Secfo Journeyman, Vol. 2
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- 1.
What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4th Amendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel
- A.
Have to apply the minimum force needed to apprehend the subject
- B.
Have to apply the least intrusive force to apprehend the subject
- C.
Must only use deadly force when the subject resists apprehension
- D.
Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject
Correct Answer
D. Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject -
- 2.
In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?
- A.
Protect inherently dangerous property
- B.
Protect assests vital to national security
- C.
Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle
- D.
Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm
Correct Answer
C. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle -
- 3.
In relation to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause
- A.
Selfishness
- B.
Higher awareness
- C.
Insecurity and isolation
- D.
Tentativeness and hesitation
Correct Answer
D. Tentativeness and hesitation -
- 4.
What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?
- A.
Permits defenders to open fire upon all identified enemy targets
- B.
Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense
- C.
Prohibits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense
- D.
Requires defenders to get authorization before firing upon identified enemy targets
Correct Answer
B. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense -
- 5.
What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE)?
- A.
See first and act first.
- B.
First in and fit to fight
- C.
Defense of others and operationally fortified
- D.
Self-defense and mission accomplishment
Correct Answer
D. Self-defense and mission accomplishment -
- 6.
What should not be confused with rules of engagement (ROE) during peacetime operations within a US territory?
- A.
Law of armed conflict
- B.
Rules for use of force
- C.
Operational orders
- D.
Operational plans
Correct Answer
B. Rules for use of force -
- 7.
Conscious verbal communication occurs when
- A.
Words are chosen carefully during a conversation
- B.
Words occur naturally during a conversation
- C.
The communicator reads it directly from a form
- D.
The communicator is in a hurry
Correct Answer
A. Words are chosen carefully during a conversation -
- 8.
How do you place a suspect on foot into the final challenge position?
- A.
Command, subject to "HALT," bring your M4 carbine to port arms or your M9 pistol to ready pistol and contact BDOC for further direction to disposition of the individual.
- B.
Command subject to slowly place identification on the ground then turn around and walk approximately six paces away from you.
- C.
Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET, and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD."
- D.
Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, DROP TO YOUR KNEES, and CROSS YOUR FEET."
Correct Answer
C. Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET, and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD." -
- 9.
Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the
- A.
Back of the neck
- B.
Wrist of the farthest hand
- C.
Ring or middle finger
- D.
Wrist of the nearest hand
Correct Answer
C. Ring or middle finger -
- 10.
When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be
- A.
Complete and simple
- B.
Systematic and simple
- C.
Complete and thorough
- D.
Systematic and thorough
Correct Answer
D. Systematic and thorough -
- 11.
What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?
- A.
Wall
- B.
Prone
- C.
Kneeling
- D.
Standing
Correct Answer
D. Standing -
- 12.
When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?
- A.
Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force
- B.
Lower standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force
- C.
Higher standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force
- D.
Different standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force
Correct Answer
A. Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force -
- 13.
What is the level of force necessary to compel a subject's compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death?
- A.
Minimum use of force
- B.
Maximum use of force
- C.
Transitional use of force
- D.
Intermediate use of force
Correct Answer
D. Intermediate use of force -
- 14.
What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?
- A.
T-position
- B.
Shrimping
- C.
Comb blocks
- D.
Standup to base
Correct Answer
C. Comb blocks -
- 15.
How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?
- A.
By grabbing your weapon with your weapons side (WS) hand
- B.
By grabbing your weapon with your support side (SS) hand
- C.
By rolling onto your support side (SS), keeping holstered weapon away from suspect
- D.
By rolling onto your Weapon Side (WS), keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground
Correct Answer
D. By rolling onto your Weapon Side (WS), keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground -
- 16.
To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions, what should you do before placing suspect in a Security Forces (SF) vehicle for transporting?
- A.
Advise the suspect of rights
- B.
Handcuff the suspect's hands in the front
- C.
Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband
- D.
Have a second SF member ride in the back with the suspect
Correct Answer
C. Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband -
- 17.
What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?
- A.
Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger
- B.
Have a family member or friend ride in the front seat
- C.
Notify BDOC of ending mileage
- D.
Have a second patrol officer follow you to Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)
Correct Answer
A. Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger -
- 18.
To whom do you release civilians who commit a minor offense in areas with concurrent jurisdiction?
- A.
US Marshal
- B.
Military sponsor
- C.
Local law enforcement
- D.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations AFOSI.
Correct Answer
B. Military sponsor -
- 19.
What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?
- A.
Annual refresher
- B.
Quarterly refresher
- C.
Initial and annual refresher
- D.
Initial and semiannual refresher
Correct Answer
C. Initial and annual refresher -
- 20.
How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area last?
- A.
1 second
- B.
2 seconds
- C.
3 seconds
- D.
4 seconds
Correct Answer
A. 1 second -
- 21.
How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuro-muscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. Two -
- 22.
How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?
- A.
From top to bottom, left to right
- B.
From right to left, top to bottom
- C.
From left to right, bottom to top
- D.
From bottom to top, left to right
Correct Answer
C. From left to right, bottom to top -
- 23.
Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories?
- A.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)
- B.
Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)
- C.
Department of Justice (DOJ)
- D.
Department of State
Correct Answer
C. Department of Justice (DOJ) -
- 24.
What must be established at each incident site?
- A.
Cordon and entry control point (ECP)
- B.
Secondary ECP
- C.
Cordon and operational rally point
- D.
Evacuation point
Correct Answer
A. Cordon and entry control point (ECP) -
- 25.
How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?
- A.
Flat markers
- B.
Lights and cones
- C.
Elevated markers
- D.
Posted SF personnel
Correct Answer
C. Elevated markers -
- 26.
What type of search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?
- A.
Simple
- B.
Partial
- C.
Complete
- D.
Plainview
Correct Answer
A. Simple -
- 27.
What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?
- A.
Simple
- B.
Partial
- C.
Complete
- D.
Plainview
Correct Answer
C. Complete -
- 28.
What must the SF on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search the area?
- A.
How to employ different types of searching techniques
- B.
Items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and area
- C.
Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available
- D.
Number of patrols available, weather, and if the unit commander concurs
Correct Answer
C. Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available -
- 29.
Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority?
- A.
To secure an unlocked door
- B.
To prevent injury to persons
- C.
To render aid to someone in danger
- D.
To prevent serious damage to property
Correct Answer
A. To secure an unlocked door -
- 30.
When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?
- A.
Before it has been fully processed for evidence
- B.
After it has been fully processed for evidence
- C.
After the coroner pronounces them dead
- D.
After the body has been photographed
Correct Answer
B. After it has been fully processed for evidence -
- 31.
What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene?
- A.
Rough and refine
- B.
Partial and refined
- C.
Rough and finished
- D.
Partial and complete
Correct Answer
C. Rough and finished -
- 32.
What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military?
- A.
Federal Rules of Evidence
- B.
Manual for Courts Martial
- C.
Federal Statutes of Evidence
- D.
Uniform Code of Military Justice
Correct Answer
B. Manual for Courts Martial -
- 33.
From whom must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence?
- A.
Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)
- B.
Defense Force Commander
- C.
Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)
- D.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)
Correct Answer
A. Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) -
- 34.
Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article covers the wrongful use of possession of a controlled substance?
- A.
Article 92
- B.
Article 108
- C.
Article 112a
- D.
Article 123a
Correct Answer
C. Article 112a -
- 35.
When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? An action done
- A.
To show inability to take full responsibility for actions
- B.
Without legal justification or authorization
- C.
With full medical justification and authorization
- D.
With legal authorization and personal justification
Correct Answer
B. Without legal justification or authorization -
- 36.
What agency has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?
- A.
Family Advocacy Officer (FAO)
- B.
Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)
- C.
Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)
- D.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) -
- 37.
What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?
- A.
AF Form 1109
- B.
AF Form 1297
- C.
AF Form 1920
- D.
AF Form 3545
Correct Answer
D. AF Form 3545 -
- 38.
What is conducted during a domestic dispute/violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?
- A.
Rights advisement
- B.
Complete search
- C.
Interrogation
- D.
Interview
Correct Answer
D. Interview -
- 39.
Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?
- A.
Neglect
- B.
Sexual abuse
- C.
Mental abuse
- D.
Physical abuse
Correct Answer
C. Mental abuse -
- 40.
Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse?
- A.
Neglect
- B.
Sexual
- C.
Mental
- D.
Physical
Correct Answer
B. Sexual -
- 41.
What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?
- A.
Your tact and poise
- B.
Your ability to cope
- C.
Your physical appearance
- D.
Your tone of voice and manners
Correct Answer
A. Your tact and poise -
- 42.
What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities and not providing appropriate shelter, or clothing?
- A.
Neglect
- B.
Sexual
- C.
Mental
- D.
Physical
Correct Answer
A. Neglect -
- 43.
What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger?
- A.
Aggravated Assault
- B.
Simple Assault
- C.
Assault
- D.
Battery
Correct Answer
C. Assault -
- 44.
What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim?
- A.
Aggravated assault
- B.
Simple Assault
- C.
Assault
- D.
Battery
Correct Answer
A. Aggravated assault -
- 45.
What are the four phases of the judicial process in which you must brief all victims and witnesses on in the victim/witness assistance program?
- A.
Notification, response, confinement, and release
- B.
Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement
- C.
Report, investigation, administrative action, confinement
- D.
Initial contact, administrative, prosecution, and confinement
Correct Answer
B. Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement -
- 46.
What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together?
- A.
Casual
- B.
Sighting
- C.
Agitated
- D.
Mob-like
Correct Answer
A. Casual -
- 47.
The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option?
- A.
Fire Chief
- B.
Flight Chief
- C.
Commander
- D.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)
Correct Answer
C. Commander -
- 48.
Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?
- A.
Line
- B.
Wedge
- C.
Circular
- D.
Diamond
Correct Answer
B. Wedge -
- 49.
Which Force Protection (FP) measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations?
- A.
Deter
- B.
Detect
- C.
Negate
- D.
Preempt
Correct Answer
C. Negate -
- 50.
Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders?
- A.
Military Control (MILCON)
- B.
Tactical Control (TACON)
- C.
Operational Control (OPCON)
- D.
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Correct Answer
C. Operational Control (OPCON) -
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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 18, 2022Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Nov 03, 2016Quiz Created by
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