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1. In which network does every device have exactly two neighbors?

Explanation

In a ring network, every device is connected to exactly two neighbors, one on each side. This creates a circular connection where data can flow in both directions. This arrangement ensures that each device in the network has exactly two neighbors, making the ring network the correct answer to the question.

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About This Quiz
Cybersecurity Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled '3D053 Vol's 1,2, and 3', assesses knowledge in cybersecurity, network technologies, and safety protocols. It covers operational risk management, lethal currents, VPN usage, and network types, essential for professionals in information security and IT.

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2. The disadvantage of a network-based intrusion detection system  (NIDS) is that it

Explanation

A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is designed to monitor network traffic and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. One of the disadvantages of NIDS is that it cannot analyze encrypted packets because it lacks the capability to decrypt the data. Encryption is used to protect sensitive information during transmission, and without the ability to decrypt the packets, the NIDS cannot inspect the contents and identify any potential threats or attacks. This limitation makes it difficult for the NIDS to effectively detect and respond to encrypted network traffic, leaving a potential blind spot in the network security.

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3. Which port range constitutes well-known ports?

Explanation

The well-known ports range from 0 to 1023. These ports are reserved for specific services and protocols that are commonly used and recognized by the majority of network applications. They are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) to ensure consistency and prevent conflicts between different applications.

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4. By providing users with the necessary level of access to perform their jobs, you are

Explanation

By providing users with the necessary level of access to perform their jobs, you are implementing the least privilege principle. This principle states that users should only be given the minimum level of access required to carry out their tasks, reducing the risk of unauthorized access and potential damage. This practice helps to enhance security and minimize the potential impact of any security breaches or insider threats.

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5. The information assurance assessment and assistance program (IAAP) team consists of personnel experienced in all the following  Air Force specialties except

Explanation

The IAAP team consists of personnel experienced in all Air Force specialties except security forces. This means that the team includes individuals who have expertise in information systems, information assurance, and base information infrastructures. However, security forces personnel are not part of the IAAP team. They may have a different role within the Air Force, such as ensuring the physical security of installations and personnel.

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6. What items should never be stored in the same container with COMSEC material?

Explanation

High theft items should never be stored in the same container with COMSEC material because they pose a risk of being stolen. COMSEC material refers to sensitive information and equipment used for secure communication, and it is crucial to protect it from unauthorized access or theft. Storing high theft items with COMSEC material increases the chances of theft and compromises the security and confidentiality of the communication.

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7. Which type of security clearance is not valid for personnel on a communications security (COMSEC) access list?

Explanation

An interim security clearance is not valid for personnel on a communications security (COMSEC) access list. Interim security clearances are temporary clearances granted to individuals while their full background checks and investigations are still ongoing. These clearances are typically granted on a provisional basis and are subject to further evaluation and review. Therefore, individuals with only an interim security clearance would not be authorized to access COMSEC materials, as they have not yet completed the necessary vetting process.

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8. Changes that must be made to material in communication security (COMSEC) publications are called

Explanation

Amendments are changes that must be made to material in communication security (COMSEC) publications. They are used to update and modify the content of these publications to ensure accuracy and relevance. Corrections, on the other hand, refer to fixing errors or mistakes in the material. Updates can also be considered as changes, but amendments specifically imply modifications to the existing content. Therefore, amendments are the most appropriate term to describe the changes made to COMSEC publications.

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9. What is the risk outcome that results in the physical loss of assets rendering them inoperable and usually requiring replacement?

Explanation

Destruction is the risk outcome that results in the physical loss of assets rendering them inoperable and usually requiring replacement. This means that the assets are completely damaged or destroyed, making them unusable and necessitating the need for new assets to replace them. Denial of service refers to the interruption of access or availability of a service. Modification refers to unauthorized changes made to data or systems. Disclosure refers to the unauthorized release of sensitive information.

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10. When transproting bulky communication security (COMSEC) material through arilines, you may leave COMSEC material unattended

Explanation

COMSEC material is highly sensitive and valuable, and leaving it unattended can pose a significant security risk. Regardless of the situation or location, it is crucial to never leave COMSEC material unattended under any circumstances. This ensures that the material remains secure and protected from unauthorized access or potential theft.

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11. Air Force information systems must complete the information technology (IT)  Lean process to obtain an approval to operate unless these systems have been designated as a

Explanation

Air Force information systems must complete the IT Lean process to obtain an approval to operate unless they have been designated as SPACE and SAP/SAR. This means that if the systems have been designated as SPACE and SAP/SAR, they do not need to go through the IT Lean process for approval to operate. The SPACE designation refers to systems related to space operations, while SAP/SAR refers to systems that handle sensitive compartmented information.

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12. Integration of the capabilities of personnel, operations, and technology, and the evolution to network centric warfare best describes what concept?

Explanation

Defense in depth is a concept that involves the integration of personnel, operations, and technology in order to enhance security and protect against potential threats. This approach recognizes that no single security measure is enough to ensure complete protection, and therefore multiple layers of defense are implemented. By combining various strategies and tools, such as firewalls, information condition (INFOCON), and security tools, a comprehensive defense system can be established. The concept of defense in depth emphasizes the need for a holistic and multi-faceted approach to security, ensuring that vulnerabilities are minimized and potential attacks are mitigated effectively.

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13. Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?

Explanation

Fiber optic is the correct answer because it is a bound media that consists of a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic. This design allows for the transmission of data through the core using light signals, providing high-speed and long-distance communication capabilities.

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14. Which protocol has the job of verifiying the correct delivery of data from client to server?

Explanation

TCP is responsible for ensuring the reliable delivery of data from the client to the server. It uses a series of acknowledgments and retransmissions to verify that the data has been successfully received. DHCP is used for assigning IP addresses to devices on a network. HTTP is a protocol for transmitting hypertext over the internet. IP is responsible for routing packets of data between networks.

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15. Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP-base network?

Explanation

The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is an IETF standard that simplifies the process of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP-based network. It reduces the administration burden and complexity by automatically assigning IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and other network configuration parameters to hosts. This eliminates the need for manual configuration and makes it easier to manage and maintain a network.

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16. With what agency must the contract manager validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government PKI certificate?

Explanation

The contract manager must validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government PKI certificate with the Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA). This agency is responsible for managing the registration and issuance of PKI certificates, ensuring that only authorized individuals receive them. The LRA/TA acts as a trusted intermediary between the contractor employee and the government, verifying the employee's need for the certificate and ensuring that they meet the necessary requirements to obtain one. This validation process helps maintain the security and integrity of the PKI system.

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17. The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

Explanation

A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows the device down. This is a disadvantage because it can impact the performance and efficiency of the host system. The resources used by the HIDS, such as CPU and memory, are diverted from other critical tasks, potentially causing delays or disruptions in the normal functioning of the host. As a result, the overall speed and responsiveness of the device may be compromised.

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18. What was the previous name for what is now called the McAfee Firewall Enterprise?

Explanation

The previous name for what is now called the McAfee Firewall Enterprise was Sidewinder.

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19. Which firewall management interface menu option views the association between MAC addresses on the firewall and its corresponding internet protocol (IP) address?

Explanation

The correct answer is Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). ARP is a protocol used to map an IP address to a physical MAC address on a local network. In the context of firewall management, the ARP table can be accessed through the firewall management interface menu option to view the association between MAC addresses and their corresponding IP addresses. This information is important for network troubleshooting and security purposes.

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20. What is the term for any equipment or area in which classified information is processed?

Explanation

The term "RED" is used to refer to any equipment or area where classified information is processed. This term is commonly used in the field of information security and is associated with the highest level of security clearance. The other options mentioned, such as TEMPEST, Black, and EMSEC, are not directly related to the processing of classified information.

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21. A protective distribution system (PDS) is usually installed between two

Explanation

A protective distribution system (PDS) is usually installed between two controlled access areas (CAA) because a PDS is designed to provide secure communication and data transmission between two or more controlled access areas. It ensures that sensitive information is protected and only accessible to authorized individuals within the CAA. By installing a PDS between two CAA, the security and integrity of the information being transmitted can be maintained, preventing unauthorized access or interception.

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22. As part of a two-person control (TCP) team, you must be designated to handle communication security (COMSEC) material under the

Explanation

The correct answer is personnel reliability program (PRP). The personnel reliability program (PRP) is a program that ensures individuals who have access to communication security (COMSEC) material are reliable and trustworthy. This program includes background checks, regular evaluations, and ongoing monitoring to ensure the security of sensitive information. Being designated to handle COMSEC material under the PRP means that the individual has met the necessary requirements and has been deemed trustworthy to handle such material.

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23. What is the risk outcome the results in the loss of services provided by the operation of an information system (IS) for a period of time?

Explanation

The risk outcome that results in the loss of services provided by the operation of an information system for a period of time is denial of service. This refers to an intentional or unintentional interruption or degradation of services, making the system inaccessible to its intended users. This can be caused by various factors such as network congestion, hardware or software failures, or malicious attacks.

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24. Which WiFi standard is the slowest yet least expensive?

Explanation

802.11b is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard. It operates at a maximum speed of 11 Mbps, which is slower compared to the other options. However, it is also the least expensive option as it is an older standard and has been surpassed by newer and faster options.

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25. What is the default read community string of a simple network management protocol (SNMP) agent?

Explanation

The default read community string of a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent is "Public". The read community string is used to authenticate and allow read-only access to SNMP devices. It is a commonly used default value that allows users to access basic information from SNMP agents without authentication. However, it is recommended to change the default community string to a more secure and unique value to prevent unauthorized access to SNMP devices.

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26. Restricting what traffic travels in and out of the network best describes what concept?

Explanation

Firewalls are security devices that monitor and control the traffic traveling in and out of a network. They act as a barrier between the internal network and the external network, allowing only authorized traffic to pass through while blocking unauthorized access. By restricting what traffic is allowed to enter or leave the network, firewalls enhance the network's security and protect against potential threats and attacks. Therefore, the concept that best describes this restriction of traffic is firewalls.

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27. Which of the following are considered long term communications security (COMSEC) key storage devices?

Explanation

The Simple Key Loader (SKL) is considered a long term communications security (COMSEC) key storage device. It is used to securely load cryptographic keys into communication devices such as radios and encryption devices. The SKL ensures the confidentiality and integrity of the keys during storage and transfer, making it an essential tool for maintaining secure communications over an extended period of time. The other options listed, KYK-13, KYX-15, and Communications Security Physical Inventory (CPI), do not specifically function as long term key storage devices.

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28. What minimum milli-ampere current can be lethal?

Explanation

A minimum milli-ampere current of 50 can be lethal because it is sufficient to disrupt the normal functioning of the human body. At this level of current, it can interfere with the electrical signals in the heart, causing arrhythmias and potentially leading to cardiac arrest. Additionally, it can also cause severe burns and damage to internal organs. Therefore, any current above 50 milli-amperes can be extremely dangerous and potentially fatal.

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29. As the migration to internet protocol (IP)  V6 continues, many organizations rely upon what to compensate for the lack of usable IP addresses?

Explanation

As the migration to internet protocol (IP) V6 continues, many organizations rely upon subnetting to compensate for the lack of usable IP addresses. Subnetting allows for the division of a network into smaller subnetworks, enabling more efficient use of IP addresses. By dividing the network into smaller subnets, organizations can allocate IP addresses more effectively and reduce wastage. Subnetting also helps with network management and allows for better organization and control of network resources.

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30. Setting up a secure point-to-point communication is called

Explanation

Tunneling is the process of encapsulating one network protocol within another network protocol to create a secure point-to-point communication. This allows data to be transmitted securely over an untrusted network, such as the internet. Tunneling establishes a virtual tunnel between two endpoints, encrypting the data and protecting it from unauthorized access. It is commonly used in VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) to provide secure remote access to a private network.

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31. How long should a communication security (COMSEC) inventory form be retained?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Past six months plus the current month". This means that a communication security (COMSEC) inventory form should be retained for a period of six months, along with the current month. This ensures that there is a record of the inventory for the most recent six months, allowing for easy reference and tracking of communication security materials. It is important to retain these forms for a specific period of time to maintain accountability and security.

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32. Within how many minutes should an individual respond if a protective distribution system (PDS) alarm is activated?

Explanation

An individual should respond within 15 minutes if a protective distribution system (PDS) alarm is activated. This is important to ensure prompt action is taken to address any potential issues or threats to the system's integrity. A quick response time can help prevent further damage or disruptions to the distribution system and minimize any potential risks or hazards.

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33. When network password composition rules are not automatically enforce, what process should network administrators use to enforce good password stringency?

Explanation

When network password composition rules are not automatically enforced, network administrators should use the process of "cracking" to enforce good password stringency. Cracking refers to the act of attempting to break or guess passwords by using various techniques such as brute-force attacks, dictionary attacks, or rainbow table attacks. By actively trying to crack passwords, network administrators can identify weak passwords and enforce stronger password policies to enhance the security of the network.

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34. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) guides security policy and guidance for government contractors?

Explanation

AFI 31-601, Industrial Security Program Management, is the correct answer because it specifically focuses on security policy and guidance for government contractors. This instruction provides guidance on the management and implementation of industrial security programs, which includes safeguarding classified information and ensuring compliance with security regulations. It outlines the responsibilities of government contractors and provides procedures for conducting security assessments and investigations. Therefore, AFI 31-601 is the appropriate instruction to consult for security policy and guidance for government contractors.

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35. What of access is given to users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews?

Explanation

Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given administrative access. This level of access allows them to have full control and authority over the system, enabling them to make necessary changes and modifications to troubleshoot issues, configure settings, and review the system thoroughly. Administrative access is typically granted to IT professionals or system administrators who are responsible for managing and maintaining the system.

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36. A companion file virus is one that

Explanation

A companion file virus is a type of virus that renames the original file and then writes itself with the original file's name. This means that the virus disguises itself as the original file, making it harder to detect and remove. By renaming the file and taking on its identity, the virus can easily spread and infect other systems without raising suspicion.

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37. To virus-protect your system, make sure you perform all the following steps except

Explanation

Logging off your computer daily does not directly contribute to virus protection. While it is generally a good practice to log off or shut down your computer when not in use, it does not specifically protect your system from viruses. The other three options - installing the latest service packs, updating anti-virus software, and being cautious of certain file attachments - are all proactive measures that can help protect your system from viruses.

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38. To limit the risks associated with using simple network management protocols (SNMP),

Explanation

Disabling all SNMP devices/services if not required is the best way to limit the risks associated with using SNMP. By disabling SNMP, potential vulnerabilities and attack vectors are eliminated, reducing the chances of unauthorized access or exploitation. This ensures that only necessary SNMP devices/services are enabled, minimizing the potential for security breaches and protecting the network from potential threats.

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39. What should be implemented on desktop systems connected to critical networks to prevent unauthorized people from gaining control of the system when the system is powered up?

Explanation

A BIOS password should be implemented on desktop systems connected to critical networks to prevent unauthorized people from gaining control of the system when it is powered up. This is because a BIOS password is a security measure that requires users to enter a password before they can access the system's BIOS settings or boot from external devices. By setting a BIOS password, it adds an extra layer of protection and prevents unauthorized individuals from tampering with the system's configuration or gaining control over it.

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40. Voice Protection System (VPS) reports provides full-service reporting package that enables you to do all the following except

Explanation

The Voice Protection System (VPS) reports offer a comprehensive reporting package that allows users to view telecom resource use, track phone network usage, and report on service performance and call quality. However, it does not provide conversation transcripts.

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41. Who requires that the communications security account manager (CAM) be formally trained to certify the training of local management device/key processor (LMD/KP) platform users?

Explanation

The Nation Security Agency (NSA) requires that the communications security account manager (CAM) be formally trained to certify the training of local management device/key processor (LMD/KP) platform users. This means that the NSA has specific standards and requirements for the CAM to ensure that they are qualified and capable of certifying the training of LMD/KP platform users.

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42. Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon, and prohibit the use of, government owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks?

Explanation

The designated approving authority has the authority to impose restrictions upon and prohibit the use of government-owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks. This individual is responsible for approving and authorizing the use of such media, ensuring that proper security measures are in place, and making decisions regarding restrictions and prohibitions to safeguard classified information.

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43. Which network integrates multiple topologies?

Explanation

A tree network integrates multiple topologies by connecting multiple star networks together in a hierarchical structure. In a tree network, a main backbone or root node connects to multiple secondary nodes, which in turn connect to more nodes. This hierarchical arrangement allows for the integration of multiple star networks, creating a larger and more complex network. The tree network topology is commonly used in wide area networks (WANs) and is known for its scalability and ability to handle large amounts of traffic.

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44. The communication security physical inventory (CPI) will include all of the following ​except

Explanation

The communication security physical inventory (CPI) is a process that involves taking stock of all communication security materials and equipment. This inventory includes items such as editions, quantities, and short titles of the materials. However, the accounting legend code (ALC) is not included in the CPI. The ALC is a code used for accounting purposes and is not directly related to the physical inventory of communication security materials.

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45. Sign the communication security (COMSEC) material destruction record

Explanation

The correct answer is "immediately after the material is destroyed." This means that the communication security (COMSEC) material destruction record should be signed right after the material has been destroyed. This ensures that there is a clear and timely record of the destruction process, minimizing the chances of any mishandling or unauthorized access to sensitive information. Signing the record immediately after destruction also helps maintain accountability and compliance with security protocols.

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46. Who is responsible for verifying proper security clearances and background investigation  checks prior  to granting a network user access to the Air Force Provisioned Portion of the Global Information Grid (AF GIG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is IAO and security manager. The responsibility of verifying proper security clearances and background investigation checks lies with both the Information Assurance Officer (IAO) and the security manager. They work together to ensure that network users have met investigative requirements and have satisfied network access requirements before granting them access to the Air Force Provisioned Portion of the Global Information Grid (AF GIG).

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47. What office assigns a tracking number to any reported communication security (COMSEC) material receipt reporting discrepancy?

Explanation

HQ AFNIC/EVIC is the correct answer because AFNIC stands for Air Force Network Integration Center, which is responsible for managing and maintaining the Air Force's network infrastructure. EVIC stands for Electronic Vulnerability Information Control, which is a system used to track and report any discrepancies or issues related to communication security (COMSEC) material receipt. Therefore, HQ AFNIC/EVIC is the office that assigns a tracking number to any reported COMSEC material receipt reporting discrepancy.

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48. When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Window operating system and its other products, Microsoft releases

Explanation

Microsoft releases bulletins when vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and its other products. Bulletins are a common method used by Microsoft to inform users about security vulnerabilities and provide guidance on how to mitigate them. These bulletins typically include information about the vulnerability, its severity, and steps to take to protect against potential attacks. They serve as important resources for users to stay informed and take necessary actions to secure their systems.

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49. A program that contains or installs a malicious program is called a

Explanation

A trojan horse is a program that appears to be legitimate but actually contains or installs a malicious program. It tricks users into thinking it is harmless and gains their trust, allowing it to infiltrate their system and carry out harmful actions without their knowledge. Unlike viruses or worms, trojan horses do not self-replicate, but they can still cause significant damage by stealing sensitive information, giving unauthorized access to the system, or causing other malicious activities.

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50. What is the lowest level of information condition (INFOCON)?

Explanation

The lowest level of information condition (INFOCON) is 5. This level indicates that there is no current threat to information systems and no special security measures are required. It signifies a normal operating condition where information systems are functioning normally and are not under any known or imminent attack.

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51. You can implement all of the following security features to help define our internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

Explanation

Consolidating voice with data using a virtual local area network (VLAN) is not a security feature that helps defend IP telephony systems from attackers. VLANs are used to segregate network traffic and improve network performance, but they do not provide any specific security measures. The other options mentioned, such as enabling access control lists (ACLs), deploying protection from DHCP spoofing, and enabling port security access, are all security features that can protect IP telephony systems from attackers.

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52. When using secure split mail services, all external simple message transfer protocol (SMTP) hosts will connect to the firewall's

Explanation

When using secure split mail services, all external SMTP hosts will connect to the external sendmail server. This server is responsible for receiving incoming emails from external sources and forwarding them to the appropriate internal servers within the network. It acts as a bridge between the external SMTP hosts and the internal servers, ensuring that the communication remains secure and controlled. By using an external sendmail server, organizations can effectively manage their email traffic and protect their internal network from potential threats.

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53. When the cached information is verified to be up-to-date, the proxy has ensured information?

Explanation

Freshness refers to the up-to-dateness of the information. When the cached information is verified to be up-to-date, it means that the proxy has ensured that the information is fresh and has been recently updated. This implies that the information is current and reflects the latest changes or updates. Therefore, freshness is the most suitable term to describe the situation where the proxy has verified the cached information to be up-to-date.

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54. The Cyber T hec The Cyber Surety journeyman monitors all of the following programs except

Explanation

The Cyber Surety journeyman is responsible for monitoring and ensuring the security of various programs. These programs include emission security (EMSEC), computer security (COMPUSEC), and communications security (COMSEC). However, the journeyman does not monitor information security (INFOSEC) as part of their role.

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55. Which class of internet protocols addresses in used for very large networks?

Explanation

Class A addresses are used for very large networks because they have a very large range of IP addresses available. Class A addresses have a first octet that ranges from 1 to 126, allowing for up to 16,777,214 hosts on a single network. This makes them suitable for organizations or networks that require a large number of devices to be connected. Class A addresses are typically assigned to major corporations or internet service providers who need a large number of IP addresses for their network infrastructure.

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56. What situation is ​not an authorized exception to two-person integrity (TPI) requirements?

Explanation

COMSEC material handled in minimum manning situations is not an authorized exception to two-person integrity (TPI) requirements. This means that even in situations where there is a minimum number of personnel available, the TPI requirements for handling COMSEC material still apply. TPI is a security measure that ensures the presence of at least two authorized individuals when handling sensitive material to prevent unauthorized access or tampering. Therefore, even in minimum manning situations, the TPI requirements should be followed for COMSEC material.

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57. When transporting communication security (COMSEC), MAJCOM approval is required when traveling

Explanation

This answer suggests that when transporting communication security (COMSEC), MAJCOM approval is required specifically when traveling via non-U.S. flag airlines. This implies that there are different regulations and protocols in place when using non-U.S. flag airlines for transporting COMSEC, and the approval from the MAJCOM is necessary to ensure the security and integrity of the communication.

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58. While monitoring your network, a guideline you should remember is to

Explanation

The correct answer is to observe regular network traffic and look for anomalies. This guideline suggests that it is important to regularly monitor network traffic and be vigilant for any abnormal or suspicious activities. By doing so, potential security breaches or intrusions can be detected and addressed promptly. This proactive approach helps in maintaining the security and integrity of the network.

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59. Message that are sent to the person administering a mail system are generally addressed to

Explanation

When messages are sent to the person administering a mail system, they are generally addressed to the "postmaster". The postmaster is responsible for managing the mail system and handling any issues or inquiries related to it. This includes tasks such as troubleshooting email delivery problems, managing user accounts, and ensuring the overall functionality and security of the mail system. Therefore, addressing messages to the postmaster ensures that they reach the appropriate person who can effectively handle any mail system-related matters.

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60. Sanitizing sealed disks, removable disk packs, magnetic bubble memory, core memory, and flash memory is not complete until how many passes with a degausser?

Explanation

Sanitizing sealed disks, removable disk packs, magnetic bubble memory, core memory, and flash memory requires six passes with a degausser. This means that the degausser needs to be applied six times to completely sanitize these types of memory storage.

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61. Who owns the Enterprise Telephony Management system?

Explanation

SecureLogix owns the Enterprise Telephony Management system.

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62. How often must a degausser be recertified for the first two years of operation?

Explanation

A degausser must be recertified every 6 months for the first two years of operation. This is necessary to ensure that the degausser is functioning properly and effectively. Regular recertification helps to maintain the quality and efficiency of the degausser, ensuring that it continues to meet the required standards. By recertifying every 6 months, any potential issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of data breaches or other problems.

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63. What form is used to record the arrival or departure of all personnel not​ named on the facility authorized access list?

Explanation

Air Force Form 1109 is used to record the arrival or departure of all personnel not named on the facility authorized access list. This form is specifically designed for the Air Force and is used to maintain a record of individuals who enter or leave a facility. It helps to ensure that only authorized personnel have access to the facility and allows for better security and accountability.

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64. The main source of compromising emanations is the result of

Explanation

The main source of compromising emanations is nature. This suggests that natural factors such as electromagnetic radiation or atmospheric conditions can lead to the unintentional leakage of sensitive information. These compromising emanations can potentially be intercepted and exploited by unauthorized individuals, posing a security risk. It is important for organizations to implement appropriate measures to mitigate the impact of these natural sources of compromising emanations.

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65. Except under special circumstances, destroy communication security (COMSEC) keying material designated CRYPTO as soon as possible but no later than how many hours after supersession?

Explanation

Communication security (COMSEC) keying material designated CRYPTO needs to be destroyed as soon as possible but no later than twelve hours after supersession. This is to ensure that the old keying material is no longer accessible or usable, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or decryption of sensitive information. Waiting longer than twelve hours could potentially compromise the security of the communication system.

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66. Requirements for availability and integrity are associated with

Explanation

Mission assurance refers to the processes and activities that ensure the availability, integrity, and reliability of critical systems and information necessary to accomplish an organization's mission. It involves implementing measures to protect against threats, vulnerabilities, and disruptions that could impact the organization's ability to carry out its mission. Therefore, requirements for availability and integrity are associated with mission assurance, as they are key components of ensuring the organization's mission is successfully achieved.

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67. Cyber Surety specialists do not review information system audit logs to

Explanation

Cyber Surety specialists do not review information system audit logs to report fraud, waste, and abuse. This means that their role does not involve analyzing the audit logs to identify any instances of fraudulent activities, misuse of resources, or inefficient practices. Their main focus is on ensuring the security and integrity of information systems by implementing measures to protect against vulnerabilities and penetrations.

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68. Active intrusion detection system (IDS) blocks network traffic when it detects an intrusion. Normally, active IDSs are incorporated into

Explanation

Firewalls are a common component of network security systems that monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. Active intrusion detection systems (IDS) are often incorporated into firewalls to enhance their capabilities. By actively monitoring network traffic, IDS can detect potential intrusions and take immediate action to block or prevent them. This makes firewalls an ideal choice for hosting active IDSs as they can effectively analyze and filter network traffic, providing an additional layer of protection against unauthorized access and malicious activities.

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69. The front of the KOK-22A device fill connector allows interface with which type of file devices?

Explanation

The front of the KOK-22A device fill connector allows interface with both DS-101 and DS-102 type of file devices.

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70. In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the same port on more than one machine?

Explanation

A sweep port scan is a type of port scan where the scanner connects to the same port on multiple machines. This scan is used to quickly identify open ports on multiple target machines. By connecting to the same port on different machines, the scanner can gather information about the open ports simultaneously, making it an efficient method for reconnaissance purposes.

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71. A firewall burb can best be defined as

Explanation

A firewall burb can best be defined as a set of one or more interfaces. In the context of network security, a firewall burb represents the boundary or connection point between different networks. It consists of one or more network interfaces that are configured to control the flow of traffic between the networks. The interfaces in a firewall burb can be physical or virtual, and they are responsible for filtering and inspecting network traffic based on predefined security policies. By defining the interfaces, a firewall burb determines how the firewall interacts with the networks it is connected to, ensuring secure communication and protecting against unauthorized access.

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72. Flaws that include threats in building construction, improper implementation of utilities, inadequate wiring, and poor housekeeping practices can be best classified as what type of threat?

Explanation

The given answer is "Environmental" because the flaws mentioned in the question are related to the environment and its impact on building construction. Threats such as inadequate wiring, improper implementation of utilities, and poor housekeeping practices can all be attributed to environmental factors such as weather conditions, natural disasters, or pollution. These flaws are not caused by humans intentionally or due to technological issues, but rather they are unintentional consequences of the environment.

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73. Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband data services?

Explanation

A wireless wide area network (WWAN) is a type of network that typically provides wireless broadband data services. WWANs are designed to cover large areas, such as cities or even entire countries, and provide internet connectivity to devices over a wide geographic area. This makes WWANs suitable for providing wireless broadband data services to users who are on the move or located in remote areas where other types of networks may not be available or practical.

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74. Personnel at the temporary duty (TDY) location can/should verify an individual's cryptographic access program (CAP) status through

Explanation

The correct answer is the communications security management system (CMS). This system is used to manage and track individuals' cryptographic access program (CAP) status. It allows personnel at the temporary duty (TDY) location to verify an individual's CAP status, ensuring that they have the necessary authorization to access cryptographic material. Two-person integrity (TPI) is a security measure that requires two authorized individuals to be present when handling sensitive material, but it does not verify CAP status. The communications security physical inventory (CPI) is used to track and account for cryptographic material, but it does not verify CAP status. The certification authority workstation (CAW) is used for issuing and managing digital certificates, but it is not directly related to CAP status verification.

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75. Guidance for processing COMSEC material receipt reporting discrepancies can be found in

Explanation

The correct answer is ASSI 4212 and AFKAG-2. This is because the question asks for guidance on processing COMSEC material receipt reporting discrepancies, and the correct source for this guidance is ASSI 4212 and AFKAG-2. The other options listed do not provide the specific guidance needed for this situation.

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76. As a mininum, to what classification should you mark a communication security (COMSEC) incident report when the report reveals effective dates of classified keying material, enough information to determine the effective date, or material suspected of being compromised?

Explanation

When a communication security (COMSEC) incident report reveals effective dates of classified keying material or enough information to determine the effective date, it is important to mark it as CONFIDENTIAL. This classification ensures that the report is handled with a level of sensitivity and protection appropriate for the potential compromise of classified information. The information contained in the report may not be as highly classified as TOP SECRET, but it still requires a level of confidentiality to prevent unauthorized access and potential harm to national security.

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77. What term is used for a domain name server (DNS) architecture when one or more name servers reside behind a firewall, and contain an "inside" hostname and IP address?

Explanation

Split architecture is the term used for a domain name server (DNS) architecture when one or more name servers reside behind a firewall and contain an "inside" hostname and IP address. In this architecture, the DNS servers are divided into two separate parts, with one part located inside the firewall and the other part located outside. This split architecture helps to increase security by protecting the internal DNS servers from direct external access while still allowing them to serve DNS requests from the outside.

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78. Which access control list (ACL) restricts packets into or out of a given layer 3 interface?

Explanation

A Router Access Control List (RACL) restricts packets into or out of a given layer 3 interface. RACLs are used on routers to filter traffic based on various criteria such as source IP address, destination IP address, protocol, and port number. They are commonly used to control access to a network by allowing or denying specific types of traffic. In this context, RACL is the correct answer as it specifically refers to access control lists used on routers.

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79. The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were highlighted in a report released by the

Explanation

The President's National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee released a report that emphasized the vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks. This suggests that the committee recognized the potential risks and threats associated with these networks, and aimed to bring attention to them. The report likely discussed the need for enhanced security measures and strategies to protect these networks from cyber attacks and other forms of exploitation.

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80. When overwriting hard drives, examine what minimum percentage to verify the overwriting process?

Explanation

When overwriting hard drives, it is important to verify the overwriting process to ensure that the data has been successfully overwritten. The minimum percentage to verify the overwriting process is 20. This means that at least 20% of the hard drive should be checked to confirm that the data has been properly overwritten. Verifying the overwriting process is crucial to ensure that the old data is completely erased and cannot be recovered.

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81. For in-trasit storage, an installation commander can authorize what classifications to be kept on the flightline?

Explanation

An installation commander can authorize the storage of Confidential and Secret classifications on the flightline for in-transit purposes. This means that sensitive information that falls under these classifications can be stored temporarily in the flightline area. However, Top Secret information is not authorized for storage on the flightline, as it requires more stringent security measures. Unclassified information is also not authorized for storage on the flightline, as it does not require the same level of protection as classified information.

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82. In basic circuit theory, if the power source is disconnected or if there is a break in the wire, then there is a loss of

Explanation

If the power source is disconnected or if there is a break in the wire, then there is a loss of signal. This is because the signal requires a continuous flow of electricity to transmit information. When the power source is disconnected or there is a break in the wire, the circuit is interrupted and the signal cannot be transmitted effectively.

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83. What cryptographic access program (CAP) withdrawal method is used for personnel who are reassigned to another base or unit or to positions that do not ​require cryptographic access?

Explanation

Administrative withdrawal is the cryptographic access program (CAP) withdrawal method used for personnel who are reassigned to another base or unit or to positions that do not require cryptographic access. This method involves removing the individual's access privileges and credentials from the system, effectively withdrawing their cryptographic access rights. It is a standard procedure to ensure that only authorized personnel have access to sensitive information and resources.

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84. How often should communications security (COMSEC) access lists be reviewed for accuracy and annotated?

Explanation

Communications security (COMSEC) access lists should be reviewed for accuracy and annotated on a monthly basis. This regular review ensures that any changes or updates to access privileges are promptly recorded, reducing the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive information. Monthly reviews also allow for timely identification and resolution of any discrepancies or errors in the access lists, maintaining the integrity and effectiveness of the COMSEC measures. Quarterly or annual reviews may result in longer periods of potential vulnerability or outdated access information, while weekly reviews may be too frequent and time-consuming for larger organizations.

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85. The sequences of leading bits in an internet protocol used to identify the network portion of an an IP address is called?

Explanation

The sequences of leading bits in an internet protocol used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called a routing prefix. This prefix helps in determining the network address and allows routers to forward the IP packets to the correct destination. It is an essential component of IP addressing and plays a crucial role in routing and subnetting.

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86. To make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessor, administrators must be in the habit of

Explanation

To ensure that replacement administrators can perform the same tasks as their predecessor, it is important for administrators to maintain complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes. This documentation serves as a reference guide for the new administrators, allowing them to understand the network setup and make necessary changes. It also helps in troubleshooting and resolving any issues that may arise. By keeping thorough documentation, administrators can ensure continuity and smooth transition between different administrators, minimizing the chances of errors or disruptions in network operations.

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87. Which wireless standard originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption?

Explanation

Wired equivalency privacy (WEP) was a wireless standard that aimed to create a secure wireless network by providing data encryption. It was intended to offer the same level of security as a traditional wired network. However, WEP has been found to have significant security vulnerabilities, and it is no longer considered a reliable security measure.

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88. What shall be assigned to all Department of Defense information systems that is directly associated with the importance of the information contained relative to achieving  DOD goals and objectives?

Explanation

All Department of Defense information systems need to be assigned a mission assurance category based on the importance of the information contained and its relevance to achieving DOD goals and objectives. This categorization helps in ensuring the protection and security of the systems and their associated information. It allows for the implementation of appropriate security measures and controls to mitigate risks and ensure the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of the information.

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89. Port Scanning

Explanation

Port scanning is the process of sending out requests to connect to various ports on a computer and then observing which ports respond to the scan. This helps in identifying which ports are open and potentially vulnerable to attacks. It is not always malicious in nature, as port scanning can also be used for legitimate purposes such as network troubleshooting and security assessments.

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90. An area, room, or space which, when attended, must be occupied by two or more appropriately clear individuals who remain within sight of each other is called a communication security (COMSEC)

Explanation

A "no-lone zone" refers to an area, room, or space where it is required for two or more individuals to be present at all times, ensuring that they can see each other. This measure is implemented to enhance communication security (COMSEC) and prevent any unauthorized access or tampering with sensitive information or materials. The term "no-lone zone" emphasizes the importance of having constant supervision and accountability within the designated area, ensuring the integrity and security of the space.

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91. With the consolidation of the several Network Operations and Security  Centers (NOSC), the Air Force

Explanation

The consolidation of the several Network Operations and Security Centers (NOSC) allows the Air Force to achieve near end-to-end command and control capability. This means that they have better control and oversight of their network operations, allowing them to effectively manage and coordinate their activities. By consolidating these centers, the Air Force can streamline their operations and ensure a more efficient and effective network management system. This not only improves their overall network security but also enhances their ability to respond to threats and potential insider attacks.

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92. The integrated network operations and security center (INOSC) has several responsibilities except

Explanation

The integrated network operations and security center (INOSC) is responsible for several tasks, including having main sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and otherwise managing the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, installing patches or performing any upgrades provided by the AF Enterprise Network is not one of their responsibilities.

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93. Initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users ensures all of the following except the users

Explanation

The initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users aims to ensure that they are aware of their role in IA, trained on network security, and have satisfied network access requirements. However, it does not guarantee that they have met investigative requirements. This means that the training does not ensure that the users have undergone any specific investigations or background checks that may be required for certain positions or access levels.

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94. What does a firewall support that improves systems performance by lessening the load place on the system kernel?

Explanation

Fast path sessions are a feature supported by firewalls that improve system performance by reducing the load placed on the system kernel. Fast path sessions allow the firewall to bypass certain processing steps for trusted connections, such as session setup and tear-down, and instead use pre-established session information. This reduces the processing overhead on the system kernel and improves overall system performance.

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95. Which flexible command line can be used to gather information form domain name servers (DNS)?

Explanation

Dig is a flexible command line tool that can be used to gather information from domain name servers (DNS). It allows users to query DNS servers for various types of information, such as IP addresses associated with a domain, mail server information, and DNS records. Dig provides detailed output and supports advanced features like DNSSEC validation and EDNS0. It is commonly used by network administrators and DNS troubleshooters to diagnose DNS-related issues and gather information about domain names.

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96. When using transparent mail services, the following mail filtering features are available except

Explanation

Transparent mail services provide various mail filtering features to enhance security and prevent spam or malicious content. Message attachment filtering is not available as an option in transparent mail services. This means that these services do not offer the ability to filter or block specific types of attachments in incoming emails. However, destination address filtering, command filtering, and header filtering are all available features that can be used to filter and manage incoming mail based on the destination address, specific commands, or email headers respectively.

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97. Which communications security (COMSEC) tier generates,distributes, and performs account functions of all modern key, physical traditional key, and certain electronic key?

Explanation

COMSEC tier Zero is responsible for generating, distributing, and performing account functions of all modern key, physical traditional key, and certain electronic key. This means that tier Zero handles the entire process of creating and managing encryption keys, both physical and electronic, ensuring the security of communications.

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98. The only authorized methods to destroy key tapes are by of the following methods ​except

Explanation

The correct answer is "shredding". Shredding is not an authorized method to destroy key tapes. The other methods mentioned - disintegrating, pulverizing, and burning - are all authorized methods for destroying key tapes. Shredding may not be considered secure enough for the destruction of sensitive information on key tapes.

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99. What local communications security managemet software (LCMS) desktop function provides a user with the ablility to securely pass information and/or transfer electronic key management system (EKMS) messages/keys directley to other EKMS accounts?

Explanation

Direct Comms is the correct answer because it is the local communications security management software (LCMS) desktop function that allows users to securely pass information and transfer electronic key management system (EKMS) messages/keys directly to other EKMS accounts. This feature ensures secure and efficient communication between accounts within the LCMS system.

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100. To improve system security, several services that are preloaded on many UNIX systems can be disabled except

Explanation

To improve system security, it is recommended to disable several preloaded services on UNIX systems. These services, such as rsh, rlogin, and telnet, are known to have security vulnerabilities and are commonly disabled. However, the service that should not be disabled is rfinger. Rfinger is a service that provides information about users on the system, and while it may have some privacy concerns, it does not pose the same level of security risk as the other mentioned services. Therefore, rfinger should be left enabled for system functionality.

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101. Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

Explanation

A host-based IDS uses software sensors to monitor and analyze the activities and events occurring on a single host or computer system. This type of IDS is installed directly on the host and can detect and alert on any suspicious or malicious activity happening on that specific host. It is designed to provide detailed information about the activities within the host, including file changes, user logins, and system calls, making it an effective solution for detecting and preventing attacks targeting a specific host or system.

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102. When loading the vector set for the firefly credentials and you click on "Load EKMS Vector Set", what should immediately happen?

Explanation

When loading the vector set for the firefly credentials and clicking on "Load EKMS Vector Set", the screen will go black.

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103. What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

Explanation

A digital certificate is a type of certificate that authenticates the identity of the user. It is a digital file that contains information about the user and is issued by a trusted third party called a Certificate Authority (CA). The digital certificate is used to verify the authenticity of the user's identity during online transactions or communications. It ensures that the user is who they claim to be and provides a secure way to establish trust and protect sensitive information.

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104. Who reviews information assurance assurance program (IAAP) reports and has the final authority to downgrade IAAP report ratings when it is clear that incidents or deviations are involved?

Explanation

Headquarters Air Force Network Integration Center (HQ AFNIC) reviews information assurance assurance program (IAAP) reports and has the final authority to downgrade IAAP report ratings when it is clear that incidents or deviations are involved.

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105. Degaussing with an NSA-approved degausser is the only clear which media type?

Explanation

The correct answer is Magnetic tapes. Degaussing with an NSA-approved degausser is the only way to clear magnetic tapes. Magnetic tapes store data using magnetic fields, and degaussing is the process of erasing those magnetic fields, effectively clearing the data stored on the tapes. This process is crucial for data security and preventing unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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106. Which name server is the only one  that should have changes to domain name server (DNS) data?

Explanation

The master/primary name server is the only one that should have changes to domain name server (DNS) data. This server is responsible for maintaining the authoritative copy of the DNS data for a particular domain. It receives updates and changes to the DNS records and propagates them to the slave/secondary name servers. The slave/secondary name servers, on the other hand, are used for redundancy and backup purposes and do not directly make changes to the DNS data. They synchronize with the master/primary server to ensure consistency in the DNS records.

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107. All the following are requirements that must be met to be a communications security account manager (CAM) without a waiver except

Explanation

To be a communications security account manager (CAM) without a waiver, one must meet the following requirements: being a U.S. citizen, meeting minimum grade requirements per Air Force Cryptologic Accounting Guide (AFKAG)-1, and possessing a security clearance commensurate for the type of material in the account. The answer states that being a 33XX officer, a 3D053 or 3D000 NCO, or 301, 391 or 2210 civilian employee is not a requirement. Therefore, this option does not need to be met to be a CAM without a waiver.

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108. Communications security (COMSEC) clerks should inspect all protective packaging for signs of tampering and report discrepancies in accordance with

Explanation

COMSEC clerks should inspect all protective packaging for signs of tampering and report discrepancies in accordance with AFSSI 4212. This document likely provides guidelines and procedures for inspecting and reporting on protective packaging to ensure the security of communications. The other options (AFSSI 4201, AFSSI 4202, AFSSI 4211) are not mentioned in relation to inspecting protective packaging for tampering, so AFSSI 4212 is the most appropriate choice.

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109. Who assesses local communications security (COMSEC) elements during "command" assessments?

Explanation

MAJCOM, or Major Command, assesses local communications security (COMSEC) elements during "command" assessments. MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of multiple subordinate units within a specific geographic area or functional area. As part of their responsibilities, they assess and evaluate the effectiveness of COMSEC elements to ensure proper security measures are in place.

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110. What classification of communication security (COMSEC) material is the local management device (LMD) designed to support and process?

Explanation

The local management device (LMD) is designed to support and process SECRET classification of communication security (COMSEC) material.

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111. The local management device (LMD) supports or utilizes all of the following except

Explanation

The local management device (LMD) supports or utilizes dial-up communications, encrypted keying material, and the Santa Cruz Operation (SCO) UNIX OpenServer operating system. However, it does not support or utilize unencrypted keying material.

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112. Whenever possible, in which environment would you run the UNIX Apache server?

Explanation

The correct answer is "chroot". Chroot stands for "change root" and is a Unix command that allows you to change the root directory for a process or a group of processes. By running the UNIX Apache server in a chroot environment, you can isolate it from the rest of the system, increasing security and preventing unauthorized access to sensitive files and directories.

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113. Above which layer of the open systems integration (OSI) model are protocols designed to reside?

Explanation

Protocols are designed to reside above the session layer in the OSI model. The session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between applications. It provides services such as session establishment, data synchronization, and session management. Protocols, on the other hand, define rules and formats for communication between devices. Therefore, protocols are designed to reside above the session layer to ensure efficient and reliable communication between applications.

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114. Which port tool is not used to test your simple network management protocol (SNMP) security?

Explanation

The question is asking for the port tool that is not used to test SNMP security. WU_PingProPackage, SolarWinds, and SNMPutil are all port tools that can be used to test SNMP security. However, Security Mapper (SMAP) is not a port tool used for this purpose.

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115. Proxies do not

Explanation

Proxies act as intermediaries between users and the internet, allowing them to access online content while hiding their true IP addresses. This prevents organizations from easily tracking and monitoring user activities, hence limiting their visibility of users.

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116. Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts are controlled and are only released with approval from

Explanation

ASIM transcripts contain sensitive information regarding security incidents. Therefore, their release is controlled and requires approval from a specific authority. In this case, the correct answer is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOC). This suggests that AFNOC has the authority to review and grant permission for the release of ASIM transcripts. The wing commander, major command commander, and Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) may also have important roles in security incident management, but they are not specifically mentioned as the approving authority for the release of ASIM transcripts.

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117. When using an intrusion detection system (IDS), remember to

Explanation

Using a centralized management console for system management is important when using an intrusion detection system (IDS). This allows for easier and more efficient management of the IDS, as all the necessary controls and configurations can be accessed and controlled from a single console. It also helps in streamlining the monitoring and response process, as alerts and notifications can be centrally managed and analyzed. Additionally, a centralized management console enables better coordination and collaboration among security teams, ensuring a more effective and coordinated response to potential threats.

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118. Which device connects to the local management device (LMD) and provides secure direct communications capabilities between sites in the electronic key management system (EKMS) architecture?

Explanation

Secure terminal equipment (STE) connects to the local management device (LMD) and provides secure direct communications capabilities between sites in the electronic key management system (EKMS) architecture. STE is designed to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information during transmission. It encrypts and decrypts data, allowing secure communication between different sites in the EKMS architecture. This device plays a crucial role in maintaining the security of the key management system and ensuring that sensitive information is protected during transmission.

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119. Which type of firewall is typically used when speed is essential?

Explanation

A network-level firewall is typically used when speed is essential because it operates at the network layer of the OSI model and can quickly filter and route network traffic based on IP addresses and ports. It focuses on efficiently processing large volumes of data packets, making it ideal for high-speed environments where speed and performance are crucial. In contrast, application-level firewalls operate at the application layer and provide more granular control but may introduce more latency due to the deeper inspection required. Corporate/enterprise and personal/small office home office (SOHO) firewalls refer to the scale and scope of deployment rather than the speed factor.

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120. For what Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) server type can there be as many servers as needed in a domain?

Explanation

For the given question, the correct answer is "Slave/Secondary." In a domain, there can be as many Slave/Secondary servers as needed. These servers receive zone transfers from the Master/Primary server and help distribute the workload, improve redundancy, and increase fault tolerance. The Slave/Secondary servers have read-only copies of the zone data and can answer queries from clients.

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121. Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to ensure access to the network while

Explanation

Consistently monitoring and controlling networked resources helps in minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats. By actively monitoring the network, potential threats can be identified and mitigated before they cause any harm. Additionally, controlling access to the network ensures that only authorized users can access sensitive information, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches. Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes is important for maintaining the network's integrity and troubleshooting any issues that may arise. However, the primary focus of monitoring and controlling network resources is to minimize the risks posed by cyber threats.

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122. The use of two or more network interface cards (NIC) best describes which type of firewall?

Explanation

The use of two or more network interface cards (NIC) is commonly found in corporate/enterprise firewalls. This setup allows for better network performance and increased security by separating different types of network traffic. By utilizing multiple NICs, the firewall can effectively handle high volumes of network traffic and provide a secure network environment for a large number of users within a corporate or enterprise setting.

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123. Which McAfee Firewall Enterprise management interface is the graphical software that runs a windows computer within your network?

Explanation

The Admin console is the McAfee Firewall Enterprise management interface that runs on a Windows computer within your network. It is a graphical software that allows you to manage and configure the firewall settings and policies. The Admin console provides a user-friendly interface for administrators to monitor and control the firewall, making it easier to manage network security.

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124. From which media type must you remove to outer chassis and electronic circuit boards when practical prior to destroying?

Explanation

Core memory is the only media type mentioned in the options that requires the removal of outer chassis and electronic circuit boards before destroying. Sealed disk drives, magnetic bubble memory, and solid state storage devices can be destroyed without removing any additional components. Removable disk packs may or may not require the removal of outer chassis and electronic circuit boards depending on the specific device.

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125. What term is used to describe a communication security  (COMSEC) security lapse with a potential to jeopardize the security of COMSEC material if it is allowed to continue?

Explanation

A "Practice dangerous to security (PDS)" is a term used to describe a communication security (COMSEC) security lapse that has the potential to jeopardize the security of COMSEC material if it is allowed to continue. This term signifies a situation where a practice or behavior poses a risk to the overall security of COMSEC material and needs to be addressed or corrected to prevent any potential compromise.

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126. What type of access isgiven to remote users who access, download, or upload data?

Explanation

End-User access is the type of access given to remote users who access, download, or upload data. This type of access is typically limited to only the necessary functions and privileges required for end users to perform their tasks. It does not include administrative access, which is reserved for system administrators who have full control over the system. End-User access allows remote users to interact with the system and perform their designated tasks without having excessive privileges or control over the system.

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127. Use the high availability shared cluster addresses dialog box to do all the following except

Explanation

The high availability shared cluster addresses dialog box allows users to configure the shared cluster address, specify or send and receive heartbeats, and handle the fastest network traffic on the appliance. However, it does not provide a feature to isolate the cluster address from the domain name server (DNS) and default routers. This means that the cluster address will still be accessible and visible to the DNS and default routers.

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128.                     Which media destruction option method involves the application of concentrated hydriodic acid (55 percent to 58 percent                      solution) to a gamma ferric oxide disk surface?

Explanation

Option C involves the application of concentrated hydriodic acid to a gamma ferric oxide disk surface.

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129. Which COMSEC publication provides step-by-step procedures for COMSEC personnel to follow?

Explanation

AFKAG-2 is the correct answer because it is a COMSEC publication that provides step-by-step procedures for COMSEC personnel to follow. The other options, AFKAG-1, AFKAG-3, and AFKAG-4, may be related to COMSEC or Cryptologic Accounting, but they do not specifically provide the step-by-step procedures required by COMSEC personnel.

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130. To use VPN products, obtain interim approval from?

Explanation

To use VPN products, interim approval needs to be obtained from the Services and Integration Division (SAF/XC). This division is responsible for overseeing the integration of services within the Air Force and ensuring compliance with regulations and policies. They have the authority to grant approval for the use of VPN products, ensuring that they meet the necessary security requirements and align with the overall network infrastructure of the Air Force.

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131. When removing material from a communication security physical inventory (CPI), always

Explanation

When removing material from a communication security physical inventory (CPI), it is important to write an MFR (Memorandum for the Record). This document serves as a written record of the removal, documenting the details of the transaction such as the date, time, reason for removal, and the person responsible. Writing an MFR helps ensure accountability and transparency in the inventory management process, allowing for proper tracking and documentation of any changes made to the CPI.

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132. Before selecting a protective distribution system (PDS), with what two entities must the requesting  agency consider other communication security  (COMSEC) solutions first?

Explanation

The requesting agency must consider other communication security (COMSEC) solutions first by consulting with the Communication and Information Systems Officer (CSO) and the System Telecommunications Engineering Manager (STEM). These two entities are responsible for managing and overseeing the communication and information systems, and they have the expertise to assess the needs and requirements of the agency. By involving them in the decision-making process, the agency can ensure that all possible COMSEC solutions are explored before selecting a protective distribution system (PDS).

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133. When coupled with standardized network policy, the standard desktop configuration (SDC) substantially

Explanation

The standard desktop configuration (SDC) when combined with standardized network policy helps in improving network security. By implementing SDC, the number of network users with administrative privileges is reduced, which helps in limiting the potential vulnerabilities and unauthorized access to the network. This ensures that only authorized personnel have the necessary access rights, reducing the risk of security breaches. Therefore, the SDC plays a crucial role in enhancing network security.

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134. What is not true about firefly credentials?

Explanation

Firefly credentials do not have a set cryptoperiod. Cryptoperiod refers to the length of time for which a cryptographic key is considered secure before it needs to be changed. Since the statement says that firefly credentials do not have a set cryptoperiod, it means that the credentials do not expire or need to be changed after a certain period of time.

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135. Which communication security (COMSEC) management software is used in conjunction with the key processor (KP) to generate electronic key as well as transfer physical and electronic keys to other COMSEC accounts?

Explanation

The Local Communications Security Management Software (LCMS) is used in conjunction with the key processor (KP) to generate electronic keys and transfer both physical and electronic keys to other COMSEC accounts. LCMS is specifically designed for managing and maintaining communication security within a local network or organization. It provides a centralized platform for key management and distribution, ensuring secure and efficient communication between different COMSEC accounts.

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136. Which open source network-based intrusion detection system performs packet logging and real-time traffic analysis as well as protocol analysis, content searching/matching, and active blocking or passive detecting of a variety of attacks and probes?

Explanation

Snort is an open source network-based intrusion detection system that performs various functions such as packet logging, real-time traffic analysis, protocol analysis, content searching/matching, and active blocking or passive detecting of attacks and probes. It is widely used for monitoring network traffic and identifying potential security threats. Snort's capabilities make it an effective tool for network administrators to protect their systems from intrusion attempts and malicious activities.

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137. To ensure the integrity of the overwriting processm overwriting software must have the following functions and capabilities except?

Explanation

The overwriting software must have the capability to overwrite the entire hard drive independent of any input/output system/firmware capacity, be compatible with or capable of running independent of the type of hard drive being sanitized, and be compatible with or capable of running independent of the operating system loaded on the hard drive. However, providing a validation certificate indicating that the procedure was completed properly is not necessary for the integrity of the overwriting process.

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138. Unless directed by National Security Agency (NSA) or HQ CPSQ, how often is the electronic rekey of the firefly vector set completed?

Explanation

The correct answer is Annually. The question is asking how often the electronic rekey of the firefly vector set is completed unless directed by NSA or HQ CPSQ. The answer is annually, meaning that the rekey is done once a year, unless there are specific instructions from the NSA or HQ CPSQ.

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139. Which network-based security tool is a hardware and software and software system that sits on AF networks "listening" for "suspicious activity" that is characteristic of intruder techniques?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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140. Information security-related access controls that include segregation of duties and security screening of users can be classified as which category of access preservation?

Explanation

Access controls that include segregation of duties and security screening of users are classified as administrative access preservation. Administrative access controls focus on policies, procedures, and guidelines that are put in place to manage and regulate access to information and resources within an organization. These controls involve the implementation of administrative measures such as user management, user training, background checks, and separation of duties to ensure the security and integrity of the organization's systems and data.

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141. Most of the firewall implementations you will encounter will be found at the

Explanation

The correct answer is Integrated network operation security center (INOSC). This is because most firewall implementations are typically found at the INOSC, which is responsible for managing and securing the network operations of an organization. The AFNOC and MAJCOM are also involved in network operations, but they may not necessarily be the primary location for firewall implementations.

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142. Which Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) system file provide reverse mapping?

Explanation

Pointer (PTR) records in the Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) system file provide reverse mapping. Reverse mapping is the process of mapping an IP address to its corresponding domain name. PTR records are used to create reverse DNS lookups, allowing the resolution of IP addresses to domain names. This is useful for various network administration tasks, such as troubleshooting, security, and spam filtering.

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143. Who approves or disapproves IS (including software and services) connections to the Air Force Global Information  Grid (AF GIG) and accepts any risk created by the approved connections?

Explanation

The Air Force Network Operations Command (AFNetOps/CC) approves or disapproves IS connections to the Air Force Global Information Grid (AF GIG) and accepts any risk created by the approved connections. This means that AFNetOps/CC has the authority to determine whether a connection to the AF GIG is allowed or not, and they are responsible for assessing and managing any potential risks associated with the approved connections.

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144. All of the following are characteristics and capabilities of a Voice Protection System (VPS)  except

Explanation

The given answer, "centralizing yet distributing management," is not a characteristic or capability of a Voice Protection System (VPS). A VPS is designed to secure communications, enable real-time event notifications, and detect and block all inbound and outbound modem connections. However, centralizing yet distributing management refers to a different feature or capability that is not related to a VPS.

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145. To determine the appropriate actions to take during the absence of the communications security account manager (CAM), refer to

Explanation

To determine the appropriate actions to take during the absence of the communications security account manager (CAM), one should refer to AFKAG-2.

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146. Drilled and repaired security containers or vaults may be used to store communications security (COMSEC) material after they are inspected for safeguarding capabilities according to which publication?

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 00-20F-2. This publication provides guidelines and instructions for the inspection and safeguarding of communications security (COMSEC) material. It specifically covers the procedures for inspecting and repairing security containers or vaults that are used for storing COMSEC material. By following the guidelines outlined in this publication, organizations can ensure that their security containers or vaults are capable of effectively safeguarding the COMSEC material stored within them.

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147. A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone

Explanation

A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone. This means that the facility falls within a specific range of space that is designated as the facility zone. The other options (A, C, D) are not applicable as they do not specify the range of space that the facility falls within.

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148. What term is used to describe a communication security (COMSEC) security lapse that occurs when people fail to follow established COMSEC instructions, procedures, or standards?

Explanation

A COMSEC deviation refers to a communication security (COMSEC) security lapse that occurs when individuals do not adhere to the established instructions, procedures, or standards related to COMSEC. This can include actions such as not properly encrypting communications, mishandling classified information, or failing to follow secure communication protocols. A COMSEC deviation can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information, potentially leading to security breaches or unauthorized access to classified data.

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149. Which situation does not ​describe a communication security (COMSEC) cryptographic incident?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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150. A final communication security (COMSEC) incident report must be submitted no later then how many days after the initial report?

Explanation

A final communication security (COMSEC) incident report must be submitted no later than 60 days after the initial report. This allows for a thorough investigation and analysis of the incident to be conducted before the final report is submitted. It also allows for any additional information or findings to be included in the final report.

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151. All agencies/organizations implement information condition (INFOCON) measures except

Explanation

The Air Force network operating center network control division is the exception because it is an agency/organization that does not implement information condition (INFOCON) measures. The other options listed, major commands, direct reporting units, and field operating agencies, are all agencies/organizations that do implement INFOCON measures.

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152. Which firewall shutdown option is useful if you need to connect directly to the firewall to access the basic input/output systems (BIOS)?

Explanation

The "Halt system" option is useful if you need to connect directly to the firewall to access the basic input/output systems (BIOS). This option completely shuts down the firewall, allowing you to access the BIOS settings and make any necessary changes. It is different from the other options, as they either restart the system (reboot to operational kernel) or put it into a specific mode (shutdown to emergency maintenance mode) without completely shutting it down. The "Power down system" option also shuts down the firewall, but it does not specifically mention accessing the BIOS.

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153. No procedures exist for cleaning which media type?

Explanation

The correct answer is Programmable read-only memory and Optical Media. These media types do not have specific procedures for cleaning. Dynamic random access memory (DRAM), Random-access memory (RAM), and Static random access memory (SRAM) are types of computer memory that do not require cleaning procedures. Magnetic tapes, on the other hand, do require cleaning procedures to maintain their performance and longevity.

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154. Which proxy is located near the web server and acts as an intermediary between a web server and the internet?

Explanation

A reverse proxy is located near the web server and acts as an intermediary between the web server and the internet. It receives requests from clients and forwards them to the appropriate server. It can also cache and load balance requests, improving performance and security. In contrast, a forward proxy is located near the client and forwards requests to the internet on behalf of the client. An application proxy is a type of firewall that filters and controls access to specific applications. A software-based proxy refers to any proxy that is implemented using software rather than hardware.

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155. Which Voice Protection System (VPS) application provides allows you to view real-time monitoring and policy processing, view system diagnostics, and the VPS rules-based policy applications?

Explanation

Performance Manager is the correct answer because it is the Voice Protection System (VPS) application that allows users to view real-time monitoring and policy processing. It also provides the ability to view system diagnostics and the VPS rules-based policy applications.

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156. Which Air Force System Security Instruction (AFSSI) will the wing information assurance office (WIAO) use to conduct an emissions security (EMSEC) assessment and determine the required information assurance (IA) countermeasures?

Explanation

The wing information assurance office (WIAO) will use the Air Force System Security Instruction (AFSSI) "Beginning to process classified information" to conduct an emissions security (EMSEC) assessment and determine the required information assurance (IA) countermeasures. This instruction is relevant because it specifically addresses the security measures and protocols that need to be implemented when starting to handle classified information.

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157. Which intrusion detection system (IDS) examines servers or client computers for the patterns of an intrusion?

Explanation

A host-based IDS is an intrusion detection system that examines servers or client computers for the patterns of an intrusion. It analyzes the activity and behavior of individual hosts, looking for signs of unauthorized access or malicious activity. This type of IDS is installed directly on the host system and monitors its logs, file systems, and network connections to detect any suspicious activity. It is particularly effective in detecting attacks that originate from within the host, such as malware infections or unauthorized access attempts.

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158. Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

Explanation

A Network-based IDS is an intrusion detection system that monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures. It operates by analyzing network traffic and comparing it against a database of known attack patterns and signatures. This type of IDS can detect abnormal behavior in network protocols and identify known viruses or malware. It is designed to monitor network traffic in real-time and raise alerts or take action when suspicious activity is detected.

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159. Which Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) server is responsible for zone transfers?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Named". Named is the Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) server that is responsible for zone transfers. Zone transfers involve the replication of DNS information from the primary server (master) to secondary servers (slaves). The Named server is responsible for coordinating this process and ensuring that the zone data is accurately transferred and synchronized between the primary and secondary servers.

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160. Examples of where sanitization and declassification are appropriate include all the following except?

Explanation

Sanitization and declassification are appropriate in various scenarios to ensure the protection of classified information. This includes situations where the media is inadvertently contaminated with data of a higher classification level, when releasing media from a secure facility to a non-clear maintenance facility, and when no longer maintaining the secured physical environment. However, changing modes of operation or prior to reuse does not require sanitization or declassification as it does not involve the potential exposure of classified information to unauthorized individuals or environments.

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161.    The coercivity of a Type II extended range degausser is

Explanation

A Type II extended range degausser has a coercivity range of 751-1000 Oe. Coercivity refers to the magnetic field strength required to demagnetize a material. In this case, the degausser is capable of demagnetizing materials with a coercivity between 751 and 1000 Oe. This means that it can effectively erase data from magnetic media with coercivity levels within this range.

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162. Which Voice Protection System (VPS) application generates reports of VPS system activity, policy processing, telecom cost accounting, and resource utilization?

Explanation

Usage Manager is the correct answer because it is the VPS application that generates reports of VPS system activity, policy processing, telecom cost accounting, and resource utilization. The other options, Performance Manager, Directory Manager, and System Console, do not have the specific functionality of generating these reports.

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163. Which Voice Protection System (VPS) tree pane contains predefined Report Templates, Elements, and Date Ranges provided with your system?

Explanation

The SecureLogix tree pane contains predefined Report Templates, Elements, and Date Ranges provided with the Voice Protection System (VPS) system. This suggests that SecureLogix is the module or section within the VPS system that houses these predefined templates, elements, and date ranges.

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164. What Standard Form label is used as a data descriptor label?

Explanation

The Standard Form label used as a data descriptor label is 711.

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165. What is the fourth step in the operational risk management (ORM) process?

Explanation

The fourth step in the operational risk management (ORM) process is to make decisions based on overall cost versus benefit. This step involves evaluating the potential costs and benefits of different risk mitigation strategies and selecting the most appropriate one. By considering the overall cost versus benefit, organizations can make informed decisions that balance the need for risk reduction with the resources available. This step ensures that risk management efforts are cost-effective and aligned with the organization's goals and objectives.

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166. Which of the following is not an authorized official who may designate in writing individuals selected to perform courier duty?

Explanation

The Communications security account manager (CAM) is not an authorized official who may designate individuals selected to perform courier duty. This role is not typically responsible for assigning courier duties. Supervisors, Unit Commanders, and Security Managers are authorized officials who have the authority to designate individuals for courier duty.

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167. Which type of firewall views information as a data stream and not as a series of packets?

Explanation

An application-level firewall views information as a data stream rather than as a series of packets. This type of firewall operates at the application layer of the network protocol stack, allowing it to inspect the content of the data being transmitted. It can analyze the data stream in real-time, making decisions based on the specific application protocols being used. This allows for more granular control and filtering of network traffic, as the firewall can understand the context and content of the data being transmitted.

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168. Which mail system components sends or retrieves mail between the other agents using specific protocols?

Explanation

The delivery agent is responsible for sending or retrieving mail between the other agents using specific protocols. It is responsible for the actual delivery of the mail to the recipient's mailbox or to the next mail server in the route. The delivery agent ensures that the mail is properly routed and delivered to the intended recipient.

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169. Which email server relays all email entering or exiting the local network?

Explanation

The Sendmail server is responsible for relaying all email entering or exiting the local network. It is a popular and widely used email server that handles the routing and delivery of email messages. It is designed to be flexible and can be configured to work with various email protocols, including SMTP. Sendmail server is known for its reliability and scalability, making it a suitable choice for organizations that require a robust email infrastructure.

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170. During the initial research for voice system security, who recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by voice protection systems (VPS)?

Explanation

The Air Force Information Warfare Battlelab recognized during the initial research for voice system security that the most common security threats could be addressed by voice protection systems (VPS).

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171. Breaking down the packets' addresses to act as a gateway to allow traffic to pass between networks involves which transition technology?

Explanation

Dual layer is the correct answer because it refers to the process of breaking down the packets' addresses to act as a gateway between networks. This technology allows for the seamless transfer of traffic between different networks by utilizing both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols simultaneously. Dual stack, on the other hand, refers to the capability of a network device or software to support both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols. Tunneling is a technique used to encapsulate packets from one network protocol within packets of another protocol. Peer-to-peer is a decentralized network architecture where participants share resources directly with each other without the need for a central server.

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172. Report loss or suspected loss of removable media containing controlled unclassified information (CUI) or personally identifiable information (PII) according to reporting procedures in which Air Force Instruction (AIF)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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173. What is the default firewall shutdown option?

Explanation

The default firewall shutdown option is to reboot to the operational kernel. This means that when the firewall is shut down, it will restart and boot into the normal operational mode, allowing all services and functions to resume as usual. This option is commonly used when performing routine maintenance or updates on the firewall system.

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174. Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone

Explanation

Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in the equipment zone C. This means that the equipment is within a designated area where electromagnetic radiation can potentially be intercepted and exploited by unauthorized individuals. It is important to take necessary precautions and implement security measures to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access to the equipment in this zone.

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175. Which intrusion detection system (IDS) examines traffic for suspicious patterns?

Explanation

A network-based IDS is an intrusion detection system that examines network traffic for suspicious patterns. It monitors network packets and analyzes them for any signs of unauthorized access, malicious activity, or abnormal behavior. This type of IDS is placed at strategic points within the network infrastructure to capture and analyze traffic in real-time. By examining patterns and signatures, it can detect and alert administrators to potential security breaches or attacks. Unlike other types of IDS, a network-based IDS does not rely on the host or individual devices to detect and report suspicious activity, making it an effective solution for monitoring network traffic.

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176. Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR)?

Explanation

The identification certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR) using a common access card (CAC). This certificate is used to verify and authenticate the identity of the individual signing the document. It ensures that the person signing the EPR is indeed the authorized individual and provides a level of security and accountability to the process.

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177. What category is an incident in which an unauthorized person gained user-level privileges on an Air Force computer/information system/network device?

Explanation

Category II is the correct answer because it refers to an incident where an unauthorized person gained user-level privileges on an Air Force computer/information system/network device. This means that the unauthorized person was able to access and perform actions that are normally restricted to authorized users, posing a potential security threat.

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178. Which email server delivers all outgoing email to the mail relay server?

Explanation

The Exchange server is responsible for delivering all outgoing email to the mail relay server. It acts as a mail transfer agent and uses the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) to send emails. The Exchange server is commonly used in Microsoft environments and provides a range of features for email delivery and management.

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179. Which communications security (COMSEC) management software does not allow an account to perform a semi-annual inventory?

Explanation

CUAS is a type of communications security (COMSEC) management software that does not allow an account to perform a semi-annual inventory. This means that users of CUAS cannot conduct inventory checks on a semi-annual basis using this software.

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180. Which is not a category of software package available today used that is used to detect and monitor network activity?

Explanation

Firewalls are not a category of software package used to detect and monitor network activity. Firewalls are security devices that control the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. They act as a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, protecting the internal network from unauthorized access. While firewalls play a crucial role in network security, they are not specifically designed for detecting and monitoring network activity like intrusion detection systems, packet-capture tools, and filters/triggers.

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181. All of the following are Voice Protection System (VPS) policy types except

Explanation

The given question asks for the type of policy that is not included in the Voice Protection System (VPS). The options provided are Intrusion Protection System (IPS), voice, firewall, and recording. Among these options, the correct answer is "voice" because it is already mentioned in the question that all the options are Voice Protection System (VPS) policy types, except for one. Therefore, "voice" is the correct answer as it is not a policy type within the VPS.

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182. Which security tool is designed to manage sensitive data and enforce security policies across a full range of client/server platforms?

Explanation

Enterprise Security Manager (EDM) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to manage sensitive data and enforce security policies across a full range of client/server platforms. This tool helps organizations in monitoring and protecting their sensitive data by providing centralized control and visibility over security policies and configurations. It allows for the implementation of security measures and ensures compliance with security standards across different platforms, making it an essential tool for managing security in a diverse IT environment.

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183. Who reports all backdoors and unauthorized connections to Air Force networks discovered during the course of operations?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Air Force Information Warfare Center/Information Operations Directorate (AFIWC/IO). This organization is responsible for reporting all backdoors and unauthorized connections to Air Force networks that are discovered during operations. They play a crucial role in ensuring the security and integrity of Air Force networks by identifying and addressing any potential threats or vulnerabilities.

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184. What is referred to as a logistic and accounting system through which communications security (COMSEC) material marked "CRYPTO" is distributed, controlled and safeguarded?

Explanation

The correct answer is Communication security material control system (CMCS). CMCS is a logistic and accounting system that is used to distribute, control, and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) material marked as "CRYPTO". It ensures that the material is properly managed and protected to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of communications.

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185. The transit cryptographic ignition key (CIK) for the KOK-22A is created at the depot and is accounted for as

Explanation

The transit cryptographic ignition key (CIK) for the KOK-22A is accounted for as ALC-4. This means that the CIK is created at the depot and is used for transit purposes. ALC-4 indicates that the CIK is specifically designed for transit and is not intended for other uses.

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186. Which Air Force Systems Security Instruction  (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of Department of Defense's (DOD) TEMPEST program for the Air Force?

Explanation

AFSSI 7700 is the correct answer because it provides the overall implementation of the Department of Defense's (DOD) TEMPEST program for the Air Force. The TEMPEST program is a set of standards and guidelines aimed at preventing the unintentional electromagnetic emissions from compromising the security of classified information. AFSSI 7700 specifically addresses the Air Force's implementation of these standards and guidelines, making it the most appropriate choice for the given question.

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187. Who manages the cryptographic access program (CAP) database for AFCOMSEC Form 9, Cryptographic Access Certificates, account update lists, and polygraph tests?

Explanation

The Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC)/EVPI manages the cryptographic access program (CAP) database for AFCOMSEC Form 9, Cryptographic Access Certificates, account update lists, and polygraph tests. They are responsible for maintaining and updating the database to ensure proper access and security measures are in place. The AFNIC/EVPI is a central authority that oversees the management of cryptographic access within the Air Force, making them the appropriate entity to handle these tasks.

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188. What severity code applies to any vulnerability that, when resolved, will prevent the possibility of degraded security?

Explanation

Severity code IV applies to any vulnerability that, when resolved, will prevent the possibility of degraded security. This means that resolving this vulnerability will completely eliminate any potential security risks or threats, ensuring that the security of the system or network is not compromised in any way.

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189. What type of proxy must be run because of an attacker's potential to exploit an operating system?

Explanation

A software-based proxy must be run because of an attacker's potential to exploit an operating system. This type of proxy acts as a middleman between the client and the server, intercepting and filtering network traffic. It can provide additional security measures such as firewall protection, content filtering, and authentication, which helps to prevent attackers from exploiting vulnerabilities in the operating system. By using a software-based proxy, organizations can enhance the security of their network and protect their systems from potential attacks.

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190. In regards to Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) system files, items stored in the domain name server  (DNS) database best describes

Explanation

Resource records are items stored in the domain name server (DNS) database. These records contain information about a specific domain, such as the IP address associated with the domain (A record), the mail server for the domain (MX record), or the name server for the domain (NS record). These records are crucial for the functioning of the DNS system as they provide the necessary information for translating domain names into IP addresses and vice versa.

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191. Which Air Force System Security Instruction (AFSSI) will the wing information assurance office (WIAO) use to conduct an emissions security (EMSEC) assessment and determine the required information assurance (IA) countermeasures?

Explanation

The wing information assurance office (WIAO) will use Air Force System Security Instruction (AFSSI) 7701 to conduct an emissions security (EMSEC) assessment and determine the required information assurance (IA) countermeasures.

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192. Who is the final authority granting approval to operate a protective distribution system (PDS)?

Explanation

The final authority granting approval to operate a protective distribution system (PDS) is the Information system officer (ISO). The ISO is responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of information systems within an organization. They have the expertise and authority to assess the readiness and compliance of a PDS and grant approval for its operation. The Air Force, Wing Information assurance offices (WIAO), and Communications and information systems officer (CSO) may have roles and responsibilities related to the PDS, but the ISO is the ultimate authority in granting approval.

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193. What category is an incident in which an Air Force computer/information system/network was denied use do to an overwhelming volume of unauthorized network traffic?

Explanation

An incident in which an Air Force computer/information system/network is denied use due to an overwhelming volume of unauthorized network traffic falls under category IV. This category typically refers to incidents related to denial of service attacks, where the system is intentionally flooded with excessive traffic, causing it to become unavailable to legitimate users.

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194. Which agency conducts assessments of wing information assurance (IA) programs using  AF Form 4160 every 2 years or sooner?

Explanation

Major commands conduct assessments of wing information assurance (IA) programs using AF Form 4160 every 2 years or sooner. This suggests that the responsibility for assessing IA programs lies with the major commands, which oversee and manage multiple wings. The other options, such as wing, squadrons, and HQ AFNIC, do not have the authority or scope to conduct assessments of multiple IA programs within the Air Force.

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195. In which phase if the Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP) does the AF-DAA review the recommendations and issue an approving/authorization to operation (ATO)?

Explanation

In the Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP), the AF-DAA (Air Force Designated Accrediting Authority) reviews the recommendations and issues an approving/authorization to operation (ATO) in Phase III.

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196. What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides information that gives an unauthorized person the means to circumvent security  controls?

Explanation

Severity code II applies to any vulnerability that provides information that gives an unauthorized person the means to circumvent security controls. This means that the vulnerability has the potential to significantly compromise the security of a system or network. It is important to address and mitigate these vulnerabilities promptly to prevent unauthorized access and potential breaches.

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197. Which type of Nation Security Agency (NSA) approved encryption devices does the local management device (LMD) use to communicate over a communications link?

Explanation

The local management device (LMD) uses Type I NSA approved encryption devices to communicate over a communications link.

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198. Which organization has direct operational control of Air Force Ports, Protocols and Services (AF PPS)?

Explanation

The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOSC) has direct operational control of Air Force Ports, Protocols, and Services (AF PPS). This means that AFNOSC is responsible for managing and maintaining the network infrastructure, protocols, and services used by the Air Force. They ensure that the network operates efficiently and securely, and they oversee the implementation and management of ports and protocols used for communication and data transfer within the Air Force. AFNOSC plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation of the Air Force's network and communication systems.

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199. When classified material is not stored in a General Service Administration (GSA)-Approved container, the facility containing the classified material must be constructed according to the requirements in DOD 5200.1R MIL HDBK 1013/1A and

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cryptologic Accounting Guide (AFKAG)-1. This is because the question asks for the requirements that need to be followed when classified material is not stored in a GSA-approved container. The given options include various regulations and guides, but only the Air Force Cryptologic Accounting Guide (AFKAG)-1 specifically provides guidance on the construction requirements for facilities containing classified material. Therefore, it is the correct answer.

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200. What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides information that potentially could lead to a compromise?

Explanation

Severity code III applies to any vulnerability that provides information that potentially could lead to a compromise. This means that the vulnerability has the potential to expose sensitive information or provide attackers with the means to gain unauthorized access to a system or network. It signifies a significant risk and should be addressed promptly to prevent any potential compromise.

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In which network does every device have exactly two neighbors?
The disadvantage of a network-based intrusion detection system ...
Which port range constitutes well-known ports?
By providing users with the necessary level of access to perform their...
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Which type of security clearance is not valid for personnel...
Changes that must be made to material in communication security...
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When transproting bulky communication security (COMSEC) material...
Air Force information systems must complete the information technology...
Integration of the capabilities of personnel, operations, and...
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Restricting what traffic travels in and out of the network best...
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Setting up a secure point-to-point communication is called
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Within how many minutes should an individual respond if a protective...
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Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) guides security policy and guidance...
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A companion file virus is one that
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Voice Protection System (VPS) reports provides full-service reporting...
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Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon, and prohibit the...
Which network integrates multiple topologies?
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Sign the communication security (COMSEC) material destruction record
Who is responsible for verifying proper security clearances and...
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When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Window operating system...
A program that contains or installs a malicious program is called a
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When using secure split mail services, all external simple message...
When the cached information is verified to be up-to-date, the proxy...
The Cyber T hec The Cyber Surety journeyman monitors all of the...
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When transporting communication security (COMSEC), MAJCOM approval is...
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Which wireless standard originally intended to create a wireless...
What shall be assigned to all Department of Defense information...
Port Scanning
An area, room, or space which, when attended, must be occupied by two...
With the consolidation of the several Network Operations and...
The integrated network operations and security center (INOSC) has...
Initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network...
What does a firewall support that improves systems performance by...
Which flexible command line can be used to gather information form...
When using transparent mail services, the following mail filtering...
Which communications security (COMSEC) tier generates,distributes, and...
The only authorized methods to destroy key tapes are by of the...
What local communications security managemet software (LCMS) desktop...
To improve system security, several services that are preloaded on...
Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?
When loading the vector set for the firefly credentials and you click...
What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?
Who reviews information assurance assurance program (IAAP) reports and...
Degaussing with an NSA-approved degausser is the only clear which...
Which name server is the only one  that should have changes to...
All the following are requirements that must be met to be a...
Communications security (COMSEC) clerks should inspect all protective...
Who assesses local communications security (COMSEC) elements during...
What classification of communication security (COMSEC) material is the...
The local management device (LMD) supports or utilizes all of the...
Whenever possible, in which environment would you run the UNIX Apache...
Above which layer of the open systems integration (OSI) model are...
Which port tool is not used to test your simple network management...
Proxies do not
Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts are...
When using an intrusion detection system (IDS), remember to
Which device connects to the local management device (LMD) and...
Which type of firewall is typically used when speed is essential?
For what Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) server type can there be...
Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to...
The use of two or more network interface cards (NIC) best describes...
Which McAfee Firewall Enterprise management interface is the graphical...
From which media type must you remove to outer chassis and electronic...
What term is used to describe a communication security  (COMSEC)...
What type of access isgiven to remote users who access, download, or...
Use the high availability shared cluster addresses dialog box to do...
                   ...
Which COMSEC publication provides step-by-step procedures for COMSEC...
To use VPN products, obtain interim approval from?
When removing material from a communication security physical...
Before selecting a protective distribution system (PDS), with what two...
When coupled with standardized network policy, the standard desktop...
What is not true about firefly credentials?
Which communication security (COMSEC) management software is used in...
Which open source network-based intrusion detection system performs...
To ensure the integrity of the overwriting processm overwriting...
Unless directed by National Security Agency (NSA) or HQ CPSQ, how...
Which network-based security tool is a hardware and software and...
Information security-related access controls that include segregation...
Most of the firewall implementations you will encounter will be found...
Which Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) system file provide reverse...
Who approves or disapproves IS (including software and services)...
All of the following are characteristics and capabilities of a Voice...
To determine the appropriate actions to take during the absence of the...
Drilled and repaired security containers or vaults may be used to...
A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters but less...
What term is used to describe a communication security (COMSEC)...
Which situation does not ​describe a communication...
A final communication security (COMSEC) incident report...
All agencies/organizations implement information condition (INFOCON)...
Which firewall shutdown option is useful if you need to connect...
No procedures exist for cleaning which media type?
Which proxy is located near the web server and acts as an intermediary...
Which Voice Protection System (VPS) application provides allows you to...
Which Air Force System Security Instruction (AFSSI) will the wing...
Which intrusion detection system (IDS) examines servers or client...
Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol...
Which Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) server is responsible for...
Examples of where sanitization and declassification are appropriate...
   The coercivity of a Type II extended range degausser is
Which Voice Protection System (VPS) application generates reports of...
Which Voice Protection System (VPS) tree pane contains predefined...
What Standard Form label is used as a data descriptor label?
What is the fourth step in the operational risk management (ORM)...
Which of the following is not an authorized official who may...
Which type of firewall views information as a data stream and not as a...
Which mail system components sends or retrieves mail between the other...
Which email server relays all email entering or exiting the local...
During the initial research for voice system security, who...
Breaking down the packets' addresses to act as a gateway to allow...
Report loss or suspected loss of removable media containing controlled...
What is the default firewall shutdown option?
Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100...
Which intrusion detection system (IDS) examines traffic for suspicious...
Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an...
What category is an incident in which an unauthorized person gained...
Which email server delivers all outgoing email to the mail relay...
Which communications security (COMSEC) management software does not...
Which is not a category of software package available today used that...
All of the following are Voice Protection System (VPS) policy...
Which security tool is designed to manage sensitive data and enforce...
Who reports all backdoors and unauthorized connections to Air Force...
What is referred to as a logistic and accounting system through which...
The transit cryptographic ignition key (CIK) for the KOK-22A is...
Which Air Force Systems Security Instruction  (AFSSI) provides...
Who manages the cryptographic access program (CAP) database for...
What severity code applies to any vulnerability that, when resolved,...
What type of proxy must be run because of an attacker's potential...
In regards to Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) system files, items...
Which Air Force System Security Instruction (AFSSI) will the wing...
Who is the final authority granting approval to operate a protective...
What category is an incident in which an Air Force...
Which agency conducts assessments of wing information assurance (IA)...
In which phase if the Department of Defense information assurance...
What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides...
Which type of Nation Security Agency (NSA) approved encryption devices...
Which organization has direct operational control of Air Force Ports,...
When classified material is not stored in a General Service...
What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides...
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