CDC Vol 1 Z3p071

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CDC Vol 1 Z3p071 - Quiz

NEWEST CDC URE's Vol 1


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) What is the most rigorous stage of development?

    • A.

      SrA

    • B.

      MSgt

    • C.

      SSgt and TSgt

    • D.

      Amn and A1C

    Correct Answer
    D. Amn and A1C
    Explanation
    The most rigorous stage of development is at the level of Amn and A1C because this is the beginning stage of a person's military career. During this stage, individuals are expected to learn and adapt to the military environment, undergo basic training, and develop the necessary skills and discipline required for their future roles. It is a period of intense physical and mental training, where individuals are pushed to their limits to ensure they are prepared for the challenges ahead.

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  • 2. 

    (001) Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty?

    • A.

      Patrol Leader

    • B.

      Squad Leader

    • C.

      Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) Controller

    • D.

      Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security response Team (ESRT) Leader

    Correct Answer
    B. Squad Leader
    Explanation
    A Senior Airman (SrA) is responsible for leading a squad, so being a Squad Leader is indeed a duty of a Senior Airman. Patrol Leader, Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) Controller, and Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security Response Team (ESRT) Leader are also duties that a Senior Airman may be assigned to. Therefore, the correct answer is Squad Leader.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certain locations?

    • A.

      Supervisor

    • B.

      Flight Sergeant

    • C.

      Response force leader

    • D.

      Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)/Assistant NCOIC

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight Sergeant
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Flight Sergeant. Flight Sergeant is a duty available in certain locations for Staff Sergeants (SSgt) or Technical Sergeants (TSgt). This duty involves supervising and leading a flight within the military organization.

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  • 4. 

    (001) What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership?

    • A.

      MSgt

    • B.

      CMSgt

    • C.

      SMSgt

    • D.

      SSgt and TSgt

    Correct Answer
    C. SMSgt
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SMSgt. SMSgt, or Senior Master Sergeant, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership. This rank is typically achieved after years of experience and demonstrates a high level of expertise and responsibility. SMSgts are often involved in decision-making processes and provide guidance and direction to lower-ranking personnel. They play a crucial role in the overall force development and leadership at the operational or strategic level.

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  • 5. 

    (001) What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?

    • A.

      Tactical Control

    • B.

      Strategic Control

    • C.

      Operational Control

    • D.

      Administrative Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Tactical Control
    Explanation
    Tactical control refers to the authority and responsibility for directing and coordinating the use of assigned or attached forces in combat operations or tactical maneuvers. It involves making decisions and giving orders in real-time to achieve specific objectives on the battlefield. This type of control focuses on the immediate and short-term actions of forces and is typically exercised by commanders at the operational or tactical level. Strategic control, on the other hand, deals with long-term planning and decision-making, while operational control involves the direction and coordination of military operations. Administrative control relates to the management and support functions of military organizations.

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  • 6. 

    (001) Which commander exercises operational control?

    • A.

      Squadron Commander

    • B.

      Installation Commander

    • C.

      Joint Force Commander

    • D.

      Major Command (MAJCOM) commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Joint Force Commander
    Explanation
    A Joint Force Commander exercises operational control. Operational control refers to the authority to plan, coordinate, and direct military operations. The Joint Force Commander is responsible for overseeing the activities of multiple branches of the military and coordinating their efforts towards a common objective. This position is typically held by a high-ranking officer who has the authority to make strategic decisions and allocate resources as needed.

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  • 7. 

    (001) Supervisors must ensure their troops

    • A.

      Have food and water.

    • B.

      Possess required qualifications and certifications.

    • C.

      Are supplied with weapons and required equipment.

    • D.

      Are issued Special Security Instructions (SSIs) and study material.

    Correct Answer
    B. Possess required qualifications and certifications.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "possess required qualifications and certifications." This answer is supported by the fact that supervisors have a responsibility to ensure that their troops have the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles. This is important for maintaining the effectiveness and safety of the troops in their duties.

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  • 8. 

    (001) Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?

    • A.

      Wing commander

    • B.

      Squadron commander

    • C.

      Security Forces manage

    • D.

      Unit Deployment manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule. As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority to make decisions regarding the scheduling and coordination of flights. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to assess the operational requirements, availability of resources, and the capabilities of the unit. By taking into account various factors such as training requirements, mission objectives, and personnel availability, the squadron commander can effectively plan and organize the unit's flight schedule.

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  • 9. 

    (001) Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the

    • A.

      Duty roster

    • B.

      Post priority listing

    • C.

      Unit Manning document

    • D.

      Unit personnel manning roster

    Correct Answer
    B. Post priority listing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Post priority listing". A post priority listing is a document that determines the order in which posts or patrols should be manned based on their importance or urgency. It helps to allocate personnel resources effectively and ensure that critical areas are adequately covered. The duty roster, unit Manning document, and unit personnel manning roster may also be used for scheduling and assigning personnel, but they do not specifically prioritize posts based on their importance.

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  • 10. 

    (001) All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other that routine law enforcement and security duties, except the

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • B.

      MAJCOM vice commander.

    • C.

      Installation commander.

    • D.

      Combatant commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Installation commander. While all of the other commanders listed (MAJCOM commander, MAJCOM vice commander, and Combatant commander) have the authority to authorize personnel to bear firearms in foreign countries for non-routine law enforcement and security duties, the Installation commander does not have this authority. The Installation commander is responsible for the day-to-day operations and security of a specific military installation, but does not have the jurisdiction or authority to authorize personnel to bear firearms in foreign countries.

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  • 11. 

    (001) Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm?

    • A.

      Supervisor

    • B.

      Commander

    • C.

      Servicing Armory

    • D.

      Security Forces Manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Commander
    Explanation
    The Commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. This implies that the Commander has the authority and decision-making power to suspend or revoke someone's firearm privileges in certain situations. The other options, such as Supervisor, Servicing Armory, and Security Forces Manager, do not hold the same level of authority as the Commander in this context.

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  • 12. 

    (001) How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    There are three types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures.

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  • 13. 

    (001) What drives a post priority chart?

    • A.

      Vulnerability assessment.

    • B.

      Inspector General (IG) assessment.

    • C.

      Force protection conditions (FPCONs).

    • D.

      Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.
    Explanation
    The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment drives a post priority chart. This assessment helps in identifying and prioritizing potential risks and threats to the defense system. It provides a systematic approach to risk management by evaluating vulnerabilities and determining the necessary actions to mitigate them. The post priority chart is a tool that is used to allocate resources and prioritize actions based on the results of the IDRMP assessment.

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  • 14. 

    (001) Post priority charts are used to

    • A.

      Allocate vehicles.

    • B.

      Allocate manpower.

    • C.

      Determine post rotations.

    • D.

      Determine weapon configurations.

    Correct Answer
    B. Allocate manpower.
    Explanation
    Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that these charts are used to determine the distribution of personnel resources in order to effectively manage and assign tasks and responsibilities. By using post priority charts, organizations can ensure that the right amount of manpower is allocated to different posts or positions based on their importance and priority. This helps in optimizing productivity, efficiency, and overall operational effectiveness.

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  • 15. 

    (001) Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?

    • A.

      Group commander.

    • B.

      Security Forces manager.

    • C.

      Defense force commander.

    • D.

      Each individual flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Defense force commander.
    Explanation
    The defense force commander has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned. This means that they have the power to decide whether or not someone needs to be present at a particular post or if it can be left unattended. This decision is crucial for the overall security and functioning of the defense force, as it ensures that resources are allocated efficiently and effectively. The defense force commander's role is to make strategic decisions regarding the deployment and management of personnel, and this includes determining which posts can be unmanned.

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  • 16. 

    (001) The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in

    • A.

      Higher force protection conditions (FPCONs).

    • B.

      Peacetime and wartime.

    • C.

      Peacetime.

    • D.

      Wartime.

    Correct Answer
    B. Peacetime and wartime.
    Explanation
    The post priority chart is a tool used to allocate limited Security Forces (SF) resources in an efficient manner. It helps determine the level of force protection required based on the current FPCON (Force Protection Condition) level. Since FPCONs can be applicable in both peacetime and wartime scenarios, the post priority chart is used in both situations to ensure the most effective use of SF resources.

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  • 17. 

    (001) When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain

    • A.

      Proficiency.

    • B.

      Discipline.

    • C.

      Fairness.

    • D.

      Control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proficiency.
    Explanation
    Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified in helps to maintain proficiency. This practice ensures that individuals gain experience and knowledge in different roles, allowing them to develop a well-rounded skill set. By regularly rotating personnel, organizations can prevent skill gaps and ensure that all team members are competent and capable in their respective positions. This promotes efficiency, adaptability, and a higher level of performance overall.

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  • 18. 

    (001) What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high?

    • A.

      Post rotations.

    • B.

      Specialized courses.

    • C.

      Recognition program.

    • D.

      Providing time off.

    Correct Answer
    A. Post rotations.
    Explanation
    Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high because it allows for a change in job roles and responsibilities, preventing monotony and burnout. This can help to keep the team engaged and motivated, as they have the opportunity to learn new skills and gain different experiences. Additionally, post rotations can foster a sense of fairness and equal opportunity among team members, as everyone gets a chance to take on different roles within the flight.

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  • 19. 

    (001) As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates?

    • A.

      Standards.

    • B.

      Discipline.

    • C.

      Work ethic.

    • D.

      Mentorship.

    Correct Answer
    C. Work ethic.
    Explanation
    As a supervisor, it is important to instill a strong work ethic in each of your subordinates. Work ethic refers to the set of values and principles that guide an individual's attitude and approach towards their work. By instilling a strong work ethic, supervisors can ensure that their subordinates are committed, dedicated, and motivated to perform their tasks to the best of their abilities. This includes traits such as reliability, professionalism, accountability, and a willingness to go above and beyond. A strong work ethic not only contributes to the overall productivity and success of the team, but also helps in fostering a positive work culture.

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  • 20. 

    (001) What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?

    • A.

      Issue paperwork.

    • B.

      Verbally counsel the subordinate.

    • C.

      Investigate to determine the cause.

    • D.

      Assign the subordinate a new supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    C. Investigate to determine the cause.
    Explanation
    When a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This step is crucial as it helps identify the underlying issues or reasons behind the substandard performance. By conducting an investigation, the supervisor can gather relevant information, assess the situation, and make informed decisions on how to address the problem effectively. This approach allows for a fair and comprehensive understanding of the situation, enabling the supervisor to take appropriate actions to improve the subordinate's performance.

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  • 21. 

    (002) The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is

    • A.

      Report

    • B.

      Parade rest

    • C.

      Open ranks march

    • D.

      Prepare for inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Report
    Explanation
    After the flight falls in for inspection, the next command given would be "Report". This command is given to instruct the members of the flight to report their presence and readiness to the person in charge of the inspection. It is a standard military protocol to ensure that all members are accounted for and prepared for the inspection process.

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  • 22. 

    (002) After the command “Open rank, MARCH,” which of the following action does the flight take?

    • A.

      A. The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two, paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • B.

      B. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • C.

      C. The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • D.

      D. The last element stands fast. Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward and halts.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.
    Explanation
    After the command "Open rank, MARCH," the flight takes the following action: The last element stands still and automatically performs the dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each element in front of the last element takes one, two, or three steps forward, stops, and automatically performs the dress right dress.

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  • 23. 

    (002) After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    After aligning the fourth element, you advance three paces beyond the first element to execute a left-facing movement.

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  • 24. 

    (002) When does the second element leader give the command, “Second Element, ATTENTION”?

    • A.

      As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • B.

      As the inspecting official gets six paces past the last person in the first element, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • C.

      As the inspecting official is within two paces of the right flank to the formation, the second element leader commands, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • D.

      As soon as the inspecting official is facing the second element leader, he/she will give the command, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    Correct Answer
    A. As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”
    Explanation
    The second element leader gives the command "Second Element, ATTENTION" as the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation. This indicates that the second element should come to attention and be prepared for inspection.

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  • 25. 

    (002) When do you give the command, “Close Ranks, MARCH!”?

    • A.

      Upon departure of the inspecting official.

    • B.

      At the completion of the guardmount briefing

    • C.

      Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.

    • D.

      When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Upon departure of the inspecting official.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Upon departure of the inspecting official." This is because the command "Close Ranks, MARCH!" is given when the inspecting official is leaving, indicating that the guard or unit should close ranks and continue marching. This command is used to signal the end of the inspection and the resumption of normal marching.

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  • 26. 

    (002) Where can you find information about current fitness standards and assessments?

    • A.

      AFI 36-2903

    • B.

      AFI 36-2905

    • C.

      AFMAN 36-2903

    • D.

      AFMAN 36-2905

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 36-2903
    Explanation
    AFI 36-2903 is the Air Force Instruction that provides information about dress and appearance standards for military personnel. It does not specifically address fitness standards and assessments. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.

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  • 27. 

    (002) Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment?

    • A.

      Flight member

    • B.

      Flight supervisor

    • C.

      Flight commander

    • D.

      Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), supply.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight member
    Explanation
    The flight member is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment. This means that each individual within the flight is responsible for ensuring that the equipment is properly maintained and functioning correctly. This includes regular inspections, cleaning, and reporting any issues or malfunctions to the appropriate personnel. By holding each flight member accountable for equipment maintenance, it helps to ensure that the equipment is kept in good working order and ready for use when needed.

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  • 28. 

    (002) A post check generally includes all of these items except

    • A.

      Area inspection.

    • B.

      Facility inspection.

    • C.

      Weapons inspection.

    • D.

      Classified material inspection.

    Correct Answer
    C. Weapons inspection.
    Explanation
    A post check is a comprehensive assessment conducted after a mission or operation. It involves inspecting various aspects to ensure everything is in order. Area inspection refers to examining the surroundings for any potential hazards or damage. Facility inspection involves assessing the condition and functionality of the facilities used during the mission. Classified material inspection is conducted to ensure the proper handling and storage of sensitive information. However, weapons inspection is not typically part of a post check as it falls under a separate process of inspecting and maintaining weapons.

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  • 29. 

    (002) What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else’s writing?

    • A.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–337.

    • B.

      Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–336.

    • C.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 32–337.

    • D.

      Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33–337.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Handbook (AFH) 33-337 is the correct publication that will assist in becoming a good communicator and provide tools to review and assess someone else's writing. This handbook is specifically designed to improve communication skills and provides guidance on effective writing techniques. It offers tips, examples, and strategies for clear and concise writing, which are essential for effective communication in the Air Force.

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  • 30. 

    (002) When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is

    • A.

      Lengthy.

    • B.

      Made up.

    • C.

      Irrelevant.

    • D.

      Inappropriate.

    Correct Answer
    C. Irrelevant.
    Explanation
    When reviewing material for technical accuracy, one of the concerns is that it may contain irrelevant information. Irrelevant information refers to content that is not necessary or related to the topic at hand. This can make the material confusing, time-consuming, and less effective in conveying the intended message. Therefore, it is important to identify and remove any irrelevant information to ensure the accuracy and clarity of the material.

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  • 31. 

    (002) The primary function of reviewing is to ensure

    • A.

      The communication gets the point across.

    • B.

      Ideas are being communicated understandably and the communication gets the point across.

    • C.

      Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (incorrect grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; incorrect punctuation), and the communication get the point across.

    • D.

      Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.

    Correct Answer
    D. Ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and the communication gets the point across.
    Explanation
    The primary function of reviewing is to ensure that ideas are being communicated logically, in acceptable English (correct grammar; easily understood words, phrases, and paragraphs; correct punctuation), and that the communication gets the point across.

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  • 32. 

    (003) Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

    • A.

      Unit training section.

    • B.

      Defense Force commander.

    • C.

      Air Force Security Forces Center

    • D.

      Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs)

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Security Forces Center
    Explanation
    The Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. They are tasked with developing and implementing training programs for security forces personnel in the Air Force. This includes training in areas such as law enforcement, physical security, and combat tactics. The Security Forces Center plays a crucial role in ensuring that security forces personnel are properly trained and prepared to carry out their duties effectively and safely.

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  • 33. 

    (003) Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?

    • A.

      Unit training section.

    • B.

      Immediate supervisors.

    • C.

      Air Force Security Forces Center.

    • D.

      Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).

    Correct Answer
    D. Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs).
    Explanation
    Senior Security Forces non-commissioned officers (NCOs) are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools. They have the knowledge and experience to assess the training needs of their subordinates and ensure that they receive the necessary training and education to excel in their roles. As leaders within the Security Forces career field, they play a crucial role in developing and maintaining the technical proficiency of their personnel.

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  • 34. 

    (003) What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

    • A.

      Analysis.

    • B.

      Feedback.

    • C.

      Evaluation.

    • D.

      Cross-feed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Feedback.
    Explanation
    Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with valuable information about the effectiveness of their actions and decisions. Feedback allows commanders to assess the impact of their strategies, identify areas for improvement, and make necessary adjustments to achieve their objectives. It helps them understand the perspectives and concerns of their subordinates, enabling them to build stronger relationships and enhance teamwork. Additionally, feedback helps commanders to learn from their mistakes and successes, ultimately leading to better decision-making and overall performance.

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  • 35. 

    (003) The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to

    • A.

      Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.

    • B.

      Determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controller.

    • C.

      Measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions.

    • D.

      Surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty.

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This evaluation ensures that individuals are competent and capable of fulfilling the requirements of their assigned positions. It helps in identifying the skills, knowledge, and abilities of individuals and ensures that they are appropriately qualified for their roles. This process also helps in maintaining the highest standards of performance and professionalism within the organization.

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  • 36. 

    (004) The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to

    • A.

      Aggress against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • B.

      Track, detect and aggress against intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • C.

      Detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    • D.

      Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.

    Correct Answer
    D. Deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources.
    Explanation
    The primary mission of the Military Working Dog (MWD) is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding Air Force resources. This means that the MWD is responsible for preventing unauthorized individuals from entering and causing harm to Air Force facilities. They are trained to intimidate and discourage potential intruders, identify and locate them through their sense of smell and hearing, and physically apprehend them if necessary. This mission helps to ensure the security and protection of Air Force resources.

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  • 37. 

    (004) Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is

    • A.

      Apprehension or release.

    • B.

      Pepper spray or gunfire.

    • C.

      Resistance or restraint.

    • D.

      Gunfire or escape.

    Correct Answer
    D. Gunfire or escape.
    Explanation
    Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is gunfire or escape. This means that when faced with a situation where the use of firearms is necessary or when there is a risk of the suspect escaping, patrol dogs are used as a less lethal option. They can be deployed to apprehend and subdue the suspect without resorting to gunfire, reducing the risk of injury or fatality. Additionally, patrol dogs can be effective in preventing suspects from escaping, providing a valuable tool for law enforcement in situations where a quick and safe resolution is required.

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  • 38. 

    (004) When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage?

    • A.

      In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.

    • B.

      Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability.

    • C.

      At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.

    • D.

      Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.

    Correct Answer
    C. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
    Explanation
    Dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This placement allows the dogs to effectively detect and deter any unauthorized individuals from entering the area. By strategically positioning the dogs in these locations, they can act as a barrier and provide maximum usage in preventing unauthorized access.

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  • 39. 

    (004) A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous

    • A.

      Deterrent to potential violators.

    • B.

      Physical deterrent to potential violators.

    • C.

      Physiological deterrent to potential violators.

    • D.

      Psychological deterrent to potential violators.

    Correct Answer
    D. Psychological deterrent to potential violators.
    Explanation
    A patrol dog team used in police services activities can be a psychological deterrent to potential violators. The presence of a trained dog can create fear and uncertainty in the minds of individuals who may be considering criminal activities. The perception of the dog's abilities and the potential consequences of engaging in illegal behavior can discourage potential violators from committing crimes. The psychological impact of the dog's presence and the fear it can instill in individuals can act as a deterrent to criminal activity.

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  • 40. 

    (004) During peaceful confrontations, the Military Working Dog (MWD) team should be positioned

    • A.

      In reserve, out of sight of the crowd.

    • B.

      Off to the side, out of direct vision of the crowd.

    • C.

      Right out in front to ward off potential participants.

    • D.

      Elsewhere and not used in peaceful confrontations.

    Correct Answer
    A. In reserve, out of sight of the crowd.
    Explanation
    During peaceful confrontations, it is recommended to position the Military Working Dog (MWD) team in reserve and out of sight of the crowd. This ensures that the presence of the dogs does not escalate the situation or provoke any unnecessary reactions from the crowd. Keeping them out of sight also allows for better control and coordination of their deployment if the need arises.

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  • 41. 

    (005) All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel,MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the

    • A.

      Threat Working Group.

    • B.

      Integrated Base Defense Council.

    • C.

      Force Protection Commodity Council.

    • D.

      Equipment, Weapons, and Configuration Board.

    Correct Answer
    B. Integrated Base Defense Council.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Integrated Base Defense Council. The question is asking about the arming rules that will be followed, and the answer is the Integrated Base Defense Council. This council is responsible for establishing and implementing the arming rules in accordance with AFI 31-117, MAJCOM requirements, and the Threat Working Group. The other options listed are not specifically responsible for establishing arming rules.

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  • 42. 

    (005) "All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked" means that they

    • A.

      All must have SF badges applied to both the front doors.

    • B.

      All must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios.

    • C.

      Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.

    • D.

      All must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a military working dog (MWD).

    Correct Answer
    C. Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system.
    Explanation
    The statement "All permanently assigned security forces (SF) vehicles must be properly marked" implies that the vehicles must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This is because these features are essential for security forces vehicles to effectively communicate and respond to emergencies. The other options mentioned, such as SF badges, flood lights, mobile radios, and a cage for military working dogs, are not explicitly mentioned in the statement and therefore cannot be inferred as requirements for proper marking.

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  • 43. 

    (005) Which radio type can talk over great distances?

    • A.

      Base station.

    • B.

      Portable radio.

    • C.

      Base station remote.

    • D.

      Mobile two-way radio.

    Correct Answer
    D. Mobile two-way radio.
    Explanation
    A mobile two-way radio is the correct answer because it is designed to communicate over long distances. Unlike a base station or base station remote, which are stationary and have limited range, a mobile two-way radio can be used while on the move, allowing for communication over greater distances. Portable radios, while convenient, typically have shorter range compared to mobile radios. Therefore, a mobile two-way radio is the best option for talking over great distances.

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  • 44. 

    (005) The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to

    • A.

      Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

    • B.

      Ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.

    • C.

      Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.

    • D.

      Provide Congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget for the next fiscal year.
    Explanation
    The basic purpose of the Financial Plan submission is to ensure an equitable distribution of the President's Budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the Financial Plan submission aims to allocate the budget in a fair and balanced manner across different areas and departments, ensuring that each receives an appropriate share of funding to meet their requirements. This helps to prevent any bias or favoritism in the distribution of funds and promotes transparency and accountability in the budgeting process.

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  • 45. 

    (005) Who provides the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year?

    • A.

      Numbered air force.

    • B.

      Headquarters Air Force.

    • C.

      Major commands (MAJCOMs).

    • D.

      Air Force Security Forces Center.

    Correct Answer
    C. Major commands (MAJCOMs).
    Explanation
    Major commands (MAJCOMs) provide the most current security forces per-troop-allocation for the fiscal year. MAJCOMs are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping their assigned forces, including security forces. They have the authority to allocate security forces based on the specific needs and requirements of their command. Therefore, they are the primary source for providing the most up-to-date security forces allocation.

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  • 46. 

    (005) What is not a category for the status of funds?

    • A.

      Committed.

    • B.

      Obligated.

    • C.

      End of year.

    • D.

      Uncommitted.

    Correct Answer
    C. End of year.
    Explanation
    The status of funds can be categorized as committed, obligated, or uncommitted. "End of year" is not a category for the status of funds. This category does not provide any information about the current state or allocation of funds, but rather refers to a specific time period.

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  • 47. 

    (005) Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas?

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM) functional.

    • B.

      MAJCOM corporate structure.

    • C.

      Financial Management Board.

    • D.

      Financial working group.

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM) functional.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Major command (MAJCOM) functional. This is because the Major command (MAJCOM) functional is responsible for reviewing and validating installation submissions for respective functional areas. They have the authority and expertise to ensure that the installations are in compliance with the requirements and standards set by the MAJCOM. The MAJCOM functional team is knowledgeable about the specific needs and priorities of their functional area and can effectively assess the installation submissions to ensure their validity and appropriateness.

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  • 48. 

    (005) What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units?

    • A.

      Air Force Manpower Standards Program (MSP).

    • B.

      Air Force Manpower Standards Platform (MSP).

    • C.

      Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP).

    • D.

      Air Force Management and Equipment Program (MEP).

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Management Engineering Program (MEP) provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units. This program focuses on managing and optimizing the use of resources, including manpower, to ensure efficient and effective operations. By utilizing the standards set by MEP, commanders can accurately assess the number of personnel needed for their units, ensuring that they have the appropriate manpower to accomplish their mission objectives.

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  • 49. 

    (005) When are manpower numbers reviewed?

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Annually.

    • D.

      Bi-annually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually.
    Explanation
    Manpower numbers are reviewed on an annual basis. This means that the review of the number of personnel in a company or organization takes place once every year. This allows for an evaluation of the current workforce and any changes that may be necessary, such as hiring or downsizing, to meet the company's needs. Monthly, quarterly, and bi-annual reviews are not as appropriate for assessing long-term workforce planning and adjustments.

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  • 50. 

    (005) Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document?

    • A.

      Work center.

    • B.

      Position number.

    • C.

      Air Force specialty code.

    • D.

      Report No Later than Date.

    Correct Answer
    D. Report No Later than Date.
    Explanation
    The unit manning document is a record that tracks the personnel assigned to a specific unit. It includes information such as work center, position number, and Air Force specialty code. The "Report No Later than Date" is not a personnel-specific information and is not typically tracked on the unit manning document.

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