Radtech Simulation Examination 10

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1. Before moving an infant from the incubator, you should first check with_________.
(604-Bedside radiography in special inpatient care areas)

Explanation

Before moving an infant from the incubator, it is important to first check with neonatal nursing personnel. They are specifically trained to handle and care for newborn babies, and they will have the necessary knowledge and expertise to ensure a safe and smooth transition for the infant. The radiologist, obstetrician, and the infant's mother may not have the same level of expertise or knowledge in handling newborns in this specific situation. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with neonatal nursing personnel before moving the infant.

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Radtech Simulation Examination 10 - Quiz

This is your Radtech Simulation 10 for HAAD and other Gulf Exams.
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2. The legal concept that states a supervisor can be held responsible for the actions of his or her subordinate is called________. (014-Malpractice)

Explanation

Respondeat superior is a legal concept that holds a supervisor responsible for the actions of their subordinate. This means that if an employee commits a wrongful act or negligence while performing their job duties, the supervisor can be held liable for any resulting harm or damages. This principle is based on the idea that the supervisor has control and authority over their subordinates and should therefore bear the responsibility for their actions in the course of employment.

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3. A sagittal plane divides the body into________.
(401-Body planes and positions)

Explanation

A sagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left portions. This plane passes through the midline of the body, separating it into two symmetrical halves. The other options mentioned in the question, such as medial and lateral portions, anterior and posterior portions, and superior and inferior portions, do not accurately describe the division created by a sagittal plane.

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4. Which of the following patients would have the greatest risk for development or a nosocomial infection? (018-Preventive measure for nosocomial infections)

Explanation

Chemotherapy patients have a compromised immune system due to the treatment, making them more susceptible to infections. The drugs used in chemotherapy can suppress the immune system, making it harder for the body to fight off infections. Therefore, chemotherapy patients have the greatest risk for developing a nosocomial infection while receiving treatment in a healthcare setting.

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5. Approximately how much of an increase in kVp is required in order to double density?
(227-How to control radiographic density using the prime exposure factors)

Explanation

An increase in kVp affects the overall exposure of the image, including the density. Doubling the density requires doubling the exposure, which can be achieved by increasing the kVp by a certain percentage. In this case, a 15 percent increase in kVp is sufficient to double the density. Increasing the kVp by 20 percent would likely result in an overexposed image with higher density than desired. Similarly, increasing the kVp by 10 percent would not be enough to double the density, and a 25 percent increase would likely result in an overexposed image with even higher density.

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6. In which instance would it be appropriate to NOT use gonadal shielding?
(262-Minimizing patient exposure)

Explanation

It would be appropriate to not use gonadal shielding if it obscures important anatomy. This is because the primary purpose of shielding is to protect the reproductive organs from unnecessary radiation exposure, but if the shielding obstructs the area of interest or important anatomy that needs to be evaluated, it may compromise the diagnostic quality of the examination. In such cases, it is more important to prioritize visualization of the anatomical structures rather than using shielding.

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7. A fracture in which one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent is called a _______. (405-Common fractures)

Explanation

A greenstick fracture occurs when one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent. This type of fracture is commonly seen in children because their bones are more flexible and have a higher tendency to bend rather than break completely. The term "greenstick" refers to the similarity of the fracture to a green twig that is partially broken but still intact on one side. This type of fracture may not cause as much pain or displacement of the bone as other types of fractures, but it still requires medical attention and proper treatment.

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8. What radiographic position if the wrist results in an axial view of the carpal canal?
(432-Radiographic projections of the wrist)

Explanation

The Gaynor-Hart method is a radiographic position that results in an axial view of the carpal canal. This method involves placing the hand in a pronated position with the wrist extended and the fingers flexed. The X-ray beam is directed perpendicular to the palm, which allows for a clear visualization of the carpal canal and its structures. Ulnar deviation and radial deviation are not specifically associated with an axial view of the carpal canal, and the semisupination oblique position is not mentioned as a method for achieving this view.

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9. After completing an AP projection on a suspected fractured humerus, what should you do before taking the lateral? (435-Radiographic projections of the humerus)

Explanation

Before taking the lateral projection of the suspected fractured humerus, it is important to check the AP film for fracture location. This step is necessary to ensure that the lateral projection is taken from the correct angle and provides a clear view of the fracture site. By checking the AP film, the radiographer can identify the exact location of the fracture and adjust the positioning accordingly for the lateral projection. This helps to ensure accurate diagnosis and proper treatment planning for the patient.

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10. Quality control tests are designed to measure the effectiveness of __________. (009-Quality control in radiology)

Explanation

Quality control tests are designed to measure the effectiveness of radiographic equipment. These tests ensure that the equipment is functioning properly and producing accurate and high-quality images. By regularly testing and monitoring the equipment, any issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed, leading to improved patient care and diagnostic accuracy.

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11. The fibula is lateral to the tibia.
(400-Basic anatomical terminology)

Explanation

The fibula is indeed lateral to the tibia. In anatomical terms, "lateral" refers to the side of the body or structure that is farther away from the midline. Since the tibia is located closer to the midline of the body, the fibula, which is located on the outer side of the leg, is considered to be lateral to it. Therefore, the statement "The fibula is lateral to the tibia" is true.

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12. An arthrogram should be performed rapidly because absorption of the contrast medium begins shortly after the injection. (603-Procedures for performing arthrograms)

Explanation

An arthrogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast medium into a joint to visualize its structures. The contrast medium is absorbed by the body shortly after injection, which means that the imaging needs to be done quickly to ensure accurate results. Therefore, the statement that an arthrogram should be performed rapidly is true.

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13. What type of target material is used in most dedicated mammography units?
(611-Mammographic equipment)

Explanation

Most dedicated mammography units use molybdenum as the target material. Molybdenum is commonly used in mammography because it produces a high-quality image with good contrast. It is also effective in reducing radiation dose to the patient. Molybdenum has a high atomic number, which allows it to efficiently convert X-ray energy into image-forming radiation. This makes it an ideal choice for mammography, where image clarity and dose reduction are important considerations.

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14. What type of radiation is x-ray? (204-Types of ionizing radiation)

Explanation

X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation. Electromagnetic radiation consists of waves of electric and magnetic fields that travel through space. X-rays have a shorter wavelength and higher energy than visible light, making them able to penetrate through materials and produce images of the internal structures of the human body. This type of radiation is commonly used in medical imaging and industrial applications.

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15. Which carpal bone has a hook-like process rising from its anterior surface?
(413-Osteology of the fingers, hand and wrist)

Explanation

The carpal bone that has a hook-like process rising from its anterior surface is the hamate. This hook-like process is called the hamulus, and it serves as an attachment point for various ligaments and tendons in the hand and wrist. The hamate bone is located on the medial side of the wrist, and its unique structure makes it easily identifiable.

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16. A disadvantage of using compression for mammography is increased__________.
(611-Mammographic equipment)

Explanation

Compression is a technique used in mammography to flatten the breast tissue, allowing for better imaging. However, one of the disadvantages of using compression is that it can cause discomfort to the patient. The pressure applied during compression can be uncomfortable and may cause pain or discomfort for some individuals. This can make the mammography experience unpleasant for patients, potentially leading to anxiety or reluctance in undergoing future screenings.

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17. An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is_________. (021-Principle of isolation)

Explanation

An isolation cart is an acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit because it provides a mobile and easily accessible storage space for necessary supplies and equipment. It allows healthcare workers to have everything they need within reach, reducing the need to leave the isolation unit and minimizing the risk of contamination. The isolation cart can be stocked with personal protective equipment, medications, and other essential items, ensuring that healthcare workers can efficiently and safely carry out their duties within the isolation unit.

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18. What is the unit of measurement for electric power? (207-Electric principles)

Explanation

The unit of measurement for electric power is watt. Watt is a unit of power, which represents the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred. It is named after the Scottish engineer James Watt, who made significant contributions to the development of the steam engine. The watt is commonly used to measure the power consumption or generation of electrical devices, and it is equal to one joule per second.

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19. What is used as the solvent for developer solution?
(246-Developer and fixer chemistry)

Explanation

Water is used as the solvent for developer solution. In developer and fixer chemistry, the developer solution is responsible for converting the latent image on the film or paper into a visible image. Water is commonly used as the solvent because it is readily available, non-toxic, and has good solubility properties for the chemicals used in the developer solution. It is also easily accessible and cost-effective, making it the most practical choice for a solvent in this context.

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20. When radiographing  the hand, the fingers cannot be fully extended for the PA projection and the metacarpals are of primary interest, what should you do? (431-Radiographic projections of the hand)

Explanation

When radiographing the hand, if the fingers cannot be fully extended for the PA projection and the metacarpals are of primary interest, the best course of action is to perform an AP projection of the hand instead. This allows for a clear view of the metacarpals even if the fingers cannot be fully extended. Angle the central ray until it is perpendicular to the metacarpals is not a correct answer as it does not address the issue of the fingers not being fully extended. Performing the normal PA projection and explaining to the radiologist that the patient could not extend the fingers is not the best option as it may not provide the necessary information. Forcing the hand flat and explaining to the patient that it is imperative to obtain this projection is not recommended as it may cause discomfort or injury to the patient.

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21. To reduce magnification of projected parts, a radiologic technologist should_______.
(236-How geometric factors influence magnification)

Explanation

To reduce magnification of projected parts, a radiologic technologist should increase the Source-to-Image Distance (SID) and decrease the Object-to-Image Distance (OID). Increasing the SID means moving the x-ray tube further away from the patient, which reduces the magnification effect. Decreasing the OID means bringing the object (patient) closer to the image receptor, which also reduces magnification. Therefore, increasing the SID and decreasing the OID will help minimize the magnification of projected parts.

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22. Which statement concerning the risk of screening mammography is true?
(610-Why screening?)

Explanation

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23. Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in what type of isolation?
(021-Principles of isolation)

Explanation

Reverse isolation is a type of isolation technique used for patients who are highly susceptible to infection. In reverse isolation, patients are protected from potential sources of infection by placing them in a controlled environment where the risk of exposure to pathogens is minimized. This type of isolation is commonly used for patients with compromised immune systems, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or organ transplant recipients. The goal of reverse isolation is to prevent the transmission of infectious agents to vulnerable patients and to provide a safe environment for their recovery.

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24. What is the smallest subdivision of a compound that still has the characteristic properties of that substance? (200-Properties of matter)

Explanation

A molecule is the smallest subdivision of a compound that still retains the characteristic properties of that substance. It consists of two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds. While atoms are the basic building blocks of matter, they do not possess the characteristic properties of a compound. Electrons, neutrons, and protons are subatomic particles that make up atoms, but they do not have the characteristic properties of a compound on their own. Therefore, the correct answer is molecule.

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25. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:

Explanation

Plethoric lung fields are seen in conditions which increase pulmonary blood flow. They are:
Left to right shunt – ASD, VSD, PDA, Coronary artery fistula into right heart, Aortopulmonary window
Transposition of great arteries with ASD or VSD
Truncus arteriosus
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection

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26. How are variations in processor operations identified before the affect film qualify?
(249-Sensitometry)

Explanation

Variations in processor operations can be identified before they affect film quality by using sensitometric filmstrip evaluation practices. This involves regularly evaluating filmstrips processed by the processor to analyze and measure various characteristics such as density, contrast, and fog level. By comparing the results with established standards, any variations or deviations can be detected and corrective actions can be taken to ensure consistent and accurate film processing. This method allows for proactive monitoring and maintenance of the processor, minimizing the risk of film quality issues.

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27. Stress views of the ankle demonstrate________.
(440-Radiographic projections of the ankle)

Explanation

Stress views of the ankle are used to evaluate the stability of the ankle joint and assess for ligamentous injuries. These views involve applying stress to the ankle joint to elicit any abnormal movement or widening of the joint space. In the case of tears in the medial and lateral ligaments, stress views would show increased gapping or widening of the affected side of the ankle joint. Therefore, the correct answer is tears in the medial and lateral ligaments.

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28. Which term is used to describe the host's ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism? (016-Infectious agents)

Explanation

Commensalism refers to a symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited. In the context of the question, commensalism describes the host's ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism. This means that the invading organism is able to live within the host without causing harm or benefiting the host. Therefore, commensalism is the term used to describe the host's ability to develop a tolerance for the invading organism.

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29. Which medical term means the absence of infection? (019-What is asepsis?)

Explanation

Asepsis is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of infection. Asepsis is a medical term used to describe the state of being free from harmful microorganisms that can cause infection. It involves practices and techniques that prevent the introduction or spread of infection in medical settings. Antiseptic and antimicrobial are related terms but do not specifically mean the absence of infection. Sepsis, on the other hand, refers to a severe infection that can lead to organ failure and is the opposite of asepsis.

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30. Which of these substances is ferromagnetic? (213-Principles of electromagnetic induction)

Explanation

Iron is ferromagnetic because it has unpaired electrons in its outermost shell. This causes the magnetic moments of the individual atoms to align in the same direction, creating a strong magnetic field. Copper and aluminum are not ferromagnetic because they do not have unpaired electrons. Wood and glass are non-magnetic materials.

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31. The purpose of a fuse is to___________. (219-Understanding fuses and grounding)

Explanation

The purpose of a fuse is to protect an electric circuit from current overload. When the current flowing through a circuit exceeds the rated limit of the fuse, it will melt and break the circuit, preventing any further flow of current. This helps to prevent damage to the circuit and any connected equipment, as well as reducing the risk of fire or other hazards caused by excessive current. Fuses are designed to be sacrificial components that can be easily replaced when they blow, allowing for the safe operation of electrical systems.

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32. What positioning error causes radial crossover on an AP forearm radiograph?
(433-Routine radiographic projections of the forearm)

Explanation

Pronation of the hand causes radial crossover on an AP forearm radiograph. When the hand is pronated, the radius and ulna bones cross over each other, resulting in the appearance of the radial bone crossing over the ulna bone on the radiograph. This positioning error can affect the accuracy of the image and make it difficult to interpret the anatomy of the forearm correctly.

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33. Why should you try to place the nipple in profile for both routine mammographic projections? (615-Routine mammographic positioning)

Explanation

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34. The axillary projection for mammography is designed to demonstrate the_________.
(616-Nonstandard mammographic imaging)

Explanation

The axillary projection for mammography is designed to demonstrate the tail of the breast. This projection is used to visualize the upper outer quadrant of the breast, including the tail, which is the extension of breast tissue into the axilla (armpit). This view is particularly important in detecting abnormalities in this area, such as tumors or cysts, that may not be visible in other projections. By positioning the patient correctly and using the axillary projection, radiologists can obtain a clear view of the tail of the breast and assess any potential abnormalities.

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35. Bone scan of a patient with Multiple Myeloma shows

Explanation

The bone scan of a patient with Multiple Myeloma shows cold spots. Cold spots on a bone scan indicate areas of decreased uptake of the radioactive tracer, suggesting decreased blood flow or decreased metabolic activity in those areas. In the context of Multiple Myeloma, cold spots may indicate areas of bone involvement by the disease, such as bone lesions or areas of bone destruction. This finding can help in diagnosing and staging the disease, as well as monitoring the response to treatment.

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36. In addition to the head, which structures are on the proximal humerus?
(415-Osteology of the humerus and elbow)

Explanation

The correct answer is greater and lesser tuberosities, and anatomical neck. The proximal humerus consists of the greater and lesser tuberosities, which are bony projections that serve as attachment sites for muscles and ligaments. The anatomical neck is a groove that separates the head of the humerus from the tuberosities. The other options provided, such as the trochanters, bicipital groove, and capitulum, are not located on the proximal humerus.

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37. What radiographic projection of the ankle involves adjusting the leg until the malleoli are parallel with the film? (440-Radiographic projections of the ankle)

Explanation

The correct answer is AP medial oblique. In this radiographic projection of the ankle, the leg is adjusted until the malleoli (the bony prominence on either side of the ankle) are parallel with the film. This allows for a clear visualization of the ankle joint and surrounding structures from a specific angle. The AP medial oblique projection is commonly used to assess fractures, dislocations, and other abnormalities in the ankle.

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38. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?

Explanation

Areas of spiculated microcalcifications on a mammogram would suggest malignancy. Spiculated microcalcifications are tiny calcium deposits that appear as small, linear, and irregular projections extending from a central point. These are commonly associated with breast cancer and can indicate the presence of a malignant tumor. The presence of spiculated microcalcifications is a significant finding on a mammogram and may warrant further investigation, such as a biopsy, to confirm the presence of cancer.

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39. What is the monthly repeat rate for a department that ordered 6,000 sheets of film, used 5,400, and had 270 repeated films for the month?
(011-Repeated film analysis)

Explanation

The monthly repeat rate is calculated by dividing the number of repeated films (270) by the number of films used (5,400) and then multiplying by 100 to get the percentage. In this case, the calculation would be (270/5,400) * 100 = 5 percent.

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40. Which type of micro-organism survives by entering a host cell and altering its reproductive structures to produce additional micro-organisms? (016-Infectious agents)

Explanation

Viruses are the type of micro-organism that survive by entering a host cell and altering its reproductive structures to produce additional micro-organisms. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, which means they cannot reproduce or survive outside of a host cell. Once inside a host cell, they take over the cell's machinery to replicate themselves, often causing damage to the host cell in the process. This alteration of the host cell's reproductive structures allows viruses to produce more viruses and spread the infection to other cells or hosts.

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41. Which type of bone are the phalages?
(403-Bone classification and formation)

Explanation

The phalanges are classified as long bones. Long bones are characterized by their elongated shape, with a shaft (diaphysis) and two ends (epiphyses). The phalanges, which are the bones of the fingers and toes, fit this description as they have a long, cylindrical shaft and two distinct ends. They also contain a medullary cavity filled with bone marrow and are responsible for supporting weight and facilitating movement.

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42. What type of joint is classified as immovable?
(404-Joint classification)

Explanation

Synarthrodial joints are classified as immovable joints. These joints are characterized by the absence of a joint cavity and the presence of fibrous connective tissue that holds the bones together. Examples of synarthrodial joints include the sutures in the skull and the teeth in their sockets. Intervertebral joints are classified as amphiarthrodial joints, which allow limited movement. Diarthrodial joints, also known as synovial joints, allow free movement and are the most common type of joint in the body. Amphiarthrodial joints allow limited movement and are found in the pelvis and spine.

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43. Which cranial sutures join to form the bregma?
(427-Cranial sutures and junctions)

Explanation

The bregma is formed by the junction of the coronal and sagittal sutures. The coronal suture runs horizontally across the skull, separating the frontal bone from the parietal bones. The sagittal suture runs vertically along the midline of the skull, separating the two parietal bones. The bregma is an important landmark in the skull and is used in the measurement of the skull in anthropological and medical studies.

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44. A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showd an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:

Explanation

Based on the given information, a 40-year-old female patient with recurrent headaches and an extra-axial, dural-based, enhancing lesion on MRI, the most likely diagnosis is meningioma. Meningiomas are typically benign tumors that arise from the meninges, the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord. They commonly present with symptoms such as headaches, seizures, and focal neurological deficits. The dural-based location and enhancement seen on MRI are consistent with the characteristics of a meningioma. Gliomas, schwannomas, and pituitary adenomas are less likely in this scenario.

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45. If a densitometer reads 1.0, how much of the light is being transmitted through the film?
(226-Defining density)

Explanation

A densitometer measures the density of a material, in this case, a film. A reading of 1.0 indicates that the film is blocking 90 percent of the light that is being transmitted through it. Therefore, only 10 percent of the light is being transmitted through the film.

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46. The sacrum is formed from______.
(412-Osteology of the sacrum and coccyx)

Explanation

The sacrum is a triangular bone located at the base of the spine, between the two hip bones. It is formed from five fused vertebrae, which are considered atypical because they have unique characteristics compared to the typical vertebrae found in the rest of the spine. These atypical vertebrae have larger size, thicker bodies, and fused transverse processes, among other distinctive features. Therefore, the correct answer is "five atypical vertebrae."

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47. What structures are located on the maxilla?
(428- Facial bones)

Explanation

The correct answer is Infraorbital foramen, zygomatic process, and palatine process. These structures are located on the maxilla, which is a facial bone. The infraorbital foramen is a small opening located below the eye socket, through which the infraorbital nerve and blood vessels pass. The zygomatic process is a bony projection that articulates with the zygomatic bone, forming the cheekbone. The palatine process is a horizontal portion of the maxilla that contributes to the formation of the hard palate.

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48. When using appropriate handwashing techniques, after cleaning your fingernails with an orange stick, you should________________. (020-Handwashing)

Explanation

After cleaning your fingernails with an orange stick, you should repeat the lathering and scrubbing steps. This is because cleaning your fingernails with an orange stick does not ensure that your hands are completely clean. By repeating the lathering and scrubbing steps, you can ensure that all areas of your hands, including your fingernails, are thoroughly cleaned and free from dirt and germs.

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49. Which bone forms the posterior, inferior part of the nasal septum?
(428-Facial bones)

Explanation

The bone that forms the posterior, inferior part of the nasal septum is the vomer. The vomer is a thin, flat bone that is located in the midline of the nasal cavity, separating the left and right sides. It helps to support the nasal septum and plays a role in the structure and function of the nose.

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50. A left lateral chest radiograph woud be ordered to evaluate the pathology in the right hemithorax. (445-Routine radiographs of the chest)

Explanation

An left lateral chest radiograph would not be ordered to evaluate the pathology in the right hemithorax because a left lateral chest radiograph would primarily show the left side of the chest, not the right side. Therefore, it would not provide a clear view of any pathology in the right hemithorax.

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51. Most common hormone deficiency seen after intracranial radiation therapy?

Explanation

After intracranial radiation therapy, the most common hormone deficiency is growth hormone. Radiation therapy can damage the pituitary gland, which is responsible for producing growth hormone. This can result in a deficiency of growth hormone, leading to growth retardation and other symptoms associated with growth hormone deficiency.

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52. Which substance is used to to reduce the number of micro-organisms on living tissue?
(019-What is asepsis?)

Explanation

Antiseptic is a substance used to reduce the number of micro-organisms on living tissue. It is specifically designed to be used on the skin or mucous membranes to prevent infection. Antitoxin is used to neutralize toxins produced by micro-organisms, anticoagulant is used to prevent blood from clotting, disinfectant is used to kill micro-organisms on surfaces, and anti-infectant is not a commonly used term in relation to reducing micro-organisms on living tissue. Therefore, antiseptic is the correct answer in this context.

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53. A nuclear accident victim exposed to 60 Gy would probably die from______.
(259-Acute radiation damage)

Explanation

Exposure to 60 Gy of radiation is a very high dose that can cause severe damage to the body. In this case, the high dose of radiation would likely cause damage to the brain and central nervous system, leading to increased intracranial pressure. This can result in brain swelling and compression, which can be fatal. The other options, such as internal bleeding, overwhelming infection, and electrolyte imbalance, can also occur as a result of radiation exposure, but intracranial pressure is the most immediate and life-threatening consequence at such a high dose.

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54. The benefit of performing a fan lateral hand radiograph as opposed to the standard lateral is it prevents_______. (431-Radiographic projections of the hand)

Explanation

Performing a fan lateral hand radiograph prevents superimposition of the phalanges. This is because a fan lateral radiograph involves angling the x-ray beam towards the hand from different directions, resulting in a spread of the phalanges and reducing the superimposition of the bones. This technique helps to obtain a clearer and more accurate image of the phalanges compared to a standard lateral radiograph, where the bones may overlap and cause superimposition.

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55. Most sensitive sonological indicator for aneuploidy is

Explanation

Nuchal translucency is the most sensitive sonological indicator for aneuploidy. This refers to the measurement of fluid accumulation at the back of the fetal neck during the first trimester ultrasound. Increased nuchal translucency is associated with a higher risk of chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome. It is a non-invasive and easily measurable parameter that can help in the early detection of aneuploidy. Gestational sac volume, crown-rump length, and serum B HCG level are not as specific or sensitive indicators for aneuploidy as nuchal translucency.

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56. Grid selection is a compromise between________.
(234-Factors to consider when selecting a grid)

Explanation

Grid selection is a compromise between film quality and patient exposure. This means that when selecting a grid, one must consider both the quality of the image produced on the film and the amount of radiation exposure the patient will receive. The grid should be chosen in such a way that it improves the image quality by reducing scattered radiation, while also minimizing the radiation dose to the patient.

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57. What distinguishes thoracic vertebrae from other typcial vertebrae?
(419-Osteology of the thoracic spine)

Explanation

Thoracic vertebrae are distinguished from other typical vertebrae by the presence of articular facets. Articular facets are small, smooth surfaces on the vertebrae that allow for articulation and movement with adjacent vertebrae. These facets are important for the flexibility and range of motion of the thoracic spine, particularly in relation to the ribs. The other options mentioned, such as being the largest and strongest, having transverse foramina, or having bifid spinous processes, are not specific characteristics that differentiate thoracic vertebrae from other typical vertebrae.

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58. For certain projections of the mastoids, the ears should be taped forward to__________.
(461-Radiographic projections of the temporal bone)

Explanation

Taping the ears forward in certain projections of the mastoids helps to increase detail. By moving the ears forward, the structures of the temporal bone become more visible and defined in the radiographic image. This technique allows for better visualization and analysis of the mastoids, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of any potential issues or abnormalities.

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59. On MRI the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:

Explanation

Myelomalacia is the correct answer because it refers to the softening of the spinal cord, which can be detected on an MRI. It is often caused by ischemia or hemorrhage in the spinal cord. The other options, myelodysplasia, myeloschisis, and cord tumors, are not directly related to spinal cord edema and would not be the most likely differential diagnoses in this case.

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60. Under normal circumstances, what is the earliest date a chest x-ray taken on 15 August 96 should be destroyed? (007-Disposition of radiology records)

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 January 2002. According to the question, the chest x-ray was taken on 15 August 96. Under normal circumstances, medical records are typically required to be kept for a certain number of years. In this case, the earliest date for the x-ray to be destroyed would be 1 January 2002, which is more than 5 years after the x-ray was taken. Therefore, it is safe to assume that the x-ray should be destroyed on or after this date.

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61. When performing QC tests on radiographic system components, an optical light meter is used to monitor__________. (010-Monitoring radiographic system components)

Explanation

An optical light meter is used to monitor the brightness levels in view boxes when performing QC tests on radiographic system components. View boxes are used to view and interpret radiographic images, and it is important to ensure that the brightness levels are consistent and appropriate for accurate diagnosis. The light meter helps in measuring the amount of light emitted by the view box, ensuring that it meets the required standards for optimal image viewing.

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62. Magnification reduces detail by_______.
(236-How geometric factors influence magnification)

Explanation

When magnification is increased, the focal spot blur also increases. This means that the area of focus becomes less sharp and clear, resulting in a reduction in detail. Therefore, the correct answer is increasing focal spot blur.

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63. What purpose does the fibula serve? (408-Osteology of the lower leg)

Explanation

The fibula serves the purpose of muscle attachment and ankle support. It provides attachment points for various muscles in the lower leg, allowing for movement and stability. Additionally, it contributes to the support and stability of the ankle joint, helping to prevent excessive movement and potential injuries.

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64. For an apical lordotic chest radiograph, what angle should be the coronal plane form with the film? (446-Additional radiographic projections of the chest)

Explanation

An apical lordotic chest radiograph is a specific type of X-ray image that is taken to visualize the apical (uppermost) part of the lungs. In this technique, the patient is positioned with their back against the image receptor and their chin elevated, causing the coronal plane of the chest to be at an angle. The correct angle for this coronal plane to form with the film is 45 degrees. This angle allows for optimal visualization of the apical region of the lungs.

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65. Which of the following controls the magnification factor for mammographic magnification views? (616-Nonstandard mammographic imaging)

Explanation

The magnification factor for mammographic magnification views is controlled by the Object-to-skin distance (OID). This distance refers to the distance between the object being imaged (such as a breast lesion) and the skin of the patient. By increasing the OID, the magnification of the object can be increased. Therefore, the OID is the correct answer for this question.

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66. Spongy appearance with central sunburst calcification is seen in?

Explanation

A spongy appearance with central sunburst calcification is a characteristic finding in serous cystadenoma. Serous cystadenoma is a benign neoplasm of the pancreas that is composed of numerous small cysts filled with clear serous fluid. The spongy appearance refers to the presence of multiple small cysts within the tumor. The central sunburst calcification refers to the presence of calcifications in the central portion of the cysts, giving a radiating appearance resembling a sunburst. This finding is highly suggestive of a serous cystadenoma and helps differentiate it from other pancreatic neoplasms.

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67. The upper portion of the innominate bone is formed by the_______.
(411-Osteology of the innominate bones and pelvis)

Explanation

The correct answer is ilium. The innominate bone, also known as the hip bone, is composed of three parts: the ilium, ischium, and pubis. The upper portion of the innominate bone is formed by the ilium, which is the largest and most superiorly positioned of the three parts. The ischium forms the lower and posterior portion, while the pubis forms the lower and anterior portion. The acetabulum is a cup-shaped socket on the lateral surface of the innominate bone, which serves as the point of articulation with the femur to form the hip joint.

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68. On a good inspiration of the PA chest radiograph, how many ribs should be demonstrated above the diaphragm? (445-Routine radiographic projections of the chest)

Explanation

On a good inspiration of the PA chest radiograph, nine posterior ribs should be demonstrated above the diaphragm. This means that the radiograph should show the ninth rib above the diaphragm, indicating a full inspiration and proper positioning of the patient. The number of anterior ribs is not specified in the answer, so we can infer that the focus is on the posterior ribs.

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69. What is the output voltage and amperage from a step-up transformer in the input voltage is 220 volts, the input current is 10 amps, and the turns ratio 5 to 1? (214-Transformer types and characteristics)

Explanation

A step-up transformer increases the voltage while decreasing the current. The turns ratio of 5 to 1 means that the output voltage will be 5 times the input voltage, and the output current will be 1/5th of the input current. Therefore, if the input voltage is 220 volts and the input current is 10 amps, the output voltage will be 220 * 5 = 1100 volts, and the output current will be 10 / 5 = 2 amps.

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70. Which of the four main circuits in an x-ray machine initiates, times, and terminates the x-ray exposure? (217-A basic x-ray machine electrical schematic)

Explanation

The control circuit in an x-ray machine is responsible for initiating, timing, and terminating the x-ray exposure. It controls the operation of the machine and ensures that the x-ray exposure is controlled and timed accurately. The control circuit communicates with other circuits in the machine to coordinate the various functions and ensure the safety and effectiveness of the x-ray procedure.

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71. Radiographs of the ribs below the diaphragm should be made with the patient________.
(448-Radiographic projections of the ribs)

Explanation

When taking radiographs of the ribs below the diaphragm, it is important to have the patient in a recumbent position (lying down) and to instruct them to hold their breath in the state of suspended expiration. This is because the diaphragm, which is a dome-shaped muscle separating the chest and abdominal cavities, moves upwards during inspiration and downwards during expiration. By having the patient in a recumbent position and asking them to hold their breath in the state of suspended expiration, the diaphragm is in a lower position, allowing for better visualization of the ribs below it.

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72. Where is the optic foramen projected when the head is properly positioned for the parieto-orbital oblique (Rhese) projection? (462-Radiographic projections of the orbits)

Explanation

When the head is properly positioned for the parieto-orbital oblique (Rhese) projection, the optic foramen is projected in the lower, outer quadrant of the orbit. This means that the X-ray beam is angled in a way that it passes through the lower and outer part of the orbit, allowing for a clear visualization of the optic foramen. This projection is commonly used to evaluate the optic foramen for any abnormalities or pathology.

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73. What is the ideal temperature and humidity for storing unexposed and unopened x-ray film?
(242-Proper handling and storage of film)

Explanation

The ideal temperature for storing unexposed and unopened x-ray film is between 50 to 70 degrees Fahrenheit. This temperature range helps to prevent any damage or degradation of the film. Additionally, the ideal relative humidity for storage is between 40 to 60 percent. This level of humidity helps to maintain the film's quality and prevent any moisture-related issues such as mold or warping.

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74. Which of the following radiographic projections of the elbow demonstrates the radial head free if superimposition? (434-Radiographic projections of the elbow)

Explanation

The AP lateral oblique radiographic projection of the elbow demonstrates the radial head free of superimposition. This projection allows for a clear view of the radial head by positioning the patient's arm in a specific angle and direction. By angling the X-ray beam and rotating the arm slightly, the radial head is visualized without overlapping with other structures, providing a clear image for diagnosis.

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75. A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift, but basal cistems were compressed with multiple small hemorrhages. What is the diagnosis

Explanation

The given scenario describes a male who is brought to the hospital unconscious with external injuries. The CT brain reveals no midline shift, but there are multiple small hemorrhages compressing the basal cisterns. This presentation is consistent with diffuse axonal injuries. Diffuse axonal injuries occur due to shearing forces in the brain, resulting in widespread damage to axons. The presence of multiple small hemorrhages and compression of the basal cisterns are characteristic findings in diffuse axonal injuries. Cortical contusion and cerebral laceration typically present with focal brain injuries, while multiple infarcts would involve ischemic damage rather than hemorrhages.

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76. Where do the collateral ligaments attach to the femur?
(409-Osteology of the knee and patella)

Explanation

The collateral ligaments of the knee attach to the epicondyles of the femur. The epicondyles are bony projections located on the distal end of the femur, just above the condyles. These ligaments, namely the medial collateral ligament (MCL) and the lateral collateral ligament (LCL), provide stability to the knee joint by connecting the femur to the tibia and preventing excessive side-to-side movement.

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77. Which problem associated with grid use results in a loss of density on both lateral borders of the film? (233-Common problems associated with grid use)

Explanation

When a grid is upside down and focused, it results in a loss of density on both lateral borders of the film. This means that the grid is not aligned properly with the x-ray beam, causing the grid lines to be misaligned with the direction of the x-rays. As a result, the grid fails to effectively absorb scatter radiation and reduces image contrast. This problem can be identified by the presence of decreased density on the lateral borders of the radiographic image.

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78. Under the newer S1 system for dose equivalent limits, what is the maximum accumulative dose for a 30 year old x-ray technologist? (261-Dose limits for radiation exposure)

Explanation

The maximum accumulative dose for a 30 year old x-ray technologist under the newer S1 system for dose equivalent limits is 300 mSv. This means that the technologist can receive a maximum dose of 300 mSv throughout their entire career without exceeding the dose limits set by the system.

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79. Which bony structures are located on the proximal portion of the radius?
(414-Osteology of the forearm)

Explanation

The correct answer is "Head and radial tuberosity." The head of the radius is located on the proximal portion of the bone and articulates with the capitulum of the humerus. The radial tuberosity is also located on the proximal portion of the radius and serves as an attachment site for the biceps brachii muscle.

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80. What tomographic movement is the most complex type of pluridirectional movement and produces near perfect blurring of complex structures? (617-Tomographic terminology and principles)

Explanation

Hypocycloidal movement is the most complex type of pluridirectional movement in tomography. It involves the rotation of the X-ray tube and the detector in opposite directions around a common center of rotation. This movement produces near perfect blurring of complex structures, allowing for better visualization of the internal anatomy.

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81. A black light is useful for______.
(245-Quality assurance procedures for intensifying screens)

Explanation

A black light is useful for inspecting screens for foreign objects because it can reveal any contaminants or debris that may be present on the screen. The black light causes certain substances, such as dust or oils, to fluoresce or glow, making them easier to spot. This can help ensure that the screens are clean and free from any foreign objects that could potentially affect the quality of the final image.

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82. Which set of factors will produce the largest exposure angle? (618-Slice thickness and exposure angle)

Explanation

Short SID refers to a shorter source-to-image distance, which means that the distance between the X-ray source and the image receptor is shorter. Long amplitude refers to a larger angle between the X-ray beam and the image receptor. When the SID is shorter and the amplitude is longer, it results in a larger exposure angle. This means that the X-ray beam will cover a wider area on the image receptor, resulting in a larger field of view and more exposure. Therefore, the combination of short SID and long amplitude will produce the largest exposure angle.

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83. During self induction, the relative motion is provided by__________. (213-Principles of electromagnetic induction)

Explanation

During self induction, the relative motion is provided by the expanding and collapsing magnetic field. This is because self induction occurs when the magnetic field produced by a changing current in a coil of wire induces an electromotive force (emf) in the same coil. This changing magnetic field is created by the expansion and collapse of the magnetic field lines as the current in the coil changes. Therefore, the expanding and collapsing magnetic field is responsible for the relative motion required for self induction to occur.

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84. Where on the scapula is the subscapular fossa located?
(416-Osteology of the shoulder girdle)

Explanation

The subscapular fossa is located on the anterior surface of the scapula.

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85. Today, the average patient dose per exposure for film-screen mammography is_______.
(609-Historical background)

Explanation

The correct answer is 40 mR. This is the average patient dose per exposure for film-screen mammography today. It is important to note that this value may vary depending on the specific equipment and techniques used, as well as the individual patient's characteristics. However, 40 mR is a commonly accepted average dose for mammography procedures.

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86. Why is the intensifying screen in a mammographic cassette mounted in the bottom of the cassette as opposed to the top? (612-Mammographic film, screens, and film processing)

Explanation

The intensifying screen in a mammographic cassette is mounted at the bottom to prevent it from attenuating the beam before it reaches the film. This positioning ensures that the X-ray beam passes through the screen before interacting with the film, allowing for maximum transmission of X-rays and optimal image quality. Placing the screen at the top would result in attenuation of the beam, leading to a decrease in image quality.

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87. Most chemoresistant tumors among the following is

Explanation

Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most chemoresistant tumor among the options given. Chemoresistance refers to the ability of a tumor to resist the effects of chemotherapy drugs. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is known for its resistance to chemotherapy, making it difficult to treat compared to the other types of tumors listed.

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88. Which half-value layer indicates the beam with the highest quality?
(225-Controlling beam quality)

Explanation

The half-value layer (HVL) is a measure of the penetrating power of a beam. A higher HVL indicates a higher quality beam as it can penetrate deeper into a material. In this case, the 4mm lead has the highest HVL among the given options, suggesting that it has the highest quality beam.

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89. The 50/15 rule allows us to________. (229-Factors affecting contrast)

Explanation

The 50/15 rule allows us to change the scale of contrast while maintaining density. This means that we can adjust the level of contrast in an image without affecting the overall darkness or lightness of the image. This can be useful in various applications, such as photography or medical imaging, where we may want to enhance or reduce the contrast in an image without altering its overall brightness or darkness.

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90. Which structure is demonstrated by an RPO T-spine radiograph?
(453-Additional radiographic projections of the thoracic spine)

Explanation

An RPO (right posterior oblique) T-spine radiograph is an imaging technique used to visualize the thoracic spine from a specific angle. In this view, the left apophyseal joints are demonstrated, meaning that the joints on the left side of the vertebrae are clearly visible in the image. The other options (right apophyseal joints, right intervertebral foramina, left intervertebral foramina, bilateral foramina) are not consistent with the specific view and positioning described in the question.

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91. Which of the following structures are located on the frontal bone?
(426-Bones of the cranium)

Explanation

The correct answer is Zygomatic process and nasal process. The frontal bone is located at the front of the skull and forms the forehead and part of the orbit of the eye. The zygomatic process is a bony projection that articulates with the zygomatic bone, forming the lateral part of the orbital rim. The nasal process is a bony projection that forms part of the bridge of the nose. Therefore, both the zygomatic process and nasal process are structures located on the frontal bone.

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92. Which position should be used to project the sternum away from the vertebrae and into the heart shadow?
(449-Radiograpic projections of the sternum)

Explanation

To project the sternum away from the vertebrae and into the heart shadow, a 15 to 20° RAO (Right Anterior Oblique) position should be used. This position helps to separate the sternum from the spine and move it towards the heart area, allowing for better visualization of the sternum on the radiograph. The RAO position is commonly used in radiography to obtain a clearer image of specific anatomical structures by angling the body part away from the central beam.

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93. Which formula is used to calculate tomographic tube movement?
(619-Tomographic equipment)

Explanation

The formula Amplitude = rate x time is used to calculate tomographic tube movement. This formula states that the amplitude of the tube movement is equal to the rate of movement multiplied by the time taken. This means that the greater the rate of movement or the longer the time taken, the larger the amplitude of the tube movement. Therefore, this formula is used to determine the extent of tube movement in tomographic equipment.

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94. In 110 volt, 60 cycle alternating current, how many alterations (impulses) are there per second? (210-Alternating current versus direct current)

Explanation

In a 110 volt, 60 cycle alternating current, there are 60 alterations or impulses per second. This means that the current changes direction 60 times in one second. Therefore, the correct answer is 120, as it represents the number of alterations per second in the given current.

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95. What is the name of the passageway formed by the junction of the vertebral body with the neural arch?

Explanation

The passageway formed by the junction of the vertebral body with the neural arch is called the vertebral foramen. This is where the spinal cord passes through, protected by the surrounding vertebrae. The other options listed are incorrect because they either refer to different structures or are not directly related to the passageway in question.

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96. Which position would be the most effective for demonstrating a right-sided injury to the anterior ribs above the diaphragm?
(448-Radiographic projections of the ribs)

Explanation

The LAO (Left anterior oblique) position would be the most effective for demonstrating a right-sided injury to the anterior ribs above the diaphragm. In this position, the patient is positioned obliquely with the left side closest to the image receptor, which allows for better visualization of the right anterior ribs. This position helps to separate the ribs and minimize superimposition, providing a clearer view of any potential injuries on the right side.

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97. What advantage does fixed fulcrum tomographic system have over an adjustable fulcrum system? (619-Tomographic equipment)

Explanation

The advantage of a fixed fulcrum tomographic system over an adjustable fulcrum system is that it maintains a constant focal plane-to-film distance. This means that the distance between the focal plane and the film remains the same throughout the tomographic movement. This is important because it ensures consistent and accurate imaging, as any variation in the distance could lead to distortions or blurring in the resulting images.

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98. Circular and elliptical pluridirectional tomographic movement will produce very thin slice thicknesses of less than one millimeter.

Explanation

Circular and elliptical pluridirectional tomographic movement will not produce very thin slice thicknesses of less than one millimeter. The statement is false because circular and elliptical pluridirectional tomographic movement refers to a scanning technique that captures images from multiple angles, but it does not necessarily guarantee thin slice thicknesses. The thickness of the slices is determined by the specific parameters and settings of the tomographic system being used.

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99. Why is the central portion of the x-ray beam used to image the posterior portion of the breast and the chest wall? (611-Mammographic equipment)

Explanation

The central portion of the x-ray beam is used to image the posterior portion of the breast and the chest wall because the perpendicular rays will not project breast tissue-off the film. This means that the central rays will pass straight through the breast tissue and onto the film, allowing for a clear image of the posterior portion of the breast and the chest wall without any superimposition from the clavicle or other structures. This technique helps to ensure accurate and clear mammographic images.

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100. If all other factors remain the same, reducing the target angle will result in___________.
(223-Characteristics of anode design and function)

Explanation

Reducing the target angle refers to decreasing the angle at which the electron beam strikes the anode in an X-ray tube. This change in angle will result in a decrease in the area of x-ray coverage. This is because a smaller target angle will cause the electron beam to strike a smaller area on the anode, resulting in a smaller area from which x-rays are emitted. Therefore, reducing the target angle will decrease the area of x-ray coverage.

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