1c651 Vol.3
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- 1.(401) What is the operating frequency of electromagnetic radiation waves?
- A.
3 kilohertz to 30 gigahertz.
- B.
3 kilohertz to 300 gigahertz.
- C.
10 kilohertz to 100 gigahertz.
- D.
10 kilohertz to 300 gigahertz.
- 2.(401) Which type of radio wave can transmit and receive at the same time?
- A.
Single.
- B.
Pulsed.
- C.
Doppler.
- D.
Continuous.
- 3.(401) Which radar design has the ability to use more than one antenna to steer the signal?
- A.
Mechanical.
- B.
Space-based.
- C.
Phased array.
- D.
Ground-based.
- 4.(401) Which radar design uses the flight path of aircraft and can generate high-resolution remote sensing imagery?
- A.
Mechanical.
- B.
Space-based.
- C.
Ground-based.
- D.
Synthetic aperture radar.
- 5.(401) Which element is an uninteresting target to radar operators, and would be considered interference?
- A.
Houses.
- B.
Churches.
- C.
Meteor trails.
- D.
Orbiting debris.
- 6.(401) Which type of radar is typically used on sea-based platforms for Ballistic Missile Defense?
- A.
Aegis.
- B.
AN/TPY–2.
- C.
AN/FPS–85.
- D.
AN/FPS–123.
- 7.(402) Which type of space surveillance sensor is only tasked with collecting space surveillance observations?
- A.
Directed.
- B.
Collateral.
- C.
Dedicated.
- D.
Contributing.
- 8.(402) Which type of space surveillance sensor can provide space surveillance observations, but is not under United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) control?
- A.
Directed.
- B.
Collateral.
- C.
Dedicated.
- D.
Contributing.
- 9.(402) Which architecture is designed to stop and destroy warheads before they can reach their targets?
- A.
Early Warning System.
- B.
Missile Defense System.
- C.
Synthetic Aperture Radar.
- D.
Ballistic Missile Defense System.
- 10.(402) What primary mission does Beale, AFB, RAF, and the Fylingdales sensors sites all have in common?
- A.
Missile Defense and Space Control.
- B.
Missile Warning and Missile Defense.
- C.
Space Surveillance and Space Control.
- D.
Missile Warning and Space Surveillance.
- 11.(402) Which sensor is not an Upgrade Early Warning Sensor, but does has a primary mission of missile warning?
- A.
Eglin.
- B.
Thule.
- C.
Cavalier.
- D.
Fylingdales.
- 12.(402) Which type of radar uses electro-optical and infrared imagery to see through clouds and fog?
- A.
AN/FPS–85.
- B.
Space-based.
- C.
Phased-array.
- D.
Synthetic Aperture.
- 13.(402) Identify the main disadvantage for mechanical radars?
- A.
Beam steering.
- B.
Tracks one object at a time.
- C.
Can track only near-Earth objects.
- D.
Have to move the radar to search for objects.
- 14.(403) How many observations can be transmitted daily by the only dedicated sensor in the Space Surveillance Network?
- A.
Up to 3,000.
- B.
Up to 30,000.
- C.
Up to 40,000.
- D.
Over 40,000.
- 15.(403) Which PAVE Phased Array Warning System (PAVE PAWS) sensor performs space surveillance as its secondary mission?
- A.
2nd Space Warning Squadron.
- B.
6th Space Warning Squadron.
- C.
11th Space Warning Squadron.
- D.
137th Space Warning Squadron.
- 16.(403) Which crew position for the Space Based Infrared System (SBIRS) mission has two enlisted personnel assigned to manage strategic missile warning?
- A.
Systems Crew Chief.
- B.
Data Systems Operation.
- C.
Satellite Systems Operator.
- D.
Strategic/Theater Mission Crew Chief.
- 17.(403) What is the average visual magnitude level that an optical sensor can detect in the night sky?
- A.
12th visual magnitude star.
- B.
13th visual magnitude star.
- C.
14th visual magnitude star.
- D.
16th visual magnitude star.
- 18.(403) The ground-based electro-optical sensor that is located in New Mexico is
- A.
Detachment 1, 21 OG.
- B.
Detachment 2, 21 OG.
- C.
Detachment 3, 21 OG.
- D.
Detachment 4, 21 OG.
- 19.(403) Which ground-based electro-optical sensor is located at 10,000 feet elevation?
- A.
Detachment 1, 21 OG.
- B.
Detachment 2, 21 OG.
- C.
Detachment 3, 21 OG.
- D.
Detachment 4, 21 OG.
- 20.(403) How does the 20th Space Control Squadron prevent unscheduled outages from happening?
- A.
Performing Critical Maintenance.
- B.
Performing Corrective Maintenance.
- C.
Performing Emergency Maintenance.
- D.
Performing Preventative Maintenance.
- 21.(403) Which fixed action will the 10th Space Warning Squadron crew members initiate when the power goes out?
- A.
Performing Critical Maintenance.
- B.
Performing Corrective Maintenance.
- C.
Performing Emergency Maintenance.
- D.
Performing Preventative Maintenance.
- 22.(403) Which section of the satellite catalog describes the sequential order in which the satellite was discovered or launched in space?
- A.
Satellite Control Center number.
- B.
Basic orbital parameters.
- C.
International Designator.
- D.
Common name.
- 23.(403) Identify a tracked object with a radar cross section less than 1 square meter tagged as if the system has never tracked it.
- A.
Lost uncorrelated target.
- B.
New uncorrelated target.
- C.
Significant uncorrelated target.
- D.
Non-significant uncorrelated target.
- 24.(403) Identify the function of the Space Defense Operations Center provides algorithms that predict orbital events.
- A.
Infrastructures.
- B.
Launch processing.
- C.
Catalog maintenance.
- D.
Astrodynamics mathematics.
- 25.(403) Identify the function of the Joint Space Operations Center (JSpOC) Mission System that provides an accurate space operating picture.
- A.
Joint force support.
- B.
Launch reentry support.
- C.
Spectrum characterization.
- D.
Space Object Identification.
- 26.(404) Which element is not detectable or easily seen through when Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR) is transmitting waveforms to receive echoes?
- A.
Fog.
- B.
Rain.
- C.
Snow.
- D.
Color hues.
- 27.(404) The 21st Space Wing (SW) unit that does not have a primary mission of missile warning and a secondary mission of space surveillance is the
- A.
2nd Space Warning Squadron.
- B.
6th Space Warning Squadron.
- C.
10th Space Warning Squadron.
- D.
213th Space Warning Squadron.
- 28.(404) Identify the site that does not have any 1C6 personnel manning the radar.
- A.
Cobra Dane.
- B.
Clear, Alaska.
- C.
Thule, Greenland.
- D.
RAF, Fylingdales.
- 29.(404) Which target classification for attack characterization concerns residential geographic areas?
- A.
Missile fields.
- B.
Urban and/or industrial.
- C.
Bomber and/or tanker bases.
- D.
Command and/or control centers.
- 30.(404) Which test program paved the way for space-based missile warning technology?
- A.
Cobra Dane.
- B.
Defense Support Program.
- C.
Space Based Infrared System.
- D.
Missile Defense Alarm System.
- 31.(404) The system that was designed to take over for the Defense Support Program as it reached its end of life cycle is
- A.
Cobra Dane.
- B.
The Space Based Infrared System.
- C.
The Missile Defense Alarm System.
- D.
The Space Tracking and Surveillance System.
- 32.(404) Which program can detect the trajectories in all stages of flight for ballistic missiles?
- A.
Cobra Dane.
- B.
Space Based Infrared System.
- C.
Missile Defense Alarm System.
- D.
Space Tracking and Surveillance System.
- 33.(404) Identify the program that is the collection point for information on enemy missile launches and provides critical data to the interceptor.
- A.
Space Based Infrared System.
- B.
Joint Space Operations Center.
- C.
Missile Defense Alarm System.
- D.
Command and Control, Battle Management and Communications.
- 34.(404) Identify the data that is readily identified as simulated data in category A testing.
- A.
Tagged.
- B.
Untagged.
- C.
Separated.
- D.
Combined.
- 35.(404) Which category of testing transmits non- Integrated Tactical Warning & Attack Assessment (ITW/AA) simulated lower risk data?
- A.
A.
- B.
B.
- C.
C.
- D.
D.
- 36.(405) Which offensive space control effect temporary eliminates all or some of a system’s capabilities?
- A.
Denial.
- B.
Deception.
- C.
Disruption.
- D.
Destruction.
- 37.(405) Which element is a terrestrial segment that contains the targets desired in offensive space control operations?
- A.
Sea.
- B.
Satellites.
- C.
Space stations.
- D.
Communication links.
- 38.(405) Which tactic is part of defensive space control operations?
- A.
Denial.
- B.
Jamming.
- C.
Missile detection.
- D.
Recovery of space assets.
- 39.(405) Which action is not a passive measure that can be used to protect a space asset from a surprise attack?
- A.
Denial.
- B.
Deception.
- C.
Camouflage.
- D.
Concealment.
- 40.(405) When the 4th Space Control Squadron goes out on a deployable mission how many C–17 aircraft are needed?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
0.
- 41.(405) Which squadron is in charge of the Rapid Attack, Identification, Detection, and Reporting System?
- A.
4th Space Control Squadron (SPCS).
- B.
16 SPCS.
- C.
20 SPCS.
- D.
380 SPCS.
- 42.(405) Which squadron is a reserve associate unit conducting space electronic warfare support?
- A.
4th Space Control Squadron (SPCS).
- B.
16 SPCS.
- C.
20 SPCS.
- D.
380 SPCS.
- 43.(405) The system that is operated in a deployed location and geolocates signals in the ultra-high frequency band is
- A.
Counter Communications System.
- B.
STS.
- C.
SPIRIT.
- D.
RAIDRS.
- 44.(405) The fundamental knowledge that is required for all space control operators to learn when assigned to a space control unit is
- A.
Signals.
- B.
Statistics.
- C.
Orbital mechanics.
- D.
Satellite structure and design.
- 45.(406) Identify the Operations Capability (OPSCAP) that indicates that there is a moderate degradation to the system causing significant capability loss.
- A.
Red.
- B.
White.
- C.
Green.
- D.
Yellow.
- 46.(406) Which option is not one of the methods used to submit an OPSCAP/SYSCAP report when voice lines are down?
- A.
SIPRNET.
- B.
NIPRNET.
- C.
Secure terminal.
- D.
Defense messaging system.
- 47.(406) A human evaluation is accomplished in a ground-based missile warning site report to
- A.
Make an assessment of the data itself.
- B.
Make an assessment of the system itself.
- C.
Determine if an event was generated by equipment malfunction only.
- D.
Determine if an L&PI was falsely generated by equipment malfunction, environment, or personnel.
- 48.(406) Within how many seconds must a site report be passed to the Missile Correlation Center?
- A.
60.
- B.
90.
- C.
120.
- D.
300.
- 49.(406) Identify the type of site report sent when the investigation is complete and there are no L&PI?
- A.
Valid.
- B.
All clear.
- C.
Anomalous.
- D.
Under investigation.
- 50.(406) When does a ground-based site initiate VOICETELL procedures?
- A.
Immediately after each event.
- B.
After 120 seconds of the beginning of event.
- C.
Only under the direction of Joint Space Operations Center.
- D.
If the Missile Correlation Center (MCC) does not receive the data.
- 51.(406) Which event will cause a post-analysis report to be performed to prevent it from happening again?
- A.
Valid.
- B.
Cancelled.
- C.
Anomalous.
- D.
Under investigation.
- 52.(406) Which post-analysis categorization is reserved for anomalies such as solar glare or radar ducting?
- A.
Valid.
- B.
False.
- C.
Anomalous.
- D.
Environmental.
- 53.(407) The functional area of a system that is not covered in a technical order is
- A.
Repairing.
- B.
Destroying.
- C.
Installation.
- D.
Troubleshooting.
- 54.(407) The Military Performance Specification 38314 manual that has a foreword in it defining the type of manual it is and only published when deemed necessary is a
- A.
Classified manual.
- B.
Operations manual.
- C.
Classified checklists.
- D.
Operations checklists.
- 55.(407) Identify the section of a technical order that contains the foreword and the Technical Order Equipment Configuration Status Record.
- A.
Glossary.
- B.
Front matter.
- C.
Chapter 1, Space System Description.
- D.
Chapter 2, Space System Operating Functions.
- 56.(407) Which chapter of a technical order contains the procedures for pre mission and post mission activities?
- A.
Chapter 1, Space System Description.
- B.
Chapter 2, Space System Operating Functions.
- C.
Chapter 3, Nominal Operating Procedures.
- D.
Chapter 4, Emergency Procedures.
- 57.(407) Which type of checklist requires the operator to complete each step one at a time due to the criticality of the procedure?
- A.
Routine.
- B.
Emergency.
- C.
Contingency.
- D.
Demand Response.
- 58.(407) Identify the area that is designed to cover different scenarios within a checklist, and will not be found in demand response checklists.
- A.
Crisis statements.
- B.
Urgent statements.
- C.
Lead-in statements.
- D.
Demand response statements.
- 59.(407) In order to institute a change to a technical order which form must be used?
- A.
AFTO 20.
- B.
AFTO 22.
- C.
AF Form 20.
- D.
AF Form 22.
- 60.(408) Identify the event that does not need to be debriefed.
- A.
Training events.
- B.
Exercises.
- C.
Missions.
- D.
TDYs.
- 61.(408) Which debriefing step has to be measurable and repeatable in order to prevent reoccurrence of the problem?
- A.
Observation.
- B.
Lesson learned.
- C.
Instructional fix.
- D.
Contributing factors.
- 62.(408) Which option can be used by the member that can help to create clues in the event review?
- A.
Event logs.
- B.
Temporary cookies.
- C.
Twitter chat rooms.
- D.
Technical Order manual.
- 63.(408) During this debriefing step honesty and willingness to accept fault can determine the success of this step.
- A.
Review of the events.
- B.
Process improvement.
- C.
Identification of the problem.
- D.
Determination of the root cause.
- 64.(408) During which debriefing step is a statement that addresses specific actions to accomplish created?
- A.
Review of the events.
- B.
Process improvement.
- C.
Development of lesson learned.
- D.
Determination of the root cause.
- 65.(409) Which process is not a goal of the Tactics Development Program?
- A.
Verify existing tactics.
- B.
Disseminate new tactics.
- C.
Minimize modifications to hardware.
- D.
Institute standardized process of improvements.
- 66.(409) Which example describes a space technique?
- A.
Change altitude.
- B.
Maneuver a satellite.
- C.
Reconfigure a network.
- D.
Employ filters and proxies.
- 67.(409) Where would you find standard detailed steps that explain specific tasks documented?
- A.
Crew logs.
- B.
Technical Orders.
- C.
Crew Information File.
- D.
Operational Instructions.
- 68.(409) Which process is pushed through the six basic steps on an accelerated timeline?
- A.
Early Tactics Development Process.
- B.
Phased Tactics Development Process.
- C.
Accelerated Tactics Development Process.
- D.
Out-of-Cycle Tactics Development Process.
- 69.(410) Which component of the Global Information Grid foundation layer handles funding?
- A.
Policy.
- B.
Standards.
- C.
Architecture.
- D.
Government.
- 70.(410) The component of the Global Information Grid foundation layer that works with messaging, processing and storage is
- A.
Computing.
- B.
Foundation.
- C.
Communications.
- D.
Information management.
- 71.(410) Which component layer is known as the “wrapper” for the Global Information Grid?
- A.
Warrior.
- B.
Foundation.
- C.
Network Operations.
- D.
Information Management.
- 72.(410) Which step is used in defending against attack for Computer Network Defense?
- A.
Monitoring networks and systems.
- B.
Self-healing of systems and networks.
- C.
Honeynets/Honeypots can identify hackers.
- D.
Re-route traffic during link failures automatically.
- 73.(410) Identify the step accomplished during Computer Network Exploitation.
- A.
Counter attack.
- B.
Detecting intrusions and other activities.
- C.
Reacting to intrusions and other activities.
- D.
Map enemy systems/data both internal and external.
- 74.(410) Which action is a broad category used in exploiting vulnerabilities of Computer Network Attack?
- A.
Counter attack.
- B.
Determine access paths.
- C.
Analyze enemy capabilities.
- D.
Stop adversary exploitation.
- 75.(410) Which asset would need protection from an attack because it is critical infrastructure that supports our civilian population?
- A.
Hospitals.
- B.
Churches.
- C.
Water utilities.
- D.
Educational Institutions.
- 76.(410) Which agency is responsible for synchronizing the planning of cyberspace operations?
- A.
24th Air Force.
- B.
US Cyber Command.
- C.
US Strategic Command.
- D.
Air Force Space Command.
- 77.(410) The type of threat that comes from ‘hackers’ are
- A.
Irregular threat.
- B.
Traditional threat.
- C.
Transnational actor threat.
- D.
Individual or small group threat.
- 78.(410) Identify the kind of threat that comes from an authorized user.
- A.
Insider threat.
- B.
Irregular threat.
- C.
Accidental threat.
- D.
Individual or small group threat.
- 79.(411) What do all the ground stations have that lists all the network resources and commanding activities for each satellite contact?
- A.
System report.
- B.
Ephemeris.
- C.
Pass plan.
- D.
R–15.
- 80.(411) When does a crew begin preparations for a satellite contact?
- A.
When the satellite leaves the station circle.
- B.
After contact with the satellite is terminated.
- C.
When the ground station has acquired the satellite.
- D.
Approximately 20–30 minutes prior to a scheduled satellite pass.
- 81.(411) Which of the following scripts contain blanks that might require azimuth and elevation data?
- A.
Command Plans.
- B.
Contact Support Plans.
- C.
Satellite Support Plans.
- D.
Telemetry Viewer Plans.
- 82.(411) Which of the following scripts contains a string of other plans to complete a contact?
- A.
Command Plans.
- B.
Contact Support Plans.
- C.
Satellite Support Plans.
- D.
Telemetry Viewer Plans.
- 83.(411) During which contact stage would you send a command to change telemetry formats?
- A.
Pass.
- B.
Pre-pass.
- C.
Mid-pass.
- D.
Post-pass.
- 84.(411) During which of the following contact stages does the ground station collect telemetry data?
- A.
Pass.
- B.
Pre-pass.
- C.
Mid-pass.
- D.
Post-pass.
- 85.(411) Identify the type of pass that performs satellite ranging.
- A.
Pre-pass.
- B.
Post-pass.
- C.
Track support.
- D.
Commanding support.
- 86.(411) The type of pass that has a primary goal of satellite commanding is
- A.
Pre-pass.
- B.
Post-pass.
- C.
Track support.
- D.
Commanding support.
- 87.(411) What action(s) can provide a temporary fix so as not to degrade or create mission loss?
- A.
State of Health.
- B.
Anomaly detection.
- C.
Telemetry verification.
- D.
Contingency procedures.
- 88.(412) What can you use to retrieve formulas, biases, and modifier data from all the sites?
- A.
Phord vector.
- B.
Stored-program.
- C.
Tracking program.
- D.
Orbit determination program.
- 89.(412) What is normally used to initially acquire a newly launched satellite?
- A.
Ephemeris and phord vectors.
- B.
R–15 message and phord vectors.
- C.
Ephemeris and nominal element set.
- D.
R–15 message and nominal element set.
- 90.(412) The type of command that is automatically sent to an unresponsive satellite is called
- A.
Blind.
- B.
Block.
- C.
Chain.
- D.
Single.
- 91.(412) Which type of command count keeps track of every command sent to a satellite?
- A.
Signal Command Count.
- B.
Ground Command Count.
- C.
Satellite Command Count.
- D.
Transmit Command Count.
- 92.(412) Which procedure requires high speed communication links to transfer telemetry between remote tracking stations and the operations center?
- A.
Bent Pipe.
- B.
Bent Hook.
- C.
Round Pipe.
- D.
Round Hook.
- 93.(412) Identify the call sign of the tracking station that operates on the Western Range.
- A.
REEF.
- B.
POGO.
- C.
HULU.
- D.
COOK.
- 94.(412) What is the call sign of the tracking station that is owned and operated by the British Royal Air Force?
- A.
LION.
- B.
POGO.
- C.
HULU.
- D.
GUAM.
- 95.(412) Which functional component is the brain of the Automated Remote Tracking Stations (ARTS)?
- A.
Antenna Control Unit.
- B.
Command & Status (C&S) processer.
- C.
Tracking, range, and range rate (TRR) receiver.
- D.
Telemetry, Tracking, and Commanding (TT&C) antenna.
- 96.(412) Which Air Force Satellite Control Network (AFSCN) antenna mode has elevation and azimuth data and is usually chosen to begin satellite support?
- A.
Slave.
- B.
Search.
- C.
Manual.
- D.
Autotrack.
- 97.(412) The Automatic Remote Tracking Station (ARTS) site that can run without any operator interface and is called a Remote Block Change (RBC) site is
- A.
COOK-B.
- B.
REEF-A.
- C.
LION-C.
- D.
Lion-A.
- 98.(413) Which event is not something an engineer would use in assessing out of limits trending?
- A.
Solar eclipse.
- B.
Space weather.
- C.
Yellow or red limit.
- D.
Satellite subsystem malfunctions.
- 99.(413) The person that performs further investigation of the telemetry data that remains out of limits after the initial operator review is the
- A.
Engineer.
- B.
Crew chief.
- C.
Orbital analyst.
- D.
Crew commander.
- 100.(413) The area used to store completed telemetry data for a period of time is within the
- A.
Engineer.
- B.
Playback center.
- C.
Remote ground facility.
- D.
Database retrieval facility.
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