Radtech Simulation Examination 1

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1. Ultrasound or a Sonogram is generally described as a

Explanation

Ultrasound or a Sonogram is considered a safe test because it does not use mutagenic ionizing radiation. Unlike other imaging techniques such as X-rays or CT scans, ultrasound uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of the body. These sound waves are harmless and do not have the potential to cause DNA damage or mutations in cells. Therefore, ultrasound is a preferred imaging modality, especially for pregnant women and pediatric patients, as it poses no known risks or harmful effects.

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About This Quiz
Radtech Simulation Examination 1 - Quiz

This is your Radtech Simulation 1 for HAAD and other Gulf Exams.
The questions here are encountered last month based on feed backs from Gulf Countries.
You would... see morebe given 120 minutes to answer 100 items.
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2. Who discovered the x ray?

Explanation

W.C. Roentgen is credited with the discovery of X-rays. In 1895, while experimenting with cathode rays, he noticed a fluorescent screen in his lab was glowing even though it was not directly exposed to the cathode rays. He concluded that a new type of ray was being emitted, which he named X-rays. Roentgen's discovery revolutionized the field of medicine and had numerous applications in various industries.

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3. What is a Fluoroscopy?

Explanation

Fluoroscopy is a medical imaging technique that uses continuous X-ray to provide real-time images of the tissues and deep structures of the body. It allows healthcare professionals to visualize the movement and function of organs, muscles, and other structures. This technique is commonly used in procedures such as angiography, barium studies, and orthopedic surgeries. It provides valuable information for diagnosing and monitoring various conditions and guiding medical interventions.

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4. A screening mammogram is

Explanation

A screening mammogram is a test that is performed to check for breast cancer in women who do not have any signs or symptoms of the disease. It involves taking 5 X-rays of each breast. It is not done after a diagnostic mammogram and is typically performed by a radiologist or a mammography technologist, not an ultrasound technologist.

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5. X rays were discovered in 1895 by W. C. Roentgen, who called them X rays because their nature was at first unknown; they are sometimes also called Roentgen, or Röntgen, rays.

Explanation

X rays were indeed discovered in 1895 by W. C. Roentgen, who named them X rays because their nature was initially unknown. They are also commonly referred to as Roentgen or Röntgen rays. Therefore, the statement "X rays were discovered in 1895 by W. C. Roentgen" is true.

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6. An MRA is different than an MRI because

Explanation

An MRA (Magnetic Resonance Angiography) is different from an MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) because it specifically focuses on highlighting and evaluating the arteries in the body, including those in the brain, neck, chest, and abdomen. While an MRI can also capture images of arteries, it is not specifically designed for this purpose. Additionally, an MRI can show the movement of blood flow, whereas an MRA does not provide this information.

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7. An "unseen" image is called a(an)

Explanation

A latent image refers to an "unseen" image that is formed on a photosensitive surface, such as film or a digital sensor, after exposure to radiation. This image is not immediately visible and requires further processing, such as development or digital processing, to become visible. Therefore, the term "latent image" accurately describes an "unseen" image.

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8. The x-ray tube is surrounded by a lead-lined _________________

Explanation

The x-ray tube is surrounded by a lead-lined tube housing to protect the surrounding environment from radiation exposure. The lead lining helps to absorb and block the radiation emitted by the x-ray tube, preventing it from escaping and potentially harming people nearby. The tube housing acts as a protective barrier, ensuring that the radiation remains contained within the x-ray machine and does not pose a risk to patients, healthcare professionals, or anyone else in the vicinity.

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9. PET stands for:

Explanation

Positron Emission Tomography (PET) is a medical imaging technique that uses radioactive tracers to detect and measure metabolic activity in the body. It is commonly used in the diagnosis and monitoring of various diseases, including cancer, neurological disorders, and cardiovascular conditions. PET scans provide detailed images of the body's organs and tissues, allowing doctors to identify abnormalities and assess the effectiveness of treatments. The use of positron-emitting radionuclides distinguishes PET from other imaging modalities and enables the visualization of metabolic processes in real-time.

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10. The table may also tilt in the opposite direction, allowing the head end to be lowered at least 15 degrees into the ____________________________ position.

Explanation

The trendelenburg position refers to a position in which the head end of the table is lowered while the feet end is raised. This position allows for the head to be tilted at least 15 degrees below the horizontal level. Therefore, the correct answer is trendelenburg.

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11. The cathode is a filament composed of

Explanation

Tungsten is the correct answer because it is commonly used as the filament in cathodes. Tungsten has a high melting point and excellent electrical conductivity, making it ideal for this purpose. It can withstand the high temperatures required for electron emission in cathode-ray tubes and other similar devices. Gold, silver, and copper are not typically used as filaments in cathodes due to their lower melting points and inferior electrical properties.

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12. A device to hold the film

Explanation

The correct answer is "cassette". A cassette is a device used to hold the film in medical imaging. It is a container that securely holds the film and protects it from damage. The cassette is designed to fit into the bucky, which is a tray that holds the cassette in place during the imaging process. The cassette also houses the tube, which is the part of the imaging machine that emits the radiation, and the collimator, which controls the direction and shape of the radiation beam. Overall, the cassette is an essential component in medical imaging as it ensures the proper positioning and protection of the film.

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13. Proper collimation for the film size and target film distance will

Explanation

Proper collimation for the film size and target film distance will decrease the radiation received by the patient. Collimation refers to the process of restricting the size of the X-ray beam to only the area of interest. By properly collimating the X-ray beam, unnecessary radiation exposure to the patient can be minimized. This is important for patient safety and reducing the risk of radiation-related complications. Therefore, decreasing the radiation received by the patient is the correct answer in this case.

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14. An older term given x radiation  in honor of its discoverer

Explanation

The correct answer is "roentgen ray." This term was given to x radiation in honor of its discoverer, Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen. Roentgen ray is an older term used to describe this type of radiation. X ray, gamma ray, and scattered ray are not specifically associated with Roentgen and therefore are not the correct answer.

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15. You have taken a radiograph of a patient with a large skeletal build . the resulting image does not show the bone trabeculation well and appers to underpenetrated. the adjustment that should be made for the retake is

Explanation

The radiograph of a patient with a large skeletal build appears to be underpenetrated, meaning that the X-ray beam did not penetrate the patient's body adequately. To address this issue, the adjustment that should be made is to increase the kvp (kilovoltage peak). Increasing the kvp will increase the energy of the X-ray beam, allowing it to better penetrate the patient's body and produce a clearer image of the bone trabeculation.

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16. The portion of the target struck by electrons is called the

Explanation

The correct answer is "focal spot". In radiology, when electrons strike the target, the area where the electrons are concentrated is called the focal spot. This spot is responsible for generating the X-ray beam that is used in imaging. The size and shape of the focal spot can affect the resolution and clarity of the resulting image. Therefore, it is crucial to have a well-defined and precise focal spot for accurate diagnoses.

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17. Collimation of the primary beam

Explanation

The collimation of the primary beam refers to the process of restricting the shape and size of the beam. By doing so, it ensures that only the desired area is exposed to radiation, while minimizing unnecessary exposure to surrounding tissues. This not only helps in obtaining a clear and focused radiograph but also reduces the scatter radiation, leading to improved contrast in the final image. Therefore, the statement "restricts the shape and size of the beam" is the correct explanation for the given answer.

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18. A moving grid is called a

Explanation

A moving grid is called a Bucky.

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19. The source of x-rays is the

Explanation

An x-ray tube is a device that generates x-rays by accelerating electrons towards a metal target. When the electrons hit the target, they produce x-rays through a process called bremsstrahlung radiation. Therefore, the x-ray tube is the source of x-rays in medical imaging.

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20. Who introduced the hot cathode tube?

Explanation

W.D. Coolidge is credited with introducing the hot cathode tube.

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21. Filters are used in the xray beam to

Explanation

Filters are used in the x-ray beam to reduce patient radiation dose. X-ray filters are typically made of materials that absorb low-energy x-rays while allowing higher-energy x-rays to pass through. By selectively absorbing the lower-energy x-rays, filters help to reduce the amount of radiation that reaches the patient, thereby minimizing the potential harmful effects of radiation exposure. This is particularly important in medical imaging, where it is crucial to balance the need for clear images with the need to minimize radiation dose to ensure patient safety.

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22. An imaginary line in the center of the x-ray beam and perpendicular to the long axis of the x-ray tube is called

Explanation

The central ray is an imaginary line in the center of the x-ray beam that is perpendicular to the long axis of the x-ray tube. It represents the central path of the x-ray beam and is used to determine the direction and alignment of the x-ray beam during imaging procedures. It is an important concept in radiography as it helps ensure accurate and consistent positioning of the x-ray beam for optimal image quality and patient safety.

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23. When were x rays discovered?

Explanation

X-rays were discovered in 1895. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen, a German physicist, accidentally discovered X-rays while experimenting with cathode rays. He noticed that a fluorescent screen in his lab started to glow even though it was not directly exposed to cathode rays. Further investigation revealed that a new type of ray was being emitted, which he called X-rays. This discovery revolutionized the field of medicine and led to significant advancements in imaging technology.

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24. A PET Scan can distinguish between a benign and malignant disorder (between deal or alive tissue)

Explanation

A PET scan, or Positron Emission Tomography scan, is a medical imaging technique that can help distinguish between benign and malignant disorders. This is because PET scans can detect metabolic activity in tissues, allowing doctors to identify areas of abnormal cell growth or activity. By analyzing the patterns of metabolic activity, medical professionals can determine whether the tissue is benign (non-cancerous) or malignant (cancerous). Therefore, it is true that a PET scan can differentiate between a benign and malignant disorder.

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25. A Bone Density Test looks for

Explanation

A Bone Density Test is a medical procedure used to determine the density or strength of a person's bones. It is primarily done to diagnose osteoporosis or assess the risk of developing osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, making them more prone to fractures. By measuring bone density, the test can identify if a person has osteoporosis or is at risk of developing it. The test does not look for broken bones or abnormal bone growth; its main focus is on assessing bone density and the associated risk of osteoporosis.

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26. What is a  breast sterotactic biopsy?

Explanation

The correct answer is that a breast stereotactic biopsy is a special mammography procedure that uses ionizing radiation to help guide the radiologist's instruments to the site of the abnormal growth. This means that the procedure involves using mammography images and radiation to accurately locate and biopsy abnormal growth in the breast. It is not performed on an MRI machine and does not involve ultrasound or X-ray technologists.

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27. You are asked to schedule a patient for a scan that requires contrast. In the history you learn that the patient just received a Kidney Transplant. The next step, is to ask for blood work.

Explanation

After learning that the patient just received a kidney transplant, it is important to ask for blood work before scheduling the scan that requires contrast. This is because contrast agents used in scans can potentially cause kidney damage, and in the case of a recent kidney transplant, it is crucial to ensure that the patient's kidney function is stable and can tolerate the contrast. Therefore, asking for blood work is necessary to assess the patient's kidney function and determine if it is safe to proceed with the scan.

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28. X-rays are produced when fast moving electrons collide with a metal target. The energy carried in the electrons is converted to x-rays and heat. What percentage of that energy is turned into x-rays?

Explanation

When fast moving electrons collide with a metal target, the energy they carry is converted into x-rays and heat. Out of that energy, only 1% is turned into x-rays.

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29. The access point for the limited operator to set the exposure factors and to initiate the exposure

Explanation

The correct answer is control console. The control console is the access point for the limited operator to set the exposure factors and initiate the exposure. It is the central control panel where the operator can adjust and manipulate various settings and parameters related to the exposure process. The control console allows the operator to have direct control and oversight over the exposure, making it the most appropriate choice among the given options.

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30. The ______________ exits the tube port.

Explanation

The x-ray beam exits the tube port. This means that after being generated in the x-ray tube, the beam of x-rays passes through the tube port, which is the opening in the x-ray machine where the x-rays are emitted. The x-ray beam then continues on its path to interact with the patient or the imaging receptor.

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31. If you do have to obtain blood work, the two values that you are most interested in knowing are...

Explanation

BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine are two values that are commonly measured in blood work to assess kidney function. BUN is a waste product that is filtered by the kidneys, and an elevated level may indicate kidney dysfunction. Creatinine is a waste product produced by muscles and is also filtered by the kidneys. An elevated creatinine level can be a sign of impaired kidney function. Therefore, monitoring these two values can provide important information about the health of the kidneys.

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32. Sometimes called filmless systems

Explanation

Computed radiography (CR) is a type of medical imaging technique that uses a flexible plate coated with a photostimulable phosphor. When exposed to x-rays, the phosphor stores the energy from the radiation. The plate is then processed using a laser scanner, which releases the stored energy as light. This light is converted into a digital image that can be viewed on a computer screen. CR is often referred to as filmless because it eliminates the need for traditional x-ray film. It is commonly used in conjunction with other imaging modalities like CT, MRI, and CAT scan to provide detailed and accurate diagnostic images.

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33. A device to hold the IR in the upright position for radiography

Explanation

An upright cassette holder is a device used in radiography to hold the image receptor (IR) in an upright position. This allows for the capture of X-ray images while the patient is standing or sitting. The cassette, which contains the IR, is placed in the upright cassette holder, ensuring that it remains stable and properly aligned during the imaging process. The Bucky, on the other hand, refers to a device that is used to hold and move the cassette during radiography, but it does not specifically refer to holding the IR in an upright position.

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34. The unwanted image exposure caused by scatter radiation is called

Explanation

Scatter radiation fog refers to the unwanted image exposure caused by scatter radiation. Scatter radiation occurs when radiation is deflected or scattered in different directions after interacting with matter, such as the patient's body. This scattered radiation can reach the image receptor and cause fogging, resulting in a decrease in image contrast and clarity. Therefore, the correct answer is scatter radiation fog.

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35.
   This modality allows for evaluation of abdominal pain or nausea and vomiting. Indicated for bowel obstruction, viscus perforation and foreign body ingestion, it is usually the initial evaluation of abdominal pain or nausea and vomiting:
a. Enteroscopy
b. Video Esophogram
c. Plain abdominal film

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Plain abdominal film. This modality, also known as an abdominal X-ray, is commonly used as the initial evaluation for abdominal pain or symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. It can help identify bowel obstruction, viscus perforation, and foreign body ingestion. Enteroscopy and video esophogram are not typically used for the initial evaluation of these symptoms.

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36. A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showd an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the most likely diagnosis for the patient's symptoms is a meningioma. Meningiomas are typically extra-axial, meaning they occur outside of the brain tissue itself. They are dural based, meaning they originate from the meninges, the protective covering of the brain. Meningiomas also commonly enhance on MRI scans, which is consistent with the enhancing lesion seen in this patient. Gliomas, schwannomas, and pituitary adenomas are less likely based on the given information.

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37. Absorption of the x-ray beam is called

Explanation

Attenuation refers to the process of reducing the intensity of a beam of x-rays as it passes through a material. When an x-ray beam encounters a substance, some of the x-rays are absorbed by the material, while others may be scattered or pass through unaffected. However, in this case, the term "absorption" specifically refers to the phenomenon of the x-ray beam being absorbed by the material it encounters. Therefore, "attenuation" is the correct answer to describe the absorption of the x-ray beam.

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38. In taking the radiograph you did not center the beam on the film in the patient mouth. the resulting film will show

Explanation

If the radiograph was taken without centering the beam on the film in the patient's mouth, it means that the collimator cutoff occurred. This happens when the collimator, which controls the size and shape of the x-ray beam, cuts off a portion of the beam resulting in an incomplete exposure on the film. Therefore, the resulting film will show collimator cutoff cone cutting, which refers to the appearance of a truncated cone shape on the film.

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39. The milliampere control dial on the dental x ray mchine

Explanation

The milliampere control dial on the dental x-ray machine regulates the quantity of the radiation. This means that by adjusting the dial, the operator can control the amount of radiation that is emitted during the x-ray procedure. This is important because different patients may require different levels of radiation exposure based on their specific needs. By regulating the quantity of radiation, the operator can ensure that the patient receives the appropriate amount for accurate imaging while minimizing unnecessary exposure.

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40. A Mammography is a

Explanation

Mammography is a type of imaging technique that uses X-rays to examine the breasts. It is commonly used for breast cancer screening and can detect early signs of abnormalities such as tumors or cysts. Unlike CT scans or MRIs, which provide more detailed images of the internal structures, mammography focuses specifically on the breast tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is X-ray of the Breast.

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41.
1)   This modality is used for bowel cleansing and requires sedation . CAN VISUALIZE ENTIRE LARGE BOWEL AND SEVERAL CM OF TERMINAL ILEUM
  a. Colonoscopy
  b. Sigmoidoscopy
  c. Video capsule endoscopy
     

Explanation

Colonoscopy is the correct answer because it is a modality used for bowel cleansing and requires sedation. It allows visualization of the entire large bowel and several centimeters of the terminal ileum. Sigmoidoscopy only visualizes the sigmoid colon and rectum, while video capsule endoscopy involves swallowing a small camera to visualize the small intestine. Therefore, colonoscopy is the most appropriate option for visualizing the entire large bowel and terminal ileum.

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42. Radiation that is scattered or created as a result of the attenuation of the primary x-ray beam by matter.

Explanation

Scatter radiation refers to the radiation that is scattered or created when the primary x-ray beam is attenuated by matter. This means that when the primary x-ray beam interacts with an object, some of the radiation is scattered in different directions. Scatter radiation can cause a phenomenon known as scatter radiation fog, which can reduce image quality and clarity. Therefore, the correct answer is scatter radiation.

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43.
3)   The following indications are for which of the following modalities: Obstructive jaundice,Neoplastic biliary stricture, spincter of oddi pressure.
  a. MRA
  b. ERCP
  c. EGD
 

Explanation

The correct answer is B) ERCP. ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography) is a procedure used to diagnose and treat conditions of the bile ducts and pancreas. It is commonly used to investigate and treat obstructive jaundice and neoplastic biliary strictures by visualizing the biliary system and obtaining tissue samples. It can also measure the pressure of the sphincter of Oddi, which is the muscle that controls the flow of bile and pancreatic juices into the small intestine. MRA (Magnetic Resonance Angiography) and EGD (Esophagogastroduodenoscopy) are not indicated for these conditions.

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44.
4)   This contrast study uses fluoroscopy and is used to detect esophageal rings, webs, strictures, motility problems that endoscopy might miss. Very useful for evaluating nonoropharangeal dysphagia as well as Odynophagia.
  a. Barium Swallow/Esophagram
  b. CT scan
  c. Video Esophagram
  d. None of the above

Explanation

This question is asking for the correct test to detect esophageal rings, webs, strictures, and motility problems that endoscopy might miss. The given answer, A) Barium Swallow/Esophagram, is the correct option because this test uses fluoroscopy to visualize the esophagus and detect any abnormalities. It is particularly useful for evaluating nonoropharyngeal dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) and Odynophagia (painful swallowing). CT scan (B) and Video Esophagram (C) are not specifically used for this purpose, and option D) None of the above is incorrect because there is a specific test available for this condition.

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45.
  This imaging modality is often the first preliminary test done for evaluating abdominal pain or nausea and vomiting and is indicated when patient is suspected to have bowel obstruction, viscus perforation, foreign body ingestion, abdominal trauma, suspected obstrion/ileus and abdominal distension
a. Liver Hemangioma liver scan
b. Cholescintigraphy
c. Plain abdominal film
d. Both B & C

Explanation

The correct answer is C, Plain abdominal film. This imaging modality, also known as an X-ray, is often the first preliminary test done for evaluating abdominal pain or nausea and vomiting. It is indicated when a patient is suspected to have bowel obstruction, viscus perforation, foreign body ingestion, abdominal trauma, suspected obstruction/ileus, and abdominal distension.

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46. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?

Explanation

Areas of spiculated microcalcifications on a mammogram suggest malignancy because they are a characteristic feature of breast cancer. Spiculated microcalcifications appear as small, irregular, and linear clusters of calcium deposits in the breast tissue. These calcifications can indicate the presence of a tumor or precancerous cells. The spiculated appearance indicates that the tumor or lesion has irregular and jagged borders, which is often associated with aggressive and invasive types of breast cancer. Therefore, the presence of spiculated microcalcifications is concerning for malignancy and warrants further evaluation.

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47. Absorbed dose is the energy deposited in a small volume of matter (tissue) by the radiation beam passing through the matter divided by the mass of the matter. What unit, in the International System of quantities and units, is Absorbed Dose measured in?

Explanation

Absorbed dose is measured in joules/kilogram, and a quantity of 1 joule/kilogram has the special unit of gray (Gy) in the International System of quantities and units. (In terms of the older system of radiation quantities and units previously used, 1 Gy equals 100 rad, or 1mGy equals 0.1 rad.)

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48. Absorbed dose is the energy deposited in a small volume of matter (tissue) by the radiation beam passing through the matter divided by the mass of the matter. What unit, in the International System of quantities and units, is Absorbed Dose measured in?

Explanation

Absorbed dose is measured in joules/kilogram, and a quantity of 1 joule/kilogram has the special unit of gray (Gy) in the International System of quantities and units. (In terms of the older system of radiation quantities and units previously used, 1 Gy equals 100 rad, or 1mGy equals 0.1 rad.)

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49. The lead diaphagm determines the size and shape of the

Explanation

The lead diaphragm determines the size and shape of the x-ray beam. The lead diaphragm is a device that is used to control the size and shape of the x-ray beam by limiting the radiation to a specific area of the patient's body. By adjusting the position and size of the lead diaphragm, the radiographer can ensure that only the desired area is exposed to radiation, reducing unnecessary exposure to other parts of the body. Therefore, the lead diaphragm plays a crucial role in determining the size and shape of the x-ray beam.

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50. The x-ray beam that exits on the opposite side of the patient.

Explanation

Remnant radiation refers to the x-ray beam that exits on the opposite side of the patient after passing through the body. This radiation is produced by the interaction of the x-rays with the patient's tissues. It is called "remnant" because it is the portion of the original x-ray beam that remains after being attenuated by the patient's body. This remnant radiation can contribute to scatter radiation, which is the scattered x-rays that can cause fogging on the radiographic image. Therefore, remnant radiation is the correct answer in this context.

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51. Who is believed to have exposed the prototype of the first dental x ray film?

Explanation

Otto Walkhoff is believed to have exposed the prototype of the first dental x-ray film.

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52.
4)   This modality is used to study the distal esophagus, stomach and duodenum and is indicated for abdominal pain and suspected gastric outlet obstruction
  a. EGD
  b. Upper GI series
  c. Video capsule endoscopy
  d. A & B

Explanation

Upper GI series is the correct answer because it is a modality used to study the distal esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. It is indicated for abdominal pain and suspected gastric outlet obstruction. EGD (esophagogastroduodenoscopy) is a different procedure that involves inserting a flexible tube with a camera into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Video capsule endoscopy is a procedure where a small camera is swallowed and takes pictures of the digestive tract. A & B is incorrect because video capsule endoscopy is not included in the options.

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53. Who is given credit for suggesting the paralleling technique?

Explanation

McCormick is given credit for suggesting the paralleling technique.

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54.
5)   This contrast type allows for visualization of more subtle findings such as small uclerations and polyps
  a. Single contrast
  b. Double contrast
  c. Triple contrast
  d. No contrast

Explanation

The correct answer is B, Double contrast. Double contrast imaging involves the use of both a positive contrast agent (such as barium) and a negative contrast agent (such as air or carbon dioxide gas) to enhance visualization of the gastrointestinal tract. This technique allows for better detection of subtle findings such as small ulcers and polyps.

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55. Xrays are made up of

Explanation

X-rays are made up of photons. Photons are particles of electromagnetic radiation that have no mass and carry energy. When high-energy electrons interact with matter, they can produce X-ray photons through a process called bremsstrahlung radiation. These photons have a shorter wavelength and higher energy than visible light, allowing them to penetrate through tissues and create images of bones and internal structures. Therefore, photons are the correct answer for what X-rays are made up of.

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56. The radiation inspector comes to your office and tells you that your x ray beam has an hvl of 1.00mm of aluminum you should

Explanation

The correct answer is "be concerned because of the unnecessary secondary radiation to your patients." This is because an HVL (Half-Value Layer) of 1.00mm of aluminum indicates that the x-ray beam is too penetrating and may result in excessive secondary radiation exposure to patients. Therefore, it is important to be concerned about the potential harm caused to patients and take appropriate measures to reduce the unnecessary radiation.

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57. Anatomic structures that have greater ______ density (mass), such as bone.

Explanation

Anatomic structures that have greater tissue density (mass), such as bone, are referring to structures in the body that have a higher concentration of tissue. Tissue refers to a group of cells that work together to perform a specific function. In this context, bone is an example of an anatomic structure with greater tissue density because it is made up of specialized cells and extracellular matrix that give it its strength and density.

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58.
This modality is the Gold standard of assessment and diagnosis of Acute Abdomen and it is used to rule out acute pancreatitis, appendicitis, SBO and Colitis.
MRCP
Abdominal CT
Upper GI series
Lower GI series

Explanation

Abdominal CT is the correct answer because it is considered the gold standard for assessing and diagnosing acute abdomen. It is used to rule out conditions such as acute pancreatitis, appendicitis, small bowel obstruction (SBO), and colitis. CT scans provide detailed images of the abdomen, allowing for a more accurate diagnosis compared to other modalities such as MRCP, upper GI series, and lower GI series.

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59.
4)   This imaging modality is useful in the diagnosis of Achalasia as it appears as a distinct 'Birds Beak' at the distal esophagus.
  a. Enteroscopy
  b. Upper GI series
  c. Barium Esophagogram
  d. ERCP

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Barium Esophagogram. This imaging modality, also known as a barium swallow, is commonly used to diagnose Achalasia. Achalasia is a condition where the muscles of the esophagus do not properly relax, causing difficulty in swallowing. On a barium esophagogram, Achalasia appears as a distinct "Birds Beak" at the distal esophagus, which is a characteristic finding for this condition. Enteroscopy, upper GI series, and ERCP are not typically used for the diagnosis of Achalasia.

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60. On MRI the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:

Explanation

Myelomalacia is the correct answer because it refers to the softening or degeneration of the spinal cord, which can be seen on MRI as edema. Myelodysplasia, myeloschisis, and cord tumors are not specifically related to spinal cord edema.

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61. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:

Explanation

Plethoric lung fields are seen in conditions which increase pulmonary blood flow. They are:
Left to right shunt – ASD, VSD, PDA, Coronary artery fistula into right heart, Aortopulmonary window
Transposition of great arteries with ASD or VSD
Truncus arteriosus
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection

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62.
  This modality produces high resolution images of the bowel wall revealing distinct layers such as: Mediastinum, pancreas, liver, gall bladder and mesenteric vessels.  Used in Fine needle aspirations:
a. EGD
b. Endoscopic US
c. Angiogram

Explanation

Endoscopic US (EUS) is the correct answer. EUS is a modality that combines endoscopy and ultrasound to produce high-resolution images of the gastrointestinal tract. It can visualize the distinct layers of the bowel wall and is commonly used for fine needle aspirations (FNA) to obtain tissue samples for diagnosis. EGD (esophagogastroduodenoscopy) is a different procedure that examines the upper gastrointestinal tract, while an angiogram is a test that visualizes blood vessels using contrast dye.

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63.
4)   This imaging modality is usefull in evaluating vascular leaks, aneurysms and bowel infarctions
  a. CT angiograms
  b. CT enterography
  c. Abdominal CT
  d. MRA

Explanation

CT angiograms are the most appropriate imaging modality for evaluating vascular leaks, aneurysms, and bowel infarctions. CT angiograms use a combination of computed tomography (CT) and angiography techniques to visualize the blood vessels and detect any abnormalities or blockages. This imaging technique provides detailed and accurate images of the blood vessels, making it a valuable tool in diagnosing and evaluating these conditions. CT enterography, abdominal CT, and MRA may also provide some information, but they are not specifically designed for evaluating vascular leaks, aneurysms, and bowel infarctions like CT angiograms.

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64. The cross section of the x-ray beam at the point where it is used is called the

Explanation

The cross section of the x-ray beam at the point where it is used is called the radiation field. This refers to the area or region where the x-ray beam is present and can have an effect. It is important to define and understand the radiation field in order to ensure proper safety measures and accurate dosages when working with x-ray equipment.

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65. X-rays that are traveling in a useful direction exit the housing through an opening called the _________________

Explanation

The correct answer is tube port. The tube port is the opening in the housing of an X-ray machine through which the X-rays that are traveling in a useful direction exit. This allows the X-rays to be directed towards the target area or patient. The tube port is an essential component that helps to control and direct the X-ray beam.

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66. Who designed the "long cone" to use with the paralleling technique?

Explanation

G.M. Fitzgerald is the designer of the "long cone" used with the paralleling technique.

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67. Who is considered to be the first advocate for the science of ratiation protection?

Explanation

W. Rollins is considered to be the first advocate for the science of radiation protection.

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68. Who is given credit for suggesting the bisecting technique?

Explanation

Cieszynski is given credit for suggesting the bisecting technique.

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69. Which diagnostic scan gives some of the highest radiation doses in diagnostic radiography?

Explanation

CT scan gives some of the highest radiation doses in diagnostic radiography. This is because CT scans use X-rays to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body. X-rays are a form of ionizing radiation, which can cause damage to cells and DNA. The high dose of radiation used in CT scans is necessary to obtain clear and detailed images, but it also poses a higher risk of radiation exposure compared to other diagnostic scans such as ultrasound or MRI scans, which do not use ionizing radiation. Fluoroscopy scans also use X-rays, but they typically have lower radiation doses compared to CT scans.

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70. Where on a dog are the retroarticular foramen and hypoglossal canal located?

Explanation

The retroarticular foramen and hypoglossal canal are located on the skull of a dog. These structures are important for the passage of nerves and blood vessels. The retroarticular foramen is a hole located behind the jaw joint, allowing the passage of nerves and blood vessels to the muscles of the jaw. The hypoglossal canal is a canal located in the base of the skull, through which the hypoglossal nerve passes to innervate the muscles of the tongue.

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71. Most chemoresistant tumors among the following is

Explanation

Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most chemoresistant tumor among the given options. Chemoresistance refers to the ability of a tumor to resist the effects of chemotherapy drugs. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is known to have a poor response to chemotherapy, making it difficult to treat. This resistance may be due to various factors, including the tumor's genetic makeup and its ability to repair DNA damage caused by chemotherapy drugs.

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72.
4)   This imaging modality allows for visualization of the colonic lumen and is very sensitive for detecting polyps, it is also used in the setting of an incomplete endoscopic colonoscopy
  a. MRCP
  b. CT Colography (virtual Colonoscopy)
  c. CT enterography
  d. Colonoscopy

Explanation

CT Colography (virtual Colonoscopy) is the correct answer because it is an imaging modality that allows for visualization of the colonic lumen and is very sensitive for detecting polyps. It is also used in the setting of an incomplete endoscopic colonoscopy.

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73.
4)   This invasive imaging tool allows for the visualization of the vessel lumen and is used in evaluating mesenteric vessels in GI bleeding and Mesenteric Ischemia.  Sensitive to detect 1 to 1.5ml per min of blood loss
  a. MRA
  b. MRI
  c. CT angiography
  d. Visceral Angiography

Explanation

Visceral angiography is the correct answer because it is an invasive imaging tool that allows for the visualization of the vessel lumen and is commonly used in evaluating mesenteric vessels in GI bleeding and Mesenteric Ischemia. It is also sensitive enough to detect 1 to 1.5ml per min of blood loss. MRA (Magnetic Resonance Angiography), MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging), and CT angiography are non-invasive imaging techniques and do not involve the injection of contrast dye into the blood vessels. Therefore, they are not suitable options for evaluating mesenteric vessels in cases of GI bleeding and Mesenteric Ischemia.

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74.
  Tc Pertechnetate has a high affinity for gastric mucosa and allows visualization of this specific pathology that is difficult to see with standard endoscopic  and radiographic imaging
a. Erosive esophagitis
b. Duodenal Ulcer
c. Meckels Diverticulum
d. Gastric Ulcer

Explanation

Tc Pertechnetate is a radioactive tracer that is used in nuclear medicine imaging. It has a high affinity for gastric mucosa, which means it binds to the cells in the stomach lining. This allows for the visualization of specific pathologies, such as Meckel's diverticulum, that may be difficult to see with standard endoscopic and radiographic imaging techniques. Therefore, the correct answer is C) Meckel's Diverticulum.

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75. The glucose based radiopharmaceutical contrast that is injected into the patient is known as:

Explanation

FDG stands for Fluorodeoxyglucose, which is a glucose-based radiopharmaceutical contrast agent. It is used in medical imaging, particularly in positron emission tomography (PET) scans, to visualize and detect metabolic activity in the body. FDG is injected into the patient and is taken up by cells in the body, particularly in areas with high glucose metabolism such as cancer cells. The radioactive properties of FDG allow it to emit signals that can be detected by the PET scanner, enabling the visualization of abnormal tissues or diseases.

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76. A special mechanism that tends to stop a moving part in a specifi c location

Explanation

A detent is a special mechanism that tends to stop a moving part in a specific location. It provides a locking or holding function to prevent unintentional movement or displacement. In the context of the question, the detent is likely used in a device or equipment such as a collimator, cassette, or tube housing to ensure that a particular part or component remains in a fixed position.

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77. Milliamperage controls

Explanation

Milliamperage controls the amount of current flowing through the X-ray tube. As the current passes through the cathode, it heats up, causing the emission of electrons. These electrons then move from the cathode to the anode, where they collide with the target material, resulting in the production of X-rays. Therefore, the correct answer is heating of the cathode.

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78. The dental x ray machine in your office operates at 90kvp and thus is required to have a total filtration of

Explanation

The correct answer is 2.5mm of aluminum. The total filtration required for a dental x-ray machine operating at 90kvp is determined by the energy level of the x-rays being produced. Higher energy x-rays require more filtration to remove low-energy photons and ensure a safe and effective imaging process. In this case, 2.5mm of aluminum is the appropriate level of filtration to achieve the desired energy level for dental x-rays.

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79. Bone scan of a patient with Multiple Myeloma shows

Explanation

The correct answer is "Cold spots". In the context of a bone scan, cold spots refer to areas of decreased uptake of the radioactive tracer. In the case of a patient with Multiple Myeloma, cold spots may indicate areas of decreased bone density or bone destruction, which are common features of this disease. These cold spots can be visualized on the scan as dark areas, contrasting with the surrounding areas of normal or increased uptake.

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80.
4)   CT enteroclysis and enterography are modalities used to evaluate what
  a. Large intestine
  b. Rectum
  c. Esophagus
  d. Small intestine

Explanation

CT enteroclysis and enterography are modalities used to evaluate the small intestine. These imaging techniques involve the use of a contrast agent to visualize the small intestine and identify any abnormalities or diseases. The correct answer is D.

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81.
4)   Allows you to visualize blood vessels and evaluate patients with suspected Mesenteric Ischemia
  a. MRI
  b. MRICP
  c. MRA
  d. All of the above

Explanation

MRA stands for Magnetic Resonance Angiography, which is a medical imaging technique used to visualize blood vessels. It is commonly used to evaluate patients with suspected Mesenteric Ischemia, a condition where there is reduced blood flow to the intestines. MRA can provide detailed images of the blood vessels in the mesentery, allowing for accurate diagnosis and treatment planning. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

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82. Most common hormone deficiency seen after intracranial radiation therapy?

Explanation

After intracranial radiation therapy, the most common hormone deficiency observed is the deficiency of growth hormone. This is because radiation therapy can damage the cells in the pituitary gland, leading to a decrease in the production of growth hormone. Growth hormone deficiency can result in growth retardation, delayed puberty, decreased muscle mass, and other symptoms associated with growth hormone deficiency.

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83.
4)   This imaging modality is the MRI of the biliary and pancreatic ducts and fails to visualize small bile duct stones less than 4 mm
  a. MRI of abdomen
  b. MRCP
  c. MRA
  d. MRSB

Explanation

The correct answer is MRCP. MRCP stands for Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatography, which is an imaging modality specifically designed to visualize the biliary and pancreatic ducts. It is able to detect larger bile duct stones, but it may not be able to visualize small bile duct stones that are less than 4 mm in size. Therefore, MRCP is the most appropriate option for the given statement.

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84.
4)   The first imaging study obtained in evaluation of suspected biliary colic, jaundice and abnormal liver tests, it is also used to guide needle placement for biopsy or fluid aspiration
  a. MRA
  b. Transabdominal Ultrasound
  c. Edoscopy Ultrasound
  d. Abdominal CT

Explanation

Transabdominal ultrasound is the correct answer because it is the first imaging study obtained in the evaluation of suspected biliary colic, jaundice, and abnormal liver tests. It is also used to guide needle placement for biopsy or fluid aspiration. MRA, edoscopy ultrasound, and abdominal CT are not typically the first imaging studies used for these purposes.

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85.
4)   TC sulfur colloid and RBC scanning are done before angiography to asses what?
  a. GERD
  b. Hiatal Hernias
  c. GI bleeding
  d. All of the above

Explanation

TC sulfur colloid and RBC scanning are done before angiography to assess GI bleeding. This is because these scans can help identify the source and location of gastrointestinal bleeding, allowing for more targeted angiography procedures to be performed.

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86. The best way to describe the penetration of an x ray beam is by its

Explanation

The half value layer is the best way to describe the penetration of an x-ray beam. It represents the thickness of a material required to reduce the intensity of the beam by half. This measurement is important in determining the effectiveness and safety of x-ray procedures, as it helps determine the appropriate amount of radiation needed for imaging while minimizing unnecessary exposure to patients and healthcare professionals.

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87. This area is separated from the x-ray room by a lead barrier to protect the limited operator from scatter radiation during exposures.

Explanation

The area that is separated from the x-ray room by a lead barrier to protect the limited operator from scatter radiation during exposures is called the control booth. This booth provides a safe space for the operator to control the x-ray machine and monitor the imaging process without being exposed to harmful radiation.

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88. Some veterinary DR x-ray camera systems can lose image quality fairly quickly. The image quality of these CCD (Charged Coupled Device) digital x-ray systems is effected over time by all of the following EXCEPT...

Explanation

The image quality of veterinary DR x-ray camera systems can deteriorate over time due to various factors. Moving parts, condensation, and temperature can all have an impact on the image quality. However, room lighting does not affect the image quality of these CCD digital x-ray systems.

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89.
  This modality allows for visualization of the jejunum & ileum and is indicated for suspected small bowel obstruction or partial obstruction from any cause, Crohns disease and Obscure GI loss
a. Upper GI series
b. CT enterography
c. Small bowel follow through
d. ERCP

Explanation

The correct answer is C, small bowel follow through. This modality allows for visualization of the jejunum and ileum, making it useful for evaluating suspected small bowel obstruction or partial obstruction from any cause. It is also indicated for evaluating Crohn's disease and obscure gastrointestinal loss. Upper GI series (option A) is used to visualize the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. CT enterography (option B) is a specialized CT scan that provides detailed images of the small bowel. ERCP (option D) is an endoscopic procedure used to diagnose and treat conditions of the bile ducts and pancreas.

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90.
TC labled RBC scan that can diagnose a hepatic hemangioma with an almost 100% positive predictive value
Cholescintigraphy
Hemangioma Liver Scan
Both A & B
None of the above

Explanation

The correct answer is B. Cholescintigraphy. Cholescintigraphy is a nuclear medicine imaging technique that uses a TC labeled RBC scan to diagnose a hepatic hemangioma with an almost 100% positive predictive value. This technique involves injecting a radioactive tracer into the patient's bloodstream, which is taken up by the liver. The tracer is then excreted into the bile ducts, allowing for visualization of the liver and detection of any abnormalities, such as a hepatic hemangioma. This technique is highly accurate and reliable in diagnosing hepatic hemangiomas.

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91.
3)   This modality is the Gold standard for visualizing small GI bleeding and IBD and is also used to visualize reflux esophagitis and Barrets esophagus
  a. CT scan
  b. CT angiography
  c. Video capsule endoscopy
  d. MRCP

Explanation

Video capsule endoscopy is the correct answer because it is the gold standard for visualizing small GI bleeding and IBD. It is also used to visualize reflux esophagitis and Barrett's esophagus. CT scan and CT angiography may be used for other purposes such as imaging blood vessels, while MRCP is used specifically for visualizing the bile and pancreatic ducts.

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92. Most sensitive sonological indicator for aneuploidy is

Explanation

Nuchal translucency is the most sensitive sonological indicator for aneuploidy. It refers to the measurement of fluid accumulation at the back of the fetal neck during the first trimester ultrasound. Increased nuchal translucency is associated with an increased risk of chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome. This measurement is considered more accurate in detecting aneuploidy compared to other indicators such as gestational sac volume, crown-rump length, or serum B HCG level.

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93.
4)   This contrast type allows for visualization of obstructive lesions and motility disturbances
  a. Single contrast
  b. Double contrast
  c. Triple contrast
  d. No contrast

Explanation

Single contrast allows for visualization of obstructive lesions and motility disturbances.

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94. A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift, but basal cistems were compressed with multiple small hemorrhages. What is the diagnosis

Explanation

Diffuse axonal injuries (DAI) is the correct diagnosis in this case. DAI refers to widespread damage to the brain's white matter due to shearing forces during traumatic brain injury. The absence of midline shift on CT brain rules out other possibilities like cortical contusion or cerebral laceration. The presence of compressed basal cisterns and multiple small hemorrhages is characteristic of DAI. Multiple infarcts are unlikely without evidence of vascular occlusion or embolism.

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95. Consists of the x-ray film and the film holder

Explanation

The correct answer is "image receptor" because it refers to the component that captures the x-ray image. In this case, it consists of the x-ray film and the film holder, which together form the image receptor. The other options mentioned, such as cassette, upright cassette holder, and detent, are not specifically related to the image receptor itself.

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96.  x-ray figure
The technique shown in this image is known as what?

Explanation

The technique shown in the image is called the parallel technique. In this technique, the X-ray beam is directed parallel to the long axis of the tooth, and the film or sensor is placed parallel to the tooth being examined. This technique is commonly used in dental radiography to obtain a clear and accurate image of the tooth and surrounding structures.

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97. Proper collimation of the x ray beam fog film size and focal film distance will

Explanation

Proper collimation of the x-ray beam, fog film size, and focal film distance will reduce primary radiation. Collimation refers to the process of limiting the size and shape of the x-ray beam to only the area of interest, reducing unnecessary exposure to the patient and minimizing scatter radiation. By properly collimating the beam, the primary radiation is focused only on the targeted area, reducing the amount of radiation that reaches other parts of the body and minimizing the potential harm to the patient. Therefore, reducing primary radiation is the expected outcome of proper collimation.

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98.
  This modality is the most commonly performed liver study in nuclear medicine, it is used to image hepatobiliary system and uses Tc-iminodiacetic acid (IDA) analgos
a. Liver Heangioma liver scan
b. MRI of Liver
c. PET scan of the liver
d. Cholescintigraphy

Explanation

Cholescintigraphy is the most commonly performed liver study in nuclear medicine. It is used to image the hepatobiliary system and involves the use of Tc-iminodiacetic acid (IDA) analogs. This procedure helps to evaluate the function of the gallbladder and bile ducts, and can detect any abnormalities or blockages in the hepatobiliary system. MRI of the liver and PET scan of the liver are different imaging modalities that may be used for liver studies, but they are not specifically used for hepatobiliary imaging like cholescintigraphy. Liver hemangioma liver scan is not a commonly performed liver study in nuclear medicine.

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99.
4)   Corkscrew and Rosary bead are words used to describe:
  a. IBD
  b. Barrets Esophagus
  c. Erosive Esophagitis
  d. Diffuse Esophageal Spasm

Explanation

The correct answer is D. Corkscrew and Rosary bead are words used to describe Diffuse Esophageal Spasm.

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100. Spongy appearance with central sunburst calcification is seen in?

Explanation

A spongy appearance with central sunburst calcification is a characteristic finding in serous cystadenoma. Serous cystadenomas are benign cystic tumors that commonly occur in the pancreas. The spongy appearance refers to the presence of multiple small cysts within the tumor, giving it a sponge-like appearance on imaging. The central sunburst calcification refers to the presence of calcifications in the center of the tumor, which can be seen on imaging studies like CT scans. This combination of findings is highly suggestive of a serous cystadenoma.

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101.
2)   Tis modality is used in acute and chronic diarrhea, rectal bleeding and for evaluating responses to therapies for colitis
  a. Colonoscopy
  b. ERCP
  c. Sigmoidoscopy
  d. Enteroscopy
 

Explanation

Sigmoidoscopy is the correct answer because it is a modality used in the evaluation of acute and chronic diarrhea, rectal bleeding, and for assessing responses to therapies for colitis. Sigmoidoscopy allows for direct visualization of the sigmoid colon and rectum, providing valuable information about the condition of the lower gastrointestinal tract. It is commonly used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. Colonoscopy, ERCP, and enteroscopy are not typically used for the specific indications mentioned in the question.

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102.
4)    CT Enterography modality is useful in evaluating
  a. Vascular leaks
  b. Aneurysms
  c. IBD
  d. Bowel infarctions

Explanation

CT Enterography modality is useful in evaluating IBD (Inflammatory Bowel Disease). This imaging technique allows for detailed visualization of the small bowel, which is often affected in cases of IBD such as Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis. It can help identify inflammation, strictures, and other abnormalities in the bowel, aiding in diagnosis and treatment planning for patients with suspected or known IBD.

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103.
4)   This Imaging modality is used in visualizing parenchymal lesions such a s masses and cysts, hemangiomas and fistulas on chrohns disease and used for tumor staging in rectal cancer
  a. CT Abdomen
  b. MRI
  c. MRA
  d. MRCP

Explanation

MRI (Option B) is the correct answer because it is an imaging modality that is commonly used to visualize parenchymal lesions such as masses and cysts, as well as hemangiomas and fistulas in Crohn's disease. Additionally, MRI is also used for tumor staging in rectal cancer. CT Abdomen (Option A) is not the correct answer as it does not specifically mention the visualization of parenchymal lesions or tumor staging in rectal cancer. MRA (Option C) is not the correct answer as it refers to magnetic resonance angiography, which is used to visualize blood vessels. MRCP (Option D) is also not the correct answer as it refers to magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography, which is used to visualize the biliary and pancreatic ducts.

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104. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT

Explanation

The statement that a patient with a tissue expander can receive an MRI on the 1.5T is incorrect. Tissue expanders typically contain metal components, which can cause artifacts and distortions in the MRI images. Therefore, patients with tissue expanders are not recommended to undergo MRI scans on the 1.5T machine.

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105.
This contrast study allows for visualization of oral cavity and pharynx, assessment of manipulation of food bolus, swallowing effectively and is indicated for Oropharangeal dysphagia and recurrent aspiration pneumonia
Barium Swallow/Esophagram
CT scan
Video Esophagram
None of the Above

Explanation

A video esophagram is the correct answer because it is a contrast study that allows for visualization of the oral cavity and pharynx, assessment of manipulation of food bolus, and swallowing effectively. It is indicated for oropharyngeal dysphagia and recurrent aspiration pneumonia. A barium swallow/esophagram is similar, but it specifically focuses on the esophagus. CT scan is not the best option for assessing swallowing function and none of the above options are correct.

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Ultrasound or a Sonogram is generally described as a
Who discovered the x ray?
What is a Fluoroscopy?
A screening mammogram is
X rays were discovered in 1895 by W. C. Roentgen, who called them X...
An MRA is different than an MRI because
An "unseen" image is called a(an)
The x-ray tube is surrounded by a lead-lined _________________
PET stands for:
The table may also tilt in the opposite direction, allowing the head...
The cathode is a filament composed of
A device to hold the film
Proper collimation for the film size and target film distance will
An older term given x radiation  in honor of its discoverer
You have taken a radiograph of a patient with a large skeletal build ....
The portion of the target struck by electrons is called the
Collimation of the primary beam
A moving grid is called a
The source of x-rays is the
Who introduced the hot cathode tube?
Filters are used in the xray beam to
An imaginary line in the center of the x-ray beam and perpendicular to...
When were x rays discovered?
A PET Scan can distinguish between a benign and malignant disorder...
A Bone Density Test looks for
What is a  breast sterotactic biopsy?
You are asked to schedule a patient for a scan that requires contrast....
X-rays are produced when fast moving electrons collide with a metal...
The access point for the limited operator to set the exposure factors...
The ______________ exits the tube port.
If you do have to obtain blood work, the two values that you are most...
Sometimes called filmless systems
A device to hold the IR in the upright position for radiography
The unwanted image exposure caused by scatter radiation is called
 ...
A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI...
Absorption of the x-ray beam is called
In taking the radiograph you did not center the beam on the film in...
The milliampere control dial on the dental x ray mchine
A Mammography is a
1)...
Radiation that is scattered or created as a...
3)...
4)...
 ...
Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?
Absorbed dose is the energy deposited in a small volume of matter...
Absorbed dose is the energy deposited in a small volume of matter...
The lead diaphagm determines the size and shape of the
The x-ray beam that exits on the opposite side of the patient.
Who is believed to have exposed the prototype of the first dental x...
4)...
Who is given credit for suggesting the paralleling technique?
5)...
Xrays are made up of
The radiation inspector comes to your office and tells you that your x...
Anatomic structures that have greater ______ density...
This modality is the Gold standard of assessment and diagnosis of...
4)...
On MRI the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions,...
 ...
4)...
The cross section of the x-ray beam at the point where it is used is...
X-rays that are traveling in a useful direction exit the housing...
Who designed the "long cone" to use with the paralleling technique?
Who is considered to be the first advocate for the science of...
Who is given credit for suggesting the bisecting technique?
Which diagnostic scan gives some of the highest radiation doses in...
Where on a dog are the retroarticular foramen and hypoglossal canal...
Most chemoresistant tumors among the following is
4)...
4)...
 ...
The glucose based radiopharmaceutical contrast that is injected into...
A special mechanism that tends to stop a...
Milliamperage controls
The dental x ray machine in your office operates at 90kvp and thus is...
Bone scan of a patient with Multiple Myeloma shows
4)...
4)...
Most common hormone deficiency seen after intracranial radiation...
4)...
4)...
4)...
The best way to describe the penetration of an x ray beam is by its
This area is separated from the x-ray room by a lead barrier to...
Some veterinary DR x-ray camera systems can lose image quality fairly...
 ...
TC labled RBC scan that can diagnose a hepatic hemangioma with an...
3)...
Most sensitive sonological indicator for aneuploidy is
4)...
A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries....
Consists of the x-ray film and the film holder
 The technique shown in this image is known as what?
Proper collimation of the x ray beam fog film size and focal film...
 ...
4)...
Spongy appearance with central sunburst calcification is seen in?
2)...
4)...
4)...
Which of the following statements are INCORRECT
This contrast study allows for visualization of oral cavity and...
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