AP II Final Exam

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  • 1/120 Questions

    The pituitary hormone that causes the kidney to reduce water loss is ___

    • TSH
    • FSH
    • MSH
    • STH
    • ADH
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AP II Final Exam - Quiz
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  • 2. 

    The muscular layer of a blood vessel is the __

    • Tunica intima

    • Tunica externa

    • Tunica media

    • Tunica interna

    • Tunica adventitia

    Correct Answer
    A. Tunica media
    Explanation
    The muscular layer of a blood vessel is called the tunica media. This layer is located between the innermost layer, known as the tunica intima, and the outermost layer, called the tunica externa or adventitia. The tunica media is composed of smooth muscle cells and elastic fibers, which allow the blood vessel to contract and relax, thereby regulating blood flow and maintaining blood pressure.

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  • 3. 

    The two common iliac veins form the ___

    • Femoral vein

    • Greater saphenous vein

    • Inferior vena cava

    • Hepatic portal vein

    • Innominate vein

    Correct Answer
    A. Inferior vena cava
    Explanation
    The two common iliac veins join together to form the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body back to the heart. It is located on the right side of the body and runs parallel to the abdominal aorta.

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  • 4. 

    Compared to arteries, veins ____

    • Are more elastic

    • Have more smooth muscle in their tunica media

    • Have a pleated endothelium

    • Have thinner walls

    • Hold their shape better when cut

    Correct Answer
    A. Have thinner walls
    Explanation
    Veins have thinner walls compared to arteries. This is because veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart at a lower pressure than arteries, which carry oxygenated blood away from the heart at a higher pressure. Thinner walls allow veins to expand and accommodate larger volumes of blood. Additionally, veins have valves to prevent blood from flowing backward, and their walls are less muscular and elastic than arteries.

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  • 5. 

    Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following, except the __

    • Length of a blood vessel

    • Osmolarity of interstitial fluids

    • Flow characteristics

    • Blood viscosity

    • Blood vessel diameter

    Correct Answer
    A. Osmolarity of interstitial fluids
    Explanation
    Total peripheral resistance is a measure of the resistance encountered by blood flow in the systemic circulation. It is influenced by factors such as blood viscosity, blood vessel diameter, and flow characteristics. The length of a blood vessel also affects resistance, as longer vessels offer more resistance to blood flow. However, osmolarity of interstitial fluids does not directly impact total peripheral resistance. Osmolarity refers to the concentration of solutes in the interstitial fluid, which can affect fluid balance and cellular function, but it does not directly influence the resistance to blood flow in the peripheral vasculature.

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  • 6. 

    The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the ___

    • Concentration of plasma proteins

    • Number of red blood cells

    • Concentration of plasma sodium ions

    • Concentration of plasma glucose

    • Concentration of plasma waste products

    Correct Answer
    A. Concentration of plasma proteins
    Explanation
    The blood colloid osmotic pressure is mainly determined by the concentration of plasma proteins. Plasma proteins, such as albumin, exert an osmotic force that helps to maintain the balance of fluid between the blood vessels and the surrounding tissues. These proteins attract water, causing it to move from the tissues into the blood vessels, preventing excessive fluid leakage. Therefore, a higher concentration of plasma proteins leads to a higher colloid osmotic pressure, which helps to maintain fluid balance in the body.

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  • 7. 

    An inflammatory response is triggered when __

    • Red blood cells release pyrogens

    • T cells release interferon

    • Mast cells release histamine and heparin

    • Neutrophils phagocytize bacteria

    • Blood flow to an area increases

    Correct Answer
    A. Mast cells release histamine and heparin
    Explanation
    When mast cells release histamine and heparin, it triggers an inflammatory response. Histamine causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable, allowing immune cells and fluid to move into the affected area. This leads to redness, swelling, and heat. Heparin helps prevent blood clotting, allowing immune cells to move freely. Together, histamine and heparin contribute to the inflammatory response, which is an important part of the body's immune defense against infection and injury.

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  • 8. 

    The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are the ___

    • Bronchioles

    • Terminal bronchioles

    • Pleural spaces

    • Alveoli

    • Interlobular septa

    Correct Answer
    A. Alveoli
    Explanation
    The alveoli are the actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs. These tiny air sacs are located at the end of the bronchioles and are surrounded by a network of capillaries. Oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses across the thin walls of the alveoli into the bloodstream, while carbon dioxide, a waste product, diffuses from the bloodstream into the alveoli to be exhaled. The large surface area and thin walls of the alveoli allow for efficient gas exchange, making them vital for the respiratory system.

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  • 9. 

    The term hypercapnia refers to __

    • The cessation of breathing

    • Elevated PCO2

    • Elevated PO2

    • An increase in pH

    • Labored breathing

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevated PCO2
    Explanation
    Hypercapnia refers to elevated PCO2 levels in the blood. PCO2 is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. When the PCO2 levels are elevated, it indicates an excess of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, which can be caused by factors such as hypoventilation or impaired lung function. This can lead to symptoms such as labored breathing.

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  • 10. 

    Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial pleats and folds

    • Mucosa

    • Submucosa

    • Submucosal plexus

    • Muscularis mucosa

    • Adventitia

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscularis mucosa
    Explanation
    The muscularis mucosa is a layer of smooth muscle found in the mucosa of the intestines. When this layer contracts, it causes the intestinal lumen to change shape and moves the epithelial pleats and folds. This movement helps with the absorption and digestion of nutrients in the intestines. The other options, such as mucosa, submucosa, submucosal plexus, and adventitia, are not directly involved in altering the shape of the intestinal lumen and moving the pleats and folds.

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  • 11. 

    The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich fluid is __

    • Enterocrinin

    • Secretin

    • Cholecystokinin

    • GIP

    • Gastrin

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretin
    Explanation
    Secretin is the correct answer because it is an intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich fluid. Secretin is released by the duodenum in response to the presence of acidic chyme in the small intestine. It acts on the pancreas to increase the secretion of bicarbonate ions, which helps to neutralize the acidic chyme and create a more favorable environment for digestion in the small intestine.

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  • 12. 

    The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar

    • Submaxillary

    • Submandibular

    • Parotid

    • Sublingual

    • Vestibular

    Correct Answer
    A. Parotid
    Explanation
    The parotid gland is a major salivary gland located in the cheek area, and it is the largest of the salivary glands. It secretes saliva into the oral cavity through a duct called Stensen's duct, which opens at the level of the second upper molar. This gland plays a crucial role in the production of saliva, which aids in the digestion process by moistening food and facilitating swallowing.

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  • 13. 

    Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called _

    • Segmentation

    • Pendular movements

    • Peristalsis

    • Churning movements

    • Mastication

    Correct Answer
    A. Peristalsis
    Explanation
    Peristalsis is the correct answer because it refers to the waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract. These contractions help to move food through the digestive system by squeezing and relaxing the muscles in a coordinated manner. Segmentation refers to the mixing and breaking down of food, pendular movements refer to a type of movement in the small intestine, churning movements refer to mixing and churning actions in the stomach, and mastication refers to the process of chewing food.

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  • 14. 

    The cavity of the kidney that receives urine from the calyces is called the _

    • Renal papilla

    • Renal pelvis

    • Renal medulla

    • Renal cortex

    • Renal sinus

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal pelvis
    Explanation
    The renal pelvis is the correct answer because it is the cavity of the kidney that receives urine from the calyces. The calyces collect urine from the renal pyramids and drain it into the renal pelvis, which then leads to the ureter. The renal pelvis acts as a funnel, allowing urine to flow out of the kidney and into the urinary system for elimination. The other options, such as renal papilla, renal medulla, renal cortex, and renal sinus, are not the correct terms for the cavity that receives urine from the calyces.

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  • 15. 

    Urine is carried to the urinary bladder by _

    • Blood vessels

    • Lymphatics

    • The ureters

    • The urethra

    • The calyces

    Correct Answer
    A. The ureters
    Explanation
    The urine is carried to the urinary bladder by the ureters. The ureters are long, muscular tubes that connect the kidneys to the bladder. They transport urine from the kidneys, where it is produced, to the bladder, where it is stored until it is eliminated from the body through the urethra. The ureters play a crucial role in the urinary system by ensuring the proper flow of urine and preventing it from flowing back into the kidneys.

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  • 16. 

    All of the following are components of ECF, except _____

    • Cerebrospinal fluid

    • Peritoneal fluid

    • Lymph

    • Aqueous humor

    • RBCs

    Correct Answer
    A. RBCs
    Explanation
    The extracellular fluid (ECF) is the fluid that exists outside the cells in the body. It includes various components such as cerebrospinal fluid, peritoneal fluid, lymph, and aqueous humor. However, red blood cells (RBCs) are not considered a component of ECF as they are contained within the blood vessels and are not present in the interstitial fluid or other extracellular spaces.

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  • 17. 

    The thick muscular layer of the uterus is the _

    • Endometrium

    • Perimetrium

    • Myometrium

    • Uterometrium

    • Sarcometrium

    Correct Answer
    A. Myometrium
    Explanation
    The myometrium is the correct answer because it refers to the thick muscular layer of the uterus. This layer is responsible for contracting and relaxing during labor and menstruation. It plays a crucial role in the expulsion of the fetus during childbirth and helps in reducing excessive bleeding after delivery. The myometrium is made up of smooth muscle cells and is the thickest layer of the uterine wall.

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  • 18. 

    The inner cell mass of the blastocyst will __

    • Form the placenta

    • Form the morula

    • Form the embryo

    • Form blood vessels of the placenta

    • Provide nutrients for early growth

    Correct Answer
    A. Form the embryo
    Explanation
    The inner cell mass of the blastocyst is the group of cells that will develop into the embryo. This mass contains the cells that will differentiate and give rise to all the different tissues and organs of the developing organism. Therefore, the correct answer is that the inner cell mass of the blastocyst will form the embryo.

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  • 19. 

    Which hormone is NOT produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysi

    • FSH

    • Oxytocin

    • TSH

    • ACTH

    • PRL

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxytocin
    Explanation
    Oxytocin is not produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysis. Oxytocin is actually produced by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. It is responsible for stimulating uterine contractions during childbirth and promoting the release of milk during breastfeeding. The hormones produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysis include FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone), and PRL (prolactin).

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  • 20. 

    The pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the suprarenal cortex is _

    • TSH

    • ACTH

    • FSH

    • LH

    • GH

    Correct Answer
    A. ACTH
    Explanation
    ACTH, or adrenocorticotropic hormone, is the pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the suprarenal cortex. When the body requires more glucocorticoids, the hypothalamus stimulates the release of ACTH, which then acts on the suprarenal cortex to produce and release glucocorticoids. These glucocorticoids play a vital role in regulating metabolism, immune response, and stress response in the body. Therefore, ACTH is the correct answer as it directly regulates the release of glucocorticoids from the suprarenal cortex.

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  • 21. 

    If you have just eaten, your body secretes ______ to uptake glucose; if you have not eaten all day, your body secretes ______ to promote glycogen breakdown

    • Glucagon; insulin

    • Insulin; glucagon

    • Insulin; glycogen

    • Glycogen; insulin

    • Growth hormone; glucagon

    Correct Answer
    A. Insulin; glucagon
    Explanation
    When you have just eaten, your body secretes insulin to uptake glucose from the bloodstream and transport it into cells for energy production. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels. Conversely, if you have not eaten all day, your body secretes glucagon to promote glycogen breakdown. Glucagon stimulates the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream to maintain blood glucose levels. Therefore, the correct answer is insulin; glucagon.

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  • 22. 

    The enzyme renin is responsible for the activation of ___

    • Angiotensinogen into angiotensin I

    • Angiotensin I into angiontensin II

    • Angiotensin II into aldosterone

    • Atrial natriuretic peptide

    • Adrenaline

    Correct Answer
    A. Angiotensinogen into angiotensin I
    Explanation
    Renin is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). It acts on angiotensinogen, a protein produced by the liver, and converts it into angiotensin I. This conversion is the first step in the activation of the RAAS, which ultimately leads to the production of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and also stimulates the release of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and water balance. Therefore, the correct answer is that renin is responsible for the activation of angiotensinogen into angiotensin I.

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  • 23. 

    The zona glomerulosa of the suprarenal cortex produces __

    • Androgens

    • Glucocorticoids

    • Mineralocorticoids

    • Epinephrine

    • Norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Mineralocorticoids
    Explanation
    The zona glomerulosa of the suprarenal cortex is responsible for producing mineralocorticoids. Mineralocorticoids are a type of steroid hormone that regulate the balance of electrolytes and water in the body. They primarily act on the kidneys, promoting the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium. This helps to maintain proper blood pressure and electrolyte levels. Androgens are produced in the zona reticularis, glucocorticoids in the zona fasciculata, and epinephrine and norepinephrine in the adrenal medulla.

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  • 24. 

    Thyroxine and calcitonin are secreted by the __

    • Kidneys

    • Heart

    • Thyroid gland

    • Gonads

    • Pituitary gland

    Correct Answer
    A. Thyroid gland
    Explanation
    Thyroxine and calcitonin are hormones that are secreted by the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland is a small, butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck. Thyroxine is responsible for regulating metabolism, growth, and development, while calcitonin helps to regulate calcium levels in the body. The kidneys are responsible for filtering waste and maintaining fluid balance, the heart is responsible for pumping blood, the gonads are responsible for producing sex hormones, and the pituitary gland is responsible for secreting various hormones that control other endocrine glands. Therefore, the correct answer is the thyroid gland.

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  • 25. 

    Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from __

    • The heart

    • A superficial artery

    • A superficial vein

    • A capillary

    • An arteriole

    Correct Answer
    A. A superficial vein
    Explanation
    Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from a superficial vein. Superficial veins are easily accessible and can be safely punctured to obtain a blood sample. This method is commonly used for routine blood tests and allows for efficient collection without causing significant discomfort or complications. Collecting blood from deeper vessels such as arteries or arterioles is more invasive and typically reserved for specific diagnostic procedures.

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  • 26. 

    The process of lymphopoiesis goes on in all of the following organs, except 

    • The spleen

    • The thymus

    • The lymph nodes

    • The red bone marrow

    • The kidney

    Correct Answer
    A. The kidney
    Explanation
    Lymphopoiesis is the process of producing lymphocytes, which are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response. This process occurs primarily in the red bone marrow, thymus, and lymph nodes. The spleen also plays a role in the immune system but is not directly involved in lymphopoiesis. The kidney, on the other hand, is not involved in the production of lymphocytes and therefore does not participate in lymphopoiesis.

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  • 27. 

    People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because ____

    • Their blood cells lack A and B antigens

    • Their blood lacks A or B agglutinins (immunoglobins)

    • Their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins

    • They usually have very strong immune systems

    • They are usually Rh negative

    Correct Answer
    A. Their blood lacks A or B agglutinins (immunoglobins)
    Explanation
    People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because their blood lacks A or B agglutinins (immunoglobins). Agglutinins are antibodies that can cause blood cells to clump together, leading to potentially dangerous reactions during transfusions. Since individuals with type AB blood do not have these agglutinins, their blood can safely receive transfusions from donors with any blood type.

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  • 28. 

    Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result if ___

    • The mother is Rh-positive and the father is Rh-negative

    • Both the father and the mother are Rh-negative

    • Both the father and the mother are Rh-positive

    • An Rh-negative mother carries and Rh-positive fetus

    • An Rh-positive mother carries and Rh-negative fetus

    Correct Answer
    A. An Rh-negative mother carries and Rh-positive fetus
    Explanation
    When an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a potential for the mother's immune system to produce antibodies against the Rh factor present in the fetus's blood. This can happen during pregnancy or childbirth when the mother's and fetus's blood mix. These antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the red blood cells of the fetus, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn. This condition can lead to anemia, jaundice, and other complications in the newborn. Therefore, an Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus is a risk factor for hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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  • 29. 

    The pulmonary veins carry blood to the _

    • Heart

    • Lungs

    • Brain

    • Intestines

    • Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Heart
    Explanation
    The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. This blood has been oxygenated in the lungs and is then pumped by the heart to the rest of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "heart".

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  • 30. 

    Which statement about the left ventricle is false

    • The left ventricle has a thicker wall than the right ventricle

    • The left ventricle is round in cross section

    • The left ventricle pumps a greater volume than the right ventricle

    • The left ventricle works harder than the right ventricle

    • The left ventricle produces more pressure when it contracts compared to the right ventricle

    Correct Answer
    A. The left ventricle pumps a greater volume than the right ventricle
    Explanation
    The left ventricle pumps a greater volume than the right ventricle. This is because the left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the entire body, while the right ventricle only pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Therefore, the left ventricle needs to generate more force to push a larger volume of blood throughout the systemic circulation.

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  • 31. 

    The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to ___

    • Movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane

    • Calcium channels remaining open

    • Increased membrane permeability to potassium ion

    • Decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane

    • Ncreased membrane permeability to sodium ions

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium channels remaining open
    Explanation
    The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to calcium channels remaining open. This allows calcium ions to continue entering the cell, prolonging the depolarization phase and delaying repolarization. This is important for maintaining the contraction of the cardiac muscle and ensuring efficient pumping of blood.

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  • 32. 

    During ventricular systole, ____

    • The atria are contracting

    • The blood is entering the ventricles

    • The AV valves are closed

    • The pressure in the ventricles remains constant

    • The pressure in the aorta remains constant

    Correct Answer
    A. The AV valves are closed
    Explanation
    During ventricular systole, the AV valves are closed. This is because ventricular systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles contract to pump blood out of the heart. In order for the blood to be pumped out effectively, the AV valves, which are located between the atria and ventricles, close to prevent backflow of blood into the atria. This closure of the AV valves ensures that the blood is directed into the arteries and not back into the atria, allowing for efficient circulation.

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  • 33. 

    The T wave on an ECG tracing represents _

    • Atrial depolarization

    • Atrial repolarization

    • Ventricular depolarization

    • Ventricular repolarization

    • Ventricular contraction

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventricular repolarization
    Explanation
    The T wave on an ECG tracing represents ventricular repolarization. This is the phase of the cardiac cycle where the ventricles are relaxing and preparing for the next contraction. Repolarization refers to the resetting of the electrical charge in the heart muscle cells, allowing them to contract again. The T wave is an upward deflection on the ECG graph that indicates this repolarization process in the ventricles. It is important to note that the T wave does not represent atrial activity or ventricular contraction, as these are represented by other waves on the ECG tracing.

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  • 34. 

    Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexly results in ____

    • Stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain

    • Increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart

    • Increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system

    • Stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center

    • Increased heart rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system
    Explanation
    Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexly results in increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system. The aortic baroreceptors are sensory receptors located in the aortic arch that detect changes in blood pressure. When these receptors are stimulated by an increase in blood pressure, they send signals to the brain. The brain then activates the parasympathetic nervous system, which causes a decrease in heart rate and a decrease in sympathetic stimulation of the heart. This helps to lower blood pressure and restore homeostasis.

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  • 35. 

    At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the ________ artery

    • Iliac

    • Deep femoral

    • Popliteal

    • Tibial

    • Peroneal

    Correct Answer
    A. Popliteal
    Explanation
    At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the popliteal artery. The popliteal artery is a continuation of the femoral artery and is located behind the knee joint. It supplies blood to the lower leg and foot.

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  • 36. 

    The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would ___

    • Cause inflammation

    • Produce a fever

    • Activate complement

    • Opsonize pathogens

    • Activate antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Produce a fever
    Explanation
    The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would produce a fever. Endogenous pyrogen is a type of cytokine that is released by immune cells, particularly macrophages, in response to infection or inflammation. It acts on the hypothalamus in the brain, causing an increase in body temperature and resulting in a fever. This immune response helps to fight off pathogens and promote healing.

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  • 37. 

    The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells

    • NK

    • Plasma

    • Helper T

    • Thymus

    • Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasma
    Explanation
    Plasma cells are the cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins. Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by plasma cells that play a crucial role in the immune response. These antibodies circulate in the blood and other bodily fluids, helping to neutralize pathogens and promote immune defense. Therefore, plasma cells are the correct answer as they are specialized cells that produce immunoglobulins for the immune system.

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  • 38. 

    Areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes are known as _

    • Peyer patches

    • Adenoids

    • White pulp

    • Red pulp

    • Lymph nodes

    Correct Answer
    A. White pulp
    Explanation
    The correct answer is white pulp. The white pulp of the spleen contains large aggregations of lymphocytes. These lymphocytes play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances such as bacteria and viruses. The white pulp also contains specialized structures called germinal centers, where B cells undergo maturation and produce antibodies. This makes the white pulp an important site for immune surveillance and defense against infections.

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  • 39. 

    __ are clusters of lymphoid nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine

    • Tonsils

    • Adenoids

    • Peyer patches

    • Immune complexes

    • Lymph glands

    Correct Answer
    A. Peyer patches
    Explanation
    Peyer patches are clusters of lymphoid nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine. They are part of the body's immune system and play a role in protecting against harmful pathogens that may enter the digestive system through food or water. Peyer patches contain specialized immune cells, such as lymphocytes, which help in the recognition and elimination of these pathogens.

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  • 40. 

    Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells

    • Plasma

    • B

    • Helper T

    • Cytotoxic T

    • Suppressor T

    Correct Answer
    A. Cytotoxic T
    Explanation
    Cytotoxic T cells are a type of lymphocytes that are responsible for destroying foreign cells or virus-infected cells. They are part of the immune system and play a crucial role in eliminating pathogens and infected cells from the body. These cells recognize specific antigens on the surface of infected cells and release toxic substances to kill them. Therefore, cytotoxic T cells are the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 41. 

    The body's nonspecific defenses include all of the following, except __

    • The skin

    • Complement

    • Interferon

    • Inflammation

    • Antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibodies
    Explanation
    The body's nonspecific defenses include the skin, complement, interferon, and inflammation. Antibodies, on the other hand, are part of the body's specific immune response. They are produced by B cells in response to a specific pathogen and help to neutralize or eliminate the pathogen. Unlike the other options listed, antibodies are not considered nonspecific defenses because they target specific antigens.

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  • 42. 

    Boyle's law states that gas volume is _

    • Directly proportional to pressure

    • Directly proportional to temperature

    • Inversely proportional to pressure

    • Inversely proportional to temperature

    • Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. Inversely proportional to pressure
    Explanation
    Boyle's law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. This means that as the pressure on a gas increases, its volume decreases, and vice versa. This relationship holds true as long as the temperature and amount of gas remain constant. Therefore, the correct answer is "inversely proportional to pressure".

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  • 43. 

    When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, __

    • The volume of the thorax increases

    • The volume of the thorax decreases

    • The volume of the lungs decreases

    • The lungs shrink

    • Expiration occurs

    Correct Answer
    A. The volume of the thorax increases
    Explanation
    When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, the volume of the thorax increases. This is because the diaphragm moves downward and the external intercostal muscles pull the ribcage upward and outward, expanding the space in the thoracic cavity. This expansion creates a negative pressure within the lungs, causing air to rush in and fill the increased space, leading to inhalation.

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  • 44. 

    The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels

    • Serosa

    • Adventitia

    • Mesenteries

    • Fibrosa

    • Lamina propria

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesenteries
    Explanation
    The mesenteries are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels. They provide support and stability to the organs within the abdominal cavity and allow for their movement and proper functioning. The mesenteries also play a role in the transportation of nutrients and waste products through their blood vessels and lymphatics.

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  • 45. 

    Chief cells secrete __

    • Pepsinogen

    • Gastrin

    • Mucus

    • Hydrochloric acid

    • Intrinsic factor

    Correct Answer
    A. Pepsinogen
    Explanation
    Chief cells are found in the stomach lining and are responsible for secreting pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is an inactive form of the enzyme pepsin, which is essential for the digestion of proteins. When pepsinogen is exposed to the acidic environment of the stomach, it is converted into pepsin, which can break down proteins into smaller peptides. Therefore, the correct answer is pepsinogen.

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  • 46. 

    The fusion of the hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the ___

    • Hepatic portal vein

    • Porta hepatis

    • Common bile duct

    • Common pancreatic duct

    • Bile canaliculus

    Correct Answer
    A. Common bile duct
    Explanation
    The fusion of the hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the common bile duct. The common bile duct is responsible for carrying bile from the gallbladder to the small intestine. It plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of fats.

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  • 47. 

    Which region of the stomach does the esophagus connect to

    • Fundus

    • Cardia

    • Body

    • Antrum

    • Pylorus

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardia
    Explanation
    The esophagus connects to the cardia region of the stomach. The cardia is the area of the stomach that is closest to the esophagus and is responsible for receiving food from the esophagus and allowing it to enter the stomach. It is located near the top of the stomach, close to where the esophagus enters.

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  • 48. 

    The vitamin that is required for proper bone growth and for calcium absorption and retention is vitamin _____

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    Vitamin D is required for proper bone growth as it helps in the absorption and retention of calcium. Calcium is essential for maintaining strong and healthy bones. Without enough vitamin D, the body cannot effectively absorb calcium from the diet, leading to weak and brittle bones. Therefore, vitamin D is crucial for bone health and plays a vital role in the overall development and maintenance of the skeletal system.

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  • 49. 

    In transamination, the amino group of an amino acid is _

    • Converted to ammonia

    • Converted to urea

    • Transferred to a keto acid

    • Absorbed by water

    • Transferred to acetyl-CoA

    Correct Answer
    A. Transferred to a keto acid
    Explanation
    In transamination, the amino group of an amino acid is transferred to a keto acid. This process involves the transfer of the amino group from the amino acid to a keto acid, resulting in the formation of a new amino acid and a new keto acid. This reaction is catalyzed by enzymes known as transaminases. The transfer of the amino group allows for the synthesis of new amino acids and is an important step in amino acid metabolism.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 23, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 23, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 23, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    JUSTICE
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