1c651 Vol.3

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (412) What is the call sign of the tracking station that is owned and operated by the British Royal Air Force?

    • LION.
    • POGO.
    • HULU.
    • GUAM.
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '1C651 Vol. 3', evaluates knowledge on electromagnetic radiation frequencies, radar technologies, and their applications in military and civilian contexts. It covers continuous waves, phased array, and synthetic aperture radar systems.

Radar Systems Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    (401) Which radar design uses the flight path of aircraft and can generate high-resolution remote sensing imagery?

    • Mechanical.

    • Space-based.

    • Ground-based.

    • Synthetic aperture radar.

    Correct Answer
    A. Synthetic aperture radar.
    Explanation
    Synthetic aperture radar (SAR) is a radar design that uses the flight path of aircraft to generate high-resolution remote sensing imagery. Unlike mechanical, space-based, or ground-based radar designs, SAR combines the radar signals collected from multiple positions along the flight path to create a virtual aperture that is much larger than the physical antenna. This allows SAR to achieve high resolution and detailed imagery of the Earth's surface, making it an ideal choice for remote sensing applications.

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  • 3. 

    (401) Which radar design has the ability to use more than one antenna to steer the signal?

    • Mechanical.

    • Space-based.

    • Phased array.

    • Ground-based.

    Correct Answer
    A. Phased array.
    Explanation
    Phased array radar design has the ability to use more than one antenna to steer the signal. Unlike mechanical radar design, which physically moves the antenna to change the direction of the signal, phased array radar uses multiple antennas that can electronically steer the signal beam. This allows for faster and more precise scanning of the radar beam in different directions. Space-based and ground-based radar designs do not necessarily have the capability to use multiple antennas for signal steering.

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  • 4. 

    (411) When does a crew begin preparations for a satellite contact?

    • When the satellite leaves the station circle.

    • After contact with the satellite is terminated.

    • When the ground station has acquired the satellite.

    • Approximately 20–30 minutes prior to a scheduled satellite pass.

    Correct Answer
    A. Approximately 20–30 minutes prior to a scheduled satellite pass.
    Explanation
    A crew begins preparations for a satellite contact approximately 20-30 minutes prior to a scheduled satellite pass. This means that they start getting ready to establish communication with the satellite before it actually comes into range of the ground station. This allows them to ensure that everything is set up and ready to go when the satellite is within reach, maximizing the efficiency of the contact.

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  • 5. 

    (401) What is the operating frequency of electromagnetic radiation waves?

    • 3 kilohertz to 30 gigahertz.

    • 3 kilohertz to 300 gigahertz.

    • 10 kilohertz to 100 gigahertz.

    • 10 kilohertz to 300 gigahertz.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 kilohertz to 300 gigahertz.
    Explanation
    Electromagnetic radiation waves have a wide range of frequencies, ranging from very low frequencies to extremely high frequencies. The given answer, 3 kilohertz to 300 gigahertz, covers a broad spectrum of frequencies and includes both low and high frequencies. This range encompasses radio waves, microwaves, infrared waves, visible light, ultraviolet waves, and some portions of the X-ray and gamma ray spectrum. Therefore, it is the correct answer as it accurately represents the operating frequency range of electromagnetic radiation waves.

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  • 6. 

    (401) Which type of radio wave can transmit and receive at the same time?

    • Single.

    • Pulsed.

    • Doppler.

    • Continuous.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuous.
    Explanation
    Continuous radio waves can transmit and receive at the same time because they are constantly being emitted without interruption. This allows for a continuous flow of information in both directions, making them ideal for two-way communication. In contrast, single, pulsed, and Doppler radio waves do not have the ability to transmit and receive simultaneously. Single radio waves are used for one-way communication, pulsed waves are emitted in short bursts, and Doppler waves are used for measuring velocity and motion. Therefore, the correct answer is continuous.

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  • 7. 

    (402) Which type of space surveillance sensor is only tasked with collecting space surveillance observations?

    • Directed.

    • Collateral.

    • Dedicated.

    • Contributing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dedicated.
    Explanation
    A dedicated space surveillance sensor is solely assigned the task of collecting space surveillance observations. It is specifically designed and operated to gather data on objects in space, such as satellites or debris, and monitor their movements and characteristics. Unlike collateral sensors, which may have multiple purposes or functions, a dedicated sensor focuses exclusively on space surveillance. Contributing sensors may also collect space surveillance observations, but they may have additional responsibilities or objectives. Therefore, the correct answer is dedicated.

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  • 8. 

    (402) Which type of space surveillance sensor can provide space surveillance observations, but is not under United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) control?

    • Directed.

    • Collateral.

    • Dedicated.

    • Contributing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contributing.
    Explanation
    A contributing space surveillance sensor refers to a sensor that can provide space surveillance observations but is not controlled by the United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM). This means that it is not directly operated or managed by USSTRATCOM, but it still contributes to the overall space surveillance efforts. The other options, directed, collateral, and dedicated, do not accurately describe sensors that are not under USSTRATCOM control.

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  • 9. 

    (402) Identify the main disadvantage for mechanical radars?

    • Beam steering.

    • Tracks one object at a time.

    • Can track only near-Earth objects.

    • Have to move the radar to search for objects.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tracks one object at a time.
    Explanation
    The main disadvantage of mechanical radars is that they can only track one object at a time. Unlike other types of radars, mechanical radars are limited in their ability to simultaneously track multiple objects. This can be a significant drawback in situations where there are multiple targets or when quick and efficient tracking of multiple objects is required.

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  • 10. 

    (403) How does the 20th Space Control Squadron prevent unscheduled outages from happening?

    • Performing Critical Maintenance.

    • Performing Corrective Maintenance.

    • Performing Emergency Maintenance.

    • Performing Preventative Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Performing Preventative Maintenance.
    Explanation
    The 20th Space Control Squadron prevents unscheduled outages from happening by performing preventative maintenance. This means that they regularly inspect and maintain their equipment and systems to identify and address any potential issues before they cause a disruption or failure. By taking proactive measures, such as conducting routine checks, replacing worn-out parts, and implementing preventive measures, they can minimize the risk of unexpected outages and ensure the smooth operation of their systems.

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  • 11. 

    (403) Identify a tracked object with a radar cross section less than 1 square meter tagged as if the system has never tracked it.

    • Lost uncorrelated target.

    • New uncorrelated target.

    • Significant uncorrelated target.

    • Non-significant uncorrelated target.

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-significant uncorrelated target.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Non-significant uncorrelated target." In radar tracking systems, a "non-significant uncorrelated target" refers to an object that has a radar cross section less than 1 square meter and has been tagged as if the system has never tracked it before. This means that the system has detected an object with a small radar cross section that is not considered significant or important in the context of the tracking system.

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  • 12. 

    (406) Which post-analysis categorization is reserved for anomalies such as solar glare or radar ducting?

    • Valid.

    • False.

    • Anomalous.

    • Environmental.

    Correct Answer
    A. Environmental.
    Explanation
    The post-analysis categorization of "Environmental" is reserved for anomalies such as solar glare or radar ducting. This category is used to classify abnormal occurrences that are caused by environmental factors, such as natural phenomena or atmospheric conditions. It helps to differentiate these anomalies from other types of anomalies that may be caused by technical or operational issues.

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  • 13. 

    (412) The type of command that is automatically sent to an unresponsive satellite is called

    • Blind.

    • Block.

    • Chain.

    • Single.

    Correct Answer
    A. Blind.
    Explanation
    When a satellite becomes unresponsive, a blind command is automatically sent to it. This command is called "blind" because it is sent without any knowledge or feedback from the satellite. The purpose of a blind command is to attempt to regain control or establish communication with the unresponsive satellite.

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  • 14. 

    (401) Which element is an uninteresting target to radar operators, and would be considered interference?

    • Houses.

    • Churches.

    • Meteor trails.

    • Orbiting debris.

    Correct Answer
    A. Meteor trails.
    Explanation
    Meteor trails would be considered an uninteresting target to radar operators and interference because they are temporary and unpredictable. Radar operators are primarily interested in detecting and tracking objects that are more permanent and have a predictable behavior, such as aircraft or spacecraft. Meteor trails, on the other hand, are caused by small particles entering the Earth's atmosphere and burning up, leaving behind a trail of ionized gas. These trails are short-lived and can vary in shape and intensity, making them less useful and potentially distracting for radar operators.

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  • 15. 

    (401) Which type of radar is typically used on sea-based platforms for Ballistic Missile Defense?

    • Aegis.

    • AN/TPY–2.

    • AN/FPS–85.

    • AN/FPS–123.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aegis.
    Explanation
    Aegis is the correct answer because it is a type of radar system that is commonly used on sea-based platforms for Ballistic Missile Defense. The Aegis system is specifically designed to detect and track ballistic missiles, providing crucial information for defense purposes. It is known for its advanced capabilities and effectiveness in detecting and intercepting incoming missiles, making it a preferred choice for sea-based missile defense systems. The other options listed, AN/TPY-2, AN/FPS-85, and AN/FPS-123, are not typically used for this specific purpose.

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  • 16. 

    (402) Which architecture is designed to stop and destroy warheads before they can reach their targets?

    • Early Warning System.

    • Missile Defense System.

    • Synthetic Aperture Radar.

    • Ballistic Missile Defense System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ballistic Missile Defense System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Ballistic Missile Defense System. This architecture is specifically designed to intercept and destroy incoming warheads before they can reach their intended targets. It is a comprehensive defense system that includes various components such as radars, sensors, interceptors, and command and control systems. These systems work together to detect and track ballistic missiles, and then launch interceptors to destroy them in mid-flight. The goal is to provide protection against potential missile attacks and enhance national security.

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  • 17. 

    (402) Which type of radar uses electro-optical and infrared imagery to see through clouds and fog?

    • AN/FPS–85.

    • Space-based.

    • Phased-array.

    • Synthetic Aperture.

    Correct Answer
    A. Synthetic Aperture.
    Explanation
    Synthetic Aperture radar (SAR) uses electro-optical and infrared imagery to see through clouds and fog. SAR is a type of radar that creates high-resolution images by combining multiple radar images taken from different positions. It is particularly useful in situations where traditional radar may be hindered by weather conditions. By using electro-optical and infrared imagery, SAR can penetrate through clouds and fog, allowing for clear and detailed imaging even in adverse weather conditions.

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  • 18. 

    (404) Identify the site that does not have any 1C6 personnel manning the radar.

    • Cobra Dane.

    • Clear, Alaska.

    • Thule, Greenland.

    • RAF, Fylingdales.

    Correct Answer
    A. RAF, Fylingdales.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RAF, Fylingdales. This is because the question asks for the site that does not have any 1C6 personnel manning the radar. 1C6 personnel are responsible for operating and maintaining radar systems. Since RAF, Fylingdales does not have any 1C6 personnel manning the radar, it is the site that fits the criteria mentioned in the question.

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  • 19. 

    (407) Identify the area that is designed to cover different scenarios within a checklist, and will not be found in demand response checklists.

    • Crisis statements.

    • Urgent statements.

    • Lead-in statements.

    • Demand response statements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lead-in statements.
    Explanation
    The area that is designed to cover different scenarios within a checklist, and will not be found in demand response checklists is lead-in statements. Lead-in statements are used to introduce or provide context for the questions or tasks in a checklist. They are not specific to any particular scenario or response, but rather serve as a general starting point. Demand response checklists, on the other hand, are focused on specific actions or responses to be taken in response to a particular situation or event. Therefore, lead-in statements are the correct answer as they are not found in demand response checklists.

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  • 20. 

    (412) Which procedure requires high speed communication links to transfer telemetry between remote tracking stations and the operations center?

    • Bent Pipe.

    • Bent Hook.

    • Round Pipe.

    • Round Hook.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bent Pipe.
    Explanation
    The procedure that requires high-speed communication links to transfer telemetry between remote tracking stations and the operations center is the Bent Pipe. This procedure involves using a satellite as a relay station to receive signals from the tracking stations and then retransmit them to the operations center. The high-speed communication links are necessary to ensure that the telemetry data is transferred quickly and accurately, allowing for real-time monitoring and control of the tracked objects.

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  • 21. 

    (403) How many observations can be transmitted daily by the only dedicated sensor in the Space Surveillance Network?

    • Up to 3,000.

    • Up to 30,000.

    • Up to 40,000.

    • Over 40,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. Over 40,000.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Over 40,000." This suggests that the only dedicated sensor in the Space Surveillance Network is capable of transmitting more than 40,000 observations daily. This indicates that the sensor has a high capacity and can handle a large amount of data, allowing for extensive monitoring and surveillance activities in space.

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  • 22. 

    (404) Which target classification for attack characterization concerns residential geographic areas?

    • Missile fields.

    • Urban and/or industrial.

    • Bomber and/or tanker bases.

    • Command and/or control centers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urban and/or industrial.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urban and/or industrial." This target classification for attack characterization concerns residential geographic areas. Urban areas typically refer to cities or densely populated areas, while industrial areas refer to locations where industrial activities and infrastructure are concentrated. Targeting these areas can have significant impacts on civilian populations and infrastructure, making them important considerations in attack characterization.

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  • 23. 

    (408) Identify the event that does not need to be debriefed.

    • Training events.

    • Exercises.

    • Missions.

    • TDYs.

    Correct Answer
    A. TDYs.
    Explanation
    TDYs, or Temporary Duty Assignments, do not typically require debriefing. TDYs are short-term assignments where individuals are sent to a different location for a specific task or purpose. Unlike training events, exercises, and missions, TDYs are often brief and do not involve complex or high-risk activities. Therefore, there is usually no need for a formal debriefing process after completing a TDY.

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  • 24. 

    (410) The type of threat that comes from ‘hackers’ are

    • Irregular threat.

    • Traditional threat.

    • Transnational actor threat.

    • Individual or small group threat.

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual or small group threat.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is individual or small group threat. Hackers typically operate individually or in small groups, using their technical skills to exploit vulnerabilities in computer systems or networks. They may engage in activities such as stealing sensitive information, disrupting services, or spreading malware. While there are cases of organized hacking groups or state-sponsored cyberattacks, the majority of hacking incidents are carried out by individuals or small groups. Therefore, the individual or small group threat best describes the type of threat that comes from hackers.

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  • 25. 

    (410) Identify the kind of threat that comes from an authorized user.

    • Insider threat.

    • Irregular threat.

    • Accidental threat.

    • Individual or small group threat.

    Correct Answer
    A. Insider threat.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Insider threat." This refers to a kind of threat that arises from an authorized user within an organization. These individuals have legitimate access to the organization's systems and data, but they may misuse or abuse their privileges intentionally or unintentionally, causing harm to the organization's security and operations. Insider threats can include actions such as data theft, sabotage, or unauthorized access to sensitive information. It is important for organizations to have measures in place to detect and mitigate insider threats to protect their assets and maintain a secure environment.

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  • 26. 

    (412) Identify the call sign of the tracking station that operates on the Western Range.

    • REEF.

    • POGO.

    • HULU.

    • COOK.

    Correct Answer
    A. COOK.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is COOK. The question asks for the call sign of the tracking station that operates on the Western Range. Out of the given options, COOK is the only call sign that matches this criteria.

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  • 27. 

    (406) A human evaluation is accomplished in a ground-based missile warning site report to

    • Make an assessment of the data itself.

    • Make an assessment of the system itself.

    • Determine if an event was generated by equipment malfunction only.

    • Determine if an L&PI was falsely generated by equipment malfunction, environment, or personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Determine if an L&PI was falsely generated by equipment malfunction, environment, or personnel.
    Explanation
    In a ground-based missile warning site report, a human evaluation is conducted to determine if an L&PI (Launch and Predicted Impact) was falsely generated by equipment malfunction, environment, or personnel. This evaluation aims to identify any false alarms or erroneous information that may have been caused by these factors. It helps ensure the accuracy and reliability of the missile warning system by ruling out any false detections or errors that could potentially lead to unnecessary actions or panic.

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  • 28. 

    (411) The type of pass that has a primary goal of satellite commanding is

    • Pre-pass.

    • Post-pass.

    • Track support.

    • Commanding support.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commanding support.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is commanding support. Commanding support refers to the type of pass that focuses on satellite commanding, which involves sending commands to the satellite for various purposes such as changing its orbit or configuring its systems. This type of pass is specifically dedicated to the task of commanding the satellite and ensuring its proper functioning.

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  • 29. 

    (403) Which ground-based electro-optical sensor is located at 10,000 feet elevation?

    • Detachment 1, 21 OG.

    • Detachment 2, 21 OG.

    • Detachment 3, 21 OG.

    • Detachment 4, 21 OG.

    Correct Answer
    A. Detachment 3, 21 OG.
    Explanation
    Detachment 3, 21 OG is the correct answer because it is the only option that specifies a ground-based electro-optical sensor located at 10,000 feet elevation. The other options do not provide any information about the elevation or the type of sensor.

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  • 30. 

    (403) Which fixed action will the 10th Space Warning Squadron crew members initiate when the power goes out?

    • Performing Critical Maintenance.

    • Performing Corrective Maintenance.

    • Performing Emergency Maintenance.

    • Performing Preventative Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Performing Corrective Maintenance.
    Explanation
    When the power goes out, the 10th Space Warning Squadron crew members will initiate performing corrective maintenance. This means that they will take actions to fix any issues or problems that have occurred due to the power outage. Corrective maintenance is done to restore equipment or systems to their normal functioning state after a failure or malfunction. In this case, the crew members will work to address any issues caused by the power outage and ensure that everything is back up and running properly.

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  • 31. 

    (403) Which section of the satellite catalog describes the sequential order in which the satellite was discovered or launched in space?

    • Satellite Control Center number.

    • Basic orbital parameters.

    • International Designator.

    • Common name.

    Correct Answer
    A. Satellite Control Center number.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Satellite Control Center number. This is because the Satellite Control Center number is a unique identifier assigned to each satellite by the organization responsible for controlling and tracking it. It is used to keep track of the satellite's position, orbit, and other important information. The sequential order in which the satellites were discovered or launched in space is reflected in their Satellite Control Center numbers, with earlier satellites having lower numbers and newer satellites having higher numbers.

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  • 32. 

    (405) When the 4th Space Control Squadron goes out on a deployable mission how many C–17 aircraft are needed?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 0.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.
    Explanation
    When the 4th Space Control Squadron goes out on a deployable mission, two C-17 aircraft are needed.

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  • 33. 

    (406) Which option is not one of the methods used to submit an OPSCAP/SYSCAP report when voice lines are down?

    • SIPRNET.

    • NIPRNET.

    • Secure terminal.

    • Defense messaging system.

    Correct Answer
    A. NIPRNET.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NIPRNET. NIPRNET (Non-classified Internet Protocol Router Network) is a network used for unclassified communication and is not a method used to submit an OPSCAP/SYSCAP report when voice lines are down. The other options, SIPRNET (Secret Internet Protocol Router Network), secure terminal, and defense messaging system, are all methods that can be used to submit the report in such a situation.

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  • 34. 

    (409) Which process is not a goal of the Tactics Development Program?

    • Verify existing tactics.

    • Disseminate new tactics.

    • Minimize modifications to hardware.

    • Institute standardized process of improvements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimize modifications to hardware.
    Explanation
    The process of minimizing modifications to hardware is not a goal of the Tactics Development Program. The program focuses on verifying existing tactics, disseminating new tactics, and instituting a standardized process of improvements. The goal is to improve tactics and processes, rather than minimizing hardware modifications.

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  • 35. 

    (402) Which sensor is not an Upgrade Early Warning Sensor, but does has a primary mission of missile warning?

    • Eglin.

    • Thule.

    • Cavalier.

    • Fylingdales.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cavalier.
    Explanation
    Cavalier is the correct answer because it is the only option that is not an Upgrade Early Warning Sensor. Although all the options have a primary mission of missile warning, Cavalier does not fall under the category of Upgrade Early Warning Sensor.

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  • 36. 

    (405) Which squadron is a reserve associate unit conducting space electronic warfare support?

    • 4th Space Control Squadron (SPCS).

    • 16 SPCS.

    • 20 SPCS.

    • 380 SPCS.

    Correct Answer
    A. 380 SPCS.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 380 SPCS. The question is asking which squadron is a reserve associate unit conducting space electronic warfare support. Out of the given options, the 380 SPCS is the only squadron that fits this description.

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  • 37. 

    (407) Which type of checklist requires the operator to complete each step one at a time due to the criticality of the procedure?

    • Routine.

    • Emergency.

    • Contingency.

    • Demand Response.

    Correct Answer
    A. Demand Response.
    Explanation
    A demand response checklist requires the operator to complete each step one at a time due to the criticality of the procedure. This suggests that demand response procedures are highly important and require strict adherence to ensure safety and efficiency. Unlike routine checklists, which may allow for flexibility and completion of steps in any order, demand response checklists prioritize the order of steps to be followed precisely. This ensures that critical procedures are executed correctly and in a timely manner during emergency situations or high-demand scenarios.

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  • 38. 

    (408) Which option can be used by the member that can help to create clues in the event review?

    • Event logs.

    • Temporary cookies.

    • Twitter chat rooms.

    • Technical Order manual.

    Correct Answer
    A. Event logs.
    Explanation
    Event logs can be used by a member to create clues in the event review. Event logs are records of events that have occurred on a computer system or network, and they can provide valuable information about the sequence of events leading up to an incident or issue. By analyzing the event logs, the member can identify patterns, anomalies, and potential causes of the event, which can help in creating clues and understanding what happened during the event. Temporary cookies, Twitter chat rooms, and the Technical Order manual are unrelated options and do not provide the same level of information and insight as event logs.

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  • 39. 

    (410) Which step is used in defending against attack for Computer Network Defense?

    • Monitoring networks and systems.

    • Self-healing of systems and networks.

    • Honeynets/Honeypots can identify hackers.

    • Re-route traffic during link failures automatically.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring networks and systems.
    Explanation
    Monitoring networks and systems is a crucial step in defending against attacks in computer network defense. By continuously monitoring the network and systems, any suspicious activity or potential threats can be detected and addressed promptly. This includes monitoring for unusual network traffic, unauthorized access attempts, and abnormal system behavior. Through monitoring, network administrators can identify and respond to attacks in real-time, minimizing the potential damage and preventing further compromise.

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  • 40. 

    (411) Which of the following scripts contains a string of other plans to complete a contact?

    • Command Plans.

    • Contact Support Plans.

    • Satellite Support Plans.

    • Telemetry Viewer Plans.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contact Support Plans.
    Explanation
    Contact Support Plans is the correct answer because it is the only option that specifically mentions plans related to completing a contact. The other options, Command Plans, Satellite Support Plans, and Telemetry Viewer Plans, do not mention anything about completing a contact. Therefore, Contact Support Plans is the most appropriate choice.

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  • 41. 

    (412) Which Air Force Satellite Control Network (AFSCN) antenna mode has elevation and azimuth data and is usually chosen to begin satellite support?

    • Slave.

    • Search.

    • Manual.

    • Autotrack.

    Correct Answer
    A. Slave.
    Explanation
    The Slave mode in the Air Force Satellite Control Network (AFSCN) antenna has elevation and azimuth data and is typically selected to initiate satellite support. In this mode, the antenna receives commands from a master station and adjusts its position accordingly to track the satellite. This allows for efficient and accurate communication with the satellite, making it the preferred choice for starting satellite support operations.

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  • 42. 

    (405) The system that is operated in a deployed location and geolocates signals in the ultra-high frequency band is

    • Counter Communications System.

    • STS.

    • SPIRIT.

    • RAIDRS.

    Correct Answer
    A. SPIRIT.
    Explanation
    SPIRIT is the correct answer because it is a system that is operated in a deployed location and is capable of geolocating signals in the ultra-high frequency band. Counter Communications System, STS, and RAIDRS are not specifically designed for geolocating signals in the ultra-high frequency band, making them incorrect options.

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  • 43. 

    (407) In order to institute a change to a technical order which form must be used?

    • AFTO 20.

    • AFTO 22.

    • AF Form 20.

    • AF Form 22.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO 22.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFTO 22. The AFTO 22 form is used to request a change to a technical order. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all necessary information is provided to initiate the change process. The AFTO 20 form is used for maintenance data collection, while the AF Form 20 and AF Form 22 are not relevant to requesting a change to a technical order.

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  • 44. 

    (403) Identify the function of the Joint Space Operations Center (JSpOC) Mission System that provides an accurate space operating picture.

    • Joint force support.

    • Launch reentry support.

    • Spectrum characterization.

    • Space Object Identification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Space Object Identification.
    Explanation
    The Joint Space Operations Center (JSpOC) Mission System's function of providing an accurate space operating picture is achieved through Space Object Identification. This means that the JSpOC Mission System is responsible for identifying and tracking objects in space, such as satellites and debris, to ensure situational awareness and enable effective space operations. By accurately identifying space objects, the JSpOC Mission System can monitor their movements, trajectories, and potential threats, contributing to the overall safety and security of space operations.

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  • 45. 

    (404) Identify the data that is readily identified as simulated data in category A testing.

    • Tagged.

    • Untagged.

    • Separated.

    • Combined.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tagged.
    Explanation
    In category A testing, the data that is readily identified as simulated data is "Tagged." This means that the simulated data is marked or labeled in some way to indicate that it is not real or actual data. The other options, "Untagged," "Separated," and "Combined," do not necessarily indicate that the data is simulated.

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  • 46. 

    (407) The functional area of a system that is not covered in a technical order is

    • Repairing.

    • Destroying.

    • Installation.

    • Troubleshooting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Destroying.
    Explanation
    The functional area of a system that is not covered in a technical order is destroying. A technical order typically provides instructions and guidelines for various aspects of a system, such as repairing, installation, and troubleshooting. However, destroying a system is not a standard or recommended function, and therefore, it is not covered in a technical order.

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  • 47. 

    (408) During this debriefing step honesty and willingness to accept fault can determine the success of this step.

    • Review of the events.

    • Process improvement.

    • Identification of the problem.

    • Determination of the root cause.

    Correct Answer
    A. Determination of the root cause.
    Explanation
    During the debriefing step, determining the root cause is crucial for the success of the process. This involves identifying the underlying issue that led to the problem or event being reviewed. By understanding the root cause, the team can make informed decisions on how to improve the process and prevent similar issues from occurring in the future. Honesty and willingness to accept fault are important in this step as they contribute to a thorough analysis and effective problem-solving.

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  • 48. 

    (402) What primary mission does Beale, AFB, RAF, and the Fylingdales sensors sites all have in common?

    • Missile Defense and Space Control.

    • Missile Warning and Missile Defense.

    • Space Surveillance and Space Control.

    • Missile Warning and Space Surveillance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Missile Warning and Missile Defense.
    Explanation
    Beale, AFB, RAF, and the Fylingdales sensor sites all have the primary mission of providing missile warning and missile defense. This means that their main purpose is to detect and track incoming missiles and provide early warning to enable defensive measures to be taken. They also contribute to the overall missile defense system by providing data and support for missile defense operations.

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  • 49. 

    (404) Which element is not detectable or easily seen through when Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR) is transmitting waveforms to receive echoes?

    • Fog.

    • Rain.

    • Snow.

    • Color hues.

    Correct Answer
    A. Color hues.
    Explanation
    When RADAR is transmitting waveforms to receive echoes, it is able to detect and easily see through fog, rain, and snow. However, color hues are not detectable or easily seen through by RADAR. RADAR works by sending out radio waves and then receiving the echoes that bounce back from objects in its path. These echoes are used to determine the distance, direction, and speed of the objects. While RADAR can penetrate through various atmospheric conditions, it cannot detect or distinguish color hues as it primarily relies on the reflection and absorption of radio waves.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 18, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 17, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    DwigAsh1
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