1c651 Vol.3

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 698

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Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (401) What is the operating frequency of electromagnetic radiation waves?
    • A. 

      3 kilohertz to 30 gigahertz.

    • B. 

      3 kilohertz to 300 gigahertz.

    • C. 

      10 kilohertz to 100 gigahertz.

    • D. 

      10 kilohertz to 300 gigahertz.

  • 2. 
    (401) Which type of radio wave can transmit and receive at the same time?
    • A. 

      Single.

    • B. 

      Pulsed.

    • C. 

      Doppler.

    • D. 

      Continuous.

  • 3. 
    (401) Which radar design has the ability to use more than one antenna to steer the signal?
    • A. 

      Mechanical.

    • B. 

      Space-based.

    • C. 

      Phased array.

    • D. 

      Ground-based.

  • 4. 
    (401) Which radar design uses the flight path of aircraft and can generate high-resolution remote sensing imagery?
    • A. 

      Mechanical.

    • B. 

      Space-based.

    • C. 

      Ground-based.

    • D. 

      Synthetic aperture radar.

  • 5. 
    (401) Which element is an uninteresting target to radar operators, and would be considered interference?
    • A. 

      Houses.

    • B. 

      Churches.

    • C. 

      Meteor trails.

    • D. 

      Orbiting debris.

  • 6. 
    (401) Which type of radar is typically used on sea-based platforms for Ballistic Missile Defense?
    • A. 

      Aegis.

    • B. 

      AN/TPY–2.

    • C. 

      AN/FPS–85.

    • D. 

      AN/FPS–123.

  • 7. 
    (402) Which type of space surveillance sensor is only tasked with collecting space surveillance observations?
    • A. 

      Directed.

    • B. 

      Collateral.

    • C. 

      Dedicated.

    • D. 

      Contributing.

  • 8. 
    (402) Which type of space surveillance sensor can provide space surveillance observations, but is not under United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) control?
    • A. 

      Directed.

    • B. 

      Collateral.

    • C. 

      Dedicated.

    • D. 

      Contributing.

  • 9. 
    (402) Which architecture is designed to stop and destroy warheads before they can reach their targets?
    • A. 

      Early Warning System.

    • B. 

      Missile Defense System.

    • C. 

      Synthetic Aperture Radar.

    • D. 

      Ballistic Missile Defense System.

  • 10. 
    (402) What primary mission does Beale, AFB, RAF, and the Fylingdales sensors sites all have in common?
    • A. 

      Missile Defense and Space Control.

    • B. 

      Missile Warning and Missile Defense.

    • C. 

      Space Surveillance and Space Control.

    • D. 

      Missile Warning and Space Surveillance.

  • 11. 
    (402) Which sensor is not an Upgrade Early Warning Sensor, but does has a primary mission of missile warning?
    • A. 

      Eglin.

    • B. 

      Thule.

    • C. 

      Cavalier.

    • D. 

      Fylingdales.

  • 12. 
    (402) Which type of radar uses electro-optical and infrared imagery to see through clouds and fog?
    • A. 

      AN/FPS–85.

    • B. 

      Space-based.

    • C. 

      Phased-array.

    • D. 

      Synthetic Aperture.

  • 13. 
    (402) Identify the main disadvantage for mechanical radars?
    • A. 

      Beam steering.

    • B. 

      Tracks one object at a time.

    • C. 

      Can track only near-Earth objects.

    • D. 

      Have to move the radar to search for objects.

  • 14. 
    (403) How many observations can be transmitted daily by the only dedicated sensor in the Space Surveillance Network?
    • A. 

      Up to 3,000.

    • B. 

      Up to 30,000.

    • C. 

      Up to 40,000.

    • D. 

      Over 40,000.

  • 15. 
    (403) Which PAVE Phased Array Warning System (PAVE PAWS) sensor performs space surveillance as its secondary mission?
    • A. 

      2nd Space Warning Squadron.

    • B. 

      6th Space Warning Squadron.

    • C. 

      11th Space Warning Squadron.

    • D. 

      137th Space Warning Squadron.

  • 16. 
    (403) Which crew position for the Space Based Infrared System (SBIRS) mission has two enlisted personnel assigned to manage strategic missile warning?
    • A. 

      Systems Crew Chief.

    • B. 

      Data Systems Operation.

    • C. 

      Satellite Systems Operator.

    • D. 

      Strategic/Theater Mission Crew Chief.

  • 17. 
    (403) What is the average visual magnitude level that an optical sensor can detect in the night sky?
    • A. 

      12th visual magnitude star.

    • B. 

      13th visual magnitude star.

    • C. 

      14th visual magnitude star.

    • D. 

      16th visual magnitude star.

  • 18. 
    (403) The ground-based electro-optical sensor that is located in New Mexico is
    • A. 

      Detachment 1, 21 OG.

    • B. 

      Detachment 2, 21 OG.

    • C. 

      Detachment 3, 21 OG.

    • D. 

      Detachment 4, 21 OG.

  • 19. 
    (403) Which ground-based electro-optical sensor is located at 10,000 feet elevation?
    • A. 

      Detachment 1, 21 OG.

    • B. 

      Detachment 2, 21 OG.

    • C. 

      Detachment 3, 21 OG.

    • D. 

      Detachment 4, 21 OG.

  • 20. 
    (403) How does the 20th Space Control Squadron prevent unscheduled outages from happening?
    • A. 

      Performing Critical Maintenance.

    • B. 

      Performing Corrective Maintenance.

    • C. 

      Performing Emergency Maintenance.

    • D. 

      Performing Preventative Maintenance.

  • 21. 
    (403) Which fixed action will the 10th Space Warning Squadron crew members initiate when the power goes out?
    • A. 

      Performing Critical Maintenance.

    • B. 

      Performing Corrective Maintenance.

    • C. 

      Performing Emergency Maintenance.

    • D. 

      Performing Preventative Maintenance.

  • 22. 
    (403) Which section of the satellite catalog describes the sequential order in which the satellite was discovered or launched in space?
    • A. 

      Satellite Control Center number.

    • B. 

      Basic orbital parameters.

    • C. 

      International Designator.

    • D. 

      Common name.

  • 23. 
    (403) Identify a tracked object with a radar cross section less than 1 square meter tagged as if the system has never tracked it.
    • A. 

      Lost uncorrelated target.

    • B. 

      New uncorrelated target.

    • C. 

      Significant uncorrelated target.

    • D. 

      Non-significant uncorrelated target.

  • 24. 
    (403) Identify the function of the Space Defense Operations Center provides algorithms that predict orbital events.
    • A. 

      Infrastructures.

    • B. 

      Launch processing.

    • C. 

      Catalog maintenance.

    • D. 

      Astrodynamics mathematics.

  • 25. 
    (403) Identify the function of the Joint Space Operations Center (JSpOC) Mission System that provides an accurate space operating picture.
    • A. 

      Joint force support.

    • B. 

      Launch reentry support.

    • C. 

      Spectrum characterization.

    • D. 

      Space Object Identification.

  • 26. 
    (404) Which element is not detectable or easily seen through when Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR) is transmitting waveforms to receive echoes?
    • A. 

      Fog.

    • B. 

      Rain.

    • C. 

      Snow.

    • D. 

      Color hues.

  • 27. 
    (404) The 21st Space Wing (SW) unit that does not have a primary mission of missile warning and a secondary mission of space surveillance is the
    • A. 

      2nd Space Warning Squadron.

    • B. 

      6th Space Warning Squadron.

    • C. 

      10th Space Warning Squadron.

    • D. 

      213th Space Warning Squadron.

  • 28. 
    (404) Identify the site that does not have any 1C6 personnel manning the radar.
    • A. 

      Cobra Dane.

    • B. 

      Clear, Alaska.

    • C. 

      Thule, Greenland.

    • D. 

      RAF, Fylingdales.

  • 29. 
    (404) Which target classification for attack characterization concerns residential geographic areas?
    • A. 

      Missile fields.

    • B. 

      Urban and/or industrial.

    • C. 

      Bomber and/or tanker bases.

    • D. 

      Command and/or control centers.

  • 30. 
    (404) Which test program paved the way for space-based missile warning technology?
    • A. 

      Cobra Dane.

    • B. 

      Defense Support Program.

    • C. 

      Space Based Infrared System.

    • D. 

      Missile Defense Alarm System.

  • 31. 
    (404) The system that was designed to take over for the Defense Support Program as it reached its end of life cycle is
    • A. 

      Cobra Dane.

    • B. 

      The Space Based Infrared System.

    • C. 

      The Missile Defense Alarm System.

    • D. 

      The Space Tracking and Surveillance System.

  • 32. 
    (404) Which program can detect the trajectories in all stages of flight for ballistic missiles?
    • A. 

      Cobra Dane.

    • B. 

      Space Based Infrared System.

    • C. 

      Missile Defense Alarm System.

    • D. 

      Space Tracking and Surveillance System.

  • 33. 
    (404) Identify the program that is the collection point for information on enemy missile launches and provides critical data to the interceptor.
    • A. 

      Space Based Infrared System.

    • B. 

      Joint Space Operations Center.

    • C. 

      Missile Defense Alarm System.

    • D. 

      Command and Control, Battle Management and Communications.

  • 34. 
    (404) Identify the data that is readily identified as simulated data in category A testing.
    • A. 

      Tagged.

    • B. 

      Untagged.

    • C. 

      Separated.

    • D. 

      Combined.

  • 35. 
    (404) Which category of testing transmits non- Integrated Tactical Warning & Attack Assessment (ITW/AA) simulated lower risk data?
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      B.

    • C. 

      C.

    • D. 

      D.

  • 36. 
    (405) Which offensive space control effect temporary eliminates all or some of a system’s capabilities?
    • A. 

      Denial.

    • B. 

      Deception.

    • C. 

      Disruption.

    • D. 

      Destruction.

  • 37. 
    (405) Which element is a terrestrial segment that contains the targets desired in offensive space control operations?
    • A. 

      Sea.

    • B. 

      Satellites.

    • C. 

      Space stations.

    • D. 

      Communication links.

  • 38. 
    (405) Which tactic is part of defensive space control operations?
    • A. 

      Denial.

    • B. 

      Jamming.

    • C. 

      Missile detection.

    • D. 

      Recovery of space assets.

  • 39. 
    (405) Which action is not a passive measure that can be used to protect a space asset from a surprise attack?
    • A. 

      Denial.

    • B. 

      Deception.

    • C. 

      Camouflage.

    • D. 

      Concealment.

  • 40. 
    (405) When the 4th Space Control Squadron goes out on a deployable mission how many C–17 aircraft are needed?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      0.

  • 41. 
    (405) Which squadron is in charge of the Rapid Attack, Identification, Detection, and Reporting System?
    • A. 

      4th Space Control Squadron (SPCS).

    • B. 

      16 SPCS.

    • C. 

      20 SPCS.

    • D. 

      380 SPCS.

  • 42. 
    (405) Which squadron is a reserve associate unit conducting space electronic warfare support?
    • A. 

      4th Space Control Squadron (SPCS).

    • B. 

      16 SPCS.

    • C. 

      20 SPCS.

    • D. 

      380 SPCS.

  • 43. 
    (405) The system that is operated in a deployed location and geolocates signals in the ultra-high frequency band is
    • A. 

      Counter Communications System.

    • B. 

      STS.

    • C. 

      SPIRIT.

    • D. 

      RAIDRS.

  • 44. 
    (405) The fundamental knowledge that is required for all space control operators to learn when assigned to a space control unit is
    • A. 

      Signals.

    • B. 

      Statistics.

    • C. 

      Orbital mechanics.

    • D. 

      Satellite structure and design.

  • 45. 
    (406) Identify the Operations Capability (OPSCAP) that indicates that there is a moderate degradation to the system causing significant capability loss.
    • A. 

      Red.

    • B. 

      White.

    • C. 

      Green.

    • D. 

      Yellow.

  • 46. 
    (406) Which option is not one of the methods used to submit an OPSCAP/SYSCAP report when voice lines are down?
    • A. 

      SIPRNET.

    • B. 

      NIPRNET.

    • C. 

      Secure terminal.

    • D. 

      Defense messaging system.

  • 47. 
    (406) A human evaluation is accomplished in a ground-based missile warning site report to
    • A. 

      Make an assessment of the data itself.

    • B. 

      Make an assessment of the system itself.

    • C. 

      Determine if an event was generated by equipment malfunction only.

    • D. 

      Determine if an L&PI was falsely generated by equipment malfunction, environment, or personnel.

  • 48. 
    (406) Within how many seconds must a site report be passed to the Missile Correlation Center?
    • A. 

      60.

    • B. 

      90.

    • C. 

      120.

    • D. 

      300.

  • 49. 
    (406) Identify the type of site report sent when the investigation is complete and there are no L&PI?
    • A. 

      Valid.

    • B. 

      All clear.

    • C. 

      Anomalous.

    • D. 

      Under investigation.

  • 50. 
    (406) When does a ground-based site initiate VOICETELL procedures?
    • A. 

      Immediately after each event.

    • B. 

      After 120 seconds of the beginning of event.

    • C. 

      Only under the direction of Joint Space Operations Center.

    • D. 

      If the Missile Correlation Center (MCC) does not receive the data.

  • 51. 
    (406) Which event will cause a post-analysis report to be performed to prevent it from happening again?
    • A. 

      Valid.

    • B. 

      Cancelled.

    • C. 

      Anomalous.

    • D. 

      Under investigation.

  • 52. 
    (406) Which post-analysis categorization is reserved for anomalies such as solar glare or radar ducting?
    • A. 

      Valid.

    • B. 

      False.

    • C. 

      Anomalous.

    • D. 

      Environmental.

  • 53. 
    (407) The functional area of a system that is not covered in a technical order is
    • A. 

      Repairing.

    • B. 

      Destroying.

    • C. 

      Installation.

    • D. 

      Troubleshooting.

  • 54. 
    (407) The Military Performance Specification 38314 manual that has a foreword in it defining the type of manual it is and only published when deemed necessary is a
    • A. 

      Classified manual.

    • B. 

      Operations manual.

    • C. 

      Classified checklists.

    • D. 

      Operations checklists.

  • 55. 
    (407) Identify the section of a technical order that contains the foreword and the Technical Order Equipment Configuration Status Record.
    • A. 

      Glossary.

    • B. 

      Front matter.

    • C. 

      Chapter 1, Space System Description.

    • D. 

      Chapter 2, Space System Operating Functions.

  • 56. 
    (407) Which chapter of a technical order contains the procedures for pre mission and post mission activities?
    • A. 

      Chapter 1, Space System Description.

    • B. 

      Chapter 2, Space System Operating Functions.

    • C. 

      Chapter 3, Nominal Operating Procedures.

    • D. 

      Chapter 4, Emergency Procedures.

  • 57. 
    (407) Which type of checklist requires the operator to complete each step one at a time due to the criticality of the procedure?
    • A. 

      Routine.

    • B. 

      Emergency.

    • C. 

      Contingency.

    • D. 

      Demand Response.

  • 58. 
    (407) Identify the area that is designed to cover different scenarios within a checklist, and will not be found in demand response checklists.
    • A. 

      Crisis statements.

    • B. 

      Urgent statements.

    • C. 

      Lead-in statements.

    • D. 

      Demand response statements.

  • 59. 
    (407) In order to institute a change to a technical order which form must be used?
    • A. 

      AFTO 20.

    • B. 

      AFTO 22.

    • C. 

      AF Form 20.

    • D. 

      AF Form 22.

  • 60. 
    (408) Identify the event that does not need to be debriefed.
    • A. 

      Training events.

    • B. 

      Exercises.

    • C. 

      Missions.

    • D. 

      TDYs.

  • 61. 
    (408) Which debriefing step has to be measurable and repeatable in order to prevent reoccurrence of the problem?
    • A. 

      Observation.

    • B. 

      Lesson learned.

    • C. 

      Instructional fix.

    • D. 

      Contributing factors.

  • 62. 
    (408) Which option can be used by the member that can help to create clues in the event review?
    • A. 

      Event logs.

    • B. 

      Temporary cookies.

    • C. 

      Twitter chat rooms.

    • D. 

      Technical Order manual.

  • 63. 
    (408) During this debriefing step honesty and willingness to accept fault can determine the success of this step.
    • A. 

      Review of the events.

    • B. 

      Process improvement.

    • C. 

      Identification of the problem.

    • D. 

      Determination of the root cause.

  • 64. 
    (408) During which debriefing step is a statement that addresses specific actions to accomplish created?
    • A. 

      Review of the events.

    • B. 

      Process improvement.

    • C. 

      Development of lesson learned.

    • D. 

      Determination of the root cause.

  • 65. 
    (409) Which process is not a goal of the Tactics Development Program?
    • A. 

      Verify existing tactics.

    • B. 

      Disseminate new tactics.

    • C. 

      Minimize modifications to hardware.

    • D. 

      Institute standardized process of improvements.

  • 66. 
    (409) Which example describes a space technique?
    • A. 

      Change altitude.

    • B. 

      Maneuver a satellite.

    • C. 

      Reconfigure a network.

    • D. 

      Employ filters and proxies.

  • 67. 
    (409) Where would you find standard detailed steps that explain specific tasks documented?
    • A. 

      Crew logs.

    • B. 

      Technical Orders.

    • C. 

      Crew Information File.

    • D. 

      Operational Instructions.

  • 68. 
    (409) Which process is pushed through the six basic steps on an accelerated timeline?
    • A. 

      Early Tactics Development Process.

    • B. 

      Phased Tactics Development Process.

    • C. 

      Accelerated Tactics Development Process.

    • D. 

      Out-of-Cycle Tactics Development Process.

  • 69. 
    (410) Which component of the Global Information Grid foundation layer handles funding?
    • A. 

      Policy.

    • B. 

      Standards.

    • C. 

      Architecture.

    • D. 

      Government.

  • 70. 
    (410) The component of the Global Information Grid foundation layer that works with messaging, processing and storage is
    • A. 

      Computing.

    • B. 

      Foundation.

    • C. 

      Communications.

    • D. 

      Information management.

  • 71. 
    (410) Which component layer is known as the “wrapper” for the Global Information Grid?
    • A. 

      Warrior.

    • B. 

      Foundation.

    • C. 

      Network Operations.

    • D. 

      Information Management.

  • 72. 
    (410) Which step is used in defending against attack for Computer Network Defense?
    • A. 

      Monitoring networks and systems.

    • B. 

      Self-healing of systems and networks.

    • C. 

      Honeynets/Honeypots can identify hackers.

    • D. 

      Re-route traffic during link failures automatically.

  • 73. 
    (410) Identify the step accomplished during Computer Network Exploitation.
    • A. 

      Counter attack.

    • B. 

      Detecting intrusions and other activities.

    • C. 

      Reacting to intrusions and other activities.

    • D. 

      Map enemy systems/data both internal and external.

  • 74. 
    (410) Which action is a broad category used in exploiting vulnerabilities of Computer Network Attack?
    • A. 

      Counter attack.

    • B. 

      Determine access paths.

    • C. 

      Analyze enemy capabilities.

    • D. 

      Stop adversary exploitation.

  • 75. 
    (410) Which asset would need protection from an attack because it is critical infrastructure that supports our civilian population?
    • A. 

      Hospitals.

    • B. 

      Churches.

    • C. 

      Water utilities.

    • D. 

      Educational Institutions.

  • 76. 
    (410) Which agency is responsible for synchronizing the planning of cyberspace operations?
    • A. 

      24th Air Force.

    • B. 

      US Cyber Command.

    • C. 

      US Strategic Command.

    • D. 

      Air Force Space Command.

  • 77. 
    (410) The type of threat that comes from ‘hackers’ are
    • A. 

      Irregular threat.

    • B. 

      Traditional threat.

    • C. 

      Transnational actor threat.

    • D. 

      Individual or small group threat.

  • 78. 
    (410) Identify the kind of threat that comes from an authorized user.
    • A. 

      Insider threat.

    • B. 

      Irregular threat.

    • C. 

      Accidental threat.

    • D. 

      Individual or small group threat.

  • 79. 
    (411) What do all the ground stations have that lists all the network resources and commanding activities for each satellite contact?
    • A. 

      System report.

    • B. 

      Ephemeris.

    • C. 

      Pass plan.

    • D. 

      R–15.

  • 80. 
    (411) When does a crew begin preparations for a satellite contact?
    • A. 

      When the satellite leaves the station circle.

    • B. 

      After contact with the satellite is terminated.

    • C. 

      When the ground station has acquired the satellite.

    • D. 

      Approximately 20–30 minutes prior to a scheduled satellite pass.

  • 81. 
    (411) Which of the following scripts contain blanks that might require azimuth and elevation data?
    • A. 

      Command Plans.

    • B. 

      Contact Support Plans.

    • C. 

      Satellite Support Plans.

    • D. 

      Telemetry Viewer Plans.

  • 82. 
    (411) Which of the following scripts contains a string of other plans to complete a contact?
    • A. 

      Command Plans.

    • B. 

      Contact Support Plans.

    • C. 

      Satellite Support Plans.

    • D. 

      Telemetry Viewer Plans.

  • 83. 
    (411) During which contact stage would you send a command to change telemetry formats?
    • A. 

      Pass.

    • B. 

      Pre-pass.

    • C. 

      Mid-pass.

    • D. 

      Post-pass.

  • 84. 
    (411) During which of the following contact stages does the ground station collect telemetry data?
    • A. 

      Pass.

    • B. 

      Pre-pass.

    • C. 

      Mid-pass.

    • D. 

      Post-pass.

  • 85. 
    (411) Identify the type of pass that performs satellite ranging.
    • A. 

      Pre-pass.

    • B. 

      Post-pass.

    • C. 

      Track support.

    • D. 

      Commanding support.

  • 86. 
    (411) The type of pass that has a primary goal of satellite commanding is
    • A. 

      Pre-pass.

    • B. 

      Post-pass.

    • C. 

      Track support.

    • D. 

      Commanding support.

  • 87. 
    (411) What action(s) can provide a temporary fix so as not to degrade or create mission loss?
    • A. 

      State of Health.

    • B. 

      Anomaly detection.

    • C. 

      Telemetry verification.

    • D. 

      Contingency procedures.

  • 88. 
    (412) What can you use to retrieve formulas, biases, and modifier data from all the sites?
    • A. 

      Phord vector.

    • B. 

      Stored-program.

    • C. 

      Tracking program.

    • D. 

      Orbit determination program.

  • 89. 
    (412) What is normally used to initially acquire a newly launched satellite?
    • A. 

      Ephemeris and phord vectors.

    • B. 

      R–15 message and phord vectors.

    • C. 

      Ephemeris and nominal element set.

    • D. 

      R–15 message and nominal element set.

  • 90. 
    (412) The type of command that is automatically sent to an unresponsive satellite is called
    • A. 

      Blind.

    • B. 

      Block.

    • C. 

      Chain.

    • D. 

      Single.

  • 91. 
    (412) Which type of command count keeps track of every command sent to a satellite?
    • A. 

      Signal Command Count.

    • B. 

      Ground Command Count.

    • C. 

      Satellite Command Count.

    • D. 

      Transmit Command Count.

  • 92. 
    (412) Which procedure requires high speed communication links to transfer telemetry between remote tracking stations and the operations center?
    • A. 

      Bent Pipe.

    • B. 

      Bent Hook.

    • C. 

      Round Pipe.

    • D. 

      Round Hook.

  • 93. 
    (412) Identify the call sign of the tracking station that operates on the Western Range.
    • A. 

      REEF.

    • B. 

      POGO.

    • C. 

      HULU.

    • D. 

      COOK.

  • 94. 
    (412) What is the call sign of the tracking station that is owned and operated by the British Royal Air Force?
    • A. 

      LION.

    • B. 

      POGO.

    • C. 

      HULU.

    • D. 

      GUAM.

  • 95. 
    (412) Which functional component is the brain of the Automated Remote Tracking Stations (ARTS)?
    • A. 

      Antenna Control Unit.

    • B. 

      Command & Status (C&S) processer.

    • C. 

      Tracking, range, and range rate (TRR) receiver.

    • D. 

      Telemetry, Tracking, and Commanding (TT&C) antenna.

  • 96. 
    (412) Which Air Force Satellite Control Network (AFSCN) antenna mode has elevation and azimuth data and is usually chosen to begin satellite support?
    • A. 

      Slave.

    • B. 

      Search.

    • C. 

      Manual.

    • D. 

      Autotrack.

  • 97. 
    (412) The Automatic Remote Tracking Station (ARTS) site that can run without any operator interface and is called a Remote Block Change (RBC) site is
    • A. 

      COOK-B.

    • B. 

      REEF-A.

    • C. 

      LION-C.

    • D. 

      Lion-A.

  • 98. 
    (413) Which event is not something an engineer would use in assessing out of limits trending?
    • A. 

      Solar eclipse.

    • B. 

      Space weather.

    • C. 

      Yellow or red limit.

    • D. 

      Satellite subsystem malfunctions.

  • 99. 
    (413) The person that performs further investigation of the telemetry data that remains out of limits after the initial operator review is the
    • A. 

      Engineer.

    • B. 

      Crew chief.

    • C. 

      Orbital analyst.

    • D. 

      Crew commander.

  • 100. 
    (413) The area used to store completed telemetry data for a period of time is within the
    • A. 

      Engineer.

    • B. 

      Playback center.

    • C. 

      Remote ground facility.

    • D. 

      Database retrieval facility.