Radtech Simulation Examination 9
This is your Radtech Simulation 9 for HAAD and other Gulf Exams.
The questions here are encountered last month based on feed backs from Gulf Countries.
You would be given 120 minutes to answer 100 items.
Passing Score would be 70 %
This is a LIMITED TAKEN TEST so You need a STRONG INTERNET CONNECTION to take this properly.
Correct Answers will be displayed after the test, so Don't Exit Immediately.
For more information please consult with our webmaster.
- 1.
When do you need to stop breast feeding for F-18?
- A.
Don't need to stop
- B.
0-24 hrs
- C.
1-4 weeks
- D.
Stop for remainder of pregnancy
Correct Answer
A. Don't need to stopExplanation
Breastfeeding does not need to be stopped for F-18, as there are no specific reasons mentioned in the question that would require the cessation of breastfeeding. The other options provided, such as 0-24 hrs, 1-4 weeks, and stopping for the remainder of pregnancy, do not apply to the situation described in the question. Therefore, the correct answer is that there is no need to stop breastfeeding for F-18.Rate this question:
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- 2.
When do you need to stop breast feeding for Tc-99m?
- A.
Don't need to stop
- B.
0-24 hrs
- C.
1-4 weeks
- D.
Stop for remainder of pregnancy
Correct Answer
B. 0-24 hrsExplanation
Breastfeeding should be stopped for 0-24 hours after receiving Tc-99m. This is because Tc-99m is a radioactive material used in medical imaging, and it is important to minimize the exposure of the infant to radiation. By stopping breastfeeding for this period, the mother can ensure that the radioactive material is cleared from her body, reducing the risk of radiation exposure to the baby.Rate this question:
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- 3.
When do you need to stop breast feeding for Gallium and indium?
- A.
Don't need to stop
- B.
0-24 hrs
- C.
1-4 weeks
- D.
Stop for remainder of pregnancy
Correct Answer
C. 1-4 weeksExplanation
Breastfeeding does not need to be stopped for Gallium and Indium. The answer "1-4 weeks" is incorrect as it suggests that breastfeeding needs to be stopped for a specific duration, which is not necessary for these substances.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When do you need to stop breast feeding for I-131 (>2 uCi)
- A.
Don't need to stop
- B.
0-24 hrs
- C.
1-4 weeks
- D.
Stop for remainder of pregnancy
Correct Answer
D. Stop for remainder of pregnancyExplanation
Breastfeeding should be stopped for the remainder of pregnancy when the I-131 dose is greater than 2 uCi. This is because I-131 is a radioactive substance used in medical treatments, and it can be harmful to the developing fetus. Stopping breastfeeding during pregnancy helps to avoid exposing the fetus to the radioactive substance, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Hand doses are typically 0.5-1 ________. Please pick correct units
- A.
Rad/hr/mCi
- B.
MGy/hr/mCi
- C.
Rad/min/mCi
- D.
MGy/min/mCi
- E.
Rad/hr/uCi
- F.
MGy/hr/uCi
- G.
Rad/min/uCi
- H.
MGy/min/uCi
Correct Answer
A. Rad/hr/mCiExplanation
Equivalent to 5-10 mGy/hr/mCiRate this question:
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- 6.
Syringe shields don't have to be labeled as long as there is a label on the syringe itself.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Syringe shields must be labeled if the label is not visible through the syringe shield.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Anything beyond what level do you need to post a sign?
- A.
Unrestricted area
- B.
Radiation area
- C.
High Radiation Area
- D.
Very High Radiation Area
Correct Answer
A. Unrestricted areaExplanation
In an unrestricted area, there is no specific level of radiation that requires a sign to be posted. This means that the radiation levels in this area are considered to be safe and do not pose a significant risk to individuals. Therefore, there is no need to post a sign indicating radiation levels in an unrestricted area.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Caution Radioactive Materials posting required where licensed material is used, stored or likely airborne.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement suggests that posting caution signs for radioactive materials is required in places where licensed material is used, stored, or where there is a likelihood of it being airborne. This implies that it is necessary to inform and warn individuals about the presence of radioactive materials in order to ensure their safety. Therefore, the correct answer is "True."Rate this question:
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- 9.
The maximum permissible whole body dose to an occupationally exposed individual for one year and to a declared pregnant worker for the 9 months of gestation are, respectively:
- A.
500 mRem, 100 mRem
- B.
1000 mRem, 500 mRem
- C.
5000 mRem, 500 mRem
- D.
A pregnant worker is not permitted to work with radiation until after the birth of her baby
Correct Answer
C. 5000 mRem, 500 mRemExplanation
The maximum permissible whole body dose to an occupationally exposed individual for one year is 5000 mRem, while the maximum permissible dose for a declared pregnant worker for the 9 months of gestation is 500 mRem. This means that the allowed radiation exposure for a pregnant worker is significantly lower than that for a non-pregnant individual. This is because radiation can potentially harm the developing fetus, so extra precautions are taken to ensure the safety of pregnant workers.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Our occupational dose limits for whole body and extremities are, respectively:
- A.
5 Rem and 50 Rem
- B.
50 Rem and 5 Rem
- C.
15 Rem and 50 Rem
- D.
5 Rem and 15 Rem
Correct Answer
A. 5 Rem and 50 RemExplanation
The correct answer is 5 Rem and 50 Rem. Occupational dose limits refer to the maximum amount of radiation exposure that a person can receive while working in a radiation-related occupation. The limits for whole body and extremities are different because different parts of the body have different sensitivities to radiation. The limit for whole body exposure is set at 5 Rem, while the limit for extremity exposure is set at 50 Rem. This means that a person can be exposed to up to 5 Rem of radiation throughout their entire body, but up to 50 Rem of radiation in a specific extremity, such as a hand or foot.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Our occupational dose limits for the lens of the eye is:
- A.
5 Rem
- B.
15 Rem
- C.
25 Rem
- D.
50 Rem
Correct Answer
B. 15 RemExplanation
The correct answer is 15 Rem. Occupational dose limits are set to ensure that radiation exposure remains within safe levels for workers. The lens of the eye is particularly sensitive to radiation, and exposure to high levels can lead to cataracts. Therefore, a limit of 15 Rem is set to protect the lens of the eye from harmful radiation effects.Rate this question:
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- 12.
If you have accumulated 1,000 mRem at your former institution as of March 30, 2011, and changed jobs on April 1, 2011, you will be permitted 5,000 additional mRem for the remainder of the calendar year at your new facility. True/False?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The Licensee shall reduce the dose that an individual may be allowed to receive in the current year by the amount of occupational dose received while employed by any other person or facility.Rate this question:
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- 13.
How often must an employer inform his radiation workers of their radiation exposure levels
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semi-annually
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
D. AnnuallyExplanation
Employers must inform their radiation workers of their radiation exposure levels annually. This is important to ensure that workers are aware of their exposure and can take necessary precautions to protect themselves from the potential health risks associated with radiation. Annual notification allows workers to stay informed about their exposure levels and make any necessary adjustments in their work practices or safety measures. Regular communication about radiation exposure levels is crucial for maintaining a safe working environment and ensuring the well-being of radiation workers.Rate this question:
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- 14.
How often do you need to check constancy?
- A.
At installation and daily
- B.
At installation and quarterly
- C.
At installation and annually
- D.
At installation and after any repairs
Correct Answer
A. At installation and dailyExplanation
Checking constancy is necessary to ensure that something remains consistent over time. At installation, it is important to verify that the constancy is set correctly. Checking daily is necessary because constancy can be affected by various factors such as wear and tear, environmental conditions, or other changes that may occur on a daily basis. Regular daily checks help to identify any deviations or issues that may arise and allow for prompt corrective actions. Therefore, checking at installation and daily ensures that constancy is continuously monitored and maintained.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The major risk of injury or harm due to a magnet quench is:
- A.
The boiling off of cryogens that creates an asphyxiating steam
- B.
The magnet becomes so warm that it may cause burns to patients in the bore
- C.
There is no danger with a quench. It is how we shut down the machine for repair
- D.
A blinding flash of light
Correct Answer
A. The boiling off of cryogens that creates an asphyxiating steamExplanation
If a quench occurs, everyone must be removed from the room immediately. The vapors and gases are very cold and can cause frost-bite. They also often condense the moisture in air, creating a highly visible fog that can replace oxygen in the room.Rate this question:
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- 16.
All of the following statements about the magnet of the MRI scanner are true EXCEPT:
- A.
The magnetic field is extremely powerful
- B.
Large metal objects like floor buffers and oxygen cylinders may be picked up by the field and fly toward the magnet bore at high speeds
- C.
The fringe field is confined to the magnet bore
- D.
The magnet is always on, 24/hrs, 7/days
Correct Answer
C. The fringe field is confined to the magnet boreExplanation
The magnetic field can extend many feet from the inner bore of the magnet. Rooms are shielded to contain the field as much as possible. Remember the magnet is always on even when a scan is not initiated. The main magnetic field of a 3T system is 60,000 times the earth's magnet field. We must also limit the items that go into the scan room to non-ferrous metals.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Patients with which of the following prosthetic devices may be safely scanned:
- A.
Cardiac pacemaker
- B.
History of having metal flakes in the eye
- C.
Cochlear implant (inner ear prosthetic device)
- D.
Total knee replacement
Correct Answer
D. Total knee replacementExplanation
The following items can NEVER be allowed into the scanning room:
cardiac pacemakers, cochlear (inner ear) implants, ferromagnetic or unidentifiable aneurysm clips of the brain, implanted neuro stimulators, metal or unidentifiable foreign bodies in the eyes, and implanted pumps to deliver medicine that cannot be removed.
If a subject works around metal and cannot say for sure they have never had any metal in their eyes the study should be canceled.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The emergency shutdown button should be used to immediately cut power to the scanner electrical system in each of the following situations EXCEPT:
- A.
Loud popping noises and smoke come from the scanner
- B.
Sprinklers go off in scan room, but there is no fire
- C.
Scan room fire
- D.
The subject in the scanner squeezes the emergency ball
Correct Answer
D. The subject in the scanner squeezes the emergency ballExplanation
Shutting power to the PDU may be required for life threatening situations such as:
Fire in the computer room, fire, sparks, loud noises emanating from the scan room, flooding or sprinkling system goes off, and catastrophic equipment failure. These reasons should be life threatening. It is important to remember that pressing the emergency stop button shuts the power to the scanner to but the magnetic field is still active.Rate this question:
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- 19.
With regard to metal objects in the scan room:
- A.
No metallic objects are allowed in the scan room
- B.
Small objects like hair pins may be attracted by the magnetic field but are too small to constitute a safety risk
- C.
Metallic objects may be tested for ferromagnetism by the technologist with a hand-held magnet; if not ferromagnetic, they may be allowed in the scan room
- D.
Most equipment used in an exam is MRI compatible so there is really no reason to worry about this
Correct Answer
C. Metallic objects may be tested for ferromagnetism by the technologist with a hand-held magnet; if not ferromagnetic, they may be allowed in the scan roomExplanation
Small items like paper clips or hair pins can have a velocity of about 40mph in a 3T environment. Larger objects have even higher velocities and have become fatal. Many types of clinical equipment are ferromagnetic and should never be brought into the scan room. If there is any question a handheld magnet can be used to test if an object is ferromagnetic or not.Rate this question:
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- 20.
In which of the following situations should you push the “Quench” button:
- A.
A steel oxygen tank was brought into the scan room and has flown across the room and stuck to the magnet, pinning someone’s arm in a painful crush
- B.
Scan room fire
- C.
A janitor has entered the room with a large floor buffing machine which is now stuck to the magnet. No one is hurt, but he can’t pull the machine off the magnet
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. A steel oxygen tank was brought into the scan room and has flown across the room and stuck to the magnet, pinning someone’s arm in a painful crushExplanation
An intentional quench is done in an emergency to run the magnetic field to zero. This is done in extreme emergencies only (ex- a projectile that is pinning a patient against the magnet, injuring them).Rate this question:
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- 21.
Before beginning to scan a subject, you should:
- A.
Clear the patient of all internal and external metals
- B.
Give the subject earplugs and the emergency squeeze ball
- C.
Check lines of remote verbal communication with the subject (from the workstation)
- D.
All of the answers are true
Correct Answer
D. All of the answers are trueExplanation
You must check each subject for contra-indications they might have before allowing them into the scan room. Once the patient is on the table it is very important you get them as comfortable as possible. The MR scanner can produce very high acoustic noise levels that can cause discomfort. Before you start your protocol make sure you open the lines of communication so the patient knows you can hear them in case of an emergency.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following is a likely consequence of forgetting to remove your wallet from your pocket before entering the scan room:
- A.
There will likely be no adverse consequence
- B.
The magnetic stripes on your credit cards and ATM cards are erased
- C.
The wallet will heat up and may cause burns
- D.
Because the ink on US currency is ferromagnetic, your wallet may become a projectile and fly into the magnet bore
Correct Answer
B. The magnetic stripes on your credit cards and ATM cards are erasedExplanation
The magnetic field can seriously damage or impair the following personal items:
Cameras, watches, credit and bank cards, hearing aids, hair accessories, belt buckles, shoes and I-pods just to name a few. Please remember to empty ALL of your pockets before entering the scanning room.Rate this question:
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- 23.
If your patient complains of a body ache, dizziness or anxiety (including claustrophobia) during the middle of the scan, you should:
- A.
Quench the magnet
- B.
Press the Emergency Shut Down Button
- C.
Talk to your patient and remove them from the magnet if they cannot go on
- D.
Ignore their complaints
Correct Answer
C. Talk to your patient and remove them from the magnet if they cannot go onExplanation
Routine communication between you and your subject is very important so they know you can hear them if an emergency should arise. The emergency stop button and quench button should only be pressed is a life threatening emergency.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following objects are potential projectiles?
- A.
Watch
- B.
ID badge
- C.
Pencil
- D.
Clipboard
Correct Answer
D. ClipboardExplanation
Some examples of items that can become projectiles are: Scissors, hair clips and bobby pins, tools, paperclips and clapboards.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is a Quench?
- A.
Total power down of the computer system
- B.
A ramping up of the magnetic field in which all of the cryogens are put into the bore thus making the scanner super conductive
- C.
How the staff shuts the magnet down after hours, to ensure maximum safety
- D.
A rapid boil off of cryogens and ultimate loss of a magnetic field
Correct Answer
D. A rapid boil off of cryogens and ultimate loss of a magnetic fieldExplanation
MR scanners are super cooled with inert gases such as helium. A quench is the rapid boiling off of these cryogens intentionally or unintentionally.Rate this question:
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- 26.
There are two real safety concerns with regard to the magnetic forces and how they interact with ferrous objects. They can be described as which of the following:
- A.
Translation and Magnetization of the object
- B.
Transverse and Rotation of the object
- C.
Translation and Torque of the object
- D.
Translation and Mutation of the object
Correct Answer
C. Translation and Torque of the objectExplanation
Translation describes the force that attracts ferrous objects to the center of the magnetic field. It is sometimes referred to as the projectile effect. Rotation is the term that relates to the force of the North and South poles and the orientation of the scanner’s magnetic field. Ferrous objects will attempt to align their long axes with this orientation and will rotate until they are aligned with the magnetic field.Rate this question:
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- 27.
In the event your subject is in some type of medical distress, what is the first thing you should do?
- A.
Call 911 and wait for personnel to arrive
- B.
Bring the crash cart into the scan room
- C.
Nothing
- D.
Call 911, remove the patient from the scanning room immediately
Correct Answer
D. Call 911, remove the patient from the scanning room immediatelyExplanation
Should a condition exist where the patient is having a medical emergency, every effort should be made to remove the patient from the scan room. Once the patient is removed from the MR scan room, close the door to prevent re-entry. If you cannot remove the patient remember the magnet is always on. Under no circumstances should anyone be allowed to enter the scan room without proper screening!Rate this question:
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- 28.
To reduce the effects of peripheral nerve stimulation:
- A.
Have the subject uncross their extremities
- B.
Use immobilization pads
- C.
Change the subject out of their street clothes and into a gown
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Have the subject uncross their extremitiesExplanation
When a patient crosses their legs or intertwines their fingers a circuit is formed and it is more likely to cause peripheral nerve stimulation.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The main hazard of the Static Field is:
- A.
Nerve Stimulation
- B.
Objects becoming projectiles
- C.
Heat Deposition
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Objects becoming projectilesExplanation
Heat deposition and nerve stimulation are hazards of a varying magnetic field.Rate this question:
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- 30.
If there is ever a Quench in the scan room instead of the outside environment, you must remove the patient and all staff from the room immediately. What is the safety concerns?
- A.
Asphyxiation and frost bite
- B.
Explosion
- C.
Convulsion
- D.
Fire
Correct Answer
A. Asphyxiation and frost biteExplanation
If a quench occurs, everyone must be removed from the room immediately. The vapors and gases are very cold and can cause frostbite. They also often condense the moisture in air, creating a highly visible fog that can replace oxygen in the room.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What does SAR measure?
- A.
The length of the scan time
- B.
The amount of heat the patient will absorb during the scan
- C.
The strength of the fringe field outside the bore of the magnet
- D.
All of these answers are correct
Correct Answer
B. The amount of heat the patient will absorb during the scanExplanation
Dissipation of the absorbed RF energy is described in terms of Specific Absorption Rate (SAR), measured in watts/kg. SAR is calculated by the patient’s weight and the expected increase in body temperature for each imaging pulse sequence. The scanner will calculate how much heat the patient will be absorbed if it is too high the scan will not run.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is the unit for measurement of magnetic field strength?
- A.
Gauss
- B.
Tesla
- C.
Both Gauss and Tesla
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Both Gauss and TeslaExplanation
Magnetic fields are measured in units of Gauss or Tesla (1T = 10,000G).Rate this question:
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- 33.
If an object is considered safe to be used in a 1.5Tesla MR scanner, but has not been tested in a 3Tesla scanner, it should be labeled as:
- A.
MR Safe
- B.
Not sure, more research should be done
- C.
MR Not Safe
- D.
Does it matter?
Correct Answer
B. Not sure, more research should be doneExplanation
A 3T magnet is double the strength of a 1.5T unit. It is important to remember that objects that are clear for a 1.5T magnet cannot go into a 3T magnet. Mrisafety.com has the largest database of items that are cleared for the 3T environment.Rate this question:
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- 34.
If a volunteer states she could be pregnant you should:
- A.
Let her know there is no known effects to the fetus and continue the exam
- B.
Ignore the information it doesn't matter if she is pregnant or not
- C.
Tell her to come back when her first trimester is over
- D.
Cancel the exam until she can be sure she is not pregnant
Correct Answer
D. Cancel the exam until she can be sure she is not pregnantExplanation
Unless your research patient can say for certain they are not pregnant they cannot go into the scanner until they know for sure that they are not pregnant. If a research subject is pregnant the exam must be canceled regardless of trimester.Rate this question:
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- 35.
If the operating computer shut down and unplugged, the magnetic field is off and any materials, regardless for their ferromagnetic qualities can be brought into the scanning room.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The magnet is always on 24hrs/7days unless a quench has been initiated.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What is the strength of the scanned at the SCAN Center?
- A.
1T
- B.
7T
- C.
3T
- D.
1.5T
Correct Answer
C. 3TExplanation
We have a Siemens 3T Trio Scanner. 3T machines are double the strength of 1.5T machines. It is important to remember that if an object/implant has been cleared for a 1.5T machine it does not mean it is ok for a 3T machine. Further research must be done.Rate this question:
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- 37.
If you are not sure the ferromagnetic qualities of an object you should:
- A.
Enter the scanning room slowly until you feel the object start to pull from your grasp
- B.
Check it with a hand held magnet
- C.
Bring the object into the room, if it is attracted to the magnet, turn off the scanner and pull it off the machine
- D.
Nothing from the outside can go into the scanning room
Correct Answer
B. Check it with a hand held magnetExplanation
The SCAN center has a .7T hand held magnet you can use to check the magnetic susceptibility of an object. If you still have questions please ask the MRI technologist to assist you. The SCAN Center staff has final say on what may or may not be brought into the scanning environment.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Every subject can choose if they would like to wear ear plugs, head set, both or nothing during the scan. It's up to each individual.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The MRI scanner produces very high acoustic noise, which can reach excess of 130 DbA. Everyone who is scanned must wear both ear plugs and headset during the exam.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Who needs to be cleared before they enter the MRI scanning room?
- A.
The Research Subject
- B.
The Researcher/Research Assistant
- C.
Public Safety Officials (Police/Firemen/EMT)
- D.
The MRI Technologist
- E.
All of the above
- F.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
Because the scanner's magnetic field is always on anyone who steps into the scanning room must be cleared by the SCAN Center's staff. Clearance forms can be found on our web site http://www.psychology.sunysb.edu/scancenter/. Anyone who has not been cleared should stay out of the controlled access areas marked by warning signs.Rate this question:
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- 40.
If a subject says there might be a possibility they could be pregnant but is not 100% sure, they can be scanned.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
A female subject needs to be 100% sure they are NOT pregnant to be scanned at the center.Rate this question:
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- 41.
A subject checks the box that they have tattoos, the next step is to:
- A.
Cancel the study, tattoos are never allowed in the scanner
- B.
Wrap the tattoo in a cold compress and continue with the study
- C.
Nothing, tattoos are fine
- D.
Explain that in rare cases tattoos can tingle or burn and let them know if they are not comfortable in continuing they can back out of the study
Correct Answer
D. Explain that in rare cases tattoos can tingle or burn and let them know if they are not comfortable in continuing they can back out of the studyExplanation
Since there have been documented cases of tattoos burning the skin you must let them know there is a small chance of this. At that time they can back out of the study if they want. If they do feel a strange sensation during the scan have them squeeze the emergency ball as soon as possible and apply a cold compress to the area. The study is complete at this time.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The magnetic field is contained entirely in the center of the bore, it does not extend to the outside environment
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
All magnets have a fringe field that extends from the center of the magnet. Rooms are shielded as much as possible to contain this field but only people who have been cleared by the SCAN Center should be allowed in the controlled access areas of the center.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A research volunteer tells you they have been scanned many times for clinical reasons so there is no reason to re-evaluate this subject and they are cleared to enter the scanning room.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Implants and objects that are cleared for a 1.5T machine does not mean they are cleared for a 3T machine since it is twice the strength. Also some radiological exams resemble the MRI scanner, for example many times patients confuse MRI with CT.Rate this question:
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- 44.
FALSE regarding contrast radiography
- A.
Jejunum has feathery appearance
- B.
Ileum is featureless
- C.
Colon shows asymmetric haustrae.
- D.
Distal duodenum shows a cap like appearance
Correct Answer
D. Distal duodenum shows a cap like appearanceExplanation
The distal duodenum showing a cap-like appearance is false regarding contrast radiography. Contrast radiography is a diagnostic imaging technique that uses a contrast agent to visualize the gastrointestinal tract. In contrast radiography, the jejunum typically appears feathery due to its numerous circular folds called plicae circulares. The ileum, on the other hand, appears featureless as it lacks prominent circular folds. The colon shows asymmetric haustrae, which are pouch-like segments. However, the distal duodenum does not exhibit a cap-like appearance in contrast radiography.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which is NOT a pure beta emitter ?
- A.
Yttrium-90
- B.
Phosphorus-32
- C.
Strontium- 89
- D.
Samarium 135
Correct Answer
D. Samarium 135Explanation
Samarium 135 is not a pure beta emitter because it undergoes both beta decay and gamma decay. Beta decay involves the emission of beta particles (electrons or positrons) from the nucleus, while gamma decay involves the emission of gamma rays, which are high-energy photons. Yttrium-90, Phosphorus-32, and Strontium-89 are pure beta emitters as they only undergo beta decay without any accompanying gamma decay.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Protein loosing enteropathy is diagnosed by all EXCEPT
- A.
Tc 99 Sotisumab
- B.
Tc 99 Dextran
- C.
Tc 99 Albumin
- D.
In 111 Transferrin
Correct Answer
A. Tc 99 SotisumabExplanation
Protein-losing enteropathy is a condition characterized by the abnormal loss of protein from the intestines. It can be diagnosed using various imaging techniques and tests. Tc 99 Sotisumab is not used for the diagnosis of protein-losing enteropathy. Therefore, it is the correct answer as it is the exception among the given options.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Central Dot sign is seen in
- A.
Polycystic liver disease
- B.
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C.
Liver hamartoma
- D.
Caroli Disease
Correct Answer
D. Caroli DiseaseExplanation
The central dot sign is a radiological finding that is seen in Caroli Disease. Caroli Disease is a rare congenital disorder characterized by dilatation of the intrahepatic bile ducts. The central dot sign refers to a small central dot or linear density within a larger low-density lesion on imaging studies, such as ultrasound or CT scan. This sign is caused by the presence of a small central fibrous core within the dilated bile duct. Therefore, the correct answer is Caroli Disease.Rate this question:
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- 48.
All of the following are seen in left ventricular failure EXCEPT
- A.
Kerley B lines
- B.
Oligaemic lung fields
- C.
Increase pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
- D.
Increased vascularity in upper lobes
Correct Answer
B. Oligaemic lung fieldsExplanation
In left ventricular failure, there is an inadequate pumping of blood from the left ventricle, leading to a buildup of fluid in the lungs. This results in various characteristic findings on imaging. Kerley B lines are horizontal lines seen on chest X-rays, indicating fluid in the interlobular septa of the lungs. Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is a measure of the pressure in the left atrium and reflects fluid backup in the lungs. Increased vascularity in the upper lobes is a compensatory mechanism due to the redistribution of blood flow. Oligaemic lung fields, on the other hand, refer to decreased blood flow to the lungs, which is not typically seen in left ventricular failure.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Gold standard investigation for recurrent gastrointensinal stromal tumour is
- A.
MRI
- B.
MIBG
- C.
USG
- D.
PET
Correct Answer
D. PETExplanation
PET (Positron Emission Tomography) is considered the gold standard investigation for recurrent gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs). PET scans use a radioactive tracer to detect cellular activity and can identify areas of abnormal metabolic activity, helping to determine the presence and extent of recurrent tumors. This imaging technique is particularly useful in detecting small lesions, evaluating treatment response, and guiding further management decisions. MRI, MIBG, and USG are also imaging modalities used in the evaluation of GISTs, but PET has shown to be more accurate and sensitive in detecting recurrent disease.Rate this question:
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- 50.
USG gall bladder shows diffuse wall thickening with hyperechoic nodule at neck with comet tail artifacts. The most likely diagnosis is
- A.
Adenomyomatosis
- B.
Adenocarcinoma of gall bladder
- C.
Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis
- D.
Porcelain gall bladder
Correct Answer
A. AdenomyomatosisExplanation
The given ultrasound findings of diffuse wall thickening with a hyperechoic nodule at the neck, along with comet tail artifacts, are suggestive of adenomyomatosis. Adenomyomatosis is a benign condition characterized by hyperplastic changes in the gallbladder wall, resulting in the formation of small outpouchings called Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses. The hyperechoic nodule represents cholesterol deposits within these sinuses, and the comet tail artifacts are caused by the reflection of sound waves from the cholesterol crystals. Adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder would typically present with focal wall thickening and may have associated features such as gallbladder wall invasion or lymphadenopathy. Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis and porcelain gall bladder would also have distinct ultrasound findings.Rate this question:
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 05, 2015Quiz Created by
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