CDC 2a951n Vol 5

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  • 1/100 Questions

    1. (801) Which part of a radar set amplifies and converts a wave into a video signal?

    • Antenna.
    • Receiver.
    • Indicator.
    • Transmitter.
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CDC 2a951n Vol 5 - Quiz
About This Quiz

CDC 2A951N Vol 5 quiz assesses knowledge on radar systems, focusing on functionalities, signal processing, and object detection. It is designed for learners in radar engineering and aviation technology, enhancing skills in system understanding and operational proficiency.

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  • 2. 

    2. (801) If a radar echo returns after 310 microseconds, how many miles away is the target?

    • 10

    • 25

    • 50

    • 75

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    The time it takes for a radar echo to return can be used to calculate the distance to the target. In this case, the echo returns after 310 microseconds. Since the speed of light is approximately 186,000 miles per second, we can calculate the distance by multiplying the speed of light by the time it takes for the echo to return. Therefore, the target is approximately 57.66 miles away. However, since the answer choices are in whole numbers, the closest option is 25 miles.

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  • 3. 

    7. (802) In a pulse-modulation radar system, a high pulse repetition frequency radar limits range by

    • Using less power.

    • Using more power.

    • Shortening the listening time.

    • Lengthening the listening time.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shortening the listening time.
    Explanation
    In a pulse-modulation radar system, the range is limited by shortening the listening time. This means that the radar system reduces the time it spends listening for the return signal after transmitting a pulse. By shortening the listening time, the radar system can increase the pulse repetition frequency, allowing for more pulses to be transmitted within a given time period. This increases the system's ability to detect targets at shorter ranges. Using less power or more power would not directly impact the range limitation, and lengthening the listening time would actually decrease the pulse repetition frequency and therefore limit the range even further.

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  • 4. 

    8. (802) Where does the transmitter in a pulse-modulation radar system send a small amount of energy for use as a time reference?

    • Antenna.

    • Receiver.

    • Indicator.

    • Power supply.

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver.
    Explanation
    In a pulse-modulation radar system, the transmitter sends a small amount of energy to the receiver for use as a time reference. This is because the receiver needs to accurately measure the time it takes for the transmitted pulse to return after bouncing off a target. By using the energy sent by the transmitter as a time reference, the receiver can accurately calculate the distance to the target based on the time it takes for the pulse to return. Therefore, the correct answer is receiver.

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  • 5. 

    9. (802) Which component in a pulse-modulation radar system shapes the radio frequency energy into a narrow beam?

    • Antenna.

    • Indicator.

    • Transmitter.

    • Synchronizer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Antenna.
    Explanation
    In a pulse-modulation radar system, the component that shapes the radio frequency energy into a narrow beam is the antenna. The antenna is responsible for transmitting and receiving the radar signals. It is designed to focus the energy in a specific direction, allowing the radar system to accurately detect and locate targets. The other options, such as the indicator, transmitter, and synchronizer, are not directly involved in shaping the radio frequency energy into a narrow beam.

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  • 6. 

    10. (802) In the radar receiver during the heterodyning process, what frequency does the difference of the echo frequency and the local oscillator beat frequency produce?

    • Sum.

    • Error.

    • Difference.

    • Intermediate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermediate.
    Explanation
    During the heterodyning process in a radar receiver, the difference between the echo frequency and the local oscillator beat frequency produces an intermediate frequency. This intermediate frequency is used for further processing and analysis of the radar signal.

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  • 7. 

    12. (802) The maximum range of a pulse-modulation radar system primarily depends on

    • Pulse shape.

    • Power in the pulse.

    • Pulse recurrence time.

    • Pulse repetition frequency.

    Correct Answer
    A. Power in the pulse.
    Explanation
    The maximum range of a pulse-modulation radar system primarily depends on the power in the pulse. This is because the power in the pulse determines the strength of the radar signal that is transmitted and received by the system. A higher power in the pulse allows the radar signal to travel a greater distance before it becomes too weak to be detected. Therefore, increasing the power in the pulse increases the maximum range of the radar system.

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  • 8. 

    13. (803) In a frequency-shift radar system, what is the relationship between a transmitter/receiver and an aircraft when the received frequency is lower than the transmitted frequency?

    • They are a constant distance away from each other.

    • The aircraft is not reflecting any of the radar pulse.

    • The aircraft is flying towards the transmitter/receiver.

    • The aircraft is flying away from the transmitter/receiver.

    Correct Answer
    A. The aircraft is flying away from the transmitter/receiver.
    Explanation
    When the received frequency is lower than the transmitted frequency in a frequency-shift radar system, it indicates that the aircraft is moving away from the transmitter/receiver. This is because the frequency shift occurs due to the Doppler effect, where the frequency of the radar signal changes based on the relative motion between the radar system and the aircraft. A lower received frequency suggests that the aircraft is moving away from the radar system, causing the radar signal to be stretched and resulting in a lower frequency.

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  • 9. 

    14. (804) Which of the following are types of power loss in radio frequency lines?

    • Copper, dielectric, and radiation.

    • Current, dielectric, and emission.

    • Dielectric, radiation, and current.

    • Radiation, copper, and conduction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Copper, dielectric, and radiation.
    Explanation
    The types of power loss in radio frequency lines are copper loss, dielectric loss, and radiation loss. Copper loss refers to the power dissipated in the conductors due to their resistance. Dielectric loss occurs when the dielectric material between the conductors absorbs energy and converts it into heat. Radiation loss happens when energy is radiated away from the transmission line into free space.

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  • 10. 

    17. (804) If the spacing between the waveguide walls or size of the walls changes, then there will be a change in impedence causing decreased

    • Heat.

    • Power.

    • Reflection.

    • Standing waves.

    Correct Answer
    A. Power.
    Explanation
    When the spacing between the waveguide walls or the size of the walls changes, it affects the impedance of the waveguide. Impedance is the opposition to the flow of power in a waveguide. A change in impedance leads to a mismatch between the waveguide and the source, causing some of the power to be reflected back. Therefore, a change in impedance results in a decrease in power transmitted through the waveguide.

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  • 11. 

    18. (804) What is the most common device used to connect multiple sections of a waveguide system?

    • Choke-joint.

    • Adapter plate.

    • Universal-joint.

    • Master cylinder.

    Correct Answer
    A. Choke-joint.
    Explanation
    A choke-joint is the most common device used to connect multiple sections of a waveguide system. A choke-joint is designed to provide a high impedance to the unwanted propagation of electromagnetic waves, while allowing the desired waves to pass through. This helps to minimize signal loss and maintain the integrity of the waveguide system. Adapter plates are used to connect waveguides of different sizes, while universal-joints and master cylinders are not typically used in waveguide systems.

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  • 12. 

    19. (804) For energy to move smoothly in and out of a waveguide, the end is

    • Capped.

    • Flared like a funnel.

    • Tappered to a point.

    • Twisted like a vortex.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flared like a funnel.
    Explanation
    In order for energy to move smoothly in and out of a waveguide, the end needs to be flared like a funnel. This shape helps to minimize reflections and impedance mismatches, allowing the energy to flow efficiently. A flared end acts as a transition between the waveguide and the surrounding medium, ensuring that the energy is properly coupled and transmitted.

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  • 13. 

    20. (805) Which component in the AN/APN-59 radar system furnishes both pitch and roll drive signals to the antenna stabilization motors?

    • AS-653C.

    • RT-289G.

    • AM-853B.

    • CN-221A.

    Correct Answer
    A. AM-853B.
    Explanation
    The AM-853B component in the AN/APN-59 radar system furnishes both pitch and roll drive signals to the antenna stabilization motors.

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  • 14. 

    21. (805) What is the maximum antenna radiation pattern coverage of the color weather radar system (WXR).

    • ± 90 degrees azimuth and ± 30 degrees elevation.

    • ± 30 degrees azimuth and ± 90 degrees elevation.

    • ± 180 degrees azimuth and ± 60 degrees elevation.

    • ± 60 degrees azimuth and ± 180 degrees elevation.

    Correct Answer
    A. ± 90 degrees azimuth and ± 30 degrees elevation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ± 90 degrees azimuth and ± 30 degrees elevation. This means that the color weather radar system has a maximum antenna radiation pattern coverage of 90 degrees in the horizontal direction (azimuth) and 30 degrees in the vertical direction (elevation). This coverage allows the radar system to effectively detect and display weather conditions within this range, providing pilots with important information for navigation and avoiding hazardous weather.

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  • 15. 

    23. (806) What adjustment on the combined altitude radar altimeter (CARA) receiver/transmitter (R/T) is used by maintenance to correct the display to zero feet while the aircraft is on the ground?

    • Aircraft Ground Set.

    • Aircraft Installation Delay.

    • Aircraft Altitude Potentiometer.

    • Aircraft Zero Reference Adjustment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft Installation Delay.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Aircraft Installation Delay. This adjustment is used by maintenance to correct the display to zero feet while the aircraft is on the ground. It allows for a delay in the altitude reading to account for the time it takes for the altimeter to stabilize after installation. This ensures that the altitude reading is accurate and calibrated properly.

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  • 16. 

    25. (806) During bright lighting conditions what purpose does the digital readout dimmer control of the combined altitude radar altimeter (CARA) serve?

    • Allows user to dim the dispaly.

    • The dimmer control is disabled.

    • Allows user to brighten the display.

    • Allows user to dim or brighten display.

    Correct Answer
    A. The dimmer control is disabled.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The dimmer control is disabled." This means that during bright lighting conditions, the digital readout dimmer control of the combined altitude radar altimeter (CARA) does not serve any purpose. It cannot be used to dim or brighten the display.

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  • 17. 

    28. (807) Which radar application is used to produce a pictorial map of the terrain?

    • Ground mapping.

    • Terrain following.

    • Terrain avoidance.

    • Synthetic aperture radar.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground mapping.
    Explanation
    Ground mapping is the radar application used to produce a pictorial map of the terrain. This technique involves using radar to collect data about the surface of the Earth and then creating a visual representation of the terrain. Ground mapping can be used for various purposes such as navigation, military operations, and geological surveys. It allows for the identification of features such as mountains, rivers, and forests, and helps in creating accurate maps for various applications.

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  • 18. 

    29. (807) Which radar application is used to maintain a preselected altitude above the ground?

    • Search radar.

    • Ground mapping.

    • Terrain following.

    • Terrain avoidance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Terrain following.
    Explanation
    Terrain following is the correct answer because this radar application is used to maintain a preselected altitude above the ground. It is specifically designed to track the terrain and adjust the altitude of the aircraft accordingly to avoid obstacles and maintain a safe flying altitude. This type of radar is commonly used in military aircraft to fly at low altitudes while navigating through complex terrains.

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  • 19. 

    30. (807) Which radar application sends data to compute time-to-go parameters?

    • Search radar.

    • Weather radar.

    • Bombing radar.

    • Synthetis aperture radar.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bombing radar.
    Explanation
    Bombing radar is the correct answer because it is used to calculate the time-to-go parameters for bombing missions. This type of radar is specifically designed to track and target enemy aircraft or ground targets, and it provides the necessary data to determine the time it will take for a bomb or missile to reach its intended destination. By accurately calculating the time-to-go parameters, bombing radar enables precise targeting and increases the effectiveness of bombing missions.

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  • 20. 

    31. (808) What establishes the network system time for a Link-16 system?

    • Global positioning system (GPS).

    • Time division multiple access (TDMA).

    • Net control station (NCS).

    • Network time reference (NTR).

    Correct Answer
    A. Network time reference (NTR).
    Explanation
    The network time reference (NTR) establishes the network system time for a Link-16 system. This means that the NTR is responsible for synchronizing the time across all the devices in the network, ensuring that they are all operating on the same time reference. The NTR serves as a central time source for the network, allowing for accurate and coordinated communication between the different components of the system.

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  • 21. 

    32. (808) What does using net number 127 when initiating a Link-16 system indicate?

    • The use of a sub-net.

    • The use of a stacked net.

    • The use of a primary net.

    • The use of an alternate net.

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of a stacked net.
    Explanation
    Using net number 127 when initiating a Link-16 system indicates the use of a stacked net.

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  • 22. 

    33. (809) What are the kilobit data rates used in a stacked net of a Tactical Digital Information Link (TADIL) J secure voice channels?

    • 6 or 4.

    • 1.2 or 8.

    • 2.4 or 16.

    • 4.8 or 32.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.4 or 16.
    Explanation
    The kilobit data rates used in a stacked net of a Tactical Digital Information Link (TADIL) J secure voice channels are 2.4 or 16.

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  • 23. 

    34. (810) If a unit has the need and capability to participate in both Link-16 and older Link systems, then the unit would normally be assigned an address between

    • 00001 to 00177.

    • 00177 to 00277.

    • 17700 to 17877.

    • 17877 to 17977.

    Correct Answer
    A. 00001 to 00177.
    Explanation
    A unit that has the need and capability to participate in both Link-16 and older Link systems would normally be assigned an address between 00001 to 00177. This range of addresses allows the unit to communicate and exchange data effectively with both systems. The other options (00177 to 00277, 17700 to 17877, and 17877 to 17977) do not provide the same level of compatibility and may result in communication issues or limitations for the unit.

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  • 24. 

    36. (810) What does the RELNAV function of the Link-16 system determine?

    • Time.

    • Distance.

    • Synchronization.

    • Geodetic position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Distance.
    Explanation
    The RELNAV function of the Link-16 system determines the distance between two entities. This function is used to calculate the range or distance between two Link-16 terminals or platforms. It provides important information for situational awareness and coordination between different units in a network. By accurately determining the distance, the system can facilitate effective communication, coordination, and targeting capabilities among different entities.

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  • 25. 

    38. (811) Besides the digital data processor (DDP), what other unit(s) make up the digital data group processor (DDGP) of the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS)?

    • Interface unit.

    • Load control unit.

    • Keyboard and monitor.

    • Receiver-transmitter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Interface unit.
    Explanation
    The digital data group processor (DDGP) of the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) consists of not only the digital data processor (DDP) but also the interface unit. The interface unit plays a crucial role in connecting and facilitating communication between different components of the system. It allows the DDP to interact with other units and devices, enabling the exchange of data and information. Therefore, the interface unit is an essential part of the DDGP.

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  • 26. 

    40. (811) When transmitting in the high power mode, what is the power output in watts of the high power amplifier of the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS)?

    • 1050.

    • 520.

    • 260.

    • 130.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1050.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1050. The question is asking for the power output in watts of the high power amplifier of the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) when transmitting in the high power mode. The answer of 1050 indicates that the high power amplifier has a power output of 1050 watts in this mode.

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  • 27. 

    41. (812) Which battery power source provides emergency back-up power to the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) terminal to maintain critical data?

    • Lithium.

    • Sulphur dioxide.

    • Nickel-cadmium.

    • Nickel-metal hydride.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nickel-cadmium.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Nickel-cadmium. Nickel-cadmium batteries are commonly used as emergency back-up power sources because they have a high energy density, long cycle life, and can provide a reliable power supply for critical systems like the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) terminal. Lithium batteries are also commonly used for back-up power, but they are not listed as an option in this question. Sulphur dioxide and Nickel-metal hydride batteries are not typically used for emergency back-up power in this context.

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  • 28. 

    42. (812) What is the range of signals that the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) low pass filter allows to pass?

    • 240 - 304 MHz.

    • 480 - 608 MHz.

    • 960 - 1215 MHz.

    • 1920 - 2430 MHz.

    Correct Answer
    A. 960 - 1215 MHz.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 960 - 1215 MHz. The range of signals that the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) low pass filter allows to pass is between 960 and 1215 MHz.

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  • 29. 

    43. (813) What frequency operating band is used by Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS)?

    • L.

    • S.

    • X.

    • Ku.

    Correct Answer
    A. L.
    Explanation
    The Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) operates in the L-band frequency. The L-band is a portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that ranges from 1 to 2 GHz. It is commonly used for various communication systems, including military applications. JTIDS utilizes this frequency band for secure and reliable data transmission between military platforms, enabling effective tactical information sharing and coordination.

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  • 30. 

    45. (813) If the Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) receiver/transmitter (R/T) receives signals from both the forward and aft antenna, what determines which antenna is selected for the message?

    • The most favorable signal-to-noise ratio.

    • The least voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR).

    • The strongest signal.

    • The highest VSWR.

    Correct Answer
    A. The most favorable signal-to-noise ratio.
    Explanation
    The JTIDS receiver/transmitter (R/T) selects the antenna with the most favorable signal-to-noise ratio to ensure the best quality of the received signals. This means that the antenna that provides the clearest and strongest signal, with the least amount of noise interference, will be chosen for the message transmission.

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  • 31. 

    47. (814) What are the two processes in which Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) fine synchronization are accomplished?

    • Active and dynamic.

    • Passive and active.

    • Passive and radio silent.

    • Radio silent and reflexive.

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive and active.
    Explanation
    The Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) achieves fine synchronization through two processes: passive and active. In the passive process, JTIDS receives timing information from external sources without actively transmitting any signals. In the active process, JTIDS actively transmits synchronization signals to establish and maintain synchronization with other systems. Therefore, both passive and active processes are involved in achieving fine synchronization in JTIDS.

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  • 32. 

    48. (815) Which component of the tactical information gateway (TIG) system enables beyond line of sight (BLOS) coverage?

    • L-band antennas.

    • Multipurpose interface panel (MIP).

    • Low noise amplifier (LNA)/diplexer assembly.

    • Satellite communication/global positioning system (SATCOM/GPS) antenna.

    Correct Answer
    A. Satellite communication/global positioning system (SATCOM/GPS) antenna.
    Explanation
    The satellite communication/global positioning system (SATCOM/GPS) antenna enables beyond line of sight (BLOS) coverage in the tactical information gateway (TIG) system. This antenna allows for communication and positioning information to be transmitted and received from satellites, which provides coverage even when direct line of sight is obstructed. The other options, such as L-band antennas, multipurpose interface panel (MIP), and low noise amplifier (LNA)/diplexer assembly, do not specifically enable BLOS coverage.

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  • 33. 

    49. (816) What is the purpose of the Multifunctionl Information Distribution System (MIDS) data link terminal?

    • Extend networks beyond the local area.

    • Provide line of sight connectivity to a local area network.

    • Provide accurate positional data for the data link terminal.

    • Transmit secure data messages across the Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA) satellite network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide line of sight connectivity to a local area network.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Multifunctional Information Distribution System (MIDS) data link terminal is to provide line of sight connectivity to a local area network. This means that the terminal allows for communication between devices within a specific geographic area, using a direct line of sight connection. This connectivity is important for efficient and reliable data transmission within a localized network.

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  • 34. 

    52. (817) In the Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus system, if the bus controller (BC) does not require the data for processing, then what type of command is being used?

    • BC to bus terminal (RT).

    • RT to BC.

    • RT to RT.

    • BC to BC.

    Correct Answer
    A. RT to RT.
    Explanation
    In the MIL-STD 1553 data bus system, when the bus controller (BC) does not require the data for processing, the type of command being used is RT to RT. This means that a remote terminal (RT) is sending data directly to another remote terminal (RT) without involving the bus controller (BC). This type of command allows for direct communication between RTs without the need for the BC's involvement.

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  • 35. 

    54. (817) Which Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus version does not provide definitions for mode codes?

    • MIL-STD 1553A.

    • MIL-STD 1553B.

    • MIL-STD 1553C.

    • MIL-STD 1553D.

    Correct Answer
    A. MIL-STD 1553A.
    Explanation
    MIL-STD 1553A is the version of the Military-Standard (MIL-STD) 1553 data bus that does not provide definitions for mode codes. Mode codes are used to control the operation of the data bus and specify the type of data being transmitted. MIL-STD 1553B, MIL-STD 1553C, and MIL-STD 1553D are all later versions of the standard that do provide definitions for mode codes.

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  • 36. 

    55. (818) What is the primary component of any computer information system?

    • Storage.

    • Memory.

    • Arithmetic logic unit (ALU).

    • Central processing unit (CPU).

    Correct Answer
    A. Central processing unit (CPU).
    Explanation
    The primary component of any computer information system is the central processing unit (CPU). The CPU is responsible for executing instructions, performing calculations, and controlling the overall operation of the computer. It is often referred to as the "brain" of the computer as it carries out all the necessary tasks to process and manipulate data. While storage and memory are important components of a computer system, they serve different functions. Storage is used to store data and programs, while memory is used to temporarily hold data that the CPU is actively working on. The arithmetic logic unit (ALU) is a component of the CPU that performs mathematical and logical operations. However, the CPU encompasses all these components and is the central component that coordinates and manages the entire computer system.

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  • 37. 

    56. (818) What is the basic element in a computer microchip?

    • Silver.

    • Silicon.

    • Copper.

    • Aluminum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Silicon.
    Explanation
    Silicon is the basic element in a computer microchip. Microchips are made from semiconductors, and silicon is the most commonly used semiconductor material due to its abundance and favorable electrical properties. Silicon is used to create transistors, which are the building blocks of microchips. These transistors control the flow of electrical signals within the microchip, allowing it to perform various functions and processes. Therefore, silicon is the correct answer as it is the fundamental element used in computer microchips.

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  • 38. 

    57. (818) What are chips with circuits that can do the work of all the different parts of a computer called?

    • Valves.

    • Microchips.

    • Circuit boards.

    • Microprocessors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Microprocessors.
    Explanation
    Microprocessors are chips with circuits that can perform the tasks of all the different components of a computer. They are responsible for executing instructions, performing calculations, and managing data flow within the computer system. Valves are not used in modern computers, circuit boards are the physical platforms that hold the components together, and microchips refer to integrated circuits in general, not specifically designed for computer processing. Therefore, microprocessors are the correct answer.

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  • 39. 

    58. (818) What type of computer chip gate only sends a pulse when it receives a pulse at both of its terminals?

    • GO gate.

    • OR gate.

    • AND gate.

    • NOR gate.

    Correct Answer
    A. AND gate.
    Explanation
    An AND gate is a type of computer chip gate that only sends a pulse when it receives a pulse at both of its terminals. This means that both inputs of the AND gate must be high (or receive a pulse) in order for the gate to output a high signal. If either or both of the inputs are low (or do not receive a pulse), the AND gate will output a low signal.

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  • 40. 

    59. (818) What controls the speed of a computer's activities?

    • Clock.

    • Timer.

    • Input signal.

    • Output equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Clock.
    Explanation
    The speed of a computer's activities is controlled by the clock. The clock generates a steady stream of electronic pulses that synchronize and regulate the operations of the computer's components, such as the CPU and memory. These pulses determine the speed at which instructions are executed and data is processed, ensuring that different parts of the computer work together in a coordinated manner. The clock speed is measured in hertz (Hz) and a higher clock speed generally results in faster processing and better performance.

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  • 41. 

    60. (818) What part of a computer acts like a sophisticated switchboard operator?

    • Memory.

    • Logic unit.

    • Control unit.

    • Arithmetic unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Control unit.
    Explanation
    The control unit of a computer acts like a sophisticated switchboard operator. It is responsible for coordinating and controlling the activities of all the other parts of the computer. It fetches instructions from memory, decodes them, and then directs the appropriate actions to be performed by the arithmetic unit, logic unit, and other components. The control unit ensures that instructions are executed in the correct sequence and that data is transferred between different parts of the computer as needed.

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  • 42. 

    61. (818) What does a computer use to synchronize the processing of input/output operations and provide an overlap of operations?

    • Buffers.

    • Channels.

    • Registers.

    • Controllers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Buffers.
    Explanation
    A computer uses buffers to synchronize the processing of input/output operations and provide an overlap of operations. Buffers are temporary storage areas that hold data while it is being transferred between devices. They allow the computer to continue processing other tasks while data is being transferred, improving overall efficiency and performance. Channels, registers, and controllers are all components involved in input/output operations, but they do not specifically handle synchronization or overlap of operations like buffers do.

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  • 43. 

    64. (820) The sharper a computer monitor's image is, the

    • Lower the dot color.

    • Higher the dot pitch.

    • Higher the resolution.

    • Higher the refresh rate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher the resolution.
    Explanation
    The sharper a computer monitor's image is, the higher the resolution. This is because resolution refers to the number of pixels that can be displayed on the screen, and a higher resolution means more pixels and therefore a sharper image. The dot color, dot pitch, and refresh rate are not directly related to the sharpness of the image.

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  • 44. 

    65. (821) What can best describe Internet protocols?

    • A relay between work stations.

    • A signal that produces radio frequencies.

    • A way to communicate across interconnected networks.

    • A way to print documents from any work station.

    Correct Answer
    A. A way to communicate across interconnected networks.
    Explanation
    Internet protocols are a set of rules and guidelines that enable communication between different devices and networks. They provide a standardized way for data to be transmitted and received across interconnected networks, allowing for seamless communication and information exchange. The other options, such as a relay between work stations or a signal that produces radio frequencies, do not accurately describe the purpose or function of Internet protocols. Similarly, the option of printing documents from any work station is unrelated to the concept of Internet protocols.

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  • 45. 

    66. (821) What device has the process of moving information across an internetwork from source to a destination?

    • Bridge.

    • Router.

    • Repeater.

    • Protocol.

    Correct Answer
    A. Router.
    Explanation
    A router is a device that is responsible for moving information across an internetwork from source to destination. It is designed to analyze the destination address of each packet and determine the best path for it to reach its destination. Routers use routing tables to make these decisions and can connect multiple networks together. A bridge, on the other hand, is used to connect two or more local area networks (LANs) together, while a repeater simply amplifies and regenerates signals to extend the reach of a network. Protocol refers to a set of rules and guidelines that govern the communication between devices on a network.

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  • 46. 

    67. (822) What is the technique where a block of data can be segmented into numerous blocks so sequential blocks can be written?

    • Parity.

    • Bridging.

    • Mirroring.

    • Data stripping.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data stripping.
    Explanation
    Data stripping is the technique where a block of data is segmented into numerous blocks so that sequential blocks can be written. This technique is commonly used in storage systems to improve performance and reliability. By striping data across multiple disks, the system can write and read data in parallel, which increases throughput. Additionally, data stripping can also provide fault tolerance by distributing redundant information across multiple disks, allowing for data recovery in case of disk failures.

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  • 47. 

    68. (822) What redundant array of independent disks (RAID) configuration does not have redundancy of data?

    • RAID-0.

    • RAID-1.

    • RAID-2.

    • RAID-3.

    Correct Answer
    A. RAID-0.
    Explanation
    RAID-0 is a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) configuration that does not have redundancy of data. In RAID-0, data is striped across multiple disks without any redundancy or fault tolerance. This means that if one disk fails, all the data on that disk is lost. RAID-0 is primarily used for performance improvement, as it allows for faster read and write operations by distributing data across multiple disks. However, it does not provide any data protection or redundancy in case of disk failure.

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  • 48. 

    69. (823) If you are checking for absolute power, then the power meter can display in either watts or

    • DB.

    • DBm.

    • Dbm.

    • Db.

    Correct Answer
    A. DBm.
    Explanation
    The power meter can display in either watts or dBm when checking for absolute power. dBm is a unit of power measurement that represents the power level in decibels relative to 1 milliwatt. It is commonly used in telecommunications and RF (radio frequency) applications to measure signal power.

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  • 49. 

    70. (823) What power meter control is used to compensate for a slight sensitivity associated with a particular type of power sensor?

    • CAL ADJ.

    • CAL FACTOR %.

    • SENSOR ZERO.

    • RANGE HOLD.

    Correct Answer
    A. CAL ADJ.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CAL ADJ. The CAL ADJ power meter control is used to compensate for a slight sensitivity associated with a particular type of power sensor. This allows for accurate measurements by adjusting the calibration of the power meter to match the sensitivity of the sensor being used.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Aug 12, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Aug 12, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 10, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Keven
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