1s051 Volume 2 (Edit Code 5)

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Jim
J
Jim
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 561
| Attempts: 140 | Questions: 65
Please wait...
Question 1 / 65
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. What is one of the responsibilities of the bioenvironmental engineering flight with confined spaces? 

Explanation

The responsibility of the bioenvironmental engineering flight with confined spaces is to provide training on calibration of monitoring equipment. This means that they are responsible for teaching and educating others on how to properly calibrate the monitoring equipment used in confined spaces. This is important as accurate calibration ensures that the equipment is functioning correctly and can effectively monitor the environment for any potential hazards or risks.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Occupational Safety Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled '1S051 VOLUME 2 (EDIT CODE 5)', assesses knowledge on the confined space program team's composition, responsibilities, and required training. It is designed for individuals involved... see morein managing or operating in confined spaces, focusing on safety protocols and regulatory compliance. see less

2. Under what conditions is the organizational rescue team required to be on-scene for permit- required confined space?

Explanation

The organizational rescue team is required to be on-scene for permit-required confined spaces when the situation is immediately dangerous to life and health. This means that there is a high risk to the safety and well-being of individuals in the confined space, such as the presence of hazardous gases, lack of oxygen, or other life-threatening conditions. In such cases, the rescue team needs to be present to provide immediate assistance and ensure the safety of those involved.

Submit
3. Prior to entry into the permit required confined space, how will atmospheric monitoring be conducted to the interior of the space?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
4. What documentation must be accomplished before workers enter a permit-required confined space? 

Explanation

Before workers enter a permit-required confined space, they must accomplish an entry permit. This permit is a document that outlines the necessary precautions, procedures, and safety measures that need to be followed when entering the confined space. It includes information about potential hazards, emergency procedures, and the duration of the entry. The entry permit ensures that workers are aware of the risks and have taken the necessary precautions to safely enter and work in the confined space.

Submit
5. What action should be taken if a door could be mistaken for an exit? 

Explanation

If a door could be mistaken for an exit, the appropriate action would be to post a "NOT AN EXIT" sign. This sign would help to clearly indicate that the door does not lead to an exit and prevent any confusion or potential accidents. It is important to provide clear and accurate signage in order to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals in the building.

Submit
6. Which activity were over half of the victims of fatal confined space mishaps doing according to the conclusions of an Occupational Safety and Health Administration accident review?

Explanation

According to the conclusions of an Occupational Safety and Health Administration accident review, over half of the victims of fatal confined space mishaps were attempting to rescue the entrant.

Submit
7. How often must both centrally located and organizational rescue team receive hands-on training in removing victims from a confined space?

Explanation

Both centrally located and organizational rescue teams must receive hands-on training in removing victims from a confined space at least once every 12 months. This ensures that the rescue teams are regularly updated and proficient in their skills and knowledge related to confined space rescue. Regular training helps them stay prepared and capable of handling any emergency situation that may arise in confined spaces.

Submit
8. Why do entrants need to be knowledgeable of the type of substance known or expected in the confined space?

Explanation

Entrants need to be knowledgeable of the type of substance known or expected in the confined space in order to recognize symptoms and effects of exposure. This is crucial for their safety as it allows them to identify any potential hazards and take appropriate precautions. By understanding the characteristics of the substance, entrants can be aware of the potential health risks and symptoms that may arise from exposure. This knowledge enables them to respond promptly and appropriately in case of any adverse effects, ensuring their well-being inside the confined space.

Submit
9. 12. (205) At what intervals does the testing, measurement, diagnostic and evaluation lab perform the calibration of atmospheric monitoring equipment for confined spaces?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Per manufacturer's instructions. The testing, measurement, diagnostic, and evaluation lab performs the calibration of atmospheric monitoring equipment for confined spaces according to the instructions provided by the manufacturer. This ensures that the equipment is calibrated correctly and accurately measures the atmospheric conditions in confined spaces. Calibration intervals may vary depending on the specific manufacturer's recommendations for each piece of equipment.

Submit
10. When will the emergency action plan need to be reviewed by all employees? 

Explanation

The emergency action plan will need to be reviewed by all employees when the plan is changed. This is because any changes made to the plan may affect the procedures and actions that employees need to take during an emergency situation. It is important for all employees to be aware of and trained on any updates or modifications to the plan to ensure their safety and the effectiveness of the plan in responding to emergencies.

Submit
11. If hazardous atmosphere is identified in a confined space, what action may be taken in attempt to clear the hazard?

Explanation

If a hazardous atmosphere is identified in a confined space, the action that may be taken in an attempt to clear the hazard is forced air ventilation. This involves using mechanical means, such as fans or blowers, to introduce fresh air into the space and remove the hazardous gases or vapors. Forced air ventilation helps to dilute and disperse the hazardous atmosphere, making the space safe for workers to enter. Contacting the fire emergency service may be necessary in some situations, but it is not the primary action for clearing the hazard. Continuous atmospheric monitoring is important to ensure that the hazardous atmosphere has been effectively cleared. Using an open flame to consume flammable gas and vapors is extremely dangerous and should never be done in a confined space.

Submit
12. Which type of confined spaces has an atmosphere that is not hazardous nor is expected to become hazardous?

Explanation

A non-permit confined space is a type of confined space that does not contain any hazards or potential hazards. This means that the atmosphere within the space is not hazardous and is not expected to become hazardous. Non-permit confined spaces do not require a permit for entry, as there are no specific precautions or procedures needed to ensure the safety of workers entering the space.

Submit
13.
  1.  Which of the following is not a required member of the confined space program team? 

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Public health. Public health is not a required member of the confined space program team because their expertise is not directly related to the safety and operations of confined spaces. The other options, such as ground safety, fire emergency services, and bioenvironmental engineering, are all important members of the team as they contribute to the identification and mitigation of risks associated with confined spaces.

Submit
14. Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation illustrates the hazard control method of

Explanation

Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation is an example of the hazard control method of isolation. Isolation involves physically separating the worker from the hazard, creating a barrier or distance to prevent direct contact or exposure. In this case, the guard or barrier acts as a physical barrier, preventing the worker from coming into direct contact with the hazardous operation and reducing the risk of injury or exposure to the hazard.

Submit
15. How often will the confined space program team meet? 

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Annually. This means that the confined space program team will meet once a year. This frequency allows the team to review and update the program, discuss any changes or issues, and ensure that all members are informed and trained on the latest procedures and safety measures. Meeting annually also allows for sufficient time to implement any necessary improvements or adjustments to the program.

Submit
16. Which of the following is NOT one of the three criteria of a confined space? 

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Has poor lighting. This is not one of the three criteria of a confined space. The three criteria of a confined space are: it has restricted means for entry and exit, it is not designed for continuous occupancy, and it is large enough for a person to enter and perform work. Poor lighting is not mentioned as one of the criteria.

Submit
17. When will the fire prevention plan be reviewed by an employee? 

Explanation

The fire prevention plan will be reviewed by an employee both at the initial assignment and whenever it is updated. This means that when a new employee is assigned to review the plan, they will go through it thoroughly. Additionally, if any changes or updates are made to the plan, an employee will review it again to ensure that they are aware of any modifications. This ensures that the fire prevention plan is regularly assessed and kept up to date.

Submit
18. Which action best illustrates the hazard control method of substitution? 

Explanation

The best action that illustrates the hazard control method of substitution is replacing one solvent with a less toxic one. This is because substitution involves replacing a hazardous substance or process with a less hazardous alternative. In this case, by replacing a toxic solvent with a less toxic one, the risk to personnel working with the solvent is reduced. Building a barrier, assigning well-trained personnel, and issuing safety shoes are examples of other hazard control methods, but they do not specifically involve substitution.

Submit
19. Which type glove must be used as outer protection when rubber insulating gloves are being used? 

Explanation

When rubber insulating gloves are being used, leather gloves must be used as outer protection. Leather gloves provide an additional layer of protection against physical hazards such as cuts, abrasions, and punctures. They are durable and offer good grip, making them suitable for various work environments. Cotton and wool gloves may not provide adequate protection, while synthetic gloves may not have the same level of durability and resistance as leather gloves. Therefore, leather gloves are the most appropriate choice for outer protection when using rubber insulating gloves.

Submit
20. The atmospheric monitoring equipment will be used to test the internal atmosphere of the space in the following order:

Explanation

The correct answer is b. oxygen, flammability, then toxicity. This order is logical because the first priority is to ensure that there is enough oxygen for humans to breathe. Next, it is important to test for flammability to prevent any potential fire hazards. Finally, toxicity is checked to ensure that the air is not harmful to humans. This order follows a logical sequence of addressing the most critical safety concerns first.

Submit
21. What does the entry supervisor do after all conditions for entry into the confined space are met? 

Explanation

After all conditions for entry into the confined space are met, the entry supervisor's next step is to sign the entry permit. This is important as it serves as a formal authorization for individuals to enter the confined space and ensures that all necessary safety measures have been taken and documented. By signing the entry permit, the entry supervisor acknowledges that they have reviewed and approved the entry procedures and that it is safe for workers to enter the confined space.

Submit
22. When would an entry permit not be required to be approved by ground safety, bioenvironmental engineering, and fire emergency services prior to entry into a confined space? 

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Identified on the master entry permit. This means that if the confined space is already identified on the master entry permit, it does not need to be separately approved by ground safety, bioenvironmental engineering, and fire emergency services prior to entry. The master entry permit serves as a comprehensive document that outlines all the necessary approvals and safety measures for entering confined spaces.

Submit
23. What is a hazard with a confined space with an internal configuration with inwardly converging walls or a floor which slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross section? 

Explanation

A confined space with inwardly converging walls or a sloping floor that tapers to a smaller cross section can pose a hazard because an entrant may become trapped. The narrowing shape of the space increases the risk of the entrant getting stuck or wedged in the confined area. This can make it difficult for the person to move or escape, potentially leading to serious injury or even death. It is important to be aware of this hazard and take appropriate precautions when working in or around such confined spaces.

Submit
24. Which individual, other than the entrant, must meet the entrant training requirements? 

Explanation

The entry supervisor is responsible for ensuring that the entrant training requirements are met by all individuals involved in the entry. This includes the entrant themselves as well as any assigned attendants. The entry supervisor oversees the entire entry process and is responsible for ensuring the safety of all personnel on the site.

Submit
25. Safety helmets can be broken down into how many types and classes? 

Explanation

Safety helmets can be classified into two types: Type I helmets, which provide protection from impacts to the top of the head, and Type II helmets, which offer protection from impacts to the top and sides of the head. These types of helmets can further be divided into three classes: Class G helmets, which are general helmets for electrical work; Class E helmets, which are designed for electrical work with high voltage; and Class C helmets, which are used for lightweight comfort and offer no electrical protection. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Two types; three classes.

Submit
26.  If during an annual inspection of the child development center you identify and document several fire deficiencies, what should be your next course of action?

Explanation

The correct course of action would be to report the fire deficiencies to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action. This is because the fire department is responsible for enforcing fire safety regulations and ensuring the safety of the child development center. By reporting the deficiencies to them, they can take the necessary actions to address and rectify the issues, ensuring the safety of the children and staff at the center.

Submit
27. Who is responsible to ensure all personnel involved with permit-required confined space program tasks are properly trained and equipped?

Explanation

The unit commander is responsible for ensuring that all personnel involved with the permit-required confined space program tasks are properly trained and equipped. This includes overseeing the training of personnel and ensuring that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to safely perform their tasks in confined spaces. The unit commander is also responsible for providing the necessary equipment and ensuring that it is properly maintained and available for use. By taking on this responsibility, the unit commander helps to ensure the safety of personnel working in confined spaces and minimize the risk of accidents or injuries.

Submit
28. Prior to classifying a confined space what is the unit required to do with assistance from the confined space program team (CSPT)?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Test and evaluate each confined space. Prior to classifying a confined space, the unit is required to test and evaluate each confined space with assistance from the confined space program team (CSPT). This is important to determine the potential hazards and risks associated with the confined space, and to ensure that appropriate safety measures are in place before entry. Testing and evaluating the confined space helps to identify any potential atmospheric hazards, physical hazards, or other dangers that may be present.

Submit
29. Which of the following is not a training requirement of the confined space attendant? 

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Summon help and promptly enter to retrieve the victim. This is not a training requirement for a confined space attendant because their primary role is to monitor and ensure the safety of the entrants in the confined space. Summoning help and entering the space to retrieve a victim should be left to trained rescue personnel who have the proper equipment and expertise to perform such tasks safely.

Submit
30. Self-contained breathing apparatus respirators

Explanation

Self-contained breathing apparatus respirators provide complete protection against airborne toxicity and oxygen deficiency. This means that they are designed to protect the wearer from inhaling any harmful substances in the air, such as toxic gases or particles, and also ensure that there is enough oxygen available for breathing. These respirators are self-contained, meaning they do not rely on an external air source, and provide a reliable and comprehensive solution for individuals who may be exposed to hazardous environments.

Submit
31. During an inspection, if you believe that the facility does not have an adequate number of fire extinguishers, you should

Explanation

If during an inspection, you believe that the facility does not have an adequate number of fire extinguishers, the correct course of action is to refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel. Fire prevention personnel are experts in assessing fire safety and can provide guidance on the appropriate number and placement of fire extinguishers in the facility. They can also ensure that the facility meets all necessary fire safety regulations and requirements. Having additional extinguishers installed or removing flammable and explosive substances from the building may be necessary actions as advised by the fire prevention personnel, but the initial step should be to refer the matter to them.

Submit
32. What is a characteristic of a confine space that does not require the posting of a danger sign? 

Explanation

A characteristic of a confined space that does not require the posting of a danger sign is when it cannot inadvertently be entered. This means that the space is designed or secured in a way that prevents accidental entry, reducing the risk of potential hazards. In such cases, there is no need for a danger sign to be posted as the space itself already ensures safety by its design or setup.

Submit
33. Who has sole responsibility for compliance with Occupational Safety and Health Agency requirements for confined space entry on an installation by an outside organization?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Contractor. Contractors have the sole responsibility for compliance with Occupational Safety and Health Agency requirements for confined space entry on an installation by an outside organization. This is because contractors are the ones who are directly involved in the work being done in confined spaces and are responsible for ensuring the safety of their workers. They must adhere to all safety regulations and guidelines to prevent any accidents or hazards during confined space entry.

Submit
34. Which agency is required to provide a confined space train-the trainer program for entry supervisors? 

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Confined space program team. The confined space program team is responsible for providing a train-the-trainer program for entry supervisors in confined spaces. This team is specifically trained and knowledgeable about the safety protocols and procedures required for working in confined spaces. They have the expertise to educate and train entry supervisors on how to safely manage and supervise confined space entry operations. Therefore, they are the agency required to provide this training program.

Submit
35. Who is responsible for the initial classification of new lasers? 

Explanation

The manufacturer is responsible for the initial classification of new lasers because they are the ones who design, produce, and distribute the lasers. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to determine the specific characteristics and potential hazards of the lasers they create. The manufacturer is also responsible for providing appropriate warning labels and safety instructions for the users. This ensures that the lasers are classified correctly and that proper safety measures are implemented from the beginning.

Submit
36. What are fire classifications based on?

Explanation

Fire classifications are based on the extinguishing media used to combat the fire. Different types of fires require different types of extinguishing agents, such as water, foam, dry chemical, or carbon dioxide. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials, Class B fires involve flammable liquids, Class C fires involve electrical equipment, and so on. Understanding the classification helps determine the most effective method of extinguishing the fire and ensures the safety of individuals and property.

Submit
37. Which of the following is not a description of an immediate danger to life and health confined space? 

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Entrant must exit after fifteen minutes of work. This is not a description of an immediate danger to life and health in a confined space. Immediate dangers typically involve factors that would interfere with an individual's ability to escape, cause irreversible or delayed adverse effects, or include concentrations of toxic, corrosive, or asphyxiant substances. The requirement to exit after fifteen minutes of work does not necessarily indicate an immediate danger, but rather a time limit for work in the confined space.

Submit
38. For a shop where workers are exposed to bloodborne pathogens, when must the exposure control plan be reviewed and updated?

Explanation

The exposure control plan for a shop where workers are exposed to bloodborne pathogens must be reviewed and updated annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure. This ensures that the plan remains current and effective in protecting workers from potential risks associated with bloodborne pathogens. Regular review and updates are necessary to address any changes in tasks or procedures that may impact the level of exposure and to implement appropriate measures to mitigate risks.

Submit
39. Which of these is mandatory for effective fire prevention?

Explanation

Good housekeeping is mandatory for effective fire prevention because it involves keeping the workplace clean and organized, which helps to eliminate potential fire hazards. By regularly cleaning and removing clutter, the risk of fires caused by flammable materials or blocked escape routes is reduced. Good housekeeping also includes proper storage and handling of hazardous materials, as well as regular maintenance of fire safety equipment. Overall, maintaining a clean and well-organized environment is crucial in preventing fires and ensuring the safety of individuals in the workplace.

Submit
40. What minimum distance must be maintained between a heat producing appliance and combustibles? 

Explanation

A minimum distance of 18 inches must be maintained between a heat producing appliance and combustibles. This is necessary to prevent any potential fire hazards or accidents. By keeping a safe distance, the risk of the combustible materials catching fire or being damaged by the heat is minimized. This ensures the safety of both the appliance and the surrounding area.

Submit
41. Which of the following is not a reason a workplace requires additional exits? 

Explanation

The location of exits on opposite ends of the workplace is not a reason a workplace requires additional exits. The size of the building, layout of the workplace, and number of occupants in the workplace are all factors that can determine the need for additional exits. Having exits on opposite ends of the workplace can actually be beneficial as it provides multiple escape routes for the occupants in case of an emergency.

Submit
42. Which of the following work-related musculoskeletal disorders is the most common in upper extremities?

Explanation

Carpal tunnel syndrome is the most common work-related musculoskeletal disorder in the upper extremities. It is caused by compression of the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel in the wrist. This condition is often associated with repetitive hand and wrist movements, such as typing or using vibrating tools. Symptoms include pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and fingers. Treatment may involve rest, splinting, and in severe cases, surgery to relieve the pressure on the nerve.

Submit
43. Which of the following is not required in a fire prevention plan? 

Explanation

The correct answer is b. List of assigned personnel for accountability after evacuation. This is because a fire prevention plan focuses on measures to prevent fires and minimize their impact, such as identifying fire hazards, controlling flammable waste material, and ensuring proper storage and handling of hazardous materials. While accountability after evacuation is important for emergency response plans, it is not directly related to fire prevention.

Submit
44. Which class safety-toe shoe is the only one approved for use by Air Force personnel? 

Explanation

The class 75 safety-toe shoe is the only one approved for use by Air Force personnel.

Submit
45. What is one of the responsibilities of the unit commander with confined spaces?

Explanation

The responsibility of the unit commander with confined spaces is to identify confined spaces. This means that they are responsible for recognizing and determining which areas or spaces within their unit meet the criteria for being classified as confined spaces. This is an important responsibility as it helps to ensure the safety of personnel who may be working in or around these spaces, as well as to implement appropriate safety measures and protocols specific to confined spaces.

Submit
46. What is one of the responsibilities of the installation ground safety office with confined spaces? 

Explanation

The responsibility of the installation ground safety office with confined spaces is to take the lead of the confined space program team. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating the efforts of the team responsible for managing confined spaces. They are responsible for developing and implementing policies and procedures related to confined spaces, ensuring compliance with safety regulations, and providing guidance and support to the team members. This role requires strong leadership skills and a thorough understanding of confined space safety protocols.

Submit
47. Which laser class may present a fire and skin hazard? 

Explanation

Laser class 4 may present a fire and skin hazard. Class 4 lasers are high-power lasers that can cause severe burns and ignite flammable materials. They pose a significant risk to the eyes and skin, as well as a fire hazard. These lasers should be handled with extreme caution and proper safety measures should be followed to prevent accidents and injuries.

Submit
48. Which of the following is not a description of a non-permit confined space? 

Explanation

A non-permit confined space is a space that does not require a permit for entry and has minimal hazards. Options a, b, and c all describe characteristics of a non-permit confined space. However, option d states that welding operations are permitted, which is not a characteristic of a non-permit confined space. In a non-permit confined space, hot work such as welding is not allowed due to the potential for fire or explosion hazards. Therefore, option d is the correct answer.

Submit
49. Which of the following is not an entrant training requirement?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Revoke the entry permit when becoming aware of an unexpected condition. This is not an entrant training requirement because it pertains to the actions of the supervisor or attendant, not the entrant. Entrant training requirements typically focus on the knowledge and skills that entrants need to safely enter and work in confined spaces, such as rescue procedures, communication with the attendant, and recognizing the effects of exposure to hazardous substances.

Submit
50. Which type and class of safety helmet offers limited protection against off-center or lateral blows to the head and reduces the danger of exposure to high voltage electrical conductors?

Explanation

Type II safety helmets are designed to provide protection against off-center or lateral blows to the head. Class E helmets are specifically designed to reduce the danger of exposure to high voltage electrical conductors. Therefore, a Type II; class E safety helmet offers limited protection against off-center or lateral blows to the head and reduces the danger of exposure to high voltage electrical conductors.

Submit
51. Which of the following does not describe the supplied-air respirator?

Explanation

The supplied-air respirator cannot be used in an immediately dangerous to health and life (IDLH) atmosphere. This means that it is not suitable for environments where there is an immediate threat to the health and life of the user, such as in situations with high levels of toxic gases or low oxygen levels. The other options, a, c, and d, all describe features or functions of the supplied-air respirator. It is lightweight, provides clean air for long periods of time, and uses air delivered under pressure through a hose.

Submit
52. Who must approve the use of portable space heaters? 

Explanation

The base civil engineer must approve the use of portable space heaters. This is because they are responsible for ensuring the safety and functionality of the base's infrastructure, including electrical systems and fire prevention measures. They have the expertise to assess whether the use of portable heaters complies with safety regulations and can prevent any potential hazards or accidents. The approval from the base civil engineer is crucial to maintain a safe environment for everyone on the base.

Submit
53. Which of the following describes the emergency action plan? 

Explanation

The emergency action plan is a document that outlines the procedures to be followed in the event of an emergency. It includes steps for evacuating the area safely and efficiently. This ensures that everyone knows what to do and where to go in case of an emergency situation. It is important for the plan to contain procedures for evacuation to ensure the safety of all individuals involved.

Submit
54. Which laser class is of medium power and requires control measures to prevent viewing of the direct beam?

Explanation

Laser class 3 is considered to be of medium power and requires control measures to prevent viewing of the direct beam. This means that class 3 lasers have a higher potential for causing eye injury compared to lower power lasers. Therefore, precautions such as wearing appropriate eyewear and implementing safety measures are necessary to protect individuals from the direct beam of a class 3 laser.

Submit
55. Which agency is responsible for providing initial and annual refresher radio frequency radiation training?

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. The unit." The unit is responsible for providing initial and annual refresher radio frequency radiation training. This suggests that the responsibility lies within the specific unit or organization rather than any external agency such as wing safety, public health, or bioenvironmental engineering.

Submit
56. Which factor contributes to work-related musculoskeletal disorders by creating pressure over a small area and interfering with blood flow and nerve function?

Explanation

Mechanical compression refers to the application of pressure over a small area, which can lead to work-related musculoskeletal disorders. This pressure can interfere with blood flow and nerve function, causing discomfort and potential damage to the affected area. Factors such as force, posture, and repetition can also contribute to these disorders, but mechanical compression specifically focuses on the pressure aspect.

Submit
57. Who conducts initial and annual laser safety training? 

Explanation

The unit safety officer conducts initial and annual laser safety training. This individual is responsible for ensuring the safety of personnel within the unit and is trained in various safety procedures, including laser safety. They have the knowledge and expertise to conduct the necessary training sessions and ensure that all personnel are educated on the proper precautions and procedures when working with lasers.

Submit
58. Rubber insulating gloves in storage must be dielectric tested every 

Explanation

Rubber insulating gloves in storage must be dielectric tested every 12 months. This is because rubber gloves can degrade over time and lose their insulating properties, which can put workers at risk of electric shock. By conducting dielectric testing every year, any potential issues with the gloves can be identified and addressed before they become a safety hazard.

Submit
59. Which class of fires occurs in combustible metals? 

Explanation

Class D fires occur in combustible metals. These fires involve materials such as magnesium, titanium, and potassium, which can ignite and burn at high temperatures. Class D fires require special extinguishing agents, such as dry powder or sand, to effectively suppress the flames and cool down the metal. These fires can be extremely dangerous and should be handled by trained professionals with the appropriate equipment and knowledge.

Submit
60. Refresher training for the radio frequency radiation awareness program will include all of the following except

Explanation

The refresher training for the radio frequency radiation awareness program will cover control measures, incident reporting procedures, and modifications that affect the locations of hazardous areas. However, it will not include information about the locations where the permissible exposure limit can be exceeded. This suggests that the training will focus on preventing exposure to radiation and reporting incidents, rather than identifying specific locations where exposure limits may be exceeded.

Submit
61. A radio frequency radiation (RFR) safety program should 

Explanation

A radio frequency radiation (RFR) safety program should evaluate the exposure potential of a system that emits RFR. This means that instead of trying to eliminate all RFR emissions or ensuring zero exposure to RFR, the program focuses on assessing the level of exposure and potential risks associated with the system emitting RFR. By evaluating the exposure potential, the program can identify any necessary safety measures or precautions to minimize the risks and ensure the safety of personnel and the public.

Submit
62. Which agency establishes inspection standards for radio frequency radiation safety programs? 

Explanation

The Air Force safety center is responsible for establishing inspection standards for radio frequency radiation safety programs. This agency ensures that safety measures are in place to protect individuals from potential harm caused by radio frequency radiation. They set guidelines and regulations that organizations must follow to maintain a safe environment.

Submit
63. How should a grease fire be classified? 

Explanation

A grease fire should be classified as Class B. Class B fires involve flammable liquids such as gasoline, oil, and grease. Grease fires occur when cooking oil or grease becomes too hot and ignites. These fires can spread quickly and are difficult to extinguish with water, as water can cause the flames to spread. Class B fires require the use of a fire extinguisher specifically designed for flammable liquid fires, such as a foam or CO2 extinguisher.

Submit
64. Which type and class of safety helmet intended to reduce the danger of exposure to low- voltage electrical conductors?

Explanation

Type II safety helmets are designed to reduce the danger of exposure to low-voltage electrical conductors. Class G helmets are specifically designed to protect against low-voltage conductors up to 2,200 volts. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Type II; class G.

Submit
65. Which class of fires is extinguished by cutting off the oxygen supply? 

Explanation

Class B fires involve flammable liquids and gases. These fires can be extinguished by cutting off the oxygen supply because oxygen is one of the three elements required for fire to occur (along with heat and fuel). By removing the oxygen, the fire will be deprived of the necessary component to sustain combustion, causing it to go out. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 26, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Jim
Cancel
  • All
    All (65)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
What is one of the responsibilities of the bioenvironmental...
Under what conditions is the organizational rescue team required to be...
Prior to entry into the permit required confined space, how will...
What documentation must be accomplished before workers enter a...
What action should be taken if a door could be mistaken for an...
Which activity were over half of the victims of fatal confined space...
How often must both centrally located and organizational rescue team...
Why do entrants need to be knowledgeable of the type of substance...
12. (205) At what intervals does the testing, measurement, diagnostic...
When will the emergency action plan need to be reviewed by all...
If hazardous atmosphere is identified in a confined space, what action...
Which type of confined spaces has an atmosphere that is not hazardous...
 Which of the following is not a required member of the confined...
Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous...
How often will the confined space program team meet? 
Which of the following is NOT one of the three criteria of a confined...
When will the fire prevention plan be reviewed by an employee? 
Which action best illustrates the hazard control method of...
Which type glove must be used as outer protection when rubber...
The atmospheric monitoring equipment will be used to test the internal...
What does the entry supervisor do after all conditions for entry into...
When would an entry permit not be required to be approved by ground...
What is a hazard with a confined space with an internal configuration...
Which individual, other than the entrant, must meet the entrant...
Safety helmets can be broken down into how many types and...
 If during an annual inspection of the child development center...
Who is responsible to ensure all personnel involved with...
Prior to classifying a confined space what is the unit required to do...
Which of the following is not a training requirement of the confined...
Self-contained breathing apparatus respirators
During an inspection, if you believe that the facility does not have...
What is a characteristic of a confine space that does not require the...
Who has sole responsibility for compliance with Occupational Safety...
Which agency is required to provide a confined space train-the trainer...
Who is responsible for the initial classification of new lasers? 
What are fire classifications based on?
Which of the following is not a description of an immediate danger to...
For a shop where workers are exposed to bloodborne pathogens, when...
Which of these is mandatory for effective fire prevention?
What minimum distance must be maintained between a heat producing...
Which of the following is not a reason a workplace requires additional...
Which of the following work-related musculoskeletal disorders is the...
Which of the following is not required in a fire prevention...
Which class safety-toe shoe is the only one approved for use by Air...
What is one of the responsibilities of the unit commander with...
What is one of the responsibilities of the installation ground safety...
Which laser class may present a fire and skin hazard? 
Which of the following is not a description of a non-permit confined...
Which of the following is not an entrant training requirement?
Which type and class of safety helmet offers limited protection...
Which of the following does not describe the supplied-air respirator?
Who must approve the use of portable space heaters? 
Which of the following describes the emergency action plan? 
Which laser class is of medium power and requires control measures to...
Which agency is responsible for providing initial and annual refresher...
Which factor contributes to work-related musculoskeletal disorders by...
Who conducts initial and annual laser safety training? 
Rubber insulating gloves in storage must be dielectric tested...
Which class of fires occurs in combustible metals? 
Refresher training for the radio frequency radiation awareness program...
A radio frequency radiation (RFR) safety program should 
Which agency establishes inspection standards for radio frequency...
How should a grease fire be classified? 
Which type and class of safety helmet intended to reduce the danger of...
Which class of fires is extinguished by cutting off the oxygen...
Alert!

Advertisement