CDC 3P071 Pre-test 4
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which zone is also known as either the decontamination zone or contamination zone?
- A.
Cold Zone
- B.
Warm Zone
- C.
Hot Zone
- D.
Protective Zone
Correct Answer
B. Warm ZoneExplanation
The zone that is also known as either the decontamination zone or contamination zone is the Warm Zone.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is the primary mission of the combat shred?
- A.
Train and prepare AF for deployments
- B.
Train and prepare AF for day to day operations
- C.
Both B and C
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
C. Both B and CExplanation
The primary mission of the combat shred is to train and prepare the Air Force (AF) for both deployments and day-to-day operations. This means that the combat shred is responsible for ensuring that AF personnel are ready and equipped to handle any situation, whether it be during deployments or regular operations. By training and preparing the AF for both scenarios, the combat shred helps to maintain readiness and effectiveness in any situation.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following is not a Protection level 2 asset?
- A.
Vital Computer facilities and equipment
- B.
Intelligence gathering systems critical to US operational capability
- C.
Designated critical space and launch resources
- D.
Nonnuclear alert forces
Correct Answer
C. Designated critical space and launch resourcesExplanation
The given answer, "designated critical space and launch resources," is not a Protection level 2 asset because it falls under a higher level of protection. Protection level 2 assets include vital computer facilities and equipment, intelligence gathering systems critical to US operational capability, and nonnuclear alert forces. However, designated critical space and launch resources are considered to be of higher importance and therefore require a higher level of protection.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which PL resource requires a level of security that must result in a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts. If deterrence fails, this level level of security will ensure the capability to impede a hostile force and limit damage to resources?
- A.
PL 1
- B.
PL 2
- C.
PL 3
- D.
PL 4
Correct Answer
C. PL 3Explanation
PL 3 is the correct answer because it requires a level of security that not only deters hostile acts but also ensures the capability to impede a hostile force and limit damage to resources. This implies that PL 3 has a higher level of security measures compared to PL 1 and PL 2, and it is designed to provide a reasonable degree of deterrence and protection against potential threats or attacks. PL 4 may have even higher security measures, but the question specifically mentions a "reasonable degree" of deterrence, indicating that PL 3 is the appropriate level in this context.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the accidental or unauthorized launching of a nuclear weapon that could create the risk of war called
- A.
Dull Sword
- B.
Bent Spear
- C.
Nucflash
- D.
Broken Arrow
Correct Answer
C. NucflashExplanation
The accidental or unauthorized launching of a nuclear weapon that could create the risk of war is known as a "Nucflash". This term is used to describe situations where there is a potential for a nuclear weapon to be launched unintentionally or without proper authorization, which could have severe consequences and escalate into a war.Rate this question:
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- 6.
POM submissions are done in
- A.
Odd Months
- B.
Odd Years
- C.
Even Years
- D.
Even Months
Correct Answer
C. Even YearsExplanation
POM submissions are done in even years. This means that the submissions are made in years that are divisible by 2, such as 2020, 2022, 2024, and so on. This pattern suggests that POM submissions occur every other year, skipping the odd years in between.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Who reviews all position certification failures
- A.
SFM, Flight Chief, Commander
- B.
SFM, Ops Superintendent, Flight Chief, Supervisor
- C.
SFM, Ops Superintendent, Flight Chief, Commander
- D.
Individual, Supervisor, Commander
Correct Answer
D. Individual, Supervisor, CommanderExplanation
The correct answer is Individual, Supervisor, Commander. In the process of reviewing position certification failures, the responsibility is divided among three levels of authority. First, the individual who failed the certification must review their own performance and identify areas for improvement. Next, the supervisor of the individual reviews the failure and provides feedback and guidance for future attempts. Finally, the commander, who holds the highest level of authority, reviews the failure and makes the final decision on whether the individual should be certified or not. This multi-level review process ensures thorough evaluation and accountability.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A strong traffic management program includes
- A.
Sound traffic circulation planning and supervision only
- B.
Selective enforcement, supervision, and sound traffic circulation planning
- C.
Sound traffic circulation planning, supervision, and control of motor vehicle traffic
- D.
Zero tolerance, supervision, sound traffic circulation planning
Correct Answer
C. Sound traffic circulation planning, supervision, and control of motor vehicle trafficExplanation
A strong traffic management program should include sound traffic circulation planning to ensure efficient movement of vehicles. It should also involve supervision to monitor and regulate traffic flow effectively. Additionally, control of motor vehicle traffic is necessary to maintain order and safety on the roads. This includes implementing traffic signals, signage, and other measures to manage the movement of vehicles. Selective enforcement and zero tolerance may be part of the program, but they are not mentioned in the answer choice.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which part of integrated defense is for the installation commanders forces to prepare for and defend critical assets within their assigned areas
- A.
Responsibilities
- B.
Concept
- C.
Goal
- D.
Intent
Correct Answer
D. IntentExplanation
The correct answer is "intent". In integrated defense, the intent is the part that focuses on the installation commanders' forces preparing for and defending critical assets within their assigned areas of responsibilities. It involves understanding the overall objective and purpose of the defense strategy and aligning their actions accordingly to protect important assets.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which terrorist threat level is defined by as "terrorists are present but there are no indications of of Anti-US activity. The operating environment favors the HN/US."
- A.
Significant
- B.
Moderate
- C.
High
- D.
Low
Correct Answer
B. ModerateExplanation
The correct answer is moderate. This terrorist threat level is defined as "terrorists are present but there are no indications of Anti-US activity. The operating environment favors the HN/US." This suggests that while there may be a presence of terrorists, there isn't any specific indication of them actively targeting or engaging in activities against the US. The operating environment is also favorable for both the host nation (HN) and the US. This implies that the threat level is not significant or high, but rather moderate.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which terrorist threat level is defined as " Anti-US terrorist are present and attack personnel as their preferred method of operation; or a group uses large casualty producing attacks (WMD) as their preferred method, but has limited operational activity. The operating environment is neutral"
- A.
Moderate
- B.
Significant
- C.
High
- D.
Low
Correct Answer
B. SignificantExplanation
The correct answer is "Significant". This is because the description provided in the question states that anti-US terrorists are present and attack personnel, and that a group may use large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method, although their operational activity is limited. This indicates a significant level of threat, as there is a presence of terrorists and potential for large-scale attacks.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What UTC is one that provides a generic building block capability STQ2
- A.
Non-Standard UTC
- B.
Right sized UTC
- C.
Moderate/scalable UTC
- D.
Standard UTC
Correct Answer
B. Right sized UTCExplanation
The term "right sized" implies that the UTC (Universal Time Coordinated) in question is appropriately sized or proportioned for its intended purpose. In this context, it suggests that the UTC provides a building block capability that is suitable and well-suited for a generic or general purpose. This indicates that the UTC is neither too small nor too large, but just the right size for the task at hand.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which part of the integrated defense is to neutralize security threats throughout the base boundary (BB) in order to ensure unhindered AF operations
- A.
Responsibilities
- B.
Intent
- C.
Concept
- D.
Goal
Correct Answer
D. GoalExplanation
The correct answer is "goal" because the goal of the integrated defense is to neutralize security threats throughout the base boundary in order to ensure unhindered AF operations. This means that the overall objective or aim of the integrated defense system is to protect the base and its operations from any potential security threats.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which terrorist threat level is defined by as "Anti-US terrorist are operational active and use large casualty producing attacks (WMD) as their preferred method of operation. There is a substantial DOD presence in the operating environment favors the terrorist"
- A.
High
- B.
Low
- C.
Significant
- D.
Moderate
Correct Answer
A. HighExplanation
The given correct answer is "High." This is because the description provided in the question states that the threat level involves anti-US terrorists who are actively operational and prefer to carry out large casualty producing attacks using weapons of mass destruction (WMD). Additionally, the presence of a substantial Department of Defense (DOD) presence in the operating environment favors the terrorists. These factors indicate a high level of threat and danger.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is used by FL and Squad Leaders to concentrate all available fire into a specific area
- A.
Fire patterns
- B.
Sectors of fire
- C.
Engagement area
- D.
Engagement priorities
Correct Answer
C. Engagement areaExplanation
FL and Squad Leaders use an engagement area to concentrate all available fire into a specific area. The engagement area is a designated location where the leaders direct their forces to engage the enemy. By focusing their fire in this specific area, they can maximize their firepower and increase their chances of effectively neutralizing the enemy threat.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What hallway clearing technique is used in wide hallways?
- A.
Serpentine
- B.
Wedge
- C.
Rolling-T
- D.
Line
Correct Answer
C. Rolling-TExplanation
In wide hallways, the rolling-T hallway clearing technique is used. This technique involves a team moving in a T-shaped formation, with one person leading the way and others positioned on either side. This formation allows for maximum visibility and coverage of the area, ensuring that the team can effectively clear the hallway while minimizing the risk of being surprised by any threats.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Your team deploys to attack and enemy in a single kill zone during which ambush
- A.
Hasty
- B.
Area
- C.
Point
- D.
Linear
Correct Answer
C. PointExplanation
The correct answer is "point." In this context, "point" refers to a specific location or position where the team deploys to attack the enemy. It suggests that the team is focusing their efforts on a particular spot within the kill zone, rather than spreading out or attacking from multiple angles. This strategy allows for concentrated firepower and coordinated movements, increasing the chances of a successful ambush.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is not one of the steps in conducting troop leading procedures
- A.
Supervise
- B.
Receive the mission
- C.
Verify mission
- D.
Make a tentative plan
Correct Answer
C. Verify missionExplanation
The step of "verify mission" is not one of the steps in conducting troop leading procedures. Troop leading procedures typically involve steps such as receiving the mission, making a tentative plan, issuing orders, supervising, and executing the plan. The purpose of verifying the mission is to ensure that it is clear and understood before proceeding with the planning and execution phases. However, it is not considered one of the formal steps in the troop leading process.Rate this question:
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- 19.
OCOKA falls under which part of METT-TC
- A.
Mission
- B.
Civil considerations
- C.
Enemy
- D.
Terrain
Correct Answer
D. TerrainExplanation
OCOKA stands for Observation and Fields of Fire, Cover and Concealment, Obstacles, Key Terrain, and Avenues of Approach. These factors are used to analyze the terrain and its impact on military operations. Therefore, OCOKA falls under the "terrain" part of the METT-TC framework, which is used to assess the environment and its influence on mission planning and execution.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is a supplementary terrain feature
- A.
Cliff
- B.
Fill
- C.
Hill
- D.
Saddle
Correct Answer
B. FillExplanation
A supplementary terrain feature is an additional element that contributes to the overall landscape. A fill is a type of terrain feature that involves the placement of material, such as soil or rock, to create a level surface. It is commonly used in construction or engineering projects to raise the ground level or fill in depressions. This makes fill a supplementary terrain feature as it modifies the natural terrain to serve a specific purpose.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What room clearing principle eliminates or neutralizes the enemy while giving him the last chance of inflicting friendly casualties
- A.
Speed
- B.
Surprise
- C.
Controlled violence of action
- D.
Breaching
Correct Answer
C. Controlled violence of actionExplanation
Controlled violence of action is the room clearing principle that eliminates or neutralizes the enemy while giving him the last chance of inflicting friendly casualties. This principle emphasizes the use of overwhelming force and aggression to quickly overwhelm and incapacitate the enemy, minimizing the chances of them being able to retaliate effectively. By applying controlled violence of action, the clearing team aims to maintain a high level of aggression and momentum, ensuring the enemy is swiftly subdued and unable to cause harm to friendly forces.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What hallway clearing technique is used in narrow hallways?
- A.
Wedge
- B.
Serpentine
- C.
Rolling-T
- D.
Line
Correct Answer
B. SerpentineExplanation
In narrow hallways, the serpentine hallway clearing technique is used. This technique involves moving in a zigzag pattern, which helps to minimize the shooter's accuracy and makes it harder for them to target individuals. By continuously changing direction and moving unpredictably, it becomes more challenging for the shooter to aim accurately, increasing the chances of survival for those clearing the hallway.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Who is responsible for the mechanical condition of convoy vehicles
- A.
Vehicle commander non commissioned officer
- B.
Driver
- C.
Commander of the moving unit
- D.
Assistant driver
Correct Answer
C. Commander of the moving unitExplanation
The commander of the moving unit is responsible for the mechanical condition of convoy vehicles. As the leader of the unit, it is their duty to ensure that all vehicles are in proper working order before and during the convoy. This includes conducting regular maintenance checks, addressing any mechanical issues, and coordinating repairs or replacements as needed. The commander of the moving unit plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and efficiency of the convoy by taking charge of the mechanical condition of the vehicles.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which squad formation is the most common
- A.
Squad file
- B.
Squad column
- C.
Squad line
- D.
Wedge
Correct Answer
B. Squad columnExplanation
The most common squad formation is the squad column. This formation involves arranging the squad members in a single file, with each member positioned directly behind the other. This formation allows for easy movement and maneuverability, as well as clear communication and coordination within the squad. It also provides a relatively compact and organized structure, making it suitable for various tactical situations.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What type of drill builds confidence and improves performance?
- A.
Battle drill
- B.
Rock drill
- C.
Mission rehearsal
- D.
Walk through
Correct Answer
C. Mission rehearsalExplanation
A mission rehearsal is a type of drill that helps build confidence and improve performance. During a mission rehearsal, individuals or teams practice and simulate the tasks and actions required for a specific mission or objective. This allows them to familiarize themselves with the process, identify any potential issues or challenges, and refine their skills and strategies. By going through the motions of a mission in a controlled environment, participants can gain confidence in their abilities and enhance their performance when it comes to the real mission.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which is not one of the ways you may receive a mission?
- A.
WARNO
- B.
OPORD
- C.
Option 3
- D.
MISSO
Correct Answer
D. MISSOExplanation
The question asks for the option that is not one of the ways you may receive a mission. The options WARNO, OPORD, and MISSO are all commonly used military terms for different types of mission orders. However, "Option 3" is not a valid term for receiving a mission. Therefore, the correct answer is MISSO.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which one of the following is not one of the three North's used in navigation and map reading?
- A.
True North
- B.
Grid North
- C.
Map North
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
C. Map NorthExplanation
The three Norths used in navigation and map reading are True North, Magnetic North, and Grid North. True North refers to the geographic North Pole, Magnetic North is the direction indicated by a compass needle, and Grid North is the vertical lines on a map that point towards the North Pole. "Map North" is not one of the three Norths used in navigation and map reading.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 15, 2016Quiz Created by
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