Cybersecurity Fundamentals Prep Quiz
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This is a quiz for the Cybersecurity Fundamentals Certificate. It's based on sample questions and the end of topic questions in the workbook. Good luck!
- 1.Choose three. According to the NIST framework, which of the following are considered key functions necessary for the protection of digital assets?
- A.
Encrypt
- B.
Protect
- C.
Investigate
- D.
Recover
- E.
Identify
- 2.Which element of an incident response plan involves obtaining and preserving evidence?
- A.
Preparation
- B.
Identification
- C.
Containment
- D.
Eradication
- 3.To which of the following layers of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model would one map Ethernet?
- A.
Data Link
- B.
Network
- C.
Application
- D.
Transport
- 4.Which of the following interpret requirements and apply them to specific situations?
- A.
Policies
- B.
Standards
- C.
Guidelines
- D.
Procedures
- 5.Business continuity plans (BCPs) associated with organizational information systems should be developed primarily on the basis of:
- A.
Available resources
- B.
Levels of effort
- C.
Projected costs
- D.
Business needs
- 6.A segmented network:
- A.
Offers defense in depth superior to a concentric-layers model
- B.
Consists of two or more security zones
- C.
Maximizes the delay experienced by an attacker
- D.
Delivers superior performance for internal applications
- 7.Which cybersecurity principle is most important when attempting to trace the source of malicious activity?
- A.
Availability
- B.
Integrity
- C.
Nonrepudiation
- D.
Confidentiality
- 8.Which of the following offers the strongest protection for wireless network traffic?
- A.
Wireless Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
- B.
Wireless Protected Access-Advanced Encryption Standard (WPA-AES)
- C.
Wired Equivalent Protection 128-bit (WEP-128)
- D.
Wireless Protected Access-Temporary Key Integrity Protocol (WPA-TKIP)
- 9.Outsourcing poses the greatest risk to an organization when it involves
- A.
Business support services
- B.
Technology infrastructure
- C.
Cybersecurity capabilities
- D.
Core business functions
- 10.Risk assessments should be performed
- A.
At the start of a program
- B.
On a regular basis
- C.
When an asset changes
- D.
When a vulnerability is discovered
- 11.Maintaining a high degree of confidence regarding the integrity of evidence requires a(n):
- A.
Power of attorney
- B.
Sworn statement
- C.
Chain of custody
- D.
Affidavit
- 12.A firewall that tracks open connection-oriented protocol sessions is said to be:
- A.
State-sponsored
- B.
Stateless
- C.
Stateful
- D.
Stated
- 13.During which phase of the system development lifecycle (SDLC) should security first be considered?
- A.
Planning
- B.
Analysis
- C.
Design
- D.
Implementation
- 14.A cybersecurity architecture designed around the concept of a perimeter is said to be:
- A.
Data-centric
- B.
User-centric
- C.
Integrated
- D.
System-centric
- 15.A passive network hub operates at which layer of the OSI model?
- A.
Data Link
- B.
Physical
- C.
Network
- D.
Transport
- 16.Updates in cloud-computing environments can be rolled out quickly because the environment is:
- A.
Homogeneous
- B.
Distributed
- C.
Diversified
- D.
Secure
- 17.During which phase of the six-phase incident response model is the root cause determined?
- A.
Recovery
- B.
Identification
- C.
Containment
- D.
Eradication
- 18.The attack mechanism directed against a system is commonly called a(n):
- A.
Exploit
- B.
Vulnerability
- C.
Payload
- D.
Attack Vector
- 19.
- A.
At an interior router, to reduce network traffic congestion
- B.
At a dedicated “honey pot” system in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)
- C.
At the destination system, to prevent loss of confidentiality
- D.
At the perimeter, to allow for effective internal monitoring
- 20.In practical applications:
- A.
Symmetric key encryption is used to securely distribute asymmetric keys
- B.
Asymmetric key encryption is used to securely obtain symmetric keys
- C.
Symmetric key encryption is used only for short messages, such as digital signatures
- D.
Asymmetric key encryption is used in cases where speed is important
- 21.Which two factors are used to calculate the likelihood of an event?
- A.
Threat and vulnerability
- B.
Vulnerability and asset value
- C.
Asset count and asset value
- D.
Threat and asset count
- 22.What is one advantage of a firewall implemented in software over a firewall appliance?
- A.
Performance
- B.
Power consumption
- C.
Flexibility
- D.
Resiliency
- 23.A business continuity plan (BCP) is not complete unless it includes:
- A.
Dedicated resources
- B.
Detailed procedures
- C.
Network diagrams
- D.
Critical processes
- 24.Under the US-CERT model for incident categorization, a CAT-3 incident refers to which of the following?
- A.
Improper usage
- B.
Investigation
- C.
Denial of service (DoS)
- D.
Malicious code
- 25.An interoperability error is what type of vulnerability?
- A.
Technical
- B.
Process
- C.
Emergent
- D.
Organizational
- 26.Securing Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) systems can be challenging because they:
- A.
Operate in specialized environments and often have non-standard design elements
- B.
Are subject to specialized requirements established for national security systems
- C.
Support critical infrastructure processes for which any risk of compromise is unacceptable
- D.
Cannot be replaced due to aging infrastructure and the complexity of included components
- 27.Virtual systems should be managed using a dedicated virtual local area network (VLAN) because:
- A.
Network topologies do not always property identify the locations of virtual servers
- B.
VLAN encryption provides a double layer of protection for virtual system data
- C.
Insecure protocols could result in a compromise of privileged user credentials
- D.
Segregation of management traffic and use traffic dramatically improves performance
- 28.Three common controls used to protect the availability of information are:
- A.
Redundancy, backups and access controls.
- B.
Encryption, file permissions and access controls.
- C.
Access controls, logging and digital signatures.
- D.
Hashes, logging and backups.
- 29.2. Select all that apply. Governance has several goals, including:
- A.
Ensuring that objectives are achieved.
- B.
Verifying that organizational resources are being used appropriately.
- C.
Directing and monitoring security activities.
- D.
Ascertaining whether risk is being managed properly.
- E.
Providing strategic direction.
- 30.Which of the following is the best definition for cybersecurity?
- A.
The process by which an organization manages cybersecurity risk to an acceptable level
- B.
The protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure
- C.
The protection of paper documents, digital and intellectual property, and verbal or visual communications
- D.
Protecting information assets by addressing threats to information that is processed, stored or transported by interworked information systems
- 31.Which of the following cybersecurity roles is charged with the duty of managing incidents and remediation?
- A.
Board of directors
- B.
Executive committee
- C.
Cybersecurity management
- D.
Cybersecurity practitioners
- 32.
- A.
Disaster recovery objectives, resources and personnel.
- B.
Who had access to the evidence, in chronological order.
- C.
Labor, union and privacy regulations.
- D.
Proof that the analysis is based on copies identical to the original evidence.
- E.
The procedures followed in working with the evidence.
- 33.NIST defines a(n) BLANK as a “violation or imminent threat of violation of computer security policies, acceptable use policies, or standard security practices.”
- A.
Disaster
- B.
Event
- C.
Threat
- D.
Incident
- 34.Select all that apply. A business impact analysis (BIA) should identify:
- A.
The circumstances under which a disaster should be declared.
- B.
The estimated probability of the identified threats actually occurring.
- C.
The efficiency and effectiveness of existing risk mitigation controls.
- D.
A list of potential vulnerabilities, dangers and/or threats.
- E.
Which types of data backups (full, incremental and differential) will be used.
- 35.____________________ is defined as “a model for enabling convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management or service provider interaction.”
- A.
Software as a Service (SaaS)
- B.
Cloud computing
- C.
Big data
- D.
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- 36.
- A.
APTs typically originate from sources such as organized crime groups, activists or governments.
- B.
APTs use obfuscation techniques that help them remain undiscovered for months or even years.
- C.
APTs are often long-term, multi-phase projects with a focus on reconnaissance.
- D.
The APT attack cycle begins with target penetration and collection of sensitive information.
- E.
Although they are often associated with APTs, intelligence agencies are rarely the perpetrators of APT attacks.
- 37.Smart devices, BYOD strategies and freely available applications and services are all examples of:
- A.
The reorientation of technologies and services designed around the individual end user.
- B.
The primacy of external threats to business enterprises in today’s threat landscape.
- C.
The stubborn persistence of traditional communication methods.
- D.
The application layer’s susceptibility to APTs and zero-day exploits.
- 38.Choose three. Which types of risk are typically associated with mobile devices?
- A.
Organizational risk
- B.
Compliance risk
- C.
Technical risk
- D.
Physical risk
- E.
Transactional risk
- 39.Which three elements of the current threat landscape have provided increased levels of access and connectivity, and therefore increased opportunities for cybercrime?
- A.
Text messaging, Bluetooth technology and SIM cards
- B.
Web applications, botnets and primary malware
- C.
Financial gains, intellectual property and politics
- D.
Cloud computing, social media and mobile computing
- 40.The core duty of cybersecurity is to identify, respond to and manage [Blank] to an organization's digital assets.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 41.A(n) [Blank] is anything capable of acting against an asset in a manner that can cause harm.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 42.A(n) [Blank] is something of value worth protecting.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 43.An [Blank] is a weakness in the design, implementation, operation or internal controls in a process that could be exploited to violate the system security.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 44.The path or route used to gain access to the target asset is known as a(n) [Blank].Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 45.In an attack, the container that delivers the exploit to the target is called a(n) [Blank].Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 46.[Blank] communicate required and prohibited activities and behaviors.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 47.[Blank] is a class of malware that hides the existence of other malware by modifying the underlying operating system.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 48.[Blank] provide details on how to comply with policies and standards.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 49.[Blank], also called malicious code, is software designed to gain access to targeted computer systems, steal information or disrupt computer operations.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 50.[Blank] provide general guidance and recommendations on what to do in particular circumstances.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 51.[Blank] are used to interpret policies in specific situations.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 52.[Blank] are solutions to software programming and coding errors.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 53.[Blank] includes many components such as directory services, authentication and authorization services, and user management capabilities such as provisioning and deprovisioning.Word options: Standards, Vulnerability, Guidelines, Attack Vector, Policies, Risk, Threat, Asset, Patches, Identity Management, Malware, Rootkit, Payload, Procedure
- 54.System hardening should implement the principle of ________ or ________.
- A.
Governance, compliance
- B.
Least privilege, access control
- C.
Stateful inspection, remote access
- D.
Vulnerability assessment, risk mitigation
- 55.Select all that apply. Which of the following are considered functional areas of network management as defined by ISO?
- A.
Accounting management
- B.
Fault management
- C.
Firewall management
- D.
Performance management
- E.
Security management
- 56.Virtualization involves:
- A.
The creation of a layer between physical and logical access controls.
- B.
Multiple guests coexisting on the same server in isolation of one another.
- C.
Simultaneous use of kernel mode and user mode.
- D.
DNS interrogation, WHOIS queries and network sniffing.
- 57.Vulnerability management begins with an understanding of cybersecurity assets and their locations, which can be accomplished by:
- A.
Vulnerability scanning.
- B.
Penetration testing.
- C.
Maintaining an asset inventory
- D.
Using command line tools.
- 58.
- A.
Detect and block traffic from infected internal end points.
- B.
Eliminate threats such as email spam, viruses and worms.
- C.
Format, encrypt and compress data.
- D.
Control user traffic bound toward the Internet.
- E.
Monitor and detect network ports for rogue activity.
- 59.The [Blank] layer of the OSI model ensures that data are transferred reliably in the correctsequence, and the [Blank] layer coordinates and manages user connections.
- A.
Presentation, data link
- B.
Transport, session
- C.
Physical, application
- D.
Data link. network
- 60.Choose three. The key benefits of the DMZ system are:
- A.
DMZs are based on logical rather than physical connections.
- B.
An intruder must penetrate three separate devices.
- C.
Private network addresses arc not disclosed to the Internet.
- D.
Excellent performance and scalability as Internet usage grows.
- E.
Internal systems do not have direct access to the Internet.
- 61.
- A.
Encryption is the primary means of securing digital assets.
- B.
Encryption depends upon shared secrets anti is therefore an unreliable means of control.
- C.
A program's encryption elements should be handled by a third-party cryptologist.
- D.
Encryption is an essential but incomplete form of access control.
- 62.The number and types of layers needed for defense in depth are a function of:
- A.
Asset value, criticality, reliability of each control and degree of exposure.
- B.
Threat agents, governance, compliance and mobile device policy.
- C.
Network configuration, navigation controls, user interface and VPN traffic.
- D.
Isolation, segmentation, internal controls and external controls.
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