1s051 Volume 2 (Edit Code 5)

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1. Which of the following is not a required member of the confined space program team?
- A. Public health.
- B. Ground safety.
- C. Fire emergency services.
- D. Bioenvironmental engineering.

About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '1S051 VOLUME 2 (EDIT CODE 5)', assesses knowledge on the confined space program team's composition, responsibilities, and required training. It is designed for individuals involved in managing or operating in confined spaces, focusing on safety protocols and regulatory compliance.

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2.

Who is responsible to ensure all personnel involved with permit-required confined space program tasks are properly trained and equipped?
- A. Wing commander.
- B. Unit commander.
- C. Installation fire chief.
- D. Ground safety manager.
Correct Answer

A. B. Unit commander.

Explanation

The unit commander is responsible for ensuring that all personnel involved with the permit-required confined space program tasks are properly trained and equipped. This includes overseeing the training of personnel and ensuring that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to safely perform their tasks in confined spaces. The unit commander is also responsible for providing the necessary equipment and ensuring that it is properly maintained and available for use. By taking on this responsibility, the unit commander helps to ensure the safety of personnel working in confined spaces and minimize the risk of accidents or injuries.

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3.

What is one of the responsibilities of the installation ground safety office with confined spaces?
- A. Identify all confined spaces.
- B. Take the lead of the confined space program team.
- C. Provide training on calibration of monitoring equipment.
- D. Ensure signs are posted on all permit-required confined spaces.
Correct Answer

A. B. Take the lead of the confined space program team.

Explanation

The responsibility of the installation ground safety office with confined spaces is to take the lead of the confined space program team. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating the efforts of the team responsible for managing confined spaces. They are responsible for developing and implementing policies and procedures related to confined spaces, ensuring compliance with safety regulations, and providing guidance and support to the team members. This role requires strong leadership skills and a thorough understanding of confined space safety protocols.

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4.

What is one of the responsibilities of the bioenvironmental engineering flight with confined spaces?
- A. Identify all confined spaces.
- B. Take the lead of the confined space program team.
- C. Provide training on calibration of monitoring equipment.
- D. Ensure signs are posted on all permit-required confined spaces.
Correct Answer

A. C. Provide training on calibration of monitoring equipment.

Explanation

The responsibility of the bioenvironmental engineering flight with confined spaces is to provide training on calibration of monitoring equipment. This means that they are responsible for teaching and educating others on how to properly calibrate the monitoring equipment used in confined spaces. This is important as accurate calibration ensures that the equipment is functioning correctly and can effectively monitor the environment for any potential hazards or risks.

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5.

How often will the confined space program team meet?
- A. Quarterly.
- B. Annually.
- C. Before major command inspection.
- D. Before entry into a permit-required confined space.
Correct Answer

A. B. Annually.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Annually. This means that the confined space program team will meet once a year. This frequency allows the team to review and update the program, discuss any changes or issues, and ensure that all members are informed and trained on the latest procedures and safety measures. Meeting annually also allows for sufficient time to implement any necessary improvements or adjustments to the program.

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6.

Which agency is required to provide a confined space train-the trainer program for entry supervisors?
- A. Ground safety.
- B. Fire emergency services.
- C. Bioenvironmental engineering.
- D. Confined space program team.
Correct Answer

A. D. Confined space program team.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Confined space program team. The confined space program team is responsible for providing a train-the-trainer program for entry supervisors in confined spaces. This team is specifically trained and knowledgeable about the safety protocols and procedures required for working in confined spaces. They have the expertise to educate and train entry supervisors on how to safely manage and supervise confined space entry operations. Therefore, they are the agency required to provide this training program.

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7.

What is one of the responsibilities of the unit commander with confined spaces?
- A. Identify confined spaces.
- B. Take the lead of the confined space program team.
- C. Provide training on calibration of monitoring equipment.
- D. Ensure signs are posted on all non permit-required confined spaces.
Correct Answer

A. A. Identify confined spaces.

Explanation

The responsibility of the unit commander with confined spaces is to identify confined spaces. This means that they are responsible for recognizing and determining which areas or spaces within their unit meet the criteria for being classified as confined spaces. This is an important responsibility as it helps to ensure the safety of personnel who may be working in or around these spaces, as well as to implement appropriate safety measures and protocols specific to confined spaces.

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8.

What is a characteristic of a confine space that does not require the posting of a danger sign?
- A. Cannot inadvertently enter.
- B. Contains visible physical hazards.
- C. Has restricted means of entry and exit.
- D. A hazardous atmosphere is clearly evident.
Correct Answer

A. A. Cannot inadvertently enter.

Explanation

A characteristic of a confined space that does not require the posting of a danger sign is when it cannot inadvertently be entered. This means that the space is designed or secured in a way that prevents accidental entry, reducing the risk of potential hazards. In such cases, there is no need for a danger sign to be posted as the space itself already ensures safety by its design or setup.

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9.

Prior to classifying a confined space what is the unit required to do with assistance from the confined space program team (CSPT)?
- A. Add a permanently-installed ladder.
- B. Correct all internal physical hazards.
- C. Test and evaluate each confined space.
- D. Ventilate to clear the hazardous atmosphere.
Correct Answer

A. C. Test and evaluate each confined space.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Test and evaluate each confined space. Prior to classifying a confined space, the unit is required to test and evaluate each confined space with assistance from the confined space program team (CSPT). This is important to determine the potential hazards and risks associated with the confined space, and to ensure that appropriate safety measures are in place before entry. Testing and evaluating the confined space helps to identify any potential atmospheric hazards, physical hazards, or other dangers that may be present.

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10.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three criteria of a confined space?
- A. Has restricted means for entry and exit.
- B. Is not designed for continuous occupancy.
- C. Has poor lighting.
- D. Large enough for a person to enter and perform work.
Correct Answer

A. C. Has poor lighting.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Has poor lighting. This is not one of the three criteria of a confined space. The three criteria of a confined space are: it has restricted means for entry and exit, it is not designed for continuous occupancy, and it is large enough for a person to enter and perform work. Poor lighting is not mentioned as one of the criteria.

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11.

What is a hazard with a confined space with an internal configuration with inwardly converging walls or a floor which slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross section?
- A. Could result in a cave-in.
- B. Entrant may become trapped.
- C. Pedestrians could inadvertently enter.
- D. Monitoring equipment will be ineffective.
Correct Answer

A. B. Entrant may become trapped.

Explanation

A confined space with inwardly converging walls or a sloping floor that tapers to a smaller cross section can pose a hazard because an entrant may become trapped. The narrowing shape of the space increases the risk of the entrant getting stuck or wedged in the confined area. This can make it difficult for the person to move or escape, potentially leading to serious injury or even death. It is important to be aware of this hazard and take appropriate precautions when working in or around such confined spaces.

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12.

12. (205) At what intervals does the testing, measurement, diagnostic and evaluation lab perform the calibration of atmospheric monitoring equipment for confined spaces?
- A. Every six months.
- B. Every three months.
- C. Per manufacturer’s instructions.
- D. Before testing of confined space.
Correct Answer

A. C. Per manufacturer’s instructions.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Per manufacturer's instructions. The testing, measurement, diagnostic, and evaluation lab performs the calibration of atmospheric monitoring equipment for confined spaces according to the instructions provided by the manufacturer. This ensures that the equipment is calibrated correctly and accurately measures the atmospheric conditions in confined spaces. Calibration intervals may vary depending on the specific manufacturer's recommendations for each piece of equipment.

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13.

The atmospheric monitoring equipment will be used to test the internal atmosphere of the space in the following order:
- A. toxicity, flammability, then oxygen.
- B. oxygen, flammability, then toxicity.
- C. flammability, oxygen, then toxicity.
- D. oxygen, toxicity, then flammability.
Correct Answer

A. B. oxygen, flammability, then toxicity.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. oxygen, flammability, then toxicity. This order is logical because the first priority is to ensure that there is enough oxygen for humans to breathe. Next, it is important to test for flammability to prevent any potential fire hazards. Finally, toxicity is checked to ensure that the air is not harmful to humans. This order follows a logical sequence of addressing the most critical safety concerns first.

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14.

Which activity were over half of the victims of fatal confined space mishaps doing according to the conclusions of an Occupational Safety and Health Administration accident review?
- A. Using toxic chemical.
- B. Attempting to rescue the entrant.
- C. Testing oxygen deficient atmosphere.
- D. Performing maintenance on electrical systems.
Correct Answer

A. B. Attempting to rescue the entrant.

Explanation

According to the conclusions of an Occupational Safety and Health Administration accident review, over half of the victims of fatal confined space mishaps were attempting to rescue the entrant.

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15.

Under what conditions is the organizational rescue team required to be on-scene for permit- required confined space?
- A. Electrical system maintenance.
- B. Gas welding or brazing operations.
- C. Immediately dangerous to life and health.
- D. Lack of atmosphere monitoring equipment.
Correct Answer

A. C. Immediately dangerous to life and health.

Explanation

The organizational rescue team is required to be on-scene for permit-required confined spaces when the situation is immediately dangerous to life and health. This means that there is a high risk to the safety and well-being of individuals in the confined space, such as the presence of hazardous gases, lack of oxygen, or other life-threatening conditions. In such cases, the rescue team needs to be present to provide immediate assistance and ensure the safety of those involved.

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16.

How often must both centrally located and organizational rescue team receive hands-on training in removing victims from a confined space?
- A. At least once every six months.
- B. At least once every 12 months.
- C. Upon initial assignment to rescue team only.
- D. Only required by centrally located rescue team every three months.
Correct Answer

A. B. At least once every 12 months.

Explanation

Both centrally located and organizational rescue teams must receive hands-on training in removing victims from a confined space at least once every 12 months. This ensures that the rescue teams are regularly updated and proficient in their skills and knowledge related to confined space rescue. Regular training helps them stay prepared and capable of handling any emergency situation that may arise in confined spaces.

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17.

Which individual, other than the entrant, must meet the entrant training requirements?
- A. Entry supervisor.
- B. Unit training manager.
- C. All assigned attendants.
- D. All personnel on the site.
Correct Answer

A. A. Entry supervisor.

Explanation

The entry supervisor is responsible for ensuring that the entrant training requirements are met by all individuals involved in the entry. This includes the entrant themselves as well as any assigned attendants. The entry supervisor oversees the entire entry process and is responsible for ensuring the safety of all personnel on the site.

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18.

What does the entry supervisor do after all conditions for entry into the confined space are met?
- A. Test the atmosphere.
- B. Sign the entry permit.
- C. Identify physical hazards.
- D. Notify the unit commander.
Correct Answer

A. B. Sign the entry permit.

Explanation

After all conditions for entry into the confined space are met, the entry supervisor's next step is to sign the entry permit. This is important as it serves as a formal authorization for individuals to enter the confined space and ensures that all necessary safety measures have been taken and documented. By signing the entry permit, the entry supervisor acknowledges that they have reviewed and approved the entry procedures and that it is safe for workers to enter the confined space.

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19.

Which of the following is not an entrant training requirement?
- A. Rescue procedures.
- B. Procedures for communication with the attendant.
- C. Recognition and the effects of exposure to hazardous substances.
- D. Revoke the entry permit when becoming aware of an unexpected condition.
Correct Answer

A. D. Revoke the entry permit when becoming aware of an unexpected condition.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Revoke the entry permit when becoming aware of an unexpected condition. This is not an entrant training requirement because it pertains to the actions of the supervisor or attendant, not the entrant. Entrant training requirements typically focus on the knowledge and skills that entrants need to safely enter and work in confined spaces, such as rescue procedures, communication with the attendant, and recognizing the effects of exposure to hazardous substances.

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20.

Why do entrants need to be knowledgeable of the type of substance known or expected in the confined space?
- A. To complete a mishap report.
- B. To accomplish the after-action review.
- C. To recognize symptoms and effects of exposure.
- D. To conduct correct type of atmospheric monitoring.
Correct Answer

A. C. To recognize symptoms and effects of exposure.

Explanation

Entrants need to be knowledgeable of the type of substance known or expected in the confined space in order to recognize symptoms and effects of exposure. This is crucial for their safety as it allows them to identify any potential hazards and take appropriate precautions. By understanding the characteristics of the substance, entrants can be aware of the potential health risks and symptoms that may arise from exposure. This knowledge enables them to respond promptly and appropriately in case of any adverse effects, ensuring their well-being inside the confined space.

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21.

Which of the following is not a training requirement of the confined space attendant?
- A. Authority to order entrants to exit.
- B. Keep unauthorized person from entering.
- C. Summon help and promptly enter to retrieve the victim.
- D. Procedures for continuous communication with the entrants.
Correct Answer

A. C. Summon help and promptly enter to retrieve the victim.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Summon help and promptly enter to retrieve the victim. This is not a training requirement for a confined space attendant because their primary role is to monitor and ensure the safety of the entrants in the confined space. Summoning help and entering the space to retrieve a victim should be left to trained rescue personnel who have the proper equipment and expertise to perform such tasks safely.

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22.

Prior to entry into the permit required confined space, how will atmospheric monitoring be conducted to the interior of the space?
- A. Drop tests or sample probes.
- B. Visual identification of gases and vapors.
- C. Recognition of peculiar odors from hazardous substances.
- D. Entrant will report symptoms of exposure to hazardous substances.
Correct Answer

A. A. Drop tests or sample probes.
23.

If hazardous atmosphere is identified in a confined space, what action may be taken in attempt to clear the hazard?
- A. Forced air ventilation.
- B. Contact fire emergency service.
- C. Continuous atmospheric monitoring.
- D. Open flame to consume flammable gas and vapors.
Correct Answer

A. A. Forced air ventilation.

Explanation

If a hazardous atmosphere is identified in a confined space, the action that may be taken in an attempt to clear the hazard is forced air ventilation. This involves using mechanical means, such as fans or blowers, to introduce fresh air into the space and remove the hazardous gases or vapors. Forced air ventilation helps to dilute and disperse the hazardous atmosphere, making the space safe for workers to enter. Contacting the fire emergency service may be necessary in some situations, but it is not the primary action for clearing the hazard. Continuous atmospheric monitoring is important to ensure that the hazardous atmosphere has been effectively cleared. Using an open flame to consume flammable gas and vapors is extremely dangerous and should never be done in a confined space.

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24.

What documentation must be accomplished before workers enter a permit-required confined space?
- A. Activity log.
- B. Hazard report.
- C. An entry permit.
- D. Notice of hazard.
Correct Answer

A. C. An entry permit.

Explanation

Before workers enter a permit-required confined space, they must accomplish an entry permit. This permit is a document that outlines the necessary precautions, procedures, and safety measures that need to be followed when entering the confined space. It includes information about potential hazards, emergency procedures, and the duration of the entry. The entry permit ensures that workers are aware of the risks and have taken the necessary precautions to safely enter and work in the confined space.

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25.

When would an entry permit not be required to be approved by ground safety, bioenvironmental engineering, and fire emergency services prior to entry into a confined space?
- A. Designated as permit-required.
- B. Permit is signed by unit commander.
- C. Second day of work on single permit.
- D. Identified on the master entry permit.
Correct Answer

A. D. Identified on the master entry permit.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Identified on the master entry permit. This means that if the confined space is already identified on the master entry permit, it does not need to be separately approved by ground safety, bioenvironmental engineering, and fire emergency services prior to entry. The master entry permit serves as a comprehensive document that outlines all the necessary approvals and safety measures for entering confined spaces.

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26.

Which of the following is not a description of an immediate danger to life and health confined space?
- A. Entrant must exit after fifteen minutes of work.
- B. Would interfere with an individual’s ability to escape.
- C. Would cause irreversible or delayed adverse effects to the entrant.
- D. Includes a concentration of any toxic, corrosive or asphyxiant substance.
Correct Answer

A. A. Entrant must exit after fifteen minutes of work.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Entrant must exit after fifteen minutes of work. This is not a description of an immediate danger to life and health in a confined space. Immediate dangers typically involve factors that would interfere with an individual's ability to escape, cause irreversible or delayed adverse effects, or include concentrations of toxic, corrosive, or asphyxiant substances. The requirement to exit after fifteen minutes of work does not necessarily indicate an immediate danger, but rather a time limit for work in the confined space.

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27.

Which type of confined spaces has an atmosphere that is not hazardous nor is expected to become hazardous?
- A. Non-permit.
- B. Above ground.
- C. Permit required.
- D. Intrinsically safe.
Correct Answer

A. A. Non-permit.

Explanation

A non-permit confined space is a type of confined space that does not contain any hazards or potential hazards. This means that the atmosphere within the space is not hazardous and is not expected to become hazardous. Non-permit confined spaces do not require a permit for entry, as there are no specific precautions or procedures needed to ensure the safety of workers entering the space.

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28.

Which of the following is not a description of a non-permit confined space?
- A. Entry with only site supervisor and entrant is authorized.
- B. Modified work procedures are not required.
- C. Minimal need for special protective equipment.
- D. Welding operations are permitted.
Correct Answer

A. D. Welding operations are permitted.

Explanation

A non-permit confined space is a space that does not require a permit for entry and has minimal hazards. Options a, b, and c all describe characteristics of a non-permit confined space. However, option d states that welding operations are permitted, which is not a characteristic of a non-permit confined space. In a non-permit confined space, hot work such as welding is not allowed due to the potential for fire or explosion hazards. Therefore, option d is the correct answer.

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29.

Who has sole responsibility for compliance with Occupational Safety and Health Agency requirements for confined space entry on an installation by an outside organization?
- A. Legal.
- B. Contractor.
- C. Civil engineer.
- D. Federal inspector.
Correct Answer

A. B. Contractor.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Contractor. Contractors have the sole responsibility for compliance with Occupational Safety and Health Agency requirements for confined space entry on an installation by an outside organization. This is because contractors are the ones who are directly involved in the work being done in confined spaces and are responsible for ensuring the safety of their workers. They must adhere to all safety regulations and guidelines to prevent any accidents or hazards during confined space entry.

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30.

Which action best illustrates the hazard control method of substitution?
- A. Building a barrier that separates personnel from a hazardous operation.
- B. Assigning well-trained personnel to a hazardous operation.
- C. Replacing one solvent with a less toxic one.
- D. Issuing safety shoes to all personnel.
Correct Answer

A. C. Replacing one solvent with a less toxic one.

Explanation

The best action that illustrates the hazard control method of substitution is replacing one solvent with a less toxic one. This is because substitution involves replacing a hazardous substance or process with a less hazardous alternative. In this case, by replacing a toxic solvent with a less toxic one, the risk to personnel working with the solvent is reduced. Building a barrier, assigning well-trained personnel, and issuing safety shoes are examples of other hazard control methods, but they do not specifically involve substitution.

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31.

Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation illustrates the hazard control method of
- A. isolation.
- B. revision.
- C. substitution.
- D. personal protective equipment (PPE).
Correct Answer

A. A. isolation.

Explanation

Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation is an example of the hazard control method of isolation. Isolation involves physically separating the worker from the hazard, creating a barrier or distance to prevent direct contact or exposure. In this case, the guard or barrier acts as a physical barrier, preventing the worker from coming into direct contact with the hazardous operation and reducing the risk of injury or exposure to the hazard.

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32.

Self-contained breathing apparatus respirators
- A. use a blower to pass air across an air-cleaning element.
- B. protect against particulate matter but not oxygen deficiency.
- C. should be used only for intermittent exposure to light concentrations of gas.
- D. provide complete protection against airborne toxicity and oxygen deficiency.
Correct Answer

A. D. provide complete protection against airborne toxicity and oxygen deficiency.

Explanation

Self-contained breathing apparatus respirators provide complete protection against airborne toxicity and oxygen deficiency. This means that they are designed to protect the wearer from inhaling any harmful substances in the air, such as toxic gases or particles, and also ensure that there is enough oxygen available for breathing. These respirators are self-contained, meaning they do not rely on an external air source, and provide a reliable and comprehensive solution for individuals who may be exposed to hazardous environments.

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33.

Which of the following does not describe the supplied-air respirator?
- A. Is light weight.
- B. Can be used in an immediately dangerous to health and life (IDLH) atmosphere.
- C. Provides clean air for long periods of time.
- D. Uses air delivered under pressure through a hose.
Correct Answer

A. B. Can be used in an immediately dangerous to health and life (IDLH) atmosphere.

Explanation

The supplied-air respirator cannot be used in an immediately dangerous to health and life (IDLH) atmosphere. This means that it is not suitable for environments where there is an immediate threat to the health and life of the user, such as in situations with high levels of toxic gases or low oxygen levels. The other options, a, c, and d, all describe features or functions of the supplied-air respirator. It is lightweight, provides clean air for long periods of time, and uses air delivered under pressure through a hose.

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34.

Safety helmets can be broken down into how many types and classes?
- A. Two types; three classes.
- B. Two types; four classes.
- C. Three types; four classes.
- D. Three types; five classes.
Correct Answer

A. A. Two types; three classes.

Explanation

Safety helmets can be classified into two types: Type I helmets, which provide protection from impacts to the top of the head, and Type II helmets, which offer protection from impacts to the top and sides of the head. These types of helmets can further be divided into three classes: Class G helmets, which are general helmets for electrical work; Class E helmets, which are designed for electrical work with high voltage; and Class C helmets, which are used for lightweight comfort and offer no electrical protection. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Two types; three classes.

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35.

Which type and class of safety helmet intended to reduce the danger of exposure to low- voltage electrical conductors?
- A. Type I; class C.
- B. Type I; class E.
- C. Type II; class E.
- D. Type II; class G.
Correct Answer

A. D. Type II; class G.

Explanation

Type II safety helmets are designed to reduce the danger of exposure to low-voltage electrical conductors. Class G helmets are specifically designed to protect against low-voltage conductors up to 2,200 volts. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Type II; class G.

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36.

Which type and class of safety helmet offers limited protection against off-center or lateral blows to the head and reduces the danger of exposure to high voltage electrical conductors?
- A. Type I; class G.
- B. Type I; class E.
- C. Type II; class E.
- D. Type II; class C.
Correct Answer

A. C. Type II; class E.

Explanation

Type II safety helmets are designed to provide protection against off-center or lateral blows to the head. Class E helmets are specifically designed to reduce the danger of exposure to high voltage electrical conductors. Therefore, a Type II; class E safety helmet offers limited protection against off-center or lateral blows to the head and reduces the danger of exposure to high voltage electrical conductors.

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37.

Which type glove must be used as outer protection when rubber insulating gloves are being used?
- A. Cotton.
- B. Wool.
- C. Leather.
- D. Synthetic.
Correct Answer

A. C. Leather.

Explanation

When rubber insulating gloves are being used, leather gloves must be used as outer protection. Leather gloves provide an additional layer of protection against physical hazards such as cuts, abrasions, and punctures. They are durable and offer good grip, making them suitable for various work environments. Cotton and wool gloves may not provide adequate protection, while synthetic gloves may not have the same level of durability and resistance as leather gloves. Therefore, leather gloves are the most appropriate choice for outer protection when using rubber insulating gloves.

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38.

Rubber insulating gloves in storage must be dielectric tested every
- A. three months.
- B. six months.
- C. 12 months.
- D. 24 months.
Correct Answer

A. C. 12 months.

Explanation

Rubber insulating gloves in storage must be dielectric tested every 12 months. This is because rubber gloves can degrade over time and lose their insulating properties, which can put workers at risk of electric shock. By conducting dielectric testing every year, any potential issues with the gloves can be identified and addressed before they become a safety hazard.

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39.

Which class safety-toe shoe is the only one approved for use by Air Force personnel?
- 25
- 35
- 50
- 75
Correct Answer

A. 75

Explanation

The class 75 safety-toe shoe is the only one approved for use by Air Force personnel.

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40.

If during an annual inspection of the child development center you identify and document several fire deficiencies, what should be your next course of action?
- A. Report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action.
- B. Report them to the child development center management for action.
- C. Take immediate action to correct the fire deficiencies.
- D. Assign risk assessment codes as required.
Correct Answer

A. A. Report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action.

Explanation

The correct course of action would be to report the fire deficiencies to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action. This is because the fire department is responsible for enforcing fire safety regulations and ensuring the safety of the child development center. By reporting the deficiencies to them, they can take the necessary actions to address and rectify the issues, ensuring the safety of the children and staff at the center.

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41.

Which of these is mandatory for effective fire prevention?
- A. Good housekeeping.
- B. Well-documented fire and safety inspections.
- C. Close coordination between technical services and the safety office.
- D. Equal emphasis on safety and fire prevention by the installation commander.
Correct Answer

A. A. Good housekeeping.

Explanation

Good housekeeping is mandatory for effective fire prevention because it involves keeping the workplace clean and organized, which helps to eliminate potential fire hazards. By regularly cleaning and removing clutter, the risk of fires caused by flammable materials or blocked escape routes is reduced. Good housekeeping also includes proper storage and handling of hazardous materials, as well as regular maintenance of fire safety equipment. Overall, maintaining a clean and well-organized environment is crucial in preventing fires and ensuring the safety of individuals in the workplace.

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42.

Who must approve the use of portable space heaters?
- A. Base safety.
- B. Fire department.
- C. Base civil engineer.
- D. Base bioenvironmental engineer.
Correct Answer

A. C. Base civil engineer.

Explanation

The base civil engineer must approve the use of portable space heaters. This is because they are responsible for ensuring the safety and functionality of the base's infrastructure, including electrical systems and fire prevention measures. They have the expertise to assess whether the use of portable heaters complies with safety regulations and can prevent any potential hazards or accidents. The approval from the base civil engineer is crucial to maintain a safe environment for everyone on the base.

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43.

What minimum distance must be maintained between a heat producing appliance and combustibles?
- 12 inches
- 18 inches
- 24 inches
- 36 inches
Correct Answer

A. 18 inches

Explanation

A minimum distance of 18 inches must be maintained between a heat producing appliance and combustibles. This is necessary to prevent any potential fire hazards or accidents. By keeping a safe distance, the risk of the combustible materials catching fire or being damaged by the heat is minimized. This ensures the safety of both the appliance and the surrounding area.

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44.

What are fire classifications based on?
- A. Lowest temperature at which the fire is maintained.
- B. Highest temperature at which the fire burns.
- C. Extinguishing media used to combat the fire.
- D. Type of smoke and gases released.
Correct Answer

A. C. Extinguishing media used to combat the fire.

Explanation

Fire classifications are based on the extinguishing media used to combat the fire. Different types of fires require different types of extinguishing agents, such as water, foam, dry chemical, or carbon dioxide. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials, Class B fires involve flammable liquids, Class C fires involve electrical equipment, and so on. Understanding the classification helps determine the most effective method of extinguishing the fire and ensures the safety of individuals and property.

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45.

Which class of fires is extinguished by cutting off the oxygen supply?
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. B

Explanation

Class B fires involve flammable liquids and gases. These fires can be extinguished by cutting off the oxygen supply because oxygen is one of the three elements required for fire to occur (along with heat and fuel). By removing the oxygen, the fire will be deprived of the necessary component to sustain combustion, causing it to go out. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

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46.

How should a grease fire be classified?
- Class A
- Class B
- Class C
- Class D
Correct Answer

A. Class B

Explanation

A grease fire should be classified as Class B. Class B fires involve flammable liquids such as gasoline, oil, and grease. Grease fires occur when cooking oil or grease becomes too hot and ignites. These fires can spread quickly and are difficult to extinguish with water, as water can cause the flames to spread. Class B fires require the use of a fire extinguisher specifically designed for flammable liquid fires, such as a foam or CO2 extinguisher.

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47.

Which class of fires occurs in combustible metals?
- A
- B
- C
- D
Correct Answer

A. D

Explanation

Class D fires occur in combustible metals. These fires involve materials such as magnesium, titanium, and potassium, which can ignite and burn at high temperatures. Class D fires require special extinguishing agents, such as dry powder or sand, to effectively suppress the flames and cool down the metal. These fires can be extremely dangerous and should be handled by trained professionals with the appropriate equipment and knowledge.

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48.

During an inspection, if you believe that the facility does not have an adequate number of fire extinguishers, you should
- A. have additional extinguishers installed.
- B. submit AF Form 979 to the installation manager.
- C. refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel.
- D. have all flammable and explosive substances removed from the building.
Correct Answer

A. C. refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel.

Explanation

If during an inspection, you believe that the facility does not have an adequate number of fire extinguishers, the correct course of action is to refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel. Fire prevention personnel are experts in assessing fire safety and can provide guidance on the appropriate number and placement of fire extinguishers in the facility. They can also ensure that the facility meets all necessary fire safety regulations and requirements. Having additional extinguishers installed or removing flammable and explosive substances from the building may be necessary actions as advised by the fire prevention personnel, but the initial step should be to refer the matter to them.

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49.

Which of the following is not a reason a workplace requires additional exits?
- A. Size of the building.
- B. Layout of the workplace.
- C. Number of occupants in the workplace.
- D. Location of exits on opposite ends of the workplace.
Correct Answer

A. D. Location of exits on opposite ends of the workplace.

Explanation

The location of exits on opposite ends of the workplace is not a reason a workplace requires additional exits. The size of the building, layout of the workplace, and number of occupants in the workplace are all factors that can determine the need for additional exits. Having exits on opposite ends of the workplace can actually be beneficial as it provides multiple escape routes for the occupants in case of an emergency.

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Current Version
Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Jun 26, 2015

Quiz Created by
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1s051 Volume 2 (Edit Code 5)

Which of the following is not a required member of the confined space program team?

Quiz Preview

Who is responsible to ensure all personnel involved with permit-required confined space program tasks are properly trained and equipped?

What is one of the responsibilities of the installation ground safety office with confined spaces?

What is one of the responsibilities of the bioenvironmental engineering flight with confined spaces?

How often will the confined space program team meet?

Which agency is required to provide a confined space train-the trainer program for entry supervisors?

What is one of the responsibilities of the unit commander with confined spaces?

What is a characteristic of a confine space that does not require the posting of a danger sign?

Prior to classifying a confined space what is the unit required to do with assistance from the confined space program team (CSPT)?

Which of the following is NOT one of the three criteria of a confined space?

What is a hazard with a confined space with an internal configuration with inwardly converging walls or a floor which slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross section?

12. (205) At what intervals does the testing, measurement, diagnostic and evaluation lab perform the calibration of atmospheric monitoring equipment for confined spaces?

The atmospheric monitoring equipment will be used to test the internal atmosphere of the space in the following order:

Which activity were over half of the victims of fatal confined space mishaps doing according to the conclusions of an Occupational Safety and Health Administration accident review?

Under what conditions is the organizational rescue team required to be on-scene for permit- required confined space?

How often must both centrally located and organizational rescue team receive hands-on training in removing victims from a confined space?

Which individual, other than the entrant, must meet the entrant training requirements?

What does the entry supervisor do after all conditions for entry into the confined space are met?

Which of the following is not an entrant training requirement?

Why do entrants need to be knowledgeable of the type of substance known or expected in the confined space?

Which of the following is not a training requirement of the confined space attendant?

Prior to entry into the permit required confined space, how will atmospheric monitoring be conducted to the interior of the space?

If hazardous atmosphere is identified in a confined space, what action may be taken in attempt to clear the hazard?

What documentation must be accomplished before workers enter a permit-required confined space?

When would an entry permit not be required to be approved by ground safety, bioenvironmental engineering, and fire emergency services prior to entry into a confined space?

Which of the following is not a description of an immediate danger to life and health confined space?

Which type of confined spaces has an atmosphere that is not hazardous nor is expected to become hazardous?

Which of the following is not a description of a non-permit confined space?

Who has sole responsibility for compliance with Occupational Safety and Health Agency requirements for confined space entry on an installation by an outside organization?

Which action best illustrates the hazard control method of substitution?

Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation illustrates the hazard control method of

Self-contained breathing apparatus respirators

Which of the following does not describe the supplied-air respirator?

Safety helmets can be broken down into how many types and classes?

Which type and class of safety helmet intended to reduce the danger of exposure to low- voltage electrical conductors?

Which type and class of safety helmet offers limited protection against off-center or lateral blows to the head and reduces the danger of exposure to high voltage electrical conductors?

Which type glove must be used as outer protection when rubber insulating gloves are being used?

Rubber insulating gloves in storage must be dielectric tested every

Which class safety-toe shoe is the only one approved for use by Air Force personnel?

If during an annual inspection of the child development center you identify and document several fire deficiencies, what should be your next course of action?

Which of these is mandatory for effective fire prevention?

Who must approve the use of portable space heaters?

What minimum distance must be maintained between a heat producing appliance and combustibles?

What are fire classifications based on?

Which class of fires is extinguished by cutting off the oxygen supply?

How should a grease fire be classified?

Which class of fires occurs in combustible metals?

During an inspection, if you believe that the facility does not have an adequate number of fire extinguishers, you should

Which of the following is not a reason a workplace requires additional exits?