C3p051 01 1307, Edit Code 03
Combat Arms Journeyman
Volume 1 & Volume 2 UREs
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Access to Air Force weapons and munitions and the information pertaining to them is
- A.
Free information
- B.
Strictly controlled
- C.
Determined by rank
- D.
For official use only (FOUO)
Correct Answer
B. Strictly controlledExplanation
The correct answer is "strictly controlled" because access to Air Force weapons and munitions, as well as the information related to them, is tightly regulated. This implies that there are specific protocols and procedures in place to ensure that only authorized personnel can access and handle these resources. This level of control helps maintain security and prevent unauthorized use or dissemination of sensitive information.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The number of weapons and storage facilities on an installation should be kept
- A.
An absolute secret
- B.
To an absolute minimum
- C.
To amount necessary for the installation
- D.
Written in the squadron operating procedures
Correct Answer
B. To an absolute minimumExplanation
The correct answer is "to an absolute minimum". This means that the number of weapons and storage facilities on an installation should be reduced to the lowest possible number. By keeping the number to a minimum, it helps to enhance security and prevent any potential threats. It also ensures that only the necessary amount of weapons and storage facilities are present, avoiding any excess or unnecessary items that could pose a risk. This practice is important for maintaining the safety and efficiency of the installation.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which type of eye protections should be used as primary eye and face protection in areas where splashing or dust, rather than impact resistance, is a concern?
- A.
Safety glasses
- B.
Eye goggles
- C.
Wrap shades
- D.
Face shield
Correct Answer
D. Face shieldExplanation
A face shield should be used as primary eye and face protection in areas where splashing or dust, rather than impact resistance, is a concern. Face shields provide full coverage and protect the entire face, including the eyes, from any splashes or airborne particles. Safety glasses, eye goggles, and wrap shades may provide some level of eye protection but do not offer the same level of coverage and protection as a face shield.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which type of exposure is a result of oxide dust or the fumes of metallic lead from bullets impacting or becoming lodged in backstop surfaces of indoor or outdoor firing ranges?
- A.
Zinc exposure
- B.
Lead exposure
- C.
Noxious gas exposure
- D.
Carbon dioxide exposure
Correct Answer
B. Lead exposureExplanation
The correct answer is lead exposure. This is because oxide dust or fumes of metallic lead from bullets can contaminate the backstop surfaces of firing ranges. When individuals come into contact with these surfaces, they may be exposed to lead, which can have harmful effects on their health.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Who does the Air Force rely on to determine the dangers related to the use of hazardous material (HAZMAT)?
- A.
The supplier or manufacturer of the chemical or agent
- B.
The Base Environmental Health Department
- C.
The Hazardous Materials Department
- D.
The Material Data Section
Correct Answer
A. The supplier or manufacturer of the chemical or agentExplanation
The Air Force relies on the supplier or manufacturer of the chemical or agent to determine the dangers related to the use of hazardous material (HAZMAT). This is because the supplier or manufacturer is responsible for providing accurate and up-to-date information about the chemical or agent, including any potential hazards or risks associated with its use. They are also required to provide safety data sheets (SDS) that contain detailed information about the chemical's properties, handling procedures, and emergency response measures. By relying on the supplier or manufacturer, the Air Force can ensure that they have the most reliable and comprehensive information to assess the dangers of using hazardous materials.Rate this question:
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- 6.
These data sheets provide in-depth information concerning any hazardous and toxic materials.
- A.
Hazardous control prevention sheet (HCPS)
- B.
Material safety distribution sheet (MSDS)
- C.
Hazardous material control sheet (ACDC)
- D.
Base environmental safety sheet (BESS)
Correct Answer
B. Material safety distribution sheet (MSDS)Explanation
The correct answer is Material safety distribution sheet (MSDS). This is because the given statement mentions that the data sheets provide in-depth information concerning hazardous and toxic materials. The MSDS is a document that contains detailed information about the potential hazards, safety precautions, and handling procedures for hazardous substances. It is commonly used in industries and workplaces to ensure the safe handling and use of these materials. The other options mentioned in the question (HCPS, ACDC, BESS) do not specifically relate to providing information about hazardous materials.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Hazardous material (HAZMAT) training is documented on which form?
- A.
AF Form 55
- B.
DD Form 55
- C.
HAZMAT Form 55
- D.
HAZCOM Form 55
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 55Explanation
Hazardous material (HAZMAT) training is documented on AF Form 55.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What should you refer to when determining the requirements for the safety operations of your firing range?
- A.
MAJCOM range safety guidelines
- B.
Air Force occupational health instructions
- C.
Air Force bioengineering safety instructions
- D.
USAF safety standards and range construction instructions
Correct Answer
B. Air Force occupational health instructionsExplanation
The Air Force occupational health instructions should be referred to when determining the requirements for the safety operations of your firing range. These instructions provide guidelines and regulations regarding the health and safety of personnel in the Air Force. They would likely include specific guidelines and requirements for operating a firing range safely, ensuring the well-being of all individuals involved.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who is responsible for contacting the appropriate base agencies on technical issues pertaining to range design?
- A.
AF Security Forces Center/Combat Arms
- B.
Security Forces commander
- C.
NCOIC of Combat Arms
- D.
Base commander
Correct Answer
C. NCOIC of Combat ArmsExplanation
The NCOIC (Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge) of Combat Arms is responsible for contacting the appropriate base agencies on technical issues pertaining to range design. This individual is in charge of overseeing the operations and training related to combat arms, including range design and maintenance. They have the knowledge and expertise to address technical issues and coordinate with other base agencies to ensure proper range design. The AF Security Forces Center/Combat Arms and Security Forces commander may also play a role in range design, but the NCOIC of Combat Arms is specifically responsible for contacting the appropriate base agencies on technical issues.Rate this question:
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- 10.
One important aspect of designing a small arms firing range is to determine
- A.
If you have enough personnel to staff it.
- B.
The type that will best fit your needs.
- C.
If the local area will support it.
- D.
The amount of money needed.
Correct Answer
B. The type that will best fit your needs.Explanation
When designing a small arms firing range, it is crucial to consider the type of range that will best fit your needs. This involves assessing factors such as the purpose of the range, the types of firearms to be used, the distance requirements, and any specific training or safety considerations. By determining the most suitable type of range, you can ensure that it meets the specific requirements and objectives of your organization or training program.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which is an angled baffle installed downrange to deflect and contain direct-fired rounds?
- A.
An overhead baffle.
- B.
A platform baffle.
- C.
A sidewall baffle.
- D.
A canopy baffle.
Correct Answer
A. An overhead baffle.Explanation
An overhead baffle is installed downrange to deflect and contain direct-fired rounds. It is positioned above the shooting area to provide a protective barrier that redirects bullets away from the shooter and prevents them from exiting the range. This type of baffle is commonly used in shooting ranges to ensure safety and minimize the risk of projectiles causing harm to individuals or property.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Side slope of earth berms must not exceed what vertical-to-horizontal ratio, unless materials are stabilized?
- A.
2:3
- B.
3:4
- C.
4:1
- D.
4:2
Correct Answer
A. 2:3Explanation
The side slope of earth berms must not exceed a vertical-to-horizontal ratio of 2:3, unless materials are stabilized. This means that for every 2 units of vertical rise, there should be 3 units of horizontal distance. This ratio ensures stability and prevents the berm from collapsing or eroding. If materials are stabilized, such as through the use of retaining walls or reinforcement, then the slope can be steeper.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which type of backstop was typically used on older partially or fully contained firing ranges?
- A.
Natural grasses.
- B.
Metal.
- C.
Earth.
- D.
Clay.
Correct Answer
B. Metal.Explanation
The correct answer is metal because older firing ranges typically used metal backstops to contain and absorb the impact of bullets. Metal backstops were commonly used due to their durability and ability to withstand repeated gunfire. They provided a solid barrier to prevent bullets from escaping the range and causing potential hazards. Additionally, metal backstops could be easily maintained and repaired if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Compliance with environmental cleanup and residue disposal is
- A.
Everyone's responsibility.
- B.
Conducted weekly.
- C.
Mandatory.
- D.
Optional.
Correct Answer
C. Mandatory.Explanation
The statement suggests that compliance with environmental cleanup and residue disposal is mandatory. This means that it is required by law or regulation for everyone to participate in these activities. It implies that individuals and organizations have a legal obligation to ensure that they clean up any environmental messes they create and properly dispose of any residues. This responsibility cannot be avoided or ignored, making it mandatory for everyone.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Designs for rifle, handgun, and shotgun firing ranges should provide for a minimum of how many firing points?
- A.
7
- B.
9
- C.
11
- D.
13
Correct Answer
A. 7Explanation
Designs for rifle, handgun, and shotgun firing ranges should provide for a minimum of 7 firing points. This means that the range should have at least 7 designated areas where shooters can safely fire their weapons. Having multiple firing points allows for more shooters to use the range simultaneously, increasing its capacity and efficiency. It also helps to ensure that there is enough space between shooters to maintain safety and prevent accidents.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Test fire is not required for which type of small arms firing range?
- A.
Semipartially contained
- B.
Partially contained
- C.
Fully contained
- D.
Noncontained
Correct Answer
D. NoncontainedExplanation
A noncontained small arms firing range does not require a test fire. This type of range does not have any containment measures in place to prevent bullets or projectiles from leaving the designated area. As a result, the range does not need to conduct a test fire to ensure that the containment measures are effective.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who is responsible to train, qualify and certify personnel on Air Force ground weapons and course of fire?
- A.
Range NCOIC.
- B.
Tower operator.
- C.
Primary instructor.
- D.
Assistant instructor.
Correct Answer
C. Primary instructor.Explanation
The primary instructor is responsible for training, qualifying, and certifying personnel on Air Force ground weapons and course of fire. They are the main point of contact for providing instruction and ensuring that individuals are properly trained and qualified in the use of ground weapons. The primary instructor plays a crucial role in maintaining the safety and proficiency of personnel in handling and operating these weapons.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Who is responsible for conducting immediate and remedial actions on the firing line?
- A.
Shooter
- B.
Tower operator
- C.
Primary instructor
- D.
Assistant instructor
Correct Answer
A. ShooterExplanation
The shooter is responsible for conducting immediate and remedial actions on the firing line. As the person actively engaging in shooting, they are in the best position to address any issues or emergencies that may arise. They are trained to handle the weapon safely and effectively, and are expected to take immediate action if there is a malfunction, misfire, or any other situation that requires intervention. The shooter is ultimately responsible for ensuring the safety and proper functioning of their firearm on the firing line.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Who is ultimately responsible for all range operations?
- A.
The primary instructor
- B.
The firing line official
- C.
The tower operator
- D.
Range NCOIC
Correct Answer
C. The tower operatorExplanation
The tower operator is ultimately responsible for all range operations. They oversee the overall management and coordination of activities on the range, ensuring the safety of personnel and proper execution of exercises. They communicate with the firing line official, range NCOIC, and other personnel to ensure smooth operations. The tower operator plays a crucial role in maintaining control and ensuring that all range activities are conducted in accordance with established protocols and safety guidelines.Rate this question:
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- 20.
They key to effective firing line operations is clear
- A.
Communication
- B.
Rank structure
- C.
Understanding
- D.
Orders
Correct Answer
A. CommunicationExplanation
Effective firing line operations require clear communication. Without clear communication, there can be confusion and misunderstandings, leading to mistakes and inefficiencies. Clear communication ensures that everyone understands their roles, responsibilities, and objectives. It allows for the effective transmission of orders, instructions, and information, ensuring that tasks are carried out efficiently and safely. Communication also enables coordination and synchronization among team members, enhancing overall effectiveness and achieving desired outcomes. Therefore, communication is crucial for successful firing line operations.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How often are operating instructions (OI) required to be reviewed?
- A.
Semi-annually.
- B.
As needed.
- C.
Annually.
- D.
Monthly.
Correct Answer
C. Annually.Explanation
Operating instructions (OI) need to be reviewed annually to ensure they are up to date and accurate. This allows organizations to identify any necessary updates or changes to the instructions based on evolving processes, technologies, or regulations. Regular reviews help maintain the effectiveness and reliability of the operating instructions, ensuring that employees have access to the most current and relevant information to perform their tasks safely and efficiently. Monthly or semi-annual reviews may be excessive and time-consuming, while "as needed" does not provide a specific timeframe for review, making annual review the most practical option.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which number, assigned by the manufacturer, is used to readily identify and account for ammunition?
- A.
Ammunition lot number.
- B.
Functional lot number.
- C.
Caliber lot number.
- D.
Lost lot number.
Correct Answer
A. Ammunition lot number.Explanation
The correct answer is ammunition lot number. This number, assigned by the manufacturer, is used to readily identify and account for ammunition. It helps in tracking and managing the inventory of ammunition, ensuring that it is properly accounted for and can be traced back to its source if needed. The ammunition lot number is an important aspect of ammunition management and control.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which website shows the training munitions allowances for different career fields and units in the Air Force?
- A.
Global Ammunition Control Point (GACP).
- B.
Ground Munitions Authorization Tables (GMAT).
- C.
World Wide Ammunition Allowance Listing (WWAAL).
- D.
Global Ammunition Authorized Allowance Listing (GMAAL).
Correct Answer
A. Global Ammunition Control Point (GACP).Explanation
The correct answer is Global Ammunition Control Point (GACP). This website shows the training munitions allowances for different career fields and units in the Air Force. The other options, Ground Munitions Authorization Tables (GMAT), World Wide Ammunition Allowance Listing (WWAAL), and Global Ammunition Authorized Allowance Listing (GMAAL), do not specifically mention training munitions or provide the same level of information as the GACP.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What percentage of each weapon type an organization has in extended storage/preferred packaging must be inspected annually?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
40
Correct Answer
B. 20Explanation
An organization must inspect 20% of each weapon type in extended storage/preferred packaging annually. This means that out of all the weapons of each type that the organization has in storage, 20% of them must be inspected every year to ensure their safety and functionality. This regular inspection helps the organization maintain a high level of readiness and prevent any potential issues or malfunctions with their weapons.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The moment during breathing when most of the air has been exhaled from your lungs before you inhale is known as
- A.
Diaphragm pause.
- B.
Oxygen deficiency.
- C.
Point of re-breathing.
- D.
Natural respiratory pause.
Correct Answer
D. Natural respiratory pause.Explanation
The natural respiratory pause refers to the moment during breathing when most of the air has been exhaled from the lungs before inhaling again. This pause allows the body to reset and prepare for the next breath. It is a normal and necessary part of the breathing process.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following is probably the most challenging fundamental?
- A.
Trigger control
- B.
Breath control.
- C.
Sight picture.
- D.
Aiming.
Correct Answer
A. Trigger controlExplanation
Trigger control is likely the most challenging fundamental because it requires a high level of precision and discipline. Proper trigger control involves applying steady pressure to the trigger without disturbing the sight picture, resulting in accurate and consistent shots. It requires a delicate balance between smoothness and control, which can be difficult to master. Mistakes in trigger control can lead to jerking or flinching, negatively impacting accuracy. Therefore, mastering trigger control is crucial for achieving precision and consistency in shooting.Rate this question:
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- 27.
When making a windage adjustment on iron sight, rotating the knob clockwise will move the strike of the bullet
- A.
Up
- B.
Down
- C.
Right
- D.
Left
Correct Answer
C. RightExplanation
When making a windage adjustment on iron sight, rotating the knob clockwise will move the strike of the bullet to the right. This is because windage refers to the horizontal adjustment of the sight to compensate for the wind's effect on the bullet's trajectory. By rotating the knob clockwise, the sight is moved to the right, aligning the bullet's path accordingly.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following in commonly referred to as the "push-pull" method?
- A.
Two handed tension.
- B.
Isometric tension.
- C.
One handed grip.
- D.
Isosceles grip.
Correct Answer
B. Isometric tension.Explanation
The "push-pull" method is commonly referred to as isometric tension. Isometric tension involves exerting equal force in opposite directions, creating a balanced push-pull effect. This technique is often used in various exercises and sports to build strength and stability.Rate this question:
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- 29.
At which stage of the draw will you rotate the weapon towards the target while keeping it close to the body?
- A.
Grab
- B.
Draw
- C.
Smack
- D.
Look and press
Correct Answer
B. DrawExplanation
During the draw stage, you will rotate the weapon towards the target while keeping it close to the body. This is the moment when you are actually pulling the weapon out of its holster or sheath and preparing to use it. It is important to rotate it towards the target to ensure accuracy and efficiency in the subsequent actions.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Correct sigh picture for the M203 includes sight alignment and
- A.
Range sensing
- B.
Sight alignment
- C.
Placing of aiming point
- D.
Trigger squeeze and P-R-E-S-S
Correct Answer
C. Placing of aiming pointExplanation
The correct answer is placing of aiming point. In order to accurately hit a target with the M203, it is important to properly align the sights and place the aiming point on the target. This ensures that the projectile will be launched in the intended direction and hit the desired target. Range sensing, sight alignment, and trigger squeeze are all important aspects of firing a weapon, but the specific requirement mentioned in the question is the placing of the aiming point.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Determining where a grenade explodes with respect to the target is called
- A.
Estimating
- B.
Guessing
- C.
Sensing
- D.
Hunch
Correct Answer
C. SensingExplanation
Sensing refers to the act of perceiving or detecting something through the use of the senses. In the context of the question, determining where a grenade explodes with respect to the target requires the ability to sense or perceive the location of the explosion. This involves using sensory information, such as sight or sound, to assess the position of the explosion in relation to the target. Therefore, sensing is the most appropriate term to describe this action.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which range sensing command indicates you hit part of the target?
- A.
Target
- B.
Over
- C.
Short
- D.
Doubtful
Correct Answer
A. TargetExplanation
The correct answer is "Target" because when using range sensing, if the sensor detects the target, it means that part of the target has been hit. The other options, "Over," "Short," and "Doubtful," do not indicate hitting part of the target, but rather suggest missing the target or uncertainty about hitting it.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When zeroing the M203 using either the leaf or quadrant sight, you will engage a target at how many meters?
- A.
25 meters
- B.
50 meters
- C.
100 meters
- D.
200 meters
Correct Answer
D. 200 metersExplanation
When zeroing the M203 using either the leaf or quadrant sight, you will engage a target at 200 meters. This means that when adjusting the sight on the M203 launcher, it is set to accurately hit a target at a distance of 200 meters. This information is important for soldiers using the M203 to ensure their shots are accurate and effective at the intended range.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following is an excellent machine gun firing position that provides a stable firing platform?
- A.
Fighting position, bipod-supported
- B.
Fighting position, tripod-supported
- C.
Prone position, bipod-supported
- D.
Prone position, tripod-supported
Correct Answer
A. Fighting position, bipod-supportedExplanation
A bipod-supported fighting position is an excellent machine gun firing position that provides a stable firing platform. The bipod provides stability and support for the machine gun, allowing for accurate and controlled firing. The fighting position also offers additional protection and cover for the gunner. This position allows for better control and maneuverability compared to a prone position, as the gunner can adjust the height and angle of the bipod to adapt to different firing scenarios. A tripod-supported fighting position may offer even more stability, but it is not specified as an "excellent" position in the given options.Rate this question:
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- 35.
In regard to marksmanship techniques, centering the sights within their maximum adjustment area is the definition for
- A.
Adjusted calibration method
- B.
Adjusted aiming point
- C.
Mechanical zero
- D.
Battlesight zero
Correct Answer
C. Mechanical zeroExplanation
Mechanical zero refers to the process of centering the sights within their maximum adjustment area. This ensures that the sights are properly aligned and calibrated, allowing for accurate aiming and shooting. It is an important marksmanship technique that helps in achieving precision and consistency in shooting.Rate this question:
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- 36.
To ensure training aids are used effectively, they should
- A.
Appeal to one or more of the senses
- B.
Be produced locally
- C.
Be interesting
- D.
Be colorful
Correct Answer
A. Appeal to one or more of the sensesExplanation
Training aids should appeal to one or more of the senses in order to be used effectively. This means that the aids should engage the learners' senses of sight, hearing, touch, taste, or smell, making the training experience more interactive and memorable. By appealing to the senses, the aids can enhance the learners' understanding and retention of the information being presented, as well as increase their overall engagement and interest in the training material.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which training aid is probably the most versatile and frequently used?
- A.
Overhead transparencies
- B.
Dry erase board
- C.
Video footage
- D.
Handout
Correct Answer
B. Dry erase boardExplanation
The dry erase board is probably the most versatile and frequently used training aid because it allows for easy writing and erasing, making it suitable for various types of presentations and discussions. Unlike overhead transparencies, which require a projector, or video footage, which may be limited in content, the dry erase board offers flexibility in presenting and organizing information. Additionally, it allows for interaction and engagement as participants can actively participate in writing and drawing on the board. Handouts may be useful for distributing information, but they lack the dynamic nature and adaptability of a dry erase board.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which category of training equipment includes items that retain their assigned nomenclature and Federal Supply Classification in the training program?
- A.
Trainers
- B.
Training aids
- C.
Instructional aids
- D.
Standard equipment
Correct Answer
D. Standard equipmentExplanation
Standard equipment refers to items that retain their assigned nomenclature and Federal Supply Classification in the training program. This means that these items are used in the training program exactly as they are used in real-life situations. They are not modified or adapted for training purposes. Trainers, training aids, and instructional aids may be specifically designed or modified for training purposes, whereas standard equipment remains unchanged.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What should you do with a training aid that supports an old topic?
- A.
Leave them out to keep the students' attention
- B.
Put them out of sight so the students can reflect
- C.
Put them out of sight so they do not distract the students
- D.
Place them where the students can review them during a break
Correct Answer
C. Put them out of sight so they do not distract the studentsExplanation
It is important to put the training aid out of sight so that it does not distract the students. This is because if the training aid is visible, it may draw the attention of the students away from the current topic being taught. By putting it out of sight, the students can focus on the new topic without any distractions.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which training exercise is an excellent means of detecting if a shooter is anticipating when the weapon is going to fire?
- A.
Pencil drills
- B.
Ball and dummy
- C.
Dime and washer
- D.
Sighting and aiming
Correct Answer
B. Ball and dummyExplanation
Ball and dummy training is an excellent means of detecting if a shooter is anticipating when the weapon is going to fire. This training involves mixing live rounds (ball) with inert rounds (dummy) in the shooter's magazine or cylinder without their knowledge. If the shooter is anticipating the recoil and flinching when a dummy round is fired, it indicates a problem with their shooting technique. This exercise helps in identifying and correcting any anticipation or flinching issues, leading to improved shooting accuracy and control.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Generally, performance tests are developed in a format that meets what type of needs?
- A.
Local
- B.
MAJCOM
- C.
Individual
- D.
Air Force
Correct Answer
A. LocalExplanation
Performance tests are developed in a format that meets local needs. This means that the tests are tailored to the specific requirements and conditions of a particular locality or region. By developing tests that are specific to the local context, organizations can ensure that the performance evaluation accurately reflects the capabilities and limitations of the individuals or systems being tested. This approach allows for a more targeted and meaningful assessment of performance, leading to more effective decision-making and improvement strategies.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What's another name for a performance evaluation checklist?
- A.
Objective elimination instrument
- B.
Objective evaluation instruction
- C.
Objective elimination instruction
- D.
Objective evaluation instrument
Correct Answer
D. Objective evaluation instrumentExplanation
The correct answer is "Objective evaluation instrument." A performance evaluation checklist is a tool used to assess and measure an individual's performance based on predetermined objectives or criteria. It provides a structured and systematic approach to evaluate an individual's performance against specific goals and standards. The term "objective evaluation instrument" accurately describes the purpose and function of a performance evaluation checklist.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which performance evaluation checklist list the sequential steps the students are to perform?
- A.
End-process
- B.
In-product
- C.
In-process
- D.
Out-process
Correct Answer
C. In-processExplanation
The correct answer is "In-process". This checklist focuses on the sequential steps that students need to perform during their performance evaluation. It emphasizes the ongoing process and the specific steps that need to be followed in order to evaluate the performance effectively.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Student feedback the instructor provides generally serves one of two purposes - informational and
- A.
Correctional
- B.
Motivational
- C.
Inspirational
- D.
Educational
Correct Answer
B. MotivationalExplanation
The correct answer is "motivational." Student feedback from instructors can serve as a source of motivation, encouraging students to continue their efforts and improve their performance. This feedback can include positive reinforcement, highlighting areas of strength, and offering suggestions for further growth.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Students usually accept instructor feedback if it is presented with
- A.
Conviction and sincerity
- B.
Care and understanding
- C.
Insults and put downs
- D.
Anger and bias
Correct Answer
A. Conviction and sincerityExplanation
Students usually accept instructor feedback if it is presented with conviction and sincerity. This is because when feedback is delivered with conviction, it shows that the instructor believes in the feedback and its importance. This can motivate students to take the feedback seriously and make necessary improvements. Additionally, sincerity in feedback delivery helps to establish trust and credibility between the instructor and students, creating a positive learning environment. Students are more likely to be receptive to feedback when they feel that the instructor genuinely cares about their progress and wants to help them succeed.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What is the approximate muzzle velocity for the M4 carbine?
- A.
2,970 feet per second (fps) (905 meters per second) (mps)
- B.
2,975 fps (912 mps)
- C.
3,100 fps (945 mps)
- D.
3,500 fps (1,100 mps)
Correct Answer
A. 2,970 feet per second (fps) (905 meters per second) (mps)Explanation
The approximate muzzle velocity for the M4 carbine is 2,970 feet per second (fps) or 905 meters per second (mps).Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which assembly houses the trigger assembly, sear, hammer assembly, selector lever, rifle grip, bolt catch, and buttstock assembly?
- A.
Bolt carrier assembly
- B.
Charging handle assembly
- C.
Upper receiver and barrel assembly
- D.
Lower receiver and buttstock assembly
Correct Answer
D. Lower receiver and buttstock assemblyExplanation
The lower receiver and buttstock assembly houses the trigger assembly, sear, hammer assembly, selector lever, rifle grip, bolt catch, and buttstock assembly. This is where the majority of the firing mechanism components are located, including the trigger and hammer. The buttstock assembly is also attached to the lower receiver, providing support and stability to the firearm. Therefore, the lower receiver and buttstock assembly is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The test or inspection on the M4 carbine for a failure to chamber malfunction requires an inspection of the action spring. What is the free length for the action spring on the M4 carbine?
- A.
10 1/16 in (25.56 cm) minimum to 11 1/4 in (28.58 cm) maximum
- B.
10 1/16 in (25.56 cm) minimum to 13 1/2 in (34.29 cm) maximum
- C.
11 1/4 in (28.58 cm) minimum to 11 3/4 in (34.29 cm) maximum
- D.
11 3/4 (29.85 cm) minimum to 13 1/2 in (34.29 cm) maximum
Correct Answer
A. 10 1/16 in (25.56 cm) minimum to 11 1/4 in (28.58 cm) maximumExplanation
The correct answer is 10 1/16 in (25.56 cm) minimum to 11 1/4 in (28.58 cm) maximum. This is the range of free length for the action spring on the M4 carbine that should be inspected during the test or inspection for a failure to chamber malfunction. It is important to ensure that the action spring falls within this range to ensure proper functioning of the carbine.Rate this question:
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- 49.
If you replace the bolt carrier key, how many rounds of blank or ball ammunition must be fired to ensure a seal is created?
- A.
3 to 8
- B.
4 to 6
- C.
6 to 8
- D.
8 to 10
Correct Answer
A. 3 to 8Explanation
To ensure a seal is created when replacing the bolt carrier key, it is recommended to fire 3 to 8 rounds of blank or ball ammunition. Firing these rounds helps to create the necessary pressure and force to properly seal the bolt carrier key.Rate this question:
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- 50.
You have experienced a short recoil malfunction and found improper gap space in the gas rings. to prevent this from happening again, the bolt rings should be staggered approximately
- A.
1/2 turn apart
- B.
1/3 turn apart
- C.
1/4 turn apart
- D.
1/8 turn apart
Correct Answer
B. 1/3 turn apartExplanation
To prevent a short recoil malfunction caused by improper gap space in the gas rings, the bolt rings should be staggered approximately 1/3 turn apart. This means that each ring should be rotated about one-third of a full turn in relation to the adjacent ring. Staggering the rings in this manner helps to ensure that they are properly aligned and provide a tight seal, preventing gas leakage and improving the overall functioning of the firearm.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jul 22, 2015Quiz Created by
CombatArms
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