2F071 Volume 1 (2016)

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  • 1/62 Questions

    When preparing to issue (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s AFTO form 244/245 lists an open Red X condition

    • No action is required
    • Do not fill the receiving tank
    • Notify the fuels control center and request line expediter assistance
    • Inform the fuels management team and await further instruction
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About This Quiz

This quiz covers tool accountability, maintenance procedures, and operational standards in military settings, focusing on roles, responsibilities, and protocols for maintaining equipment.

2F071 Volume 1 (2016) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems are typically used in buildings or facilities where there is a higher risk of fire. These systems require regular flushing to ensure that the water supply is clean and free from any debris or sediment that could potentially hinder the system's effectiveness during an emergency. Flushing the hydrant systems monthly allows for the continuous maintenance and inspection of the system, ensuring that it is always in optimal working condition and ready to be used if needed.

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  • 3. 

    When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, which key must you press first when switching between tanks

    • ESC

    • NEXT

    • TANK

    • ENTER

    Correct Answer
    A. TANK
    Explanation
    When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, you must press the "TANK" key first when switching between tanks. This key is likely used to select the specific tank for which you want to obtain the quantity reading.

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  • 4. 

    When preparing to issue LOX, what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank’s AFTO form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out

    • No action is required

    • Do not service the receiving tank

    • Inform aircraft maintenance of the discrepancy

    • Contact the fuels service center and await further instruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not service the receiving tank
    Explanation
    If a review of a receiving tank's AFTO form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out, the correct action is to not service the receiving tank. This is because a properly filled out form ensures that the necessary information and checks have been completed before servicing the tank. By not servicing the tank, it reduces the risk of potential errors or issues that may arise from an incomplete form.

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  • 5. 

    During multiple source refueling, what action, if any should be taken if backflow is detected

    • No action is required

    • Increase engine revolutions per minute

    • Decrease the engine RPM

    • Stop the operation immediately

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the operation immediately
    Explanation
    If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is necessary to stop the operation immediately. Backflow indicates that fuel is flowing in the wrong direction, which can lead to fuel contamination or damage to the fuel system. Stopping the operation helps prevent any further issues and ensures the safety and integrity of the refueling process.

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  • 6. 

    When multiple source refueling if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft each vehicle

    • Can begin fuel flow once positioned

    • May leave the aircraft upon completion of fuel servicing

    • Should be positioned directly under the wing of the aircraft

    • Must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft

    Correct Answer
    A. Must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that when multiple source refueling, the refueling units must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft. This is important to ensure safety and prevent any potential accidents or fuel leaks during the refueling process. By remaining positioned and bonded, it ensures that the refueling units are securely connected to the aircraft and that the fuel flow is properly controlled and monitored. Once fuel servicing is completed on all trucks on that side of the aircraft, the refueling units can then be safely disconnected and removed.

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  • 7. 

    While performing expediter duties, what action must you take if you notice an unsafe fueling operation

    • Immediately terminate the operation

    • Correct the deficiency and allow the operation to continue

    • Closely monitor the operation and notify the fuels service center

    • Allow the operation to continue and report the discrepancy to the noncommissioned officer in charge of fuels distribution

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately terminate the operation
    Explanation
    If an unsafe fueling operation is noticed while performing expediter duties, the immediate action that must be taken is to terminate the operation. This is the appropriate response in order to prevent any potential accidents or hazards that may arise from the unsafe operation. By immediately terminating the operation, the risk is mitigated and the safety of personnel and equipment is prioritized.

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  • 8. 

    When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is flushed

    • With a minimum of twice the line volume

    • Using a minimum of 2,000 gallons of product

    • Until a sump sample is obtained

    • For at least 30 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. With a minimum of twice the line volume
    Explanation
    During a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to flush the loop with a minimum of twice the line volume. This means that the amount of water used for flushing should be at least twice the volume of the water in the pipeline. This ensures that any sediment or debris in the pipeline is effectively removed. Flushing with a higher volume helps to dislodge and flush out any contaminants more thoroughly. It is important to use a minimum of 2,000 gallons of water during the flushing process to ensure an adequate amount of water is used. The flushing process should continue until a sump sample is obtained, indicating that the water is clean and free from any debris. The flushing operation should be carried out for at least 30 minutes to ensure thorough cleaning.

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  • 9. 

    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a LOX cart on the AFTO form 134 how should odor test results be annotated in block 2 column D?

    • As either + or – in column B

    • As either SAT or UNSAT in column B

    • As either GO or NO GO in column C

    • As either FAIL of PASS in column D

    Correct Answer
    A. As either FAIL of PASS in column D
    Explanation
    When documenting a cryogenic product issue on the AFTO form 134, the odor test results should be annotated as either FAIL or PASS in column D. This indicates whether the product has failed or passed the odor test.

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  • 10. 

    When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel

    • Whenever the provider aircraft has all engines running

    • Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running

    • Whenever the provider aircraft has any engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running

    • Whenever the source or provider aircraft has an engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running

    Correct Answer
    A. Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running
    Explanation
    A rapid defuel operation is considered a hot defuel whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running. This means that as long as there is any engine in operation on the source or provider aircraft, the defuel operation is considered to be hot. It is not necessary for all engines to be running or for the engine to be located on the same side as the refueling receptacle. As long as any engine is running, it is considered a hot defuel.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following operations requires a fuels expediter be used

    • Return to bulk

    • Ground fuel servicing

    • Aircraft fueling

    • Fillstand

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft fueling
    Explanation
    A fuels expediter is required for aircraft fueling. This operation involves the process of refueling aircraft with the necessary fuel to ensure their proper functioning. A fuels expediter is responsible for coordinating and managing the fueling process, ensuring that the correct type and amount of fuel is delivered to the aircraft. They also monitor fuel levels, maintain safety protocols, and ensure efficient fueling operations. Therefore, aircraft fueling is the operation that requires a fuels expediter to be used.

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  • 12. 

    What action if any should be taken if a commercial delivery operator dies bit provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment

    • No action is required

    • Contact Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) for disposition instructions

    • Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance

    • Notify the fuels management team (FMT) and obtain an odor sample

    Correct Answer
    A. Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance
    Explanation
    If a commercial delivery operator dies but does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the correct action to be taken is to inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance. This is because the FSC is responsible for managing fuel operations and they need to be informed about the situation. They will then provide instructions on how to proceed with the shipment in the absence of the required form.

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  • 13. 

    Before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, ensure the commercial delivery operator

    • Reviews the AFTO form 244/245 for accuracy

    • Performs an odor test on the receiving cryotainer

    • Purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants

    • Signs the DD form 250 in the quality assurance representative (QAR) block

    Correct Answer
    A. Purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants". This is because before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, it is important to ensure that the transfer hose is purged. This is done to remove any potential contaminants that may be present in the hose, ensuring that the LOX received is clean and free from any impurities.

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  • 14. 

    What type of hose should be used on the discharge side of the R-18 for transfer operations

    • 4 inch hard hose

    • 4 inch collapsible hose

    • 6 inch hard hose

    • 6 inch collapsible hose

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 inch hard hose
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6 inch hard hose. This type of hose is recommended for the discharge side of the R-18 for transfer operations because it has a larger diameter (6 inches) which allows for a higher flow rate of the transferred material. Additionally, the hard construction of the hose ensures durability and prevents collapse or kinking during the transfer process.

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  • 15. 

    What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 servicing unit indicate when the fueling sustem is not operating

    • 45 PSI

    • 75

    • 90

    • 150

    Correct Answer
    A. 90
    Explanation
    The surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 servicing unit should indicate 90 PSI when the fueling system is not operating. This indicates the pressure at which the surge suppressor is able to regulate and control any sudden surges or fluctuations in pressure within the system. It is important for the gauge to show this pressure to ensure the proper functioning and safety of the fueling system.

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  • 16. 

    When preparing an R-18 for shipment, dispose of all drained fuel in accordance with

    • Local environmental regulations

    • Local and federal environmental regulations

    • Federal environmental regulations

    • Local, federal and international environmental regulations

    Correct Answer
    A. Local and federal environmental regulations
    Explanation
    When preparing an R-18 for shipment, it is important to dispose of all drained fuel in accordance with both local and federal environmental regulations. This ensures that the fuel is disposed of properly and does not harm the environment. Local regulations may vary from one area to another, so it is important to follow both local and federal regulations to ensure compliance with all applicable laws and protect the environment.

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  • 17. 

    What is the maximum number of gallons on ABFDS carriers per sortie

    • 3,000

    • 6,000

    • 15,000

    • 30,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 30,000
    Explanation
    The maximum number of gallons on ABFDS carriers per sortie is 30,000. This means that the carriers can hold up to 30,000 gallons of whatever substance they are designed to transport.

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  • 18. 

    When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 97C2-8-1-116WC-1 should you complete?

    • All items

    • All items preceded by an asterisk (*)

    • All items listed under the “Periodic Inspection” heading

    • All items followed by an ampersand (&)

    Correct Answer
    A. All items preceded by an asterisk (*)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all items preceded by an asterisk (*)". This means that when performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, you should complete all the items listed in Technical Order (TO) 97C2-8-1-116WC-1 that are marked with an asterisk (*).

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  • 19. 

    Which step should be taken if a LOX cart fails an odor test

    • Conduct another odor test

    • Inform aircraft maintenance

    • Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart

    • Contact the fuels lab and request a correlation sample to be taken

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart
    Explanation
    If a LOX cart fails an odor test, the appropriate step to take would be to perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart. This is because the odor test will help determine if the issue lies with the storage tank, which could be contaminating the LOX cart and causing it to fail the test. By conducting the odor test on the storage tank, it will be possible to identify and address any potential problems or sources of contamination, ensuring the safety and quality of the LOX cart.

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  • 20. 

    What symbol should you enter on the AFTO form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue

    • Red X

    • Red dash

    • Red cross

    • Red diagonal

    Correct Answer
    A. Red dash
    Explanation
    The correct symbol to enter on the AFTO form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue is a red dash. The red dash symbolizes that the inspection was not performed within the required timeframe. This helps to track and document any missed or overdue inspections for maintenance purposes.

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  • 21. 

    During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come with in a minimum of how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet

    • 10

    • 20

    • 25

    • 50

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come within a minimum of 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of the personnel and the aircraft. Being too close to the fuel vent outlet can pose a risk of fire or explosion, as fuel vapors may be present in that area. Therefore, it is important for deplaning personnel to maintain a safe distance of at least 25 feet to prevent any potential accidents or hazards.

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  • 22. 

    Each R-20 multi aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire

    • 1,000

    • 1,500

    • 3,000

    • 4,500

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,500
    Explanation
    The R-20 multi aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.

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  • 23. 

    How many fillstand assemblies are included in the fuels operational readiness capability equipment system

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 because the question is asking for the number of fillstand assemblies included in the fuels operational readiness capability equipment system. The question does not provide any additional information or context, so we can assume that there are only two fillstand assemblies included in the system.

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  • 24. 

    When reconstituting FORCE equipment, all rolling stock should be drained in accordance with

    • Local transportation guidelines

    • AFPAM 23-221

    • AFI 24-203

    • TO 37A9-3-5-61

    Correct Answer
    A. Local transportation guidelines
    Explanation
    The correct answer is local transportation guidelines. This means that when reconstituting FORCE equipment, all rolling stock should be drained according to the guidelines set by the local transportation authorities. These guidelines may vary depending on the specific location and may include regulations on how to properly drain the equipment to ensure safety and compliance with local laws. It is important to follow these guidelines to avoid any potential issues or violations during the reconstitution process.

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  • 25. 

    Who is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability?

    • Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) fuels distribution or operations superintendent

    • Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent

    • Fuels maintenance supervisor

    • Fuels management flight commander (FMFC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent
    Explanation
    The vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability. This individual is in charge of managing the fleet of vehicles and ensuring their maintenance and upkeep. As part of their responsibilities, they would also be responsible for developing instructions and guidelines related to tool accountability within the fleet.

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  • 26. 

    Approximately how long will the nitrogen supply last when an automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating the supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (PSI)

    • 1 week

    • 1 month

    • 3 months

    • 6 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 month
    Explanation
    When the automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating that the nitrogen supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (PSI), it is estimated that the supply will last for approximately 1 month.

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  • 27. 

    Crew members conducting in shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to what maximum number of operations per duty day

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The maximum number of operations per duty day for crew members conducting in shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to 4.

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  • 28. 

    How often should the sump tank on the R-19 filter separator unit be drained

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    The sump tank on the R-19 filter separator unit should be drained daily to ensure efficient operation of the unit. Draining the tank on a daily basis helps remove any accumulated water, sediment, or contaminants that may have collected in the tank. Regular drainage prevents the buildup of these substances, which can potentially impact the performance and lifespan of the unit. By draining the tank daily, any potential issues can be addressed promptly, ensuring the filter separator operates effectively.

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  • 29. 

    The vehicle maintenance flight materiel control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all these occurrences except

    • Initial issue

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually

    • When responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly
    Explanation
    The vehicle maintenance flight materiel control section point of contact (POC) is responsible for coordinating with supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK). This ensures that the CTKs are properly maintained and all necessary tools are accounted for. The POC would perform these inventories on a regular basis, such as quarterly, to ensure that the CTKs are always up to date and ready for use. Therefore, the correct answer is "quarterly" because it is the frequency at which inventories are performed.

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  • 30. 

    Who ensures tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification

    • Vehicle maintenance superintendent

    • Vehicle management flight materiel control section

    • Vehicle fleet manager

    • Technician assigned to CTK

    Correct Answer
    A. Vehicle management flight materiel control section
    Explanation
    The vehicle management flight materiel control section is responsible for ensuring that tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification. This section is in charge of managing and controlling the materials and equipment used in vehicle maintenance, including the CTK. They are responsible for ensuring that all tools and equipment are properly calibrated and certified to maintain accuracy and reliability in vehicle maintenance operations.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following cryotainer valves should be in the open position before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt

    • Vent valve

    • Service valve

    • Fill/drain valve

    • Pressure build up valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Vent valve
    Explanation
    Before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt, the vent valve should be in the open position. This is because the vent valve allows the release of excess pressure or gas from the cryotainer. By opening the vent valve, any built-up pressure can be safely released, preventing potential damage to the cryotainer and ensuring a smooth and controlled receipt of liquid nitrogen.

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  • 32. 

    When documenting a cryogenting product receipt on the DLA form 2046 from which of the following documents is the vendors invoice obtained

    • Dd form 250

    • Dd form 250-1

    • Dd form 1348

    • Dd form 1348-1

    Correct Answer
    A. Dd form 250
    Explanation
    The vendor's invoice is obtained from the DD Form 250 when documenting a cryogenting product receipt on the DLA Form 2046.

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  • 33. 

    Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling

    • HQ USAF AF Deputy chief of staff for installations and logistics

    • Major command commander

    • Wing commander

    • Fuels management flight commander (FMFC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command commander
    Explanation
    The major command commander may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling. This is because the major command commander holds a high level of authority and responsibility within the military hierarchy. They have the knowledge and decision-making power to assess the situation and determine if the deviation from hot refueling policies is necessary for the successful completion of combat or emergency operations.

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  • 34. 

    When performing rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, the high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first

    • 1 minute of fuel flow

    • 2 minutes of fuel flow

    • 250 gallons defueled

    • 500 gallons defueled

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 minute of fuel flow
    Explanation
    During rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, it is important to test the high-level shutoff valve within the first minute of fuel flow. This is because testing the valve early ensures that it is functioning properly and can prevent any potential fuel spills or overflows. By testing the valve within the first minute, any issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring safe and efficient fuel transfer operations.

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  • 35. 

    What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit

    • 30 PSI

    • 65

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 75
    Explanation
    The proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit is 75 PSI. This level of pressure ensures optimal performance and safety for the unit. It is important to maintain the correct tire pressure to prevent issues such as uneven wear, decreased fuel efficiency, and potential tire blowouts. The manufacturer recommends 75 PSI as the appropriate tire pressure setting for this specific pumping unit.

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  • 36. 

    When performing fuel servicing operations with an R-18 pumping unit the throttle control should manually be set to what RPM setting

    • 1,550

    • 1,850

    • 1,950

    • 2,250

    Correct Answer
    A. 2,250
    Explanation
    The correct RPM setting for the throttle control when performing fuel servicing operations with an R-18 pumping unit is 2,250.

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  • 37. 

    What software database is used to identify a unit type code’s (UTC) ability to perform its mission capabilities (MICAP) statement and identify shortages

    • AEF reporting tool (ART)

    • Logistics module (LOGMOD)

    • Joint operations planning and execution systems (JOPES)

    • Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segments (DCAPES)

    Correct Answer
    A. AEF reporting tool (ART)
    Explanation
    The AEF reporting tool (ART) is the software database used to identify a unit type code's (UTC) ability to perform its mission capabilities (MICAP) statement and identify shortages. This means that ART is specifically designed to track and analyze the capabilities and shortages of different unit types, allowing for efficient planning and execution of missions. It is likely that ART provides comprehensive data and reporting features that enable users to assess the readiness and availability of different units for specific tasks.

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  • 38. 

    Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are not authorized on what aircraft

    • A-10

    • B-2

    • F-15

    • F-22

    Correct Answer
    A. B-2
    Explanation
    The B-2 aircraft is not authorized for concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO). This means that the B-2 cannot perform maintenance and servicing tasks while also generating sorties or missions. This restriction may be due to the unique and complex nature of the B-2 aircraft, requiring dedicated maintenance and preparation time before each mission.

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  • 39. 

    Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG)

    • Concurrent servicing supervisor

    • Aircraft servicing supervisor

    • Chief servicing supervisor

    • Fuels operator

    Correct Answer
    A. Concurrent servicing supervisor
    Explanation
    The concurrent servicing supervisor is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG). They oversee and coordinate the activities of the aircraft servicing supervisor, chief servicing supervisor, and fuels operator to ensure efficient and effective servicing operations.

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  • 40. 

    During in shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, fuels servicing vehicle engines should not be allowed to operate for more than what maximum number of minutes

    • 15

    • 20

    • 30

    • 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 20
    Explanation
    During in shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, it is important to limit the operation of the fuel servicing vehicle engines to a maximum of 20 minutes. This is to prevent the build-up of fumes and exhaust gases within the shelter, which could pose a safety risk to personnel and the aircraft. Allowing the engines to operate for longer periods could increase the concentration of these gases and potentially lead to hazardous conditions. Therefore, it is crucial to adhere to the recommended maximum time limit of 20 minutes to ensure the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 41. 

    When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Devise (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT) what tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight tot watch the equipment is assigned

    • PDA

    • Wireless

    • Device info

    • Base

    Correct Answer
    A. Base
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "base". In the context of configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT), the "base" tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to watch the equipment is assigned. This tab is likely to provide options and fields for inputting details related to fuel management and equipment assignment within the APOSD system.

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  • 42. 

    When performing off load operations with the fuels operational readiness capability equipment system (FORCE) the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R-18 pumping unit should be placed in what position

    • On

    • Off

    • Offload

    • No deadman

    Correct Answer
    A. No deadman
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "no deadman." The deadman switch on the communications panel of the R-18 pumping unit should be placed in the "no deadman" position when performing off load operations with the FORCE system. This means that the deadman switch is not activated or engaged, allowing for the offloading process to take place without the need for constant manual control or supervision.

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  • 43. 

    When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less than what degree of slope

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3. When selecting a site for bladder operations, it is important to choose a site with less than a 3-degree slope. This is because a steeper slope can make the operation more challenging and increase the risk of complications. A flatter site provides a more stable and level surface for the operation to take place, ensuring better accuracy and reducing the chances of errors or difficulties during the procedure.

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  • 44. 

    What component of unit type code (UTC) defines the basic mission the UTC is capable of accomplishing

    • Mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement

    • Manpower force element listing (MFEL)

    • Logistics detail (LOGDET)

    • Title

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement
    Explanation
    The mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement is the component of the unit type code (UTC) that defines the basic mission the UTC is capable of accomplishing. It outlines the specific tasks and objectives that the UTC is designed to fulfill. This statement provides a clear understanding of the capabilities and limitations of the UTC, allowing for effective planning and coordination of missions. The MISCAP statement is essential for ensuring that the UTC is properly utilized and deployed in accordance with its intended purpose.

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  • 45. 

    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a LOX cart on the AFTO form 134 what information should be entered in block 4

    • The date the cart was filled

    • The quantity issued to the cart

    • The tank number of the issuing cryotainer

    • The initials of the individual that filled the cart

    Correct Answer
    A. The initials of the individual that filled the cart
    Explanation
    In block 4 of the AFTO form 134, the initials of the individual who filled the cart should be entered. This information is important for tracking and accountability purposes, as it allows for identification of the person responsible for filling the cart. It helps ensure that the task was performed by the appropriate individual and provides a record of who was involved in the process.

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  • 46. 

    Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad

    • B-1

    • F-15

    • F-16

    • F-22

    Correct Answer
    A. F-15
    Explanation
    The F-15 is the aircraft that does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad. A hot brake check is a safety procedure performed to ensure that the brakes are functioning properly and not overheated before refueling. However, the F-15 is equipped with a brake cooling system that prevents the brakes from overheating during high-speed operations, eliminating the need for a hot brake check.

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  • 47. 

    Which condition does not require replacement of filter elemetns on the R-19 filter separator unit

    • A reading of 16 psi on the DP gauge

    • A reading of 22 psi on the DP gauge

    • Elements that have been in use for 36 months

    • Filter separator vessel performance is questionable

    Correct Answer
    A. A reading of 16 psi on the DP gauge
    Explanation
    A reading of 16 psi on the DP gauge does not require replacement of filter elements on the R-19 filter separator unit because it is within the acceptable range. The DP gauge measures the pressure drop across the filter elements, and a reading of 16 psi indicates that the filter is still effectively removing contaminants from the system. Therefore, there is no need to replace the filter elements at this point.

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  • 48. 

    The micronic filter elements on the R-20 servicing unit should be replaced when the DP reading exceeds

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    • 25

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    The micronic filter elements on the R-20 servicing unit should be replaced when the DP reading exceeds 15. This indicates that the pressure drop across the filter elements has reached a level where they are no longer effectively filtering the fluid. By replacing the filter elements at this point, the unit can continue to operate with optimal filtration and prevent any potential damage or contamination to the system.

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  • 49. 

    What organization is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations

    • MAJCOM

    • AFPA

    • JPO

    • DLA

    Correct Answer
    A. DLA
    Explanation
    DLA, or the Defense Logistics Agency, is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations. As an agency within the Department of Defense, DLA provides logistics support to the military services and coordinates the acquisition and distribution of various supplies, including fuel. Their role includes ensuring that fuel is available at deployed locations to support military operations. Therefore, DLA is the organization responsible for the procurement of fuel in such situations.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 29, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 29, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 29, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Caliboy907

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