the body. BP readings are used to assess a person's overall health, diagnose conditions such as hypertension, and monitor the effectiveness of treatments. Regular monitoring of blood pressure is crucial in identifying potential health problems and preventing complications.

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  • 2. 

    The amount of walking and sitting that a patient may do within a given period during the hospital stay is referred to as:

    • A.

      Patient activity

    • B.

      Vital sign order

    • C.

      Positioning order

    • D.

      Intake and output

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient activity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is patient activity. Patient activity refers to the amount of walking and sitting that a patient engages in during their hospital stay. This can include activities such as walking to the bathroom, sitting in a chair, or taking short walks around the hospital unit. Monitoring patient activity is important as it can help assess their overall mobility and progress in their recovery.

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  • 3. 

    A patient who is said to be afebrile has:

    • A.

      A fever

    • B.

      Low oxygen saturation

    • C.

      No fever

    • D.

      Deficient hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    C. No fever
    Explanation
    A patient deemed afebrile is characterized by the absence of fever or an elevated body temperature. This term indicates that the patient's temperature is within the normal range, typically around 98.6°F (37°C). Being afebrile suggests the absence of a fever-related medical condition.

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  • 4. 

    A pulse deficit is defined as the:

    • A.

      Patient does not have a pulse

    • B.

      Discrepancy between the patient'sventricular ratedetected by the apex of the heart and the arterial rate of the radial pulse

    • C.

      Discrepancy between the patient's blood pressure and pulse rate

    • D.

      Discrepancy between the patient's pulse rates when sitting and standing

    Correct Answer
    B. Discrepancy between the patient'sventricular ratedetected by the apex of the heart and the arterial rate of the radial pulse
    Explanation
    A pulse deficit is defined as the discrepancy between the patient's ventricular rate detected by the apex of the heart and the arterial rate of the radial pulse. This means that there is a difference between the heart rate that is measured at the apex of the heart and the heart rate that is measured at the radial pulse. This discrepancy could indicate a problem with the conduction of electrical signals in the heart or a problem with the circulation of blood to the peripheral arteries.

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  • 5. 

    A semi- sitting position also may be referred to as __________position

    • A.

      Trendelenburg

    • B.

      Anatomical

    • C.

      Dorsal recumbent

    • D.

      Fowler's

    Correct Answer
    D. Fowler's
    Explanation
    A semi-sitting position is commonly known as Fowler's position. This position involves the patient sitting up at a 45 to 60-degree angle, with the knees slightly bent. It is often used in medical settings to promote lung expansion and improve breathing. The Trendelenburg position involves the patient lying flat on their back with the feet elevated higher than the head. An anatomical position refers to the standard position of the body for anatomical reference. Dorsal recumbent position involves the patient lying flat on their back with the knees bent and feet flat on the bed.

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  • 6. 

    A patient with orthostatic hypotention has _____ blood pressure when suddenly ________.

    • A.

      High;sitting down

    • B.

      Low; lying down

    • C.

      Low;standing up

    • D.

      High;standing up

    Correct Answer
    C. Low;standing up
    Explanation
    When a patient with orthostatic hypotension suddenly stands up, their blood pressure drops significantly, resulting in low blood pressure. This condition is characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, leading to symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. Therefore, the correct answer is low blood pressure when suddenly standing up.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following abbreviations may be used when information is enteredinto patient's paper or electronic medical record?

    • A.

      Qd

    • B.

      Daily

    • C.

      Qod

    • D.

      IU

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "daily" may be used when entering information into a patient's paper or electronic medical record. This abbreviation indicates that a particular action or medication should be done or taken on a daily basis. It is a commonly used abbreviation in medical documentation to convey the frequency of a treatment or medication regimen.

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  • 8. 

    Autologous blood is best definedas:

    • A.

      The blood of a patient's relative donated previously for transfusion

    • B.

      The patient's own blood donated previously for transfusion

    • C.

      Blood that has been transported by the Red Cross

    • D.

      Washed blood

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. The patient's own blood donated previously for transfusion
    Explanation
    Autologous blood refers to the patient's own blood that has been donated previously for transfusion. This means that the blood has been collected from the patient themselves, typically before a scheduled surgery or procedure, and stored for later use. By using autologous blood, there is a reduced risk of transfusion reactions and infections since the blood is a perfect match for the patient. It also helps to conserve the limited supply of donated blood, making it an ideal option for certain patients.

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  • 9. 

    The inability of the body to controlthe elimination of urine and/or feces is:

    • A.

      Incontinence

    • B.

      Intermittent elimination

    • C.

      Patency

    • D.

      Urine residual

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Incontinence
    Explanation
    Incontinence refers to the inability of the body to control the elimination of urine and/or feces. This condition can manifest as involuntary leakage or complete loss of control over urination or bowel movements. It can be caused by various factors such as weak pelvic floor muscles, nerve damage, or certain medical conditions. Incontinence can significantly impact a person's quality of life and may require medical intervention or lifestyle changes to manage.

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  • 10. 

    A patient is unable to urinate after surgery. The doctor will likely order which of the following ?

    • A.

      TWE now MR x 1 prn

    • B.

      DC cath this AM

    • C.

      Irrig cath prn patency

    • D.

      Straight cath x if nec

    Correct Answer
    D. Straight cath x if nec
    Explanation
    After surgery, it is common for patients to experience difficulty in urinating due to various factors such as anesthesia, pain medications, or swelling. "Straight cath x if nec" refers to straight catheterization, which involves inserting a catheter into the bladder to drain urine when the patient is unable to urinate on their own. This procedure helps relieve urinary retention and prevents potential complications. The abbreviation "x if nec" means it will be done if necessary, indicating that the doctor will order straight catheterization if the patient continues to be unable to urinate.

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  • 11. 

    The needle puncture of a vein is:

    • A.

      Pneumatic puncture

    • B.

      Catheter irrigation

    • C.

      Venipuncture

    • D.

      Harris flush

    Correct Answer
    C. Venipuncture
    Explanation
    Venipuncture refers to the process of puncturing a vein with a needle to withdraw blood or administer medication. This procedure is commonly performed for diagnostic purposes, such as blood tests, or for therapeutic purposes, such as intravenous medication administration. The other options, pneumatic puncture, catheter irrigation, and Harris flush, do not accurately describe the process of puncturing a vein with a needle.

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  • 12. 

    The insertion of a tube through the urethral meatusinto bladder to remove urine is a: 

    • A.

      Harris flush

    • B.

      Colostomy irrigation

    • C.

      Intestinal irrigation

    • D.

      Urinary catheterization

    Correct Answer
    D. Urinary catheterization
    Explanation
    Urinary catheterization refers to the insertion of a tube through the urethral meatus into the bladder to remove urine. This procedure is commonly used when a patient is unable to urinate on their own due to various reasons such as urinary retention, urinary incontinence, or post-surgical recovery. It allows for the continuous drainage of urine, relieving the patient's discomfort and preventing potential complications associated with urinary retention.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following medications in the following orders would be administered by mouth?

    • A.

      Add 20 meq KCL to each IV

    • B.

      Compazine 10 mg IM 16h prn n/v

    • C.

      PCA MS 2 mg

    • D.

      PCN 250 mg PO q6h

    Correct Answer
    D. PCN 250 mg PO q6h
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PCN 250 mg PO q6h. "PO" stands for per os, which means by mouth. This indicates that the medication should be administered orally.

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  • 14. 

    The apothecary system:

    • A.

      Is a relatively new system of categorizing medications

    • B.

      Uses gtt as the abbreviation for drop

    • C.

      Uses gr as ann abbreviation for grams

    • D.

      Uses lowercase Roman numerals with a line over them and dotted above to avoid confusion

    Correct Answer
    D. Uses lowercase Roman numerals with a line over them and dotted above to avoid confusion
    Explanation
    The apothecary system uses lowercase Roman numerals with a line over them and dotted above to avoid confusion. This is done to differentiate between different units of measurement, as Roman numerals can easily be misinterpreted or confused. By adding a line over the numeral and dots above it, it becomes clearer and less prone to errors. This helps ensure accurate and precise medication dosing in the apothecary system.

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  • 15. 

    When the metric system is used to enlarge the basic metric unit 1000 times,which of the following prefixes is inserted?

    • A.

      Kilo-

    • B.

      Milli-

    • C.

      Centi-

    • D.

      Nano-

    Correct Answer
    A. Kilo-
    Explanation
    When the metric system is used to enlarge the basic metric unit 1000 times, the prefix "Kilo-" is inserted. The prefix "Kilo-" represents a multiplication factor of 1000. Therefore, when the basic metric unit is multiplied by 1000, it is expressed using the prefix "Kilo-".

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  • 16. 

    If a patient is given medication topically,this means the medication is :

    • A.

      Inhaled

    • B.

      Swallowed

    • C.

      Placed under the tongue

    • D.

      Applied to the skin,eye,ear, or other body parts

    Correct Answer
    D. Applied to the skin,eye,ear, or other body parts
    Explanation
    The correct answer is applied to the skin, eye, ear, or other body parts. When medication is given topically, it means that it is applied directly to the surface of the skin, eye, ear, or other body parts. This can be in the form of creams, ointments, gels, or patches. By applying the medication to the affected area, it allows for localized treatment and absorption through the skin or mucous membranes. This method is commonly used for conditions such as skin infections, rashes, eye infections, and ear infections.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is TRUE about TPN?

    • A.

      The patient is on a regular diet

    • B.

      Peripheral veins are used to instill the medication

    • C.

      Patients who receive TPN require frequent blood tests for electrolytes and lip levels

    • D.

      Patients who receive TPN usually do not have any gastrointestional disorders

    Correct Answer
    C. Patients who receive TPN require frequent blood tests for electrolytes and lip levels
    Explanation
    Patients who receive TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition) require frequent blood tests for electrolytes and lipid levels. TPN is a method of providing nutrition to patients who are unable to consume food orally or through the gastrointestinal tract. It involves delivering a nutrient-rich solution directly into the bloodstream through a central venous catheter. Since TPN provides all the essential nutrients, it is important to monitor electrolyte levels to ensure proper balance and prevent complications. Additionally, lipid levels are monitored to assess the patient's tolerance to the lipid component of the TPN solution and to adjust the dosage accordingly.

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  • 18. 

    A drug that assists in drying secretions would be known as a :

    • A.

      Antineoplastic

    • B.

      Diurectic

    • C.

      Antiocoagulant

    • D.

      Antihistamine

    Correct Answer
    D. Antihistamine
    Explanation
    An antihistamine is a drug that is commonly used to treat allergies and allergic reactions. It works by blocking the effects of histamine, a substance produced by the body during an allergic reaction. One of the common symptoms of allergies is excessive mucus production, which can lead to a runny nose or increased secretions. By blocking histamine, antihistamines can help reduce these secretions and promote drying. Therefore, a drug that assists in drying secretions would be known as an antihistamine.

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  • 19. 

    Which class of drug ( with example) can lower cholestrol?

    • A.

      Antilipidemic

    • B.

      Anticoagulant

    • C.

      Antisecretory

    • D.

      Antiemetic

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Antilipidemic
    Explanation
    Antilipidemic drugs are a class of medications that can lower cholesterol levels in the body. These drugs work by reducing the production of cholesterol in the liver or by increasing the removal of cholesterol from the bloodstream. Examples of antilipidemic drugs include statins, fibrates, bile acid sequestrants, and cholesterol absorption inhibitors. These medications are commonly prescribed to individuals with high cholesterol levels to help reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases such as heart attacks and strokes.

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  • 20. 

    Drugs in which class are controlled by federal laws and have automatic stop dates?

    • A.

      Narcotics

    • B.

      Non-narcotic analgesics

    • C.

      Anticonvulsants

    • D.

      Antidiabetics

    Correct Answer
    A. Narcotics
    Explanation
    Narcotics are controlled by federal laws and have automatic stop dates. This means that these drugs are regulated and monitored by the government due to their potential for abuse and addiction. The automatic stop dates refer to the expiration dates set for these drugs, after which they cannot be legally prescribed or dispensed without proper authorization. Therefore, narcotics fall under a class of drugs that are subject to strict regulations and have specific time limits for their use.

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  • 21. 

    Medications given to decrease blood clots are called:

    • A.

      Hormones

    • B.

      Anticoagulants

    • C.

      Diuretics

    • D.

      Laxatives

    Correct Answer
    B. Anticoagulants
    Explanation
    Anticoagulants are medications given to decrease blood clots. These drugs work by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood, preventing the formation of blood clots. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and atrial fibrillation. Unlike hormones, diuretics, and laxatives, which have different mechanisms of action and purposes, anticoagulants specifically target blood clotting and are not used for hormonal regulation, fluid balance, or bowel movement stimulation.

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  • 22. 

    Drugs are divided into classifications according to their:

    • A.

      Toxicity

    • B.

      Primary function

    • C.

      Availability

    • D.

      Interactions

    Correct Answer
    B. Primary function
    Explanation
    Drugs are divided into classifications according to their primary function. This means that drugs are categorized based on the specific purpose or action they are intended to have in the body. By classifying drugs according to their primary function, it becomes easier for healthcare professionals to understand and prescribe the appropriate medication for a particular medical condition or symptom. This classification system helps in organizing and identifying drugs based on their therapeutic effects, making it more efficient for healthcare providers to select the most suitable drug for a patient's needs.

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  • 23. 

    Medications given primarily to control seizures are:

    • A.

      Antiocoagulants

    • B.

      Antihistamines

    • C.

      Anticonvulsants

    • D.

      Antivirals

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Anticonvulsants
    Explanation
    Anticonvulsants are medications primarily used to control seizures. They work by stabilizing the electrical activity in the brain, preventing or reducing the occurrence of seizures. Unlike the other options listed, anticoagulants are used to prevent blood clotting, antihistamines are used to treat allergies, and antivirals are used to treat viral infections. Therefore, anticonvulsants are the correct answer for medications given primarily to control seizures.

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  • 24. 

    The patient suffers from asthma and was admitted beacuse of severe complications. A drug that the physician is likely to order to best treat this disorder is:

    • A.

      Aminophylline

    • B.

      Diazepam (Valium)

    • C.

      Glipizide (Glucotrol)

    • D.

      Insulin lispro ( humalog)

    Correct Answer
    A. Aminophylline
    Explanation
    Aminophylline is a bronchodilator that is commonly used to treat asthma. It helps to relax and open up the airways, making it easier for the patient to breathe. This medication is often used in cases of severe asthma complications to quickly relieve symptoms and improve breathing. Diazepam is a medication used to treat anxiety and seizures, glipizide is used to treat diabetes, and insulin lispro is a type of insulin used to manage blood sugar levels in diabetes. None of these medications would be the best choice for treating asthma.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following medications has an automatic stop date?

    • A.

      Oxycodone

    • B.

      Carvedilol

    • C.

      Leveothyroxine

    • D.

      Fexofenadine

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxycodone
    Explanation
    Oxycodone is the correct answer because it is a medication that is typically prescribed for short-term pain relief. It is commonly used after surgery or for acute pain management. Due to its potential for abuse and addiction, oxycodone is often prescribed with an automatic stop date to prevent long-term use. This helps to ensure that patients do not become dependent on the medication and encourages them to seek alternative pain management strategies once their acute pain has resolved.

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  • 26. 

    The drug catergory set by the  DEA  that includes drugs with the highest potential for abuse or dependence is Schedule:

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    Schedule I drugs are classified by the DEA as having the highest potential for abuse or dependence. These drugs are considered to have no accepted medical use and are not safe for use even under medical supervision. Examples of Schedule I drugs include heroin, LSD, and ecstasy. Due to their high potential for abuse and lack of accepted medical use, these drugs are highly regulated and illegal to possess or distribute.

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  • 27. 

    Boost Plus is an example of a :

    • A.

      Tube-feeding preparation

    • B.

      Phamaceutical preparation that heightens a patients energy level

    • C.

      Therapeutic diet

    • D.

      Sodium - restricted diet

    Correct Answer
    A. Tube-feeding preparation
    Explanation
    Boost Plus is an example of a tube-feeding preparation because it is a nutritional supplement that is specifically designed to be consumed through a feeding tube. It provides essential nutrients, calories, and protein to individuals who are unable to consume enough food orally to meet their nutritional needs. Tube-feeding preparations like Boost Plus are formulated to be easily absorbed and digested, ensuring that patients receive the necessary nutrients for optimal health and energy levels.

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  • 28. 

    A diet that is commonly used as short-term dietery treatment for diarrhea,gastroenteritis, and some incidences of food poisoning is the __________ diet.

    • A.

      Vegan

    • B.

      High-protein

    • C.

      Low cholesterol

    • D.

      BRAT

    Correct Answer
    D. BRAT
    Explanation
    The BRAT diet is commonly used as a short-term dietary treatment for diarrhea, gastroenteritis, and some incidences of food poisoning. It consists of foods that are easy to digest and help to firm up the stool, such as bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast. These foods are low in fiber and fat, and they provide essential nutrients and electrolytes to help restore the body's balance during times of digestive upset. The BRAT diet is often recommended because it is gentle on the stomach and can help alleviate symptoms of gastrointestinal distress.

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  • 29. 

    A patient who is returning from major surgery would be likely to have which diet until fully awake and not nauseated?

    • A.

      Sips (of coke) and ( potato ) chips

    • B.

      Forced fluids

    • C.

      Dietitian to determine diet

    • D.

      Sips (water) and ice chips

    Correct Answer
    D. Sips (water) and ice chips
    Explanation
    After major surgery, patients may experience nausea and may not be fully awake. In such cases, it is important to start with a clear liquid diet to prevent complications. Sips of water and ice chips are commonly recommended as they are easy to tolerate and can help prevent dehydration. The other options, such as coke and potato chips or forced fluids, may not be suitable for a patient who is not fully awake and nauseated. Consulting a dietitian to determine the appropriate diet is also important, but this would typically be done once the patient is fully awake and able to tolerate a regular diet.

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  • 30. 

    The method of giving intermittent infusion of medication directly into the vein is known as:

    • A.

      IVPB

    • B.

      Piggyback

    • C.

      Admixture

    • D.

      Apothecary

    Correct Answer
    A. IVPB
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IVPB. IVPB stands for intermittent intravenous piggyback, which is a method of giving medication directly into the vein. This method involves attaching a secondary IV line to the primary IV line, allowing for the intermittent administration of medication. The medication is typically given in a smaller volume over a shorter period of time, piggybacking on the primary infusion. This method is commonly used in hospitals and healthcare settings to administer medications such as antibiotics or pain relievers.

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  • Dec 13, 2023
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