Compre Exam 4 Neuroanatomy, Blood And Endocrine Physiology

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Compre Exam 4 Neuroanatomy, Blood And Endocrine Physiology - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What does the PNS contain?

    • A.

      Cranial nerves, spinal nerves, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves and ganglia and enteric (gastro-intestinal) nervous system.

    • B.

      Cranial nerves, spinal nerves, basal ganglia and enteric (gastro-intestinal) nervous system.

    • C.

      Cranial nerves, spinal cord, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves and ganglia and enteric (gastro-intestinal) nervous system.

    • D.

      Cerebrum, spinal nerves, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves and ganglia and enteric (gastro-intestinal) nervous system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cranial nerves, spinal nerves, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves and ganglia and enteric (gastro-intestinal) nervous system.
    Explanation
    The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) contains cranial nerves, spinal nerves, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves and ganglia, and the enteric (gastro-intestinal) nervous system. This means that the PNS is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the body to the central nervous system (CNS) and transmitting motor commands from the CNS to the muscles and glands. Additionally, the PNS controls involuntary functions such as digestion through the enteric nervous system.

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  • 2. 

    What is an efferent neuron?

    • A.

      Also known as sensory or effector neurons. Carry nerve impulses away from the CNS.

    • B.

      Also known as motor or receptor neurons. Carry nerve impulses towards the CNS.

    • C.

      Also known as motor or effector neurons. Carry nerve impulses away from the CNS.

    • D.

      Also known as motor or effector neurons. Carry nerve impulses towards the CNS.

    Correct Answer
    C. Also known as motor or effector neurons. Carry nerve impulses away from the CNS.
    Explanation
    An efferent neuron is also known as a motor or effector neuron. It carries nerve impulses away from the central nervous system (CNS). This means that it transmits signals from the CNS to muscles or glands, allowing for movement or the release of certain substances.

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  • 3. 

    In embryological development, where does the CNS rise from?

    • A.

      Endoderm

    • B.

      Mesoderm

    • C.

      Ectoderm

    • D.

      Epiderm

    Correct Answer
    C. Ectoderm
    Explanation
    The central nervous system (CNS) arises from the ectoderm during embryological development. The ectoderm is one of the three primary germ layers that form during early embryogenesis. It gives rise to various structures, including the neural tube, which develops into the brain and spinal cord, forming the CNS. This process is known as neurulation, and it is a crucial step in the formation of the nervous system in vertebrate embryos.

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  • 4. 

    In embryological development the Prosencephalon (forebrain) contains the Telencephalon and Diencephalon. What structures are found in the Diencephalon?

    • A.

      Basal ganglia and cerebrum

    • B.

      Cerebellum and midbrain

    • C.

      Thalamus, epithalamus and hypothalamus

    • D.

      Pineal gland and hippocampus

    Correct Answer
    C. Thalamus, epithalamus and hypothalamus
    Explanation
    The Diencephalon is a part of the Prosencephalon (forebrain) in embryological development. It contains the thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus. These structures play important roles in various functions of the brain. The thalamus acts as a relay station for sensory information, the epithalamus is involved in regulating sleep and wakefulness, and the hypothalamus controls various physiological processes such as temperature regulation, hunger, and thirst. Therefore, the structures found in the Diencephalon are the thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus.

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  • 5. 

    What structures are found in the midbrain?

    • A.

      Cerebellar peduncles, midbrain tectum and midbrain tegmentum

    • B.

      Basal ganglia

    • C.

      Pineal gland and pituitaries

    • D.

      Habenular nuclei

    Correct Answer
    A. Cerebellar peduncles, midbrain tectum and midbrain tegmentum
    Explanation
    The structures found in the midbrain are the cerebellar peduncles, midbrain tectum, and midbrain tegmentum. The cerebellar peduncles are bundles of nerve fibers that connect the midbrain to the cerebellum, allowing for communication between these two regions. The midbrain tectum is responsible for processing visual and auditory information, as well as controlling eye movements. The midbrain tegmentum contains various nuclei and pathways involved in motor control, sensory processing, and regulation of arousal and consciousness. These structures play crucial roles in coordinating movement, processing sensory information, and regulating brain function.

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  • 6. 

    Where is the CSF formed?

    • A.

      Brachial plexus

    • B.

      Choroid plexus

    • C.

      Arachnoid meninges

    • D.

      Ventricular areas

    Correct Answer
    B. Choroid plexus
    Explanation
    The CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) is formed in the choroid plexus. The choroid plexus is a network of blood vessels located in the ventricles of the brain. It produces CSF by filtering blood plasma and secreting it into the ventricles. CSF then circulates around the brain and spinal cord, providing protection and nutrients to the central nervous system. The other options mentioned, such as the brachial plexus, arachnoid meninges, and ventricular areas, are not involved in the formation of CSF.

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  • 7. 

    This is the conduction from node to node

    • A.

      Electrical conduction

    • B.

      Propagation of impulse

    • C.

      Saltatory conduction

    • D.

      Nodes of Ranvier

    Correct Answer
    C. Saltatory conduction
    Explanation
    Saltatory conduction is the correct answer because it refers to the process of electrical conduction in which the nerve impulse jumps from one node of Ranvier to another, skipping the myelinated regions of the axon. This type of conduction is faster and more efficient compared to continuous conduction, as it conserves energy and allows for rapid transmission of the impulse along the nerve fiber.

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  • 8. 

    The GABA neurotransmitter is

    • A.

      An inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS

    • B.

      An excitatory neurotransmitter of the CNS

    • C.

      An inhibitory neurotransmitter of the PNS

    • D.

      An excitatory neurotransmitter of the PNS

    Correct Answer
    A. An inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS
    Explanation
    GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is a neurotransmitter that functions as an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS). It works by reducing the activity of neurons, making them less likely to fire and transmit signals. This inhibitory action helps to regulate and balance the overall excitatory activity in the CNS. GABA plays a crucial role in controlling anxiety, promoting relaxation, and regulating sleep. It is not an excitatory neurotransmitter and does not have a significant role in the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

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  • 9. 

    The white mater is:

    • A.

      Mostly myelinated axons within the pathways of the spinal cord; tracts, fascicles, lemniscus, bundle.

    • B.

      Mostly unmyelinated neuron cell bodies and dendrites found within the cerebral cortex, basal ganglia and thalamus.

    • C.

      Mixture of myelinated and non-myelinated axons

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Mostly myelinated axons within the pathways of the spinal cord; tracts, fascicles, lemniscus, bundle.
    Explanation
    The white matter refers to the mostly myelinated axons within the pathways of the spinal cord, including tracts, fascicles, lemniscus, and bundle. Myelinated axons are responsible for transmitting signals between different areas of the central nervous system. The white matter acts as a communication network, allowing information to be relayed between different regions of the spinal cord. This is in contrast to the gray matter, which consists of unmyelinated neuron cell bodies and dendrites and is involved in the processing and integration of information.

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  • 10. 

    The sympathetic division the central nervous system is:

    • A.

      T1-L2 (thoracolumbar)

    • B.

      S2-S4 (Sacrococcygeal)

    • C.

      C1-C4 (Craniocervical)

    • D.

      L5-S2 (lumbosacral)

    Correct Answer
    A. T1-L2 (thoracolumbar)
    Explanation
    The sympathetic division of the central nervous system is located in the T1-L2 region, also known as the thoracolumbar region. This division is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, which involves increasing heart rate, dilating blood vessels, and releasing adrenaline. The T1-L2 region is where the sympathetic ganglia are located, which are responsible for transmitting signals to various organs and tissues in the body.

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  • 11. 

    A C-shaped band of white matter, that interconnects the right and left cerebral hemispheres and permits communication.

    • A.

      Arcuate Fasciculus

    • B.

      Median Fissure

    • C.

      Corpus Callosum

    • D.

      Corpus Striatum

    Correct Answer
    C. Corpus Callosum
    Explanation
    The corpus callosum is a C-shaped band of white matter that connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres, allowing for communication between them. It plays a crucial role in integrating information and coordinating functions between the two hemispheres.

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  • 12. 

    In the primary motor area:

    • A.

      Neurons of the primary motor cortex direct voluntary movement to the opposite side of the body.

    • B.

      Neurons of the primary motor cortex direct voluntary movement to the same side of the body.

    • C.

      Neurons of the primary motor cortex direct involuntary movement to the opposite side of the body.

    • D.

      Neurons of the primary motor cortex direct voluntary and involuntary movement to the opposite side of the body.

    Correct Answer
    A. Neurons of the primary motor cortex direct voluntary movement to the opposite side of the body.
    Explanation
    The primary motor area, located in the frontal lobe of the brain, is responsible for initiating voluntary movements. Neurons in this area send signals to the muscles on the opposite side of the body, allowing for precise and coordinated movement. This phenomenon is known as contralateral control. Therefore, the correct answer is that neurons of the primary motor cortex direct voluntary movement to the opposite side of the body.

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  • 13. 

    Where does higher order motor and sensory information take place?

    • A.

      Primary cortex

    • B.

      Association areas

    • C.

      Cerebellum

    • D.

      Cingulate gyrus

    Correct Answer
    B. Association areas
    Explanation
    Higher order motor and sensory information takes place in association areas. These areas are responsible for integrating and processing information from different sensory modalities and coordinating complex motor functions. They are involved in higher cognitive processes such as attention, perception, memory, and language. Unlike the primary cortex, which receives and processes basic sensory information, association areas are involved in more complex and abstract processing. Therefore, they play a crucial role in interpreting and making sense of the sensory information received from the primary cortex. The cerebellum and cingulate gyrus are not directly involved in higher order motor and sensory information processing.

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  • 14. 

    It is a cortical map that relates to patterns of cell organisation and function. The map was published in 1909.

    • A.

      Spinal Laminae

    • B.

      Homonculus

    • C.

      All of these

    • D.

      Brodmann's Cytoarchitectonic areas

    Correct Answer
    D. Brodmann's Cytoarchitectonic areas
    Explanation
    Brodmann's Cytoarchitectonic areas refer to a cortical map that relates to patterns of cell organization and function in the brain. These areas were identified and published by Korbinian Brodmann in 1909. This map divides the cerebral cortex into distinct regions based on the cellular composition and organization of neurons. Each area is characterized by specific functions and connections within the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is Brodmann's Cytoarchitectonic areas.

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  • 15. 

    How many Brodmann areas are there?

    • A.

      47

    • B.

      54

    • C.

      52

    • D.

      64

    Correct Answer
    C. 52
    Explanation
    There are a total of 52 Brodmann areas. These areas are regions of the cerebral cortex that are defined based on their cytoarchitecture, or the arrangement of cells. Each Brodmann area has a specific function and is numbered accordingly. These areas are widely used in neuroscience research to study the organization and function of the brain.

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  • 16. 

    The corticospinal tract:

    • A.

      It begins in the primary motor cortex, here it projects via axons through the cerebral white matter and the brainstem to reach the spinal cord on the same side. The decussation (pyramidal) occurs at the medulla

    • B.

      It begins in the cerebellar motor areas, here it projects via axons through the cerebral white matter and the brainstem to reach the spinal cord on the contra-lateral side. The decussation (pyramidal) occurs at the medulla

    • C.

      It begins in the Area 6, here it projects via axons through the cerebral gray matter and the brainstem to reach the spinal cord on the contra-lateral side. The decussation (pyramidal) occurs at the medulla.

    • D.

      It begins in the primary motor cortex, here it projects via axons through the cerebral white matter and the brainstem to reach the spinal cord on the contra-lateral side. The decussation (pyramidal) occurs at the medulla

    Correct Answer
    D. It begins in the primary motor cortex, here it projects via axons through the cerebral white matter and the brainstem to reach the spinal cord on the contra-lateral side. The decussation (pyramidal) occurs at the medulla
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the corticospinal tract begins in the primary motor cortex and projects via axons through the cerebral white matter and the brainstem to reach the spinal cord on the contra-lateral side. The decussation, or crossing over of fibers, occurs at the medulla. This means that the motor signals from the primary motor cortex on one side of the brain control movement on the opposite side of the body.

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  • 17. 

    What two structures are used to refine motor output of the motor system in order to perform delicate and complicated tasks?

    • A.

      Area 4 and 6

    • B.

      Basal ganglia and cerebellum

    • C.

      Brainstem and cerebellum

    • D.

      Cerebellum and spinal cord

    Correct Answer
    B. Basal ganglia and cerebellum
    Explanation
    The basal ganglia and cerebellum are two structures that are used to refine motor output in order to perform delicate and complicated tasks. The basal ganglia is involved in initiating and modulating movements, while the cerebellum is responsible for coordinating and fine-tuning motor movements. Together, these structures work to ensure precise and coordinated motor control, allowing for the execution of complex tasks.

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  • 18. 

    Behavioural changes can occur, the patient may feel fear, memory distortions such as deja vu, or olfactory hallucinations.

    • A.

      Cerebral dysfunction

    • B.

      Limbic dysfunction

    • C.

      Midbrain dysfunction

    • D.

      Pyramidal dysfunction

    Correct Answer
    B. Limbic dysfunction
    Explanation
    Limbic dysfunction refers to a disruption or impairment in the functioning of the limbic system, which is involved in emotions, behavior, and memory. The given statement suggests that the patient may experience behavioral changes, fear, memory distortions like deja vu, or olfactory hallucinations. These symptoms align with the known functions of the limbic system, indicating that the correct answer is limbic dysfunction.

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  • 19. 

    What are the two major arteries that supply blood to the brain?

    • A.

      Vertebrobasilar and internal carotid

    • B.

      Spinal and radicular

    • C.

      Artery of Adamkiewicz

    • D.

      Jugular and carotids

    Correct Answer
    A. Vertebrobasilar and internal carotid
    Explanation
    The two major arteries that supply blood to the brain are the vertebrobasilar artery and the internal carotid artery. The vertebrobasilar artery is formed by the fusion of the vertebral arteries and supplies blood to the posterior part of the brain. The internal carotid artery supplies blood to the anterior part of the brain. These two arteries play a crucial role in delivering oxygen and nutrients to the brain, ensuring its proper functioning.

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  • 20. 

    Provides venous drainage to the brain

    • A.

      Carotid veins

    • B.

      Jugular veins

    • C.

      Brachiocephalic veins

    • D.

      Vena cava

    Correct Answer
    B. Jugular veins
    Explanation
    The jugular veins are responsible for providing venous drainage to the brain. These veins collect deoxygenated blood from the head and neck region and transport it back to the heart. The jugular veins, specifically the internal jugular veins, are the main pathways for draining blood from the brain. They receive blood from various veins in the brain and eventually join the subclavian veins to form the brachiocephalic veins. From there, the blood flows into the superior vena cava and returns to the heart.

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  • 21. 

    Plasma is the ____________ portion of blood.

    • A.

      Fluid

    • B.

      Solid

    • C.

      Solid and fluid

    • D.

      Hematocrit

    Correct Answer
    A. Fluid
    Explanation
    Plasma is the fluid portion of blood. It is the yellowish, watery component that makes up about 55% of total blood volume. Plasma contains various substances such as proteins, electrolytes, hormones, and waste products. It plays a crucial role in transporting nutrients, hormones, and waste materials throughout the body. Additionally, plasma helps maintain blood pressure and regulates body temperature.

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  • 22. 

    The shape of erythrocytes are:

    • A.

      Spherical

    • B.

      Concave

    • C.

      Biconcave

    • D.

      Flat

    Correct Answer
    C. Biconcave
    Explanation
    Erythrocytes, also known as red blood cells, have a biconcave shape. This means that they have a concave shape on both sides, resembling a disc with a thinner center. This unique shape increases the surface area of the cell, allowing for more efficient oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange. The biconcave shape also enables flexibility, allowing the red blood cells to squeeze through narrow blood vessels and deliver oxygen to tissues throughout the body.

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  • 23. 

    A patient was diagnosed to have thrombocytopenia. Knowing the blood element involved with this condition, the patient will likely present with: 

    • A.

      Weakness, easy fatigability

    • B.

      Headache, dizziness, blurring of vision

    • C.

      Thrombus formation, palpitations, splenomegaly

    • D.

      Petechiae, ecchymosis, epistaxis

    Correct Answer
    D. Petechiae, ecchymosis, epistaxis
    Explanation
    Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count in the blood. Platelets are responsible for blood clotting, so when there is a deficiency in platelets, patients may present with symptoms such as petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin), ecchymosis (bruising), and epistaxis (nosebleeds). These symptoms occur due to the inability of the blood to clot properly, leading to bleeding under the skin or from mucous membranes. Weakness and fatigue are not specific to thrombocytopenia and can be caused by various other conditions. Headache, dizziness, and blurred vision are more commonly associated with conditions affecting the brain or eyes. Thrombus formation, palpitations, and splenomegaly are not typical symptoms of thrombocytopenia.

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  • 24. 

    A client recently admitted to the hospital with an acute illness is referred to physical therapy. During a scheduled treatment session the client asks what effect anemia will have on his ability to complete a formal exercise program. The most appropriate therapist response is?

    • A.

      You may experience frequent dizziness

    • B.

      Your aerobic capacity maybe reduced

    • C.

      You may have a tendency to become fatigued

    • D.

      You may feel as though your muscles are weak

    Correct Answer
    C. You may have a tendency to become fatigued
    Explanation
    Anemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. This can lead to a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in the body, which can result in fatigue. Therefore, the therapist's response that the client may have a tendency to become fatigued is the most appropriate, as it addresses the potential impact of anemia on the client's ability to complete a formal exercise program.

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  • 25. 

    A patient has noticed lately that he has increased need to drink water even if he is not exercising. Because of this, he urinates frequently and eats frequently. You should ask if:

    • A.

      There is prevalence of diabetes in the family

    • B.

      There is prevalence of obesity in the family

    • C.

      There is prevalence of mental disorder in the family

    • D.

      There is prevalence of diaphoresis in the family

    Correct Answer
    A. There is prevalence of diabetes in the family
    Explanation
    The increased need to drink water, frequent urination, and increased appetite are all symptoms commonly associated with diabetes. Asking about the prevalence of diabetes in the patient's family can help determine if there may be a genetic predisposition for the condition.

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  • 26. 

    A patient has hypercalcemia. He is also likely to have:

    • A.

      Hypoparathyroidism

    • B.

      Hypomagnasemia

    • C.

      Hypophosphatemia

    • D.

      Avitaminoses D

    Correct Answer
    C. Hypophosphatemia
    Explanation
    Hypercalcemia is a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. Hypophosphatemia refers to low levels of phosphate in the blood. Since phosphate and calcium have an inverse relationship, it is common for hypercalcemia to be accompanied by hypophosphatemia. This is because the high levels of calcium can lead to increased excretion of phosphate by the kidneys. Therefore, it is likely that a patient with hypercalcemia will also have hypophosphatemia.

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  • 27. 

    A patient was referred to you. He was diagnosed to have osteitis fibrosa cystica. This is characterized by:

    • A.

      Hyperparathyroidism

    • B.

      Hypoparathyroidism

    • C.

      Aparathyroidism

    • D.

      Hyperthyroidism

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperparathyroidism
    Explanation
    Osteitis fibrosa cystica is a condition characterized by the excessive activity of the parathyroid glands, leading to hyperparathyroidism. In this condition, the parathyroid glands produce an excessive amount of parathyroid hormone (PTH), which causes increased levels of calcium in the blood. This results in the breakdown of bone tissue, leading to the formation of cysts and fibrous tissue. Symptoms of osteitis fibrosa cystica include bone pain, fractures, and skeletal deformities. Therefore, the correct answer is hyperparathyroidism.

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  • 28. 

    This is the first effect of leukemia in an individual who has it:

    • A.

      Pain

    • B.

      Weight gain

    • C.

      Metastasis

    • D.

      Pallor

    Correct Answer
    C. Metastasis
    Explanation
    Metastasis is the correct answer because it refers to the spread of cancer cells from the original site to other parts of the body. In leukemia, cancer cells originate in the bone marrow and can spread to other organs and tissues through the bloodstream. This process of metastasis is one of the primary characteristics of leukemia and can lead to the involvement of multiple organs, causing various complications and symptoms. Pain, weight gain, and pallor can also be associated with leukemia, but they are not the first effect or the defining feature of the disease.

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  • 29. 

    A patient who is having an asthma attack and is having severe difficulty with breathing is sitting on a bench. You opened his medication bag and found the following drugs. Which of the following is the best choice to administer:

    • A.

      Beta 1 antagonist

    • B.

      Beta 2 antagonist

    • C.

      Beta 2 agonist

    • D.

      Beta 1 agonist

    Correct Answer
    C. Beta 2 agonist
    Explanation
    A patient experiencing an asthma attack with severe difficulty breathing would benefit most from a Beta 2 agonist. This medication specifically targets the Beta 2 receptors in the lungs, causing the smooth muscles to relax and the airways to dilate. This helps to relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Beta 1 antagonists, on the other hand, would block the Beta 1 receptors and may worsen the patient's condition. Similarly, Beta 2 antagonists would also block the Beta 2 receptors and hinder the bronchodilation process. Beta 1 agonists do not have a direct effect on the airways and would not be as effective as a Beta 2 agonist in treating asthma symptoms.

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  • 30. 

    A patient who has anemia talked to you about his condition. He said that his anemia is due to lack of an element in his small intestine that makes it hard for certain nutrients to be absorbed and processed by the body. This is likely:

    • A.

      Normocytic anemia

    • B.

      Iron-deficiency anemia

    • C.

      Pernicious anemia

    • D.

      Sickle cell anemia

    Correct Answer
    C. Pernicious anemia
    Explanation
    The patient's statement suggests that the anemia is caused by a lack of an element in the small intestine, which prevents the absorption and processing of certain nutrients. Pernicious anemia fits this description as it is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is necessary for the production of healthy red blood cells. Without enough vitamin B12, the body cannot effectively absorb and utilize nutrients, leading to anemia.

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  • 31. 

    The MD of your patient came to you to discuss her case of anemia. The doctor said that the patient has hereditary spherocytosis. You know that:

    • A.

      The patient has normal RBC count but shorter lifespan of cells than normal

    • B.

      The patient has normal RBC count with normal lifespan but with abnormal blood elements

    • C.

      The patient has abnormal RBC count with abnormal lifespan and with abnormal blood elements

    • D.

      The patient has normal RBC count but shorter lifespan of cells than normal

    Correct Answer
    A. The patient has normal RBC count but shorter lifespan of cells than normal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the patient has normal RBC count but shorter lifespan of cells than normal. This is because hereditary spherocytosis is a genetic disorder that affects the shape and stability of red blood cells (RBCs). In this condition, the RBCs are spherical instead of their normal biconcave shape, making them more prone to being destroyed by the spleen. As a result, the RBCs have a shorter lifespan than normal, leading to anemia despite having a normal RBC count.

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  • 32. 

    A patient who was referred to you last week died yesterday due to blood loss anemia. You know that this anemia is:

    • A.

      Megaloblastic

    • B.

      Hypochromic

    • C.

      Normocytic

    • D.

      Microcytic

    Correct Answer
    C. Normocytic
    Explanation
    The patient's cause of death was blood loss anemia, which is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells due to excessive bleeding. Normocytic anemia refers to a condition where the size of the red blood cells is within the normal range. Since blood loss anemia can cause a decrease in the number of red blood cells without affecting their size, normocytic anemia is the most appropriate classification for this case.

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  • 33. 

    An 8-year old patient with hemophilia A was referred to you for management. Which of the following is the best management given that the patient is not yet stabilized by procoagulants? 

    • A.

      Multiple angle isometrics

    • B.

      AROMEs

    • C.

      Hot compress

    • D.

      Deep breathing exercises

    Correct Answer
    D. Deep breathing exercises
    Explanation
    Deep breathing exercises can be beneficial for patients with hemophilia A who are not yet stabilized by procoagulants. Deep breathing exercises help improve lung function, increase oxygenation, and promote relaxation. These exercises can also help prevent complications such as pneumonia and atelectasis, which can occur due to immobility or prolonged bed rest. Additionally, deep breathing exercises can aid in pain management and reduce anxiety in patients with hemophilia A. Therefore, deep breathing exercises are the best management option in this scenario.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following line of medication is contraindicated to patients with hemophilia?

    • A.

      Coumarin

    • B.

      Clotting factors derivatives

    • C.

      Vit. K

    • D.

      Thrombin derivative

    Correct Answer
    A. Coumarin
    Explanation
    Coumarin is contraindicated for patients with hemophilia because it is an anticoagulant medication that inhibits the clotting process. Hemophilia is a bleeding disorder characterized by the inability to form blood clots, so giving a medication that further inhibits clotting would be detrimental to these patients.

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  • 35. 

    A patient’s blood values read as: Hgb: 10 gm/dL, Hct: 43%; Platelets: 7,000 gm/dL. Patient’s temperature is 38.2 degrees Celsius. The best action is:

    • A.

      Continue treatment since blood values are normal, fever can be managed by exercise pacing

    • B.

      Defer treatment since blood values are abnormal and patient has fever

    • C.

      Continue treatment since blood values are normal and temperature is normal

    • D.

      Defer treatment because there is fever even if blood values are normal

    Correct Answer
    D. Defer treatment because there is fever even if blood values are normal
  • 36. 

    A patient’s lab values read as: Hgb 6gm/dL; Hct: 45%; platelets: 10,000 gm/dL. The patient will likely have which complication if treatment is continued:

    • A.

      Profused bleeding

    • B.

      Hypoglycemia

    • C.

      Hyperglycemia

    • D.

      Fatigue

    Correct Answer
    D. Fatigue
    Explanation
    The patient's lab values indicate low hemoglobin (Hgb) and platelet count, which can lead to anemia and impaired blood clotting. This can result in fatigue due to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the patient is likely to experience fatigue if treatment is continued.

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  • 37. 

    A patient’s working impression read as: systemic reaction secondary to excess IgE and reagin interaction. This is: 

    • A.

      Hypovolumic shock

    • B.

      Cardiogenic shock

    • C.

      Inflammatory shock

    • D.

      Anaphylactic shock

    Correct Answer
    D. Anaphylactic shock
    Explanation
    The patient's working impression suggests that the systemic reaction is due to excess IgE and reagin interaction. This indicates an anaphylactic shock, which is a severe allergic reaction that occurs when the immune system overreacts to an allergen. This reaction leads to the release of histamine and other chemicals, causing a wide range of symptoms such as difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and hives. Anaphylactic shock can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

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  • 38. 

    This is the most potent stimulus for red blood cells to be formed in the system:

    • A.

      Altitude level

    • B.

      Erythropoietin level

    • C.

      Level of tissue oxygenation

    • D.

      Kidney status

    Correct Answer
    B. Erythropoietin level
    Explanation
    Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the body. It stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. Therefore, the level of erythropoietin in the system is the most potent stimulus for the formation of red blood cells. The other options, such as altitude level, level of tissue oxygenation, and kidney status, are all related to erythropoietin production or its effects on the body.

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  • 39. 

    A patient with type B blood cannot receive a type A blood because of risk of agglutination. This is explained as:

    • A.

      Type A antigen will react with type B antibodies

    • B.

      Type A is considered an allergen to type B

    • C.

      Type A releases enzymes that lyses type B RBCs

    • D.

      Type A has more oxygen than type B

    Correct Answer
    A. Type A antigen will react with type B antibodies
    Explanation
    A patient with type B blood has antibodies against type A blood. When type A blood is transfused into a type B patient, the antibodies in the patient's blood will recognize the type A antigen on the transfused blood cells as foreign and will cause agglutination or clumping of the blood cells. This can lead to serious complications and is why type B patients cannot receive type A blood.

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  • 40. 

    A patient who will receive an organ transplant will take medications to control tissue rejection. This is explained by:

    • A.

      It is virtually impossible for two HLA to be perfectly paired to each other

    • B.

      HLAs or tissue complexes should come from the same person always

    • C.

      Tissues tend to reject each other because of the incompatibility of their innervations

    • D.

      Tissues will reject other tissues if one tissue is resistant to one medication

    Correct Answer
    A. It is virtually impossible for two HLA to be perfectly paired to each other
    Explanation
    The answer is that it is virtually impossible for two HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) to be perfectly paired to each other. HLA is a group of proteins that plays a crucial role in the immune system by distinguishing the body's own cells from foreign cells. When a patient receives an organ transplant, the transplanted organ will have different HLAs compared to the recipient's own cells. This difference in HLAs can trigger an immune response and lead to tissue rejection. Therefore, medications are needed to control tissue rejection by suppressing the immune system's response to the foreign HLAs.

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  • 41. 

    A patient with tissue transplantation takes medication to shut down to control tissue rejection after an organ transplant. These people has tendency to develop which complication as a side effect of their medications?

    • A.

      Immunocompromised status due to immunosuppresants

    • B.

      Decreased pain threshold due to opiod overdose

    • C.

      Muscle hypertrophy due to corticosteroid use

    • D.

      Tissue hyperplasia due to drug interactions

    Correct Answer
    A. Immunocompromised status due to immunosuppresants
    Explanation
    Patients who undergo tissue transplantation require medication to suppress their immune system in order to prevent tissue rejection. This immunosuppressive medication can lead to an immunocompromised status, meaning that their immune system is weakened and less able to fight off infections and diseases. This is a common side effect of immunosuppressants and is a potential complication for these patients.

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  • 42. 

    Natives exposed in high altitudes will likely have:

    • A.

      Increased amount of WBC

    • B.

      Increased amount of RBC

    • C.

      Increased amount of perspiration

    • D.

      Increased amount of Platelets

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased amount of RBC
    Explanation
    Exposure to high altitudes leads to a decrease in oxygen levels, which triggers the body to produce more red blood cells (RBCs) in order to carry more oxygen to the tissues. This is known as altitude acclimatization. The increased amount of RBCs helps to compensate for the reduced oxygen availability, allowing the body to function more efficiently at high altitudes. Therefore, natives exposed to high altitudes are likely to have an increased amount of RBCs.

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  • 43. 

    The population that should have routine x-ray assessments:

    • A.

      Pediatric patients

    • B.

      Post-menopausal women

    • C.

      >60 year old men who are single

    • D.

      Swimmers

    Correct Answer
    B. Post-menopausal women
    Explanation
    Post-menopausal women should have routine x-ray assessments because they are at a higher risk for developing osteoporosis, a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones. X-rays can help detect any signs of bone loss or fractures, allowing for early intervention and treatment. Regular assessments are especially important for post-menopausal women as hormonal changes during menopause can accelerate bone loss. By identifying and addressing any bone health issues early on, post-menopausal women can reduce their risk of fractures and maintain overall bone health.

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  • 44. 

    This patient has a deficiency in:

    • A.

      Iron

    • B.

      Vitamin K

    • C.

      Folic acid

    • D.

      Vitamin B12

    Correct Answer
    B. Vitamin K
    Explanation
    This patient has a deficiency in vitamin K. Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting and plays a crucial role in the synthesis of certain proteins involved in coagulation. A deficiency in vitamin K can lead to excessive bleeding and difficulty in blood clotting.

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  • 45. 

    This patient has increased amounts of:

    • A.

      Calcitonin

    • B.

      Growth hormone

    • C.

      Cortisol

    • D.

      Thyroid hormone

    Correct Answer
    B. Growth hormone
    Explanation
    This patient has increased amounts of growth hormone. Growth hormone is responsible for regulating growth and development in the body. Increased levels of growth hormone can lead to excessive growth, known as gigantism in children and acromegaly in adults. This hormone is produced by the pituitary gland and plays a role in bone and muscle growth, as well as regulating metabolism.

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  • 46. 

    This patient likely has:

    • A.

      Grave's disease

    • B.

      Cushing syndrome

    • C.

      Addison's disease

    • D.

      Conn's disease

    Correct Answer
    B. Cushing syndrome
    Explanation
    This patient likely has Cushing syndrome. Cushing syndrome is a condition caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands. Symptoms of Cushing syndrome include weight gain, particularly in the face, neck, and trunk, thinning of the skin, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. It can be caused by the use of corticosteroid medications or by a tumor in the adrenal glands or pituitary gland.

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  • 47. 

    This patient likely has:

    • A.

      Cushing's disease

    • B.

      Conn's disease

    • C.

      Addison's disease

    • D.

      Grave's disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Grave's disease
    Explanation
    This patient likely has Grave's disease. Grave's disease is an autoimmune disorder that causes the overproduction of thyroid hormones, leading to hyperthyroidism. Symptoms of Grave's disease include weight loss, rapid heartbeat, tremors, anxiety, and bulging eyes. Cushing's disease is a condition caused by excessive production of cortisol, Conn's disease is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone, and Addison's disease is a condition caused by insufficient production of adrenal hormones. None of these conditions match the symptoms described in the question.

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  • 48. 

    The diagnosis of this patient is hypothyroidism. What is this?

    • A.

      Dwarfism

    • B.

      Cretinism

    • C.

      Myxedema

    • D.

      Kawasaki's disease

    Correct Answer
    B. Cretinism
    Explanation
    Cretinism is the correct answer because it is a type of hypothyroidism that occurs in infants and children. It is caused by a deficiency of thyroid hormone during development, leading to stunted growth, intellectual disability, and physical abnormalities. Dwarfism refers to abnormally short stature, but it is not specific to hypothyroidism. Myxedema is a term used to describe severe hypothyroidism in adults, characterized by swelling, dry skin, and other symptoms. Kawasaki's disease is a condition that primarily affects children and causes inflammation in the blood vessels, but it is not related to hypothyroidism.

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  • 49. 

    This woman may have increased amounts of:

    • A.

      Estrogen

    • B.

      Testosterone

    • C.

      Progesterone

    • D.

      Luteinizing hormone

    Correct Answer
    B. Testosterone
    Explanation
    This woman may have increased amounts of testosterone. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with males, but it is also present in females in smaller amounts. Increased levels of testosterone in women can be caused by various factors such as polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), adrenal gland disorders, or certain medications. Symptoms of high testosterone in women may include acne, excessive hair growth, irregular periods, and mood changes. It is important for women with high testosterone levels to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.

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  • 50. 

    This woman may have increased amounts of which hormones during this period?

    • A.

      T3 and T4

    • B.

      Relaxin and growth hormone

    • C.

      Progesterone and testosterone

    • D.

      Oxytocin and relaxin

    Correct Answer
    D. Oxytocin and relaxin
    Explanation
    During this period, oxytocin and relaxin may be increased in this woman. Oxytocin is a hormone released during childbirth and breastfeeding, and it helps with contractions and milk production. Relaxin is a hormone that helps to relax the ligaments and joints in preparation for childbirth. Both hormones play important roles during pregnancy and childbirth, making this answer the most likely explanation.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 07, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 22, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Mjfinn201626
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