Radtech Simulation Examination 10

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Radtech Simulation Examination 10 - Quiz

This is your Radtech Simulation 10 for HAAD and other Gulf Exams.
The questions here are encountered last month based on feed backs from Gulf Countries.
You would be given 120 minutes to answer 100 items.
Passing Score would be 70 %
This is a LIMITED TAKEN TEST so You need a STRONG INTERNET CONNECTION to take this properly.
Correct Answers will be displayed after the test, so Don't Exit Immediately.
For more information please consult with our webmaster.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Under normal circumstances, what is the earliest date a chest x-ray taken on 15 August 96 should be destroyed? (007-Disposition of radiology records)

    • A.

      1 January 2002

    • B.

      15 August 2002

    • C.

      1 January 2001

    • D.

      15 August 2001

    • E.

      Never

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 January 2002
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1 January 2002. According to the question, the chest x-ray was taken on 15 August 96. Under normal circumstances, medical records are typically required to be kept for a certain number of years. In this case, the earliest date for the x-ray to be destroyed would be 1 January 2002, which is more than 5 years after the x-ray was taken. Therefore, it is safe to assume that the x-ray should be destroyed on or after this date.

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  • 2. 

    Quality control tests are designed to measure the effectiveness of __________. (009-Quality control in radiology)

    • A.

      Radiologic processes

    • B.

      Radiology personnel

    • C.

      Radiographic examinations

    • D.

      Radiologists

    • E.

      Radiographic equipment

    Correct Answer
    E. Radiographic equipment
    Explanation
    Quality control tests are designed to measure the effectiveness of radiographic equipment. These tests ensure that the equipment is functioning properly and producing accurate and high-quality images. By regularly testing and monitoring the equipment, any issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed, leading to improved patient care and diagnostic accuracy.

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  • 3. 

    When performing QC tests on radiographic system components, an optical light meter is used to monitor__________. (010-Monitoring radiographic system components)

    • A.

      Dark rooms

    • B.

      View boxes

    • C.

      Cassette screens

    • D.

      Film processing

    • E.

      X-ray tube

    Correct Answer
    B. View boxes
    Explanation
    An optical light meter is used to monitor the brightness levels in view boxes when performing QC tests on radiographic system components. View boxes are used to view and interpret radiographic images, and it is important to ensure that the brightness levels are consistent and appropriate for accurate diagnosis. The light meter helps in measuring the amount of light emitted by the view box, ensuring that it meets the required standards for optimal image viewing.

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  • 4. 

    What is the monthly repeat rate for a department that ordered 6,000 sheets of film, used 5,400, and had 270 repeated films for the month?(011-Repeated film analysis)

    • A.

      25 percent

    • B.

      22 percent

    • C.

      20 percent

    • D.

      4.5 percent

    • E.

      5 percent

    Correct Answer
    E. 5 percent
    Explanation
    The monthly repeat rate is calculated by dividing the number of repeated films (270) by the number of films used (5,400) and then multiplying by 100 to get the percentage. In this case, the calculation would be (270/5,400) * 100 = 5 percent.

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  • 5. 

    The legal concept that states a supervisor can be held responsible for the actions of his or her subordinate is called________. (014-Malpractice)

    • A.

      Respondeat superior

    • B.

      Res ipsa loquitur

    • C.

      Contributory negligience

    • D.

      Quid pro quo

    Correct Answer
    A. Respondeat superior
    Explanation
    Respondeat superior is a legal concept that holds a supervisor responsible for the actions of their subordinate. This means that if an employee commits a wrongful act or negligence while performing their job duties, the supervisor can be held liable for any resulting harm or damages. This principle is based on the idea that the supervisor has control and authority over their subordinates and should therefore bear the responsibility for their actions in the course of employment.

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  • 6. 

    Which term is used to describe the host's ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism? (016-Infectious agents)

    • A.

      Infectious state

    • B.

      Carrier

    • C.

      Commensalism

    • D.

      Normal flora

    Correct Answer
    C. Commensalism
    Explanation
    Commensalism refers to a symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited. In the context of the question, commensalism describes the host's ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism. This means that the invading organism is able to live within the host without causing harm or benefiting the host. Therefore, commensalism is the term used to describe the host's ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism.

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  • 7. 

    Which type of micro-organism survives by entering a host cell and altering its reproductive structures to produce additional micro-organisms? (016-Infectious agents)

    • A.

      Fungi

    • B.

      Viruses

    • C.

      Helminths

    • D.

      Bacteria

    Correct Answer
    B. Viruses
    Explanation
    Viruses are the type of micro-organism that survive by entering a host cell and altering its reproductive structures to produce additional micro-organisms. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, which means they cannot reproduce or survive outside of a host cell. Once inside a host cell, they take over the cell's machinery to replicate themselves, often causing damage to the host cell in the process. This alteration of the host cell's reproductive structures allows viruses to produce more viruses and spread the infection to other cells or hosts.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following patients would have the greatest risk for development or a nosocomial infection? (018-Preventive measure for nosocomial infections)

    • A.

      Orthopaedic

    • B.

      Physical therapy

    • C.

      Obstetrical

    • D.

      Chemotherapy

    Correct Answer
    D. Chemotherapy
    Explanation
    Chemotherapy patients have a compromised immune system due to the treatment, making them more susceptible to infections. The drugs used in chemotherapy can suppress the immune system, making it harder for the body to fight off infections. Therefore, chemotherapy patients have the greatest risk for developing a nosocomial infection while receiving treatment in a healthcare setting.

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  • 9. 

    Which medical term means the absence of infection? (019-What is asepsis?)

    • A.

      Asepsis

    • B.

      Antiseptic

    • C.

      Antimicrobial

    • D.

      Sepsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Asepsis
    Explanation
    Asepsis is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of infection. Asepsis is a medical term used to describe the state of being free from harmful microorganisms that can cause infection. It involves practices and techniques that prevent the introduction or spread of infection in medical settings. Antiseptic and antimicrobial are related terms but do not specifically mean the absence of infection. Sepsis, on the other hand, refers to a severe infection that can lead to organ failure and is the opposite of asepsis.

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  • 10. 

    Which substance is used to to reduce the number of micro-organisms on living tissue?(019-What is asepsis?)

    • A.

      Antitoxin

    • B.

      Antiseptic

    • C.

      Anticoagulant

    • D.

      Disinfectant

    • E.

      Anti-infectant

    Correct Answer
    B. Antiseptic
    Explanation
    Antiseptic is a substance used to reduce the number of micro-organisms on living tissue. It is specifically designed to be used on the skin or mucous membranes to prevent infection. Antitoxin is used to neutralize toxins produced by micro-organisms, anticoagulant is used to prevent blood from clotting, disinfectant is used to kill micro-organisms on surfaces, and anti-infectant is not a commonly used term in relation to reducing micro-organisms on living tissue. Therefore, antiseptic is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 11. 

    When using appropriate handwashing techniques, after cleaning your fingernails with an orange stick, you should________________. (020-Handwashing)

    • A.

      Repeat the lathering and scrubbing steps.

    • B.

      Continue the scrub for a minimum of 10 seconds.

    • C.

      Rinse the soap off and drop the soap bar in the soap dish.

    • D.

      Rinse your hands and pat them dry with a paper towel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Repeat the lathering and scrubbing steps.
    Explanation
    After cleaning your fingernails with an orange stick, you should repeat the lathering and scrubbing steps. This is because cleaning your fingernails with an orange stick does not ensure that your hands are completely clean. By repeating the lathering and scrubbing steps, you can ensure that all areas of your hands, including your fingernails, are thoroughly cleaned and free from dirt and germs.

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  • 12. 

    Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in what type of isolation?(021-Principles of isolation)

    • A.

      Forward

    • B.

      Contact

    • C.

      Reverse

    • D.

      Droplet

    • E.

      Airborne

    Correct Answer
    C. Reverse
    Explanation
    Reverse isolation is a type of isolation technique used for patients who are highly susceptible to infection. In reverse isolation, patients are protected from potential sources of infection by placing them in a controlled environment where the risk of exposure to pathogens is minimized. This type of isolation is commonly used for patients with compromised immune systems, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or organ transplant recipients. The goal of reverse isolation is to prevent the transmission of infectious agents to vulnerable patients and to provide a safe environment for their recovery.

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  • 13. 

    An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is_________. (021-Principle of isolation)

    • A.

      The nurses station.

    • B.

      A storage cart.

    • C.

      The supply room.

    • D.

      Not require it.

    • E.

      An isolation cart.

    Correct Answer
    E. An isolation cart.
    Explanation
    An isolation cart is an acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit because it provides a mobile and easily accessible storage space for necessary supplies and equipment. It allows healthcare workers to have everything they need within reach, reducing the need to leave the isolation unit and minimizing the risk of contamination. The isolation cart can be stocked with personal protective equipment, medications, and other essential items, ensuring that healthcare workers can efficiently and safely carry out their duties within the isolation unit.

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  • 14. 

    What is the smallest subdivision of a compound that still has the characteristic properties of that substance? (200-Properties of matter)

    • A.

      Atom

    • B.

      Electron

    • C.

      Neutron

    • D.

      Molecule

    • E.

      Proton

    Correct Answer
    D. Molecule
    Explanation
    A molecule is the smallest subdivision of a compound that still retains the characteristic properties of that substance. It consists of two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds. While atoms are the basic building blocks of matter, they do not possess the characteristic properties of a compound. Electrons, neutrons, and protons are subatomic particles that make up atoms, but they do not have the characteristic properties of a compound on their own. Therefore, the correct answer is molecule.

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  • 15. 

    What type of radiation is x-ray? (204-Types of ionizing radiation)

    • A.

      Thermal radiation

    • B.

      Particulate radiation

    • C.

      Electromagnetic radiation

    • D.

      RF wave radiation

    Correct Answer
    C. Electromagnetic radiation
    Explanation
    X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation. Electromagnetic radiation consists of waves of electric and magnetic fields that travel through space. X-rays have a shorter wavelength and higher energy than visible light, making them able to penetrate through materials and produce images of the internal structures of the human body. This type of radiation is commonly used in medical imaging and industrial applications.

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  • 16. 

    What is the unit of measurement for electric power? (207-Electric principles)

    • A.

      Watt

    • B.

      Volt

    • C.

      Ampere

    • D.

      Ohm

    Correct Answer
    A. Watt
    Explanation
    The unit of measurement for electric power is watt. Watt is a unit of power, which represents the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred. It is named after the Scottish engineer James Watt, who made significant contributions to the development of the steam engine. The watt is commonly used to measure the power consumption or generation of electrical devices, and it is equal to one joule per second.

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  • 17. 

    In 110 volt, 60 cycle alternating current, how many alterations (impulses) are there per second? (210-Alternating current versus direct current)

    • A.

      220

    • B.

      120

    • C.

      110

    • D.

      60

    • E.

      320

    Correct Answer
    B. 120
    Explanation
    In a 110 volt, 60 cycle alternating current, there are 60 alterations or impulses per second. This means that the current changes direction 60 times in one second. Therefore, the correct answer is 120, as it represents the number of alterations per second in the given current.

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  • 18. 

    Which of these substances is ferromagnetic? (213-Principles of electromagnetic induction)

    • A.

      Copper

    • B.

      Aluminum

    • C.

      Iron

    • D.

      Wood

    • E.

      Glass

    Correct Answer
    C. Iron
    Explanation
    Iron is ferromagnetic because it has unpaired electrons in its outermost shell. This causes the magnetic moments of the individual atoms to align in the same direction, creating a strong magnetic field. Copper and aluminum are not ferromagnetic because they do not have unpaired electrons. Wood and glass are non-magnetic materials.

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  • 19. 

    During self induction, the relative motion is provided by__________. (213-Principles of electromagnetic induction)

    • A.

      The expanding and collapsing magnetic field.

    • B.

      Direct current.

    • C.

      The high current generated in the wire coil.

    • D.

      Movement of the iron core.

    Correct Answer
    A. The expanding and collapsing magnetic field.
    Explanation
    During self induction, the relative motion is provided by the expanding and collapsing magnetic field. This is because self induction occurs when the magnetic field produced by a changing current in a coil of wire induces an electromotive force (emf) in the same coil. This changing magnetic field is created by the expansion and collapse of the magnetic field lines as the current in the coil changes. Therefore, the expanding and collapsing magnetic field is responsible for the relative motion required for self induction to occur.

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  • 20. 

    What is the output voltage and amperage from a step-up transformer in the input voltage is 220 volts, the input current is 10 amps, and the turns ratio 5 to 1? (214-Transformer types and characteristics)

    • A.

      215 volts, 15 amps

    • B.

      225 volts, 5 amps

    • C.

      44 volts, 10 amps

    • D.

      1100 volts, 2 amps

    Correct Answer
    D. 1100 volts, 2 amps
    Explanation
    A step-up transformer increases the voltage while decreasing the current. The turns ratio of 5 to 1 means that the output voltage will be 5 times the input voltage, and the output current will be 1/5th of the input current. Therefore, if the input voltage is 220 volts and the input current is 10 amps, the output voltage will be 220 * 5 = 1100 volts, and the output current will be 10 / 5 = 2 amps.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the four main circuits in an x-ray machine initiates, times, and terminates the x-ray exposure? (217-A basic x-ray machine electrical schematic)

    • A.

      X-ray tube filament circuit

    • B.

      Control circuit

    • C.

      High-tension circuit

    • D.

      Line to autotransformer circuit

    Correct Answer
    B. Control circuit
    Explanation
    The control circuit in an x-ray machine is responsible for initiating, timing, and terminating the x-ray exposure. It controls the operation of the machine and ensures that the x-ray exposure is controlled and timed accurately. The control circuit communicates with other circuits in the machine to coordinate the various functions and ensure the safety and effectiveness of the x-ray procedure.

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  • 22. 

    The purpose of a fuse is to___________. (219-Understanding fuses and grounding)

    • A.

      Protect an electric circuit from current overload.

    • B.

      Protect equipment operators from electric shock.

    • C.

      Prevent reverse voltage from flowing across an x-ray tube.

    • D.

      Restrict current flow to only one direction.

    • E.

      Increase voltage

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect an electric circuit from current overload.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a fuse is to protect an electric circuit from current overload. When the current flowing through a circuit exceeds the rated limit of the fuse, it will melt and break the circuit, preventing any further flow of current. This helps to prevent damage to the circuit and any connected equipment, as well as reducing the risk of fire or other hazards caused by excessive current. Fuses are designed to be sacrificial components that can be easily replaced when they blow, allowing for the safe operation of electrical systems.

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  • 23. 

    If all other factors remain the same, reducing the target angle will result in___________.(223-Characteristics of anode design and function)

    • A.

      An increase in the rate of filament evaporation.

    • B.

      A decrease in the anode heel effect.

    • C.

      A decrease in the area of x-ray coverage.

    • D.

      An increase in the effective focal spot.

    Correct Answer
    C. A decrease in the area of x-ray coverage.
    Explanation
    Reducing the target angle refers to decreasing the angle at which the electron beam strikes the anode in an X-ray tube. This change in angle will result in a decrease in the area of x-ray coverage. This is because a smaller target angle will cause the electron beam to strike a smaller area on the anode, resulting in a smaller area from which x-rays are emitted. Therefore, reducing the target angle will decrease the area of x-ray coverage.

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  • 24. 

    Which half-value layer indicates the beam with the highest quality?(225-Controlling beam quality)

    • A.

      4mm lead.

    • B.

      2mm aluminum.

    • C.

      4mm aluminum.

    • D.

      2mm lead.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4mm lead.
    Explanation
    The half-value layer (HVL) is a measure of the penetrating power of a beam. A higher HVL indicates a higher quality beam as it can penetrate deeper into a material. In this case, the 4mm lead has the highest HVL among the given options, suggesting that it has the highest quality beam.

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  • 25. 

    If a densitometer reads 1.0, how much of the light is being transmitted through the film?(226-Defining density)

    • A.

      1 percent

    • B.

      10 percent

    • C.

      100 percent

    • D.

      50 percent

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 percent
    Explanation
    A densitometer measures the density of a material, in this case, a film. A reading of 1.0 indicates that the film is blocking 90 percent of the light that is being transmitted through it. Therefore, only 10 percent of the light is being transmitted through the film.

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  • 26. 

    Approximately how much of an increase in kVp is required in order to double density?(227-How to control radiographic density using the prime exposure factors)

    • A.

      15 percent.

    • B.

      20 percent.

    • C.

      10 percent.

    • D.

      25 percent.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 percent.
    Explanation
    An increase in kVp affects the overall exposure of the image, including the density. Doubling the density requires doubling the exposure, which can be achieved by increasing the kVp by a certain percentage. In this case, a 15 percent increase in kVp is sufficient to double the density. Increasing the kVp by 20 percent would likely result in an overexposed image with higher density than desired. Similarly, increasing the kVp by 10 percent would not be enough to double the density, and a 25 percent increase would likely result in an overexposed image with even higher density.

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  • 27. 

    The 50/15 rule allows us to________. (229-Factors affecting contrast)

    • A.

      Eliminate the need for a grid.

    • B.

      Compensate between single-phase and three-phase generators.

    • C.

      Change scale of contrast while maintaining density.

    • D.

      Change density while maintaining scale of contrast.

    Correct Answer
    C. Change scale of contrast while maintaining density.
    Explanation
    The 50/15 rule allows us to change the scale of contrast while maintaining density. This means that we can adjust the level of contrast in an image without affecting the overall darkness or lightness of the image. This can be useful in various applications, such as photography or medical imaging, where we may want to enhance or reduce the contrast in an image without altering its overall brightness or darkness.

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  • 28. 

    Which problem associated with grid use results in a loss of density on both lateral borders of the film? (233-Common problems associated with grid use)

    • A.

      Lateral decentering.

    • B.

      Lateral decentering plus decentering.

    • C.

      Off-angle alignment.

    • D.

      Upside down focused grid.

    Correct Answer
    D. Upside down focused grid.
    Explanation
    When a grid is upside down and focused, it results in a loss of density on both lateral borders of the film. This means that the grid is not aligned properly with the x-ray beam, causing the grid lines to be misaligned with the direction of the x-rays. As a result, the grid fails to effectively absorb scatter radiation and reduces image contrast. This problem can be identified by the presence of decreased density on the lateral borders of the radiographic image.

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  • 29. 

    Grid selection is a compromise between________. (234-Factors to consider when selecting a grid)

    • A.

      Film quality and patient exposure

    • B.

      Patient exposure and tube life

    • C.

      Tube-part-film alignment and focal spot size

    • D.

      Tube life and tube-part-film alignment

    Correct Answer
    A. Film quality and patient exposure
    Explanation
    Grid selection is a compromise between film quality and patient exposure. This means that when selecting a grid, one must consider both the quality of the image produced on the film and the amount of radiation exposure the patient will receive. The grid should be chosen in such a way that it improves the image quality by reducing scattered radiation, while also minimizing the radiation dose to the patient.

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  • 30. 

    Magnification reduces detail by_______. (236-How geometric factors influence magnification)

    • A.

      Reducing selective absorption.

    • B.

      Increasing focal spot blur.

    • C.

      Increasing wavelength.

    • D.

      Increasing scatter radiation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Increasing focal spot blur.
    Explanation
    When magnification is increased, the focal spot blur also increases. This means that the area of focus becomes less sharp and clear, resulting in a reduction in detail. Therefore, the correct answer is increasing focal spot blur.

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  • 31. 

    To reduce magnification of projected parts, a radiologic technologist should_______.(236-How geometric factors influence magnification)

    • A.

      Decrease SID and decrease OID

    • B.

      Increase SID and increase OID

    • C.

      Increase SID and decrease OID

    • D.

      Decrease SID and increase OID

    Correct Answer
    C. Increase SID and decrease OID
    Explanation
    To reduce magnification of projected parts, a radiologic technologist should increase the Source-to-Image Distance (SID) and decrease the Object-to-Image Distance (OID). Increasing the SID means moving the x-ray tube further away from the patient, which reduces the magnification effect. Decreasing the OID means bringing the object (patient) closer to the image receptor, which also reduces magnification. Therefore, increasing the SID and decreasing the OID will help minimize the magnification of projected parts.

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  • 32. 

    What is the ideal temperature and humidity for storing unexposed and unopened x-ray film?(242-Proper handling and storage of film)

    • A.

      50 to 70 degrees F; 10 to 30 percent relative humidity.

    • B.

      60 to 80 degrees F; 40 to 60 percent relative humidity.

    • C.

      60 to 80 degrees F; 10 to 30 percent relative humidity.

    • D.

      50 to 70 degrees F; 40 to 60 percent relative humidity.

    Correct Answer
    D. 50 to 70 degrees F; 40 to 60 percent relative humidity.
    Explanation
    The ideal temperature for storing unexposed and unopened x-ray film is between 50 to 70 degrees Fahrenheit. This temperature range helps to prevent any damage or degradation of the film. Additionally, the ideal relative humidity for storage is between 40 to 60 percent. This level of humidity helps to maintain the film's quality and prevent any moisture-related issues such as mold or warping.

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  • 33. 

    A black light is useful for______. (245-Quality assurance procedures for intensifying screens)

    • A.

      Checking screens for light leaks.

    • B.

      Inspecting screens for foreign objects.

    • C.

      Performing screen lag tests.

    • D.

      Performing screen-film contact tests.

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspecting screens for foreign objects.
    Explanation
    A black light is useful for inspecting screens for foreign objects because it can reveal any contaminants or debris that may be present on the screen. The black light causes certain substances, such as dust or oils, to fluoresce or glow, making them easier to spot. This can help ensure that the screens are clean and free from any foreign objects that could potentially affect the quality of the final image.

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  • 34. 

    What is used as the solvent for developer solution?(246-Developer and fixer chemistry)

    • A.

      Potassium alum.

    • B.

      Sodium carbonate.

    • C.

      Gluteraldehyde.

    • D.

      Water.

    Correct Answer
    D. Water.
    Explanation
    Water is used as the solvent for developer solution. In developer and fixer chemistry, the developer solution is responsible for converting the latent image on the film or paper into a visible image. Water is commonly used as the solvent because it is readily available, non-toxic, and has good solubility properties for the chemicals used in the developer solution. It is also easily accessible and cost-effective, making it the most practical choice for a solvent in this context.

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  • 35. 

    How are variations in processor operations identified before the affect film qualify? (249-Sensitometry)

    • A.

      By replacing processor chemistry monthly.

    • B.

      By using sensitometric filmstrip evaluation practices.

    • C.

      By using a mercury-filled thermometer to monitor temperatures.

    • D.

      By performing chemical analysis on replenisher solutions.

    Correct Answer
    B. By using sensitometric filmstrip evaluation practices.
    Explanation
    Variations in processor operations can be identified before they affect film quality by using sensitometric filmstrip evaluation practices. This involves regularly evaluating filmstrips processed by the processor to analyze and measure various characteristics such as density, contrast, and fog level. By comparing the results with established standards, any variations or deviations can be detected and corrective actions can be taken to ensure consistent and accurate film processing. This method allows for proactive monitoring and maintenance of the processor, minimizing the risk of film quality issues.

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  • 36. 

    A nuclear accident victim exposed to 60 Gy would probably die from______.(259-Acute radiation damage)

    • A.

      Intracranial pressure.

    • B.

      Internal bleeding.

    • C.

      Overwhelming infection.

    • D.

      Electrolyte imbalance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intracranial pressure.
    Explanation
    Exposure to 60 Gy of radiation is a very high dose that can cause severe damage to the body. In this case, the high dose of radiation would likely cause damage to the brain and central nervous system, leading to increased intracranial pressure. This can result in brain swelling and compression, which can be fatal. The other options, such as internal bleeding, overwhelming infection, and electrolyte imbalance, can also occur as a result of radiation exposure, but intracranial pressure is the most immediate and life-threatening consequence at such a high dose.

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  • 37. 

    Under the newer S1 system for dose equivalent limits, what is the maximum accumulative dose for a 30 year old x-ray technologist? (261-Dose limits for radiation exposure)

    • A.

      60 rem.

    • B.

      30 mSv.

    • C.

      300 mSv.

    • D.

      0.6 rem.

    Correct Answer
    C. 300 mSv.
    Explanation
    The maximum accumulative dose for a 30 year old x-ray technologist under the newer S1 system for dose equivalent limits is 300 mSv. This means that the technologist can receive a maximum dose of 300 mSv throughout their entire career without exceeding the dose limits set by the system.

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  • 38. 

    In which instance would it be appropriate to NOT use gonadal shielding?(262-Minimizing patient exposure)

    • A.

      If the patient says it is unnecessary.

    • B.

      If the use of shielding increases exam time.

    • C.

      If shielding obscures important anatomy.

    • D.

      If the gonads are not in the primary beam.

    Correct Answer
    C. If shielding obscures important anatomy.
    Explanation
    It would be appropriate to not use gonadal shielding if it obscures important anatomy. This is because the primary purpose of shielding is to protect the reproductive organs from unnecessary radiation exposure, but if the shielding obstructs the area of interest or important anatomy that needs to be evaluated, it may compromise the diagnostic quality of the examination. In such cases, it is more important to prioritize visualization of the anatomical structures rather than using shielding.

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  • 39. 

    The fibula is lateral to the tibia.(400-Basic anatomical terminology)

    • A.

      False

    • B.

      True

    Correct Answer
    B. True
    Explanation
    The fibula is indeed lateral to the tibia. In anatomical terms, "lateral" refers to the side of the body or structure that is farther away from the midline. Since the tibia is located closer to the midline of the body, the fibula, which is located on the outer side of the leg, is considered to be lateral to it. Therefore, the statement "The fibula is lateral to the tibia" is true.

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  • 40. 

    A sagittal plane divides the body into________.(401-Body planes and positions)

    • A.

      Right and left portions.

    • B.

      Medial and lateral portions.

    • C.

      Anterior and posterior portions.

    • D.

      Superior and inferior portions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Right and left portions.
    Explanation
    A sagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left portions. This plane passes through the midline of the body, separating it into two symmetrical halves. The other options mentioned in the question, such as medial and lateral portions, anterior and posterior portions, and superior and inferior portions, do not accurately describe the division created by a sagittal plane.

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  • 41. 

    Which type of bone are the phalages?(403-Bone classification and formation)

    • A.

      Flat bone.

    • B.

      Irregular bone.

    • C.

      Long bone.

    • D.

      Short bone.

    Correct Answer
    C. Long bone.
    Explanation
    The phalanges are classified as long bones. Long bones are characterized by their elongated shape, with a shaft (diaphysis) and two ends (epiphyses). The phalanges, which are the bones of the fingers and toes, fit this description as they have a long, cylindrical shaft and two distinct ends. They also contain a medullary cavity filled with bone marrow and are responsible for supporting weight and facilitating movement.

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  • 42. 

    What type of joint is classified as immovable?(404-Joint classification)

    • A.

      Synarthrodial.

    • B.

      Intervertebral.

    • C.

      Diarthrodial.

    • D.

      Amphiarthrodial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Synarthrodial.
    Explanation
    Synarthrodial joints are classified as immovable joints. These joints are characterized by the absence of a joint cavity and the presence of fibrous connective tissue that holds the bones together. Examples of synarthrodial joints include the sutures in the skull and the teeth in their sockets. Intervertebral joints are classified as amphiarthrodial joints, which allow limited movement. Diarthrodial joints, also known as synovial joints, allow free movement and are the most common type of joint in the body. Amphiarthrodial joints allow limited movement and are found in the pelvis and spine.

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  • 43. 

    A fracture in which one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent is called a _______. (405-Common fractures)

    • A.

      Greenstick fracture.

    • B.

      Simple fracture.

    • C.

      Stellate fracture.

    • D.

      Avulsed fracture.

    Correct Answer
    A. Greenstick fracture.
    Explanation
    A greenstick fracture occurs when one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent. This type of fracture is commonly seen in children because their bones are more flexible and have a higher tendency to bend rather than break completely. The term "greenstick" refers to the similarity of the fracture to a green twig that is partially broken but still intact on one side. This type of fracture may not cause as much pain or displacement of the bone as other types of fractures, but it still requires medical attention and proper treatment.

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  • 44. 

    What purpose does the fibula serve? (408-Osteology of the lower leg)

    • A.

      Muscle attachment and ankle support.

    • B.

      Weight bearing and muscle attachment.

    • C.

      Knee stabilization and weight bearing.

    • D.

      Ankle support and knee stabilization

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscle attachment and ankle support.
    Explanation
    The fibula serves the purpose of muscle attachment and ankle support. It provides attachment points for various muscles in the lower leg, allowing for movement and stability. Additionally, it contributes to the support and stability of the ankle joint, helping to prevent excessive movement and potential injuries.

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  • 45. 

    Where do the collateral ligaments attach to the femur?(409-Osteology of the knee and patella)

    • A.

      Intercondyloid eminences.

    • B.

      Intercondyloid fossa.

    • C.

      Condyles.

    • D.

      Epicondyles.

    Correct Answer
    D. Epicondyles.
    Explanation
    The collateral ligaments of the knee attach to the epicondyles of the femur. The epicondyles are bony projections located on the distal end of the femur, just above the condyles. These ligaments, namely the medial collateral ligament (MCL) and the lateral collateral ligament (LCL), provide stability to the knee joint by connecting the femur to the tibia and preventing excessive side-to-side movement.

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  • 46. 

    The upper portion of the innominate bone is formed by the_______. (411-Osteology of the innominate bones and pelvis)

    • A.

      Ischium.

    • B.

      Ilium.

    • C.

      Acetabulum.

    • D.

      Pubis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ilium.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ilium. The innominate bone, also known as the hip bone, is composed of three parts: the ilium, ischium, and pubis. The upper portion of the innominate bone is formed by the ilium, which is the largest and most superiorly positioned of the three parts. The ischium forms the lower and posterior portion, while the pubis forms the lower and anterior portion. The acetabulum is a cup-shaped socket on the lateral surface of the innominate bone, which serves as the point of articulation with the femur to form the hip joint.

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  • 47. 

    The sacrum is formed from______. (412-Osteology of the sacrum and coccyx)

    • A.

      Five typical vertebrae.

    • B.

      Four typical vertebrae.

    • C.

      Four atypical vertebrae.

    • D.

      Five atypical vertebrae.

    Correct Answer
    D. Five atypical vertebrae.
    Explanation
    The sacrum is a triangular bone located at the base of the spine, between the two hip bones. It is formed from five fused vertebrae, which are considered atypical because they have unique characteristics compared to the typical vertebrae found in the rest of the spine. These atypical vertebrae have larger size, thicker bodies, and fused transverse processes, among other distinctive features. Therefore, the correct answer is "five atypical vertebrae."

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  • 48. 

    Which carpal bone has a hook-like process rising from its anterior surface?(413-Osteology of the fingers, hand and wrist)

    • A.

      Lesser multangular.

    • B.

      Hamate.

    • C.

      Lunate.

    • D.

      Capitate.

    Correct Answer
    B. Hamate.
    Explanation
    The carpal bone that has a hook-like process rising from its anterior surface is the hamate. This hook-like process is called the hamulus, and it serves as an attachment point for various ligaments and tendons in the hand and wrist. The hamate bone is located on the medial side of the wrist, and its unique structure makes it easily identifiable.

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  • 49. 

    Which bony structures are located on the proximal portion of the radius?(414-Osteology of the forearm)

    • A.

      Base and ulnar notch.

    • B.

      Neck and radial notch.

    • C.

      Ulnar notch and capitulum.

    • D.

      Head and radial tuberosity.

    Correct Answer
    D. Head and radial tuberosity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Head and radial tuberosity." The head of the radius is located on the proximal portion of the bone and articulates with the capitulum of the humerus. The radial tuberosity is also located on the proximal portion of the radius and serves as an attachment site for the biceps brachii muscle.

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  • 50. 

    In addition to the head, which structures are on the proximal humerus?(415-Osteology of the humerus and elbow)

    • A.

      Greater and lesser trochanters, and bicipital groove.

    • B.

      Greater and lesser tuberosities, and anatomical neck.

    • C.

      Greater and lesser tuberosities, and trochlea.

    • D.

      Greater and lesser tuberosities, and capitulum.

    Correct Answer
    B. Greater and lesser tuberosities, and anatomical neck.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is greater and lesser tuberosities, and anatomical neck. The proximal humerus consists of the greater and lesser tuberosities, which are bony projections that serve as attachment sites for muscles and ligaments. The anatomical neck is a groove that separates the head of the humerus from the tuberosities. The other options provided, such as the trochanters, bicipital groove, and capitulum, are not located on the proximal humerus.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 05, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Cy_u

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