2F071 Volume 1 (2016)
(144).webp "2F071 Volume 1 (2016) - Quiz")
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Upload your response
- 2.
Who is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability?
- A.
Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) fuels distribution or operations superintendent
- B.
Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent
- C.
Fuels maintenance supervisor
- D.
Fuels management flight commander (FMFC)
Correct Answer
B. Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendentExplanation
The vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability. This individual is in charge of managing the fleet of vehicles and ensuring their maintenance and upkeep. As part of their responsibilities, they would also be responsible for developing instructions and guidelines related to tool accountability within the fleet.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The vehicle maintenance flight materiel control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all these occurrences except
- A.
Initial issue
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semi-annually
- D.
When responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned
Correct Answer
B. QuarterlyExplanation
The vehicle maintenance flight materiel control section point of contact (POC) is responsible for coordinating with supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK). This ensures that the CTKs are properly maintained and all necessary tools are accounted for. The POC would perform these inventories on a regular basis, such as quarterly, to ensure that the CTKs are always up to date and ready for use. Therefore, the correct answer is "quarterly" because it is the frequency at which inventories are performed.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who ensures tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification
- A.
Vehicle maintenance superintendent
- B.
Vehicle management flight materiel control section
- C.
Vehicle fleet manager
- D.
Technician assigned to CTK
Correct Answer
B. Vehicle management flight materiel control sectionExplanation
The vehicle management flight materiel control section is responsible for ensuring that tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification. This section is in charge of managing and controlling the materials and equipment used in vehicle maintenance, including the CTK. They are responsible for ensuring that all tools and equipment are properly calibrated and certified to maintain accuracy and reliability in vehicle maintenance operations.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
A. MonthlyExplanation
Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems are typically used in buildings or facilities where there is a higher risk of fire. These systems require regular flushing to ensure that the water supply is clean and free from any debris or sediment that could potentially hinder the system's effectiveness during an emergency. Flushing the hydrant systems monthly allows for the continuous maintenance and inspection of the system, ensuring that it is always in optimal working condition and ready to be used if needed.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is flushed
- A.
With a minimum of twice the line volume
- B.
Using a minimum of 2,000 gallons of product
- C.
Until a sump sample is obtained
- D.
For at least 30 minutes
Correct Answer
A. With a minimum of twice the line volumeExplanation
During a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to flush the loop with a minimum of twice the line volume. This means that the amount of water used for flushing should be at least twice the volume of the water in the pipeline. This ensures that any sediment or debris in the pipeline is effectively removed. Flushing with a higher volume helps to dislodge and flush out any contaminants more thoroughly. It is important to use a minimum of 2,000 gallons of water during the flushing process to ensure an adequate amount of water is used. The flushing process should continue until a sump sample is obtained, indicating that the water is clean and free from any debris. The flushing operation should be carried out for at least 30 minutes to ensure thorough cleaning.Rate this question:
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- 7.
When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, which key must you press first when switching between tanks
- A.
ESC
- B.
NEXT
- C.
TANK
- D.
ENTER
Correct Answer
C. TANKExplanation
When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, you must press the "TANK" key first when switching between tanks. This key is likely used to select the specific tank for which you want to obtain the quantity reading.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Approximately how long will the nitrogen supply last when an automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating the supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (PSI)
- A.
1 week
- B.
1 month
- C.
3 months
- D.
6 months
Correct Answer
B. 1 monthExplanation
When the automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating that the nitrogen supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (PSI), it is estimated that the supply will last for approximately 1 month.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 97C2-8-1-116WC-1 should you complete?
- A.
All items
- B.
All items preceded by an asterisk (*)
- C.
All items listed under the “Periodic Inspection” heading
- D.
All items followed by an ampersand (&)
Correct Answer
B. All items preceded by an asterisk (*)Explanation
The correct answer is "all items preceded by an asterisk (*)". This means that when performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, you should complete all the items listed in Technical Order (TO) 97C2-8-1-116WC-1 that are marked with an asterisk (*).Rate this question:
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- 10.
What action if any should be taken if a commercial delivery operator dies bit provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment
- A.
No action is required
- B.
Contact Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) for disposition instructions
- C.
Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance
- D.
Notify the fuels management team (FMT) and obtain an odor sample
Correct Answer
C. Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidanceExplanation
If a commercial delivery operator dies but does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the correct action to be taken is to inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance. This is because the FSC is responsible for managing fuel operations and they need to be informed about the situation. They will then provide instructions on how to proceed with the shipment in the absence of the required form.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following cryotainer valves should be in the open position before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt
- A.
Vent valve
- B.
Service valve
- C.
Fill/drain valve
- D.
Pressure build up valve
Correct Answer
A. Vent valveExplanation
Before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt, the vent valve should be in the open position. This is because the vent valve allows the release of excess pressure or gas from the cryotainer. By opening the vent valve, any built-up pressure can be safely released, preventing potential damage to the cryotainer and ensuring a smooth and controlled receipt of liquid nitrogen.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, ensure the commercial delivery operator
- A.
Reviews the AFTO form 244/245 for accuracy
- B.
Performs an odor test on the receiving cryotainer
- C.
Purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants
- D.
Signs the DD form 250 in the quality assurance representative (QAR) block
Correct Answer
C. Purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminantsExplanation
The correct answer is "purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants". This is because before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, it is important to ensure that the transfer hose is purged. This is done to remove any potential contaminants that may be present in the hose, ensuring that the LOX received is clean and free from any impurities.Rate this question:
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- 13.
When preparing to issue LOX, what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank’s AFTO form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out
- A.
No action is required
- B.
Do not service the receiving tank
- C.
Inform aircraft maintenance of the discrepancy
- D.
Contact the fuels service center and await further instruction
Correct Answer
B. Do not service the receiving tankExplanation
If a review of a receiving tank's AFTO form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out, the correct action is to not service the receiving tank. This is because a properly filled out form ensures that the necessary information and checks have been completed before servicing the tank. By not servicing the tank, it reduces the risk of potential errors or issues that may arise from an incomplete form.Rate this question:
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- 14.
To what pressure range should source tank pressure be set for cryogenic issuing
- A.
10-15 PSI
- B.
15-20 PSI
- C.
20-30 PSI
- D.
30-40 PSI
Correct Answer
A. 10-15 PSIExplanation
The source tank pressure should be set to 10-15 PSI for cryogenic issuing. This pressure range ensures that the cryogenic substance can be safely and effectively released from the tank. Setting the pressure too low may result in insufficient flow, while setting it too high could cause damage to the tank or other equipment. Therefore, maintaining a pressure between 10-15 PSI is crucial for proper cryogenic issuing.Rate this question:
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- 15.
When preparing to issue (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s AFTO form 244/245 lists an open Red X condition
- A.
No action is required
- B.
Do not fill the receiving tank
- C.
Notify the fuels control center and request line expediter assistance
- D.
Inform the fuels management team and await further instruction
Correct Answer
B. Do not fill the receiving tankExplanation
If a receiving tank's AFTO form 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, the correct action to take is to not fill the receiving tank. This means that there is a maintenance issue or problem with the tank that needs to be resolved before it can be filled. Filling the tank in this condition could potentially cause further damage or safety risks. Therefore, it is important to not fill the tank and address the issue before proceeding.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which step should be taken if a LOX cart fails an odor test
- A.
Conduct another odor test
- B.
Inform aircraft maintenance
- C.
Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart
- D.
Contact the fuels lab and request a correlation sample to be taken
Correct Answer
C. Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cartExplanation
If a LOX cart fails an odor test, the appropriate step to take would be to perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart. This is because the odor test will help determine if the issue lies with the storage tank, which could be contaminating the LOX cart and causing it to fail the test. By conducting the odor test on the storage tank, it will be possible to identify and address any potential problems or sources of contamination, ensuring the safety and quality of the LOX cart.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Approximately what size sample should be taken for an odor test
- A.
100 milliliter (ML)
- B.
200 ML
- C.
300 ML
- D.
400 ML
Correct Answer
D. 400 MLExplanation
The correct answer is 400 ML because a larger sample size is generally recommended for odor tests to ensure accurate and representative results. A larger sample size helps to minimize the effects of variability and increase the reliability of the test. Additionally, odor compounds can be present in low concentrations, so a larger sample size allows for better detection and measurement of these compounds. Therefore, a sample size of 400 ML is more suitable for an odor test compared to the smaller options provided.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What symbol should you enter on the AFTO form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue
- A.
Red X
- B.
Red dash
- C.
Red cross
- D.
Red diagonal
Correct Answer
B. Red dashExplanation
The correct symbol to enter on the AFTO form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue is a red dash. The red dash symbolizes that the inspection was not performed within the required timeframe. This helps to track and document any missed or overdue inspections for maintenance purposes.Rate this question:
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- 19.
When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a LOX cart on the AFTO form 134 what information should be entered in block 4
- A.
The date the cart was filled
- B.
The quantity issued to the cart
- C.
The tank number of the issuing cryotainer
- D.
The initials of the individual that filled the cart
Correct Answer
D. The initials of the individual that filled the cartExplanation
In block 4 of the AFTO form 134, the initials of the individual who filled the cart should be entered. This information is important for tracking and accountability purposes, as it allows for identification of the person responsible for filling the cart. It helps ensure that the task was performed by the appropriate individual and provides a record of who was involved in the process.Rate this question:
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- 20.
When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a LOX cart on the AFTO form 134 how should odor test results be annotated in block 2 column D?
- A.
As either + or – in column B
- B.
As either SAT or UNSAT in column B
- C.
As either GO or NO GO in column C
- D.
As either FAIL of PASS in column D
Correct Answer
D. As either FAIL of PASS in column DExplanation
When documenting a cryogenic product issue on the AFTO form 134, the odor test results should be annotated as either FAIL or PASS in column D. This indicates whether the product has failed or passed the odor test.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When documenting a cryogenting product receipt on the DLA form 2046 from which of the following documents is the vendors invoice obtained
- A.
Dd form 250
- B.
Dd form 250-1
- C.
Dd form 1348
- D.
Dd form 1348-1
Correct Answer
A. Dd form 250Explanation
The vendor's invoice is obtained from the DD Form 250 when documenting a cryogenting product receipt on the DLA Form 2046.Rate this question:
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- 22.
How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
A. MonthlyExplanation
Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations on a monthly basis. This frequency ensures that the personnel are regularly updated and trained on the latest procedures, safety measures, and best practices for hot refueling operations. Monthly certifications also help to maintain a high level of proficiency and competency among the personnel, reducing the risk of errors or accidents during the refueling process. Regular certifications also provide an opportunity to address any issues or concerns that may arise and to reinforce the importance of safety in hot refueling operations.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling
- A.
HQ USAF AF Deputy chief of staff for installations and logistics
- B.
Major command commander
- C.
Wing commander
- D.
Fuels management flight commander (FMFC)
Correct Answer
B. Major command commanderExplanation
The major command commander may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling. This is because the major command commander holds a high level of authority and responsibility within the military hierarchy. They have the knowledge and decision-making power to assess the situation and determine if the deviation from hot refueling policies is necessary for the successful completion of combat or emergency operations.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad
- A.
B-1
- B.
F-15
- C.
F-16
- D.
F-22
Correct Answer
B. F-15Explanation
The F-15 is the aircraft that does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad. A hot brake check is a safety procedure performed to ensure that the brakes are functioning properly and not overheated before refueling. However, the F-15 is equipped with a brake cooling system that prevents the brakes from overheating during high-speed operations, eliminating the need for a hot brake check.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When performing rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, the high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first
- A.
1 minute of fuel flow
- B.
2 minutes of fuel flow
- C.
250 gallons defueled
- D.
500 gallons defueled
Correct Answer
A. 1 minute of fuel flowExplanation
During rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, it is important to test the high-level shutoff valve within the first minute of fuel flow. This is because testing the valve early ensures that it is functioning properly and can prevent any potential fuel spills or overflows. By testing the valve within the first minute, any issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring safe and efficient fuel transfer operations.Rate this question:
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- 26.
When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel
- A.
Whenever the provider aircraft has all engines running
- B.
Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running
- C.
Whenever the provider aircraft has any engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running
- D.
Whenever the source or provider aircraft has an engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running
Correct Answer
B. Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine runningExplanation
A rapid defuel operation is considered a hot defuel whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running. This means that as long as there is any engine in operation on the source or provider aircraft, the defuel operation is considered to be hot. It is not necessary for all engines to be running or for the engine to be located on the same side as the refueling receptacle. As long as any engine is running, it is considered a hot defuel.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are not authorized on what aircraft
- A.
A-10
- B.
B-2
- C.
F-15
- D.
F-22
Correct Answer
B. B-2Explanation
The B-2 aircraft is not authorized for concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO). This means that the B-2 cannot perform maintenance and servicing tasks while also generating sorties or missions. This restriction may be due to the unique and complex nature of the B-2 aircraft, requiring dedicated maintenance and preparation time before each mission.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG)
- A.
Concurrent servicing supervisor
- B.
Aircraft servicing supervisor
- C.
Chief servicing supervisor
- D.
Fuels operator
Correct Answer
A. Concurrent servicing supervisorExplanation
The concurrent servicing supervisor is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG). They oversee and coordinate the activities of the aircraft servicing supervisor, chief servicing supervisor, and fuels operator to ensure efficient and effective servicing operations.Rate this question:
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- 29.
During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come with in a minimum of how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
25
- D.
50
Correct Answer
C. 25Explanation
During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come within a minimum of 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of the personnel and the aircraft. Being too close to the fuel vent outlet can pose a risk of fire or explosion, as fuel vapors may be present in that area. Therefore, it is important for deplaning personnel to maintain a safe distance of at least 25 feet to prevent any potential accidents or hazards.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/ passenger aircraft operations to include cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance fuel or oxygen servicing and fleet servicing
- A.
Passenger compartment monitor
- B.
Fuels servicing supervisor
- C.
Chief servicing supervisor
- D.
Refueling panel monitor
Correct Answer
C. Chief servicing supervisorExplanation
The chief servicing supervisor is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations. This includes overseeing tasks such as cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing. They ensure that all servicing activities are carried out efficiently and in compliance with safety regulations.Rate this question:
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- 31.
During in shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, fuels servicing vehicle engines should not be allowed to operate for more than what maximum number of minutes
- A.
15
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
40
Correct Answer
B. 20Explanation
During in shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, it is important to limit the operation of the fuel servicing vehicle engines to a maximum of 20 minutes. This is to prevent the build-up of fumes and exhaust gases within the shelter, which could pose a safety risk to personnel and the aircraft. Allowing the engines to operate for longer periods could increase the concentration of these gases and potentially lead to hazardous conditions. Therefore, it is crucial to adhere to the recommended maximum time limit of 20 minutes to ensure the safety of everyone involved.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Crew members conducting in shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to what maximum number of operations per duty day
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
6
Correct Answer
C. 4Explanation
The maximum number of operations per duty day for crew members conducting in shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to 4.Rate this question:
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- 33.
During multiple source refueling, what action, if any should be taken if backflow is detected
- A.
No action is required
- B.
Increase engine revolutions per minute
- C.
Decrease the engine RPM
- D.
Stop the operation immediately
Correct Answer
D. Stop the operation immediatelyExplanation
If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is necessary to stop the operation immediately. Backflow indicates that fuel is flowing in the wrong direction, which can lead to fuel contamination or damage to the fuel system. Stopping the operation helps prevent any further issues and ensures the safety and integrity of the refueling process.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When multiple source refueling if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft each vehicle
- A.
Can begin fuel flow once positioned
- B.
May leave the aircraft upon completion of fuel servicing
- C.
Should be positioned directly under the wing of the aircraft
- D.
Must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft
Correct Answer
D. Must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraftExplanation
The correct answer states that when multiple source refueling, the refueling units must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft. This is important to ensure safety and prevent any potential accidents or fuel leaks during the refueling process. By remaining positioned and bonded, it ensures that the refueling units are securely connected to the aircraft and that the fuel flow is properly controlled and monitored. Once fuel servicing is completed on all trucks on that side of the aircraft, the refueling units can then be safely disconnected and removed.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Devise (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT) what tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight tot watch the equipment is assigned
- A.
PDA
- B.
Wireless
- C.
Device info
- D.
Base
Correct Answer
D. BaseExplanation
The correct answer is "base". In the context of configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT), the "base" tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to watch the equipment is assigned. This tab is likely to provide options and fields for inputting details related to fuel management and equipment assignment within the APOSD system.Rate this question:
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- 36.
When configuring an APOSD truck interface module (TIM) what settings screen allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned
- A.
Basic configuration
- B.
Device configuration
- C.
Fuel point configuration
- D.
Meter configuration
Correct Answer
A. Basic configurationExplanation
The basic configuration settings screen allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the APOSD truck interface module (TIM) is assigned. This screen allows you to input details such as the fueling unit's identification, location, and any specific requirements or restrictions. By accessing the basic configuration settings, you can ensure that the TIM is properly assigned to the correct fueling unit and that all necessary information is accurately recorded.Rate this question:
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- 37.
While performing expediter duties, what action must you take if you notice an unsafe fueling operation
- A.
Immediately terminate the operation
- B.
Correct the deficiency and allow the operation to continue
- C.
Closely monitor the operation and notify the fuels service center
- D.
Allow the operation to continue and report the discrepancy to the noncommissioned officer in charge of fuels distribution
Correct Answer
A. Immediately terminate the operationExplanation
If an unsafe fueling operation is noticed while performing expediter duties, the immediate action that must be taken is to terminate the operation. This is the appropriate response in order to prevent any potential accidents or hazards that may arise from the unsafe operation. By immediately terminating the operation, the risk is mitigated and the safety of personnel and equipment is prioritized.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following operations requires a fuels expediter be used
- A.
Return to bulk
- B.
Ground fuel servicing
- C.
Aircraft fueling
- D.
Fillstand
Correct Answer
C. Aircraft fuelingExplanation
A fuels expediter is required for aircraft fueling. This operation involves the process of refueling aircraft with the necessary fuel to ensure their proper functioning. A fuels expediter is responsible for coordinating and managing the fueling process, ensuring that the correct type and amount of fuel is delivered to the aircraft. They also monitor fuel levels, maintain safety protocols, and ensure efficient fueling operations. Therefore, aircraft fueling is the operation that requires a fuels expediter to be used.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Each R-20 multi aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire
- A.
1,000
- B.
1,500
- C.
3,000
- D.
4,500
Correct Answer
B. 1,500Explanation
The R-20 multi aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What type of hose should be used on the discharge side of the R-18 for transfer operations
- A.
4 inch hard hose
- B.
4 inch collapsible hose
- C.
6 inch hard hose
- D.
6 inch collapsible hose
Correct Answer
C. 6 inch hard hoseExplanation
The correct answer is 6 inch hard hose. This type of hose is recommended for the discharge side of the R-18 for transfer operations because it has a larger diameter (6 inches) which allows for a higher flow rate of the transferred material. Additionally, the hard construction of the hose ensures durability and prevents collapse or kinking during the transfer process.Rate this question:
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- 41.
How many fillstand assemblies are included in the fuels operational readiness capability equipment system
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2 because the question is asking for the number of fillstand assemblies included in the fuels operational readiness capability equipment system. The question does not provide any additional information or context, so we can assume that there are only two fillstand assemblies included in the system.Rate this question:
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- 42.
At a minimum how often should the R-18 pumping unit oil filter be changed
- A.
Every 250 hours of operation or semiannually which ever comes first (WCF)
- B.
Every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, WCF
- C.
Ever 250 hours of operation or annually, WCF
- D.
Every 500 hours of operation or annually, whichever comes first
Correct Answer
B. Every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, WCFExplanation
The correct answer is every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first. This means that the R-18 pumping unit oil filter should be changed either after every 500 hours of operation or every six months, whichever comes first. This ensures that the oil filter is regularly maintained and replaced to prevent any potential damage or contamination to the pumping unit.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit
- A.
30 PSI
- B.
65
- C.
75
- D.
100
Correct Answer
C. 75Explanation
The proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit is 75 PSI. This level of pressure ensures optimal performance and safety for the unit. It is important to maintain the correct tire pressure to prevent issues such as uneven wear, decreased fuel efficiency, and potential tire blowouts. The manufacturer recommends 75 PSI as the appropriate tire pressure setting for this specific pumping unit.Rate this question:
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- 44.
How often should the sump tank on the R-19 filter separator unit be drained
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Quarterly
Correct Answer
A. DailyExplanation
The sump tank on the R-19 filter separator unit should be drained daily to ensure efficient operation of the unit. Draining the tank on a daily basis helps remove any accumulated water, sediment, or contaminants that may have collected in the tank. Regular drainage prevents the buildup of these substances, which can potentially impact the performance and lifespan of the unit. By draining the tank daily, any potential issues can be addressed promptly, ensuring the filter separator operates effectively.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which condition does not require replacement of filter elemetns on the R-19 filter separator unit
- A.
A reading of 16 psi on the DP gauge
- B.
A reading of 22 psi on the DP gauge
- C.
Elements that have been in use for 36 months
- D.
Filter separator vessel performance is questionable
Correct Answer
A. A reading of 16 psi on the DP gaugeExplanation
A reading of 16 psi on the DP gauge does not require replacement of filter elements on the R-19 filter separator unit because it is within the acceptable range. The DP gauge measures the pressure drop across the filter elements, and a reading of 16 psi indicates that the filter is still effectively removing contaminants from the system. Therefore, there is no need to replace the filter elements at this point.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 servicing unit indicate when the fueling sustem is not operating
- A.
45 PSI
- B.
75
- C.
90
- D.
150
Correct Answer
C. 90Explanation
The surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 servicing unit should indicate 90 PSI when the fueling system is not operating. This indicates the pressure at which the surge suppressor is able to regulate and control any sudden surges or fluctuations in pressure within the system. It is important for the gauge to show this pressure to ensure the proper functioning and safety of the fueling system.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The micronic filter elements on the R-20 servicing unit should be replaced when the DP reading exceeds
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
25
Correct Answer
B. 15Explanation
The micronic filter elements on the R-20 servicing unit should be replaced when the DP reading exceeds 15. This indicates that the pressure drop across the filter elements has reached a level where they are no longer effectively filtering the fluid. By replacing the filter elements at this point, the unit can continue to operate with optimal filtration and prevent any potential damage or contamination to the system.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When setting up the communtication panel on an R-18 what action should you take first
- A.
Turn off the panel power switch
- B.
Turn on the battery master switch
- C.
Set the station unit id switch to the disered number
- D.
Place the manual/ remote control switch in the manual position
Correct Answer
A. Turn off the panel power switchExplanation
The first action to take when setting up the communication panel on an R-18 is to turn off the panel power switch. This is important to ensure safety and prevent any electrical accidents or malfunctions while setting up the panel. By turning off the power switch, you can then proceed with the rest of the setup process without any potential risks.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When performing off load operations with the fuels operational readiness capability equipment system (FORCE) the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R-18 pumping unit should be placed in what position
- A.
On
- B.
Off
- C.
Offload
- D.
No deadman
Correct Answer
D. No deadmanExplanation
The correct answer is "no deadman." The deadman switch on the communications panel of the R-18 pumping unit should be placed in the "no deadman" position when performing off load operations with the FORCE system. This means that the deadman switch is not activated or engaged, allowing for the offloading process to take place without the need for constant manual control or supervision.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When performing transfer operations with an R-18 pumping unit, what reading should the oil pressure gauge indicate if the unit is operating properly
- A.
25 +/- 5 PSI
- B.
50 +/- 10 PSI
- C.
85+/- 5 psi
- D.
90 +/- 10 pis
Correct Answer
B. 50 +/- 10 PSIExplanation
The correct answer is 50 +/- 10 PSI. When performing transfer operations with an R-18 pumping unit, the oil pressure gauge should indicate a reading of 50 PSI, with a permissible range of +/- 10 PSI. This indicates that the unit is operating properly and maintaining the appropriate oil pressure for the transfer operations.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Jan 29, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Feb 29, 2016Quiz Created by
Caliboy907
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