AP II Final Exam

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AP II Final Exam - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which statement about steroid hormones is false?

    • A.

      Steroid hormones are produced by the suprarenal medulla

    • B.

      Steriod hormones are derived from cholesterol

    • C.

      Steriod hormones are produced by reproductive glands

    • D.

      Steriod hormones bind to receptors within the cell

    • E.

      Steriod hormones are lipids

    Correct Answer
    A. Steroid hormones are produced by the suprarenal medulla
  • 2. 

    G-protein activates _______ which converts ATP into _____

    • A.

      CAMP; adenylate cyclase

    • B.

      Protein kinase A; cAMP

    • C.

      CAMP; protein kinase A

    • D.

      Adenylate cyclase; cAMP

    • E.

      Phosphodiesterase; cAMP

    Correct Answer
    D. Adenylate cyclase; cAMP
    Explanation
    When G-protein is activated, it stimulates adenylate cyclase, an enzyme that converts ATP into cAMP. Therefore, the correct answer is adenylate cyclase; cAMP.

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  • 3. 

    Which hormone is NOT produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysi

    • A.

      FSH

    • B.

      Oxytocin

    • C.

      TSH

    • D.

      ACTH

    • E.

      PRL

    Correct Answer
    B. Oxytocin
    Explanation
    Oxytocin is not produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysis. Oxytocin is actually produced by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. It is responsible for stimulating uterine contractions during childbirth and promoting the release of milk during breastfeeding. The hormones produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysis include FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone), and PRL (prolactin).

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  • 4. 

    The pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the suprarenal cortex is _

    • A.

      TSH

    • B.

      ACTH

    • C.

      FSH

    • D.

      LH

    • E.

      GH

    Correct Answer
    B. ACTH
    Explanation
    ACTH, or adrenocorticotropic hormone, is the pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the suprarenal cortex. When the body requires more glucocorticoids, the hypothalamus stimulates the release of ACTH, which then acts on the suprarenal cortex to produce and release glucocorticoids. These glucocorticoids play a vital role in regulating metabolism, immune response, and stress response in the body. Therefore, ACTH is the correct answer as it directly regulates the release of glucocorticoids from the suprarenal cortex.

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  • 5. 

    The pituitary hormone that causes the kidney to reduce water loss is ___

    • A.

      TSH

    • B.

      FSH

    • C.

      MSH

    • D.

      STH

    • E.

      ADH

    Correct Answer
    E. ADH
    Explanation
    ADH, also known as antidiuretic hormone, is the pituitary hormone that causes the kidney to reduce water loss. It is released by the pituitary gland in response to low blood volume or high blood osmolarity. ADH acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption, thereby reducing the amount of water lost in urine. This helps in maintaining fluid balance and preventing dehydration.

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  • 6. 

    If you have just eaten, your body secretes ______ to uptake glucose; if you have not eaten all day, your body secretes ______ to promote glycogen breakdown

    • A.

      Glucagon; insulin

    • B.

      Insulin; glucagon

    • C.

      Insulin; glycogen

    • D.

      Glycogen; insulin

    • E.

      Growth hormone; glucagon

    Correct Answer
    B. Insulin; glucagon
    Explanation
    When you have just eaten, your body secretes insulin to uptake glucose from the bloodstream and transport it into cells for energy production. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels. Conversely, if you have not eaten all day, your body secretes glucagon to promote glycogen breakdown. Glucagon stimulates the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream to maintain blood glucose levels. Therefore, the correct answer is insulin; glucagon.

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  • 7. 

    The enzyme renin is responsible for the activation of ___

    • A.

      Angiotensinogen into angiotensin I

    • B.

      Angiotensin I into angiontensin II

    • C.

      Angiotensin II into aldosterone

    • D.

      Atrial natriuretic peptide

    • E.

      Adrenaline

    Correct Answer
    A. Angiotensinogen into angiotensin I
    Explanation
    Renin is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). It acts on angiotensinogen, a protein produced by the liver, and converts it into angiotensin I. This conversion is the first step in the activation of the RAAS, which ultimately leads to the production of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and also stimulates the release of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and water balance. Therefore, the correct answer is that renin is responsible for the activation of angiotensinogen into angiotensin I.

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  • 8. 

    The zona glomerulosa of the suprarenal cortex produces __

    • A.

      Androgens

    • B.

      Glucocorticoids

    • C.

      Mineralocorticoids

    • D.

      Epinephrine

    • E.

      Norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    C. Mineralocorticoids
    Explanation
    The zona glomerulosa of the suprarenal cortex is responsible for producing mineralocorticoids. Mineralocorticoids are a type of steroid hormone that regulate the balance of electrolytes and water in the body. They primarily act on the kidneys, promoting the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium. This helps to maintain proper blood pressure and electrolyte levels. Androgens are produced in the zona reticularis, glucocorticoids in the zona fasciculata, and epinephrine and norepinephrine in the adrenal medulla.

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  • 9. 

    When blood glucose levels fall, ___

    • A.

      Insulin is released

    • B.

      Glucagon is released

    • C.

      Peripheral cells take up more glucose

    • D.

      Protein synthesis increases

    • E.

      Both B and D

    Correct Answer
    B. Glucagon is released
    Explanation
    When blood glucose levels fall, the body needs to increase blood glucose levels to maintain energy supply to the cells. Glucagon is a hormone released by the pancreas in response to low blood glucose levels. It stimulates the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream. This helps to raise blood glucose levels and provide energy to the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "glucagon is released".

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  • 10. 

    Thyroxine and calcitonin are secreted by the __

    • A.

      Kidneys

    • B.

      Heart

    • C.

      Thyroid gland

    • D.

      Gonads

    • E.

      Pituitary gland

    Correct Answer
    C. Thyroid gland
    Explanation
    Thyroxine and calcitonin are hormones that are secreted by the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland is a small, butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck. Thyroxine is responsible for regulating metabolism, growth, and development, while calcitonin helps to regulate calcium levels in the body. The kidneys are responsible for filtering waste and maintaining fluid balance, the heart is responsible for pumping blood, the gonads are responsible for producing sex hormones, and the pituitary gland is responsible for secreting various hormones that control other endocrine glands. Therefore, the correct answer is the thyroid gland.

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  • 11. 

    Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from __

    • A.

      The heart

    • B.

      A superficial artery

    • C.

      A superficial vein

    • D.

      A capillary

    • E.

      An arteriole

    Correct Answer
    C. A superficial vein
    Explanation
    Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from a superficial vein. Superficial veins are easily accessible and can be safely punctured to obtain a blood sample. This method is commonly used for routine blood tests and allows for efficient collection without causing significant discomfort or complications. Collecting blood from deeper vessels such as arteries or arterioles is more invasive and typically reserved for specific diagnostic procedures.

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  • 12. 

    The process of lymphopoiesis goes on in all of the following organs, except 

    • A.

      The spleen

    • B.

      The thymus

    • C.

      The lymph nodes

    • D.

      The red bone marrow

    • E.

      The kidney

    Correct Answer
    E. The kidney
    Explanation
    Lymphopoiesis is the process of producing lymphocytes, which are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response. This process occurs primarily in the red bone marrow, thymus, and lymph nodes. The spleen also plays a role in the immune system but is not directly involved in lymphopoiesis. The kidney, on the other hand, is not involved in the production of lymphocytes and therefore does not participate in lymphopoiesis.

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  • 13. 

    People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because ____

    • A.

      Their blood cells lack A and B antigens

    • B.

      Their blood lacks A or B agglutinins (immunoglobins)

    • C.

      Their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins

    • D.

      They usually have very strong immune systems

    • E.

      They are usually Rh negative

    Correct Answer
    B. Their blood lacks A or B agglutinins (immunoglobins)
    Explanation
    People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because their blood lacks A or B agglutinins (immunoglobins). Agglutinins are antibodies that can cause blood cells to clump together, leading to potentially dangerous reactions during transfusions. Since individuals with type AB blood do not have these agglutinins, their blood can safely receive transfusions from donors with any blood type.

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  • 14. 

    Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result if ___

    • A.

      The mother is Rh-positive and the father is Rh-negative

    • B.

      Both the father and the mother are Rh-negative

    • C.

      Both the father and the mother are Rh-positive

    • D.

      An Rh-negative mother carries and Rh-positive fetus

    • E.

      An Rh-positive mother carries and Rh-negative fetus

    Correct Answer
    D. An Rh-negative mother carries and Rh-positive fetus
    Explanation
    When an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a potential for the mother's immune system to produce antibodies against the Rh factor present in the fetus's blood. This can happen during pregnancy or childbirth when the mother's and fetus's blood mix. These antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the red blood cells of the fetus, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn. This condition can lead to anemia, jaundice, and other complications in the newborn. Therefore, an Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus is a risk factor for hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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  • 15. 

    ____ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

    • A.

      Vascular spasm

    • B.

      The platelet phase

    • C.

      Retraction

    • D.

      Coagulation

    • E.

      Fibrinolysis

    Correct Answer
    D. Coagulation
    Explanation
    Coagulation is the correct answer because it refers to the process in which a cascade of reactions occur, leading to the conversion of fibrinogen, a soluble protein, into fibrin, an insoluble protein. This process is essential for the formation of blood clots, which help to prevent excessive bleeding from damaged blood vessels.

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  • 16. 

    Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway

    • A.

      Extrinsic

    • B.

      Intrinsic

    • C.

      Common

    • D.

      Retraction

    • E.

      Fibrinolytic

    Correct Answer
    A. Extrinsic
    Explanation
    Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the extrinsic pathway. The extrinsic pathway is one of the two pathways involved in the process of blood clotting. It is initiated by the release of tissue factor, which is present outside of the blood vessel. Tissue factor then interacts with other clotting factors to activate the clotting cascade and form a blood clot. The intrinsic pathway, on the other hand, is initiated by factors present within the blood vessel. The common pathway is where both the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways converge to form the final clot. Retraction and fibrinolytic pathways are not directly related to tissue factor.

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  • 17. 

    The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the __

    • A.

      Viscosity

    • B.

      Specific gravity

    • C.

      Total cell volume

    • D.

      Hematocrit or packed cell volume

    • E.

      Differential cell count

    Correct Answer
    D. Hematocrit or packed cell volume
    Explanation
    The hematocrit or packed cell volume refers to the percentage of formed elements (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) in relation to the total volume of whole blood. It is a measure of the blood's viscosity and is used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as anemia, dehydration, and polycythemia.

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  • 18. 

    The waste product bilirubin is produced from __

    • A.

      Globin chains of hemoglobin

    • B.

      Heme molecules plus iron

    • C.

      Heme molecules lacking iron

    • D.

      Iron found in hemoglobin molecules

    • E.

      Abnormal proteins found in red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Heme molecules lacking iron
    Explanation
    Bilirubin is a waste product that is produced from heme molecules lacking iron. Heme molecules are a component of hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in red blood cells. When red blood cells break down, the heme molecules are converted into bilirubin, which is then processed by the liver and excreted in bile. This process is a normal part of the body's metabolism and helps to eliminate old or damaged red blood cells.

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  • 19. 

    Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone ____

    • A.

      Thymosin

    • B.

      Angiotensin

    • C.

      Erythropoietin

    • D.

      M-CSF

    • E.

      Renin

    Correct Answer
    C. Erythropoietin
    Explanation
    Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone erythropoietin. Erythropoietin is produced by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the body. It stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen to the tissues. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's oxygen balance and is essential for the production of healthy red blood cells.

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  • 20. 

    Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein

    • A.

      Metalloprotein

    • B.

      Steroid-binding protein

    • C.

      Hormone-binding protein

    • D.

      Apolipoprotein

    • E.

      Transport albumin

    Correct Answer
    A. Metalloprotein
    Explanation
    Transferrin is classified as a metalloprotein because it is a plasma protein that binds and transports iron ions in the bloodstream. Metalloproteins contain metal ions, such as iron, zinc, or copper, which are essential for their structure and function. In the case of transferrin, it binds iron ions and helps transport them to various tissues and cells in the body.

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  • 21. 

    The pulmonary veins carry blood to the _

    • A.

      Heart

    • B.

      Lungs

    • C.

      Brain

    • D.

      Intestines

    • E.

      Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Heart
    Explanation
    The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. This blood has been oxygenated in the lungs and is then pumped by the heart to the rest of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "heart".

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  • 22. 

    Contractions of the papillary muscles __

    • A.

      Close the atrioventricular valves

    • B.

      Close the semilunar valves

    • C.

      Eject blood from the ventricles

    • D.

      Prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria

    • E.

      Eject blood from the atria into the ventricles

    Correct Answer
    D. Prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria
    Explanation
    The contractions of the papillary muscles prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria. When the ventricles contract, the papillary muscles also contract, pulling on the chordae tendineae that are attached to the atrioventricular valves. This prevents the valves from being pushed back into the atria and ensures that blood flows in the correct direction, from the atria to the ventricles.

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  • 23. 

    Which statement about the left ventricle is false

    • A.

      The left ventricle has a thicker wall than the right ventricle

    • B.

      The left ventricle is round in cross section

    • C.

      The left ventricle pumps a greater volume than the right ventricle

    • D.

      The left ventricle works harder than the right ventricle

    • E.

      The left ventricle produces more pressure when it contracts compared to the right ventricle

    Correct Answer
    C. The left ventricle pumps a greater volume than the right ventricle
    Explanation
    The left ventricle pumps a greater volume than the right ventricle. This is because the left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the entire body, while the right ventricle only pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Therefore, the left ventricle needs to generate more force to push a larger volume of blood throughout the systemic circulation.

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  • 24. 

    Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the ___

    • A.

      Right atrium

    • B.

      Right ventricle

    • C.

      Left atrium

    • D.

      Left ventricle

    • E.

      Conus arteriosus

    Correct Answer
    C. Left atrium
    Explanation
    Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the left atrium. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the pulmonary veins. From the left atrium, the blood then flows into the left ventricle before being pumped out to the rest of the body.

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  • 25. 

    The circumflex branch and the anterior interventricular artery are branches of the __

    • A.

      Right coronary artery

    • B.

      Left coronary artery

    • C.

      Interventricular artery

    • D.

      Coronary sinus

    • E.

      Aorta

    Correct Answer
    B. Left coronary artery
    Explanation
    The circumflex branch and the anterior interventricular artery are both branches of the left coronary artery. The left coronary artery is one of the main arteries that supplies blood to the heart. It branches off into the circumflex branch, which supplies blood to the left atrium and part of the left ventricle, and the anterior interventricular artery, also known as the left anterior descending artery, which supplies blood to the front and bottom of the left ventricle.

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  • 26. 

    The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to ___

    • A.

      Movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane

    • B.

      Calcium channels remaining open

    • C.

      Increased membrane permeability to potassium ion

    • D.

      Decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane

    • E.

      Ncreased membrane permeability to sodium ions

    Correct Answer
    B. Calcium channels remaining open
    Explanation
    The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to calcium channels remaining open. This allows calcium ions to continue entering the cell, prolonging the depolarization phase and delaying repolarization. This is important for maintaining the contraction of the cardiac muscle and ensuring efficient pumping of blood.

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  • 27. 

    Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is NOT one of them

    • A.

      Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size

    • B.

      Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus

    • C.

      Cardiac muscle cells branch

    • D.

      Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs

    • E.

      Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules

    Correct Answer
    E. Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules
    Explanation
    Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in several ways, including size, nucleus position, branching, and the presence of specific structures. One of the differences between these two cell types is that skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs, while cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs. However, the statement that cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules is incorrect. Transverse tubules are present in both cardiac and skeletal muscle cells and play a crucial role in transmitting electrical signals throughout the cells.

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  • 28. 

    The term used to describe fluid collecting in the pericardial cavity that restricts the movement of the heart is known as __

    • A.

      Cardiac tamponade

    • B.

      Mitral valve prolapse

    • C.

      Pleural effusion

    • D.

      Cardiomyopathy

    • E.

      Pericarditis

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac tamponade
    Explanation
    Cardiac tamponade refers to the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity, which is the space surrounding the heart. This fluid buildup puts pressure on the heart, restricting its movement and ability to pump blood effectively. It can be caused by various factors such as trauma, infection, or certain medical conditions. Symptoms of cardiac tamponade include shortness of breath, chest pain, and low blood pressure. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to relieve the fluid buildup and prevent further complications.

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  • 29. 

    During ventricular systole, ____

    • A.

      The atria are contracting

    • B.

      The blood is entering the ventricles

    • C.

      The AV valves are closed

    • D.

      The pressure in the ventricles remains constant

    • E.

      The pressure in the aorta remains constant

    Correct Answer
    C. The AV valves are closed
    Explanation
    During ventricular systole, the AV valves are closed. This is because ventricular systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles contract to pump blood out of the heart. In order for the blood to be pumped out effectively, the AV valves, which are located between the atria and ventricles, close to prevent backflow of blood into the atria. This closure of the AV valves ensures that the blood is directed into the arteries and not back into the atria, allowing for efficient circulation.

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  • 30. 

    The T wave on an ECG tracing represents _

    • A.

      Atrial depolarization

    • B.

      Atrial repolarization

    • C.

      Ventricular depolarization

    • D.

      Ventricular repolarization

    • E.

      Ventricular contraction

    Correct Answer
    D. Ventricular repolarization
    Explanation
    The T wave on an ECG tracing represents ventricular repolarization. This is the phase of the cardiac cycle where the ventricles are relaxing and preparing for the next contraction. Repolarization refers to the resetting of the electrical charge in the heart muscle cells, allowing them to contract again. The T wave is an upward deflection on the ECG graph that indicates this repolarization process in the ventricles. It is important to note that the T wave does not represent atrial activity or ventricular contraction, as these are represented by other waves on the ECG tracing.

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  • 31. 

    The muscular layer of a blood vessel is the __

    • A.

      Tunica intima

    • B.

      Tunica externa

    • C.

      Tunica media

    • D.

      Tunica interna

    • E.

      Tunica adventitia

    Correct Answer
    C. Tunica media
    Explanation
    The muscular layer of a blood vessel is called the tunica media. This layer is located between the innermost layer, known as the tunica intima, and the outermost layer, called the tunica externa or adventitia. The tunica media is composed of smooth muscle cells and elastic fibers, which allow the blood vessel to contract and relax, thereby regulating blood flow and maintaining blood pressure.

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  • 32. 

    Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexly results in ____

    • A.

      Stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain

    • B.

      Increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart

    • C.

      Increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system

    • D.

      Stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center

    • E.

      Increased heart rate

    Correct Answer
    C. Increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system
    Explanation
    Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexly results in increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system. The aortic baroreceptors are sensory receptors located in the aortic arch that detect changes in blood pressure. When these receptors are stimulated by an increase in blood pressure, they send signals to the brain. The brain then activates the parasympathetic nervous system, which causes a decrease in heart rate and a decrease in sympathetic stimulation of the heart. This helps to lower blood pressure and restore homeostasis.

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  • 33. 

    Blood pressure increases with all of the following, except increased ___

    • A.

      Cardiac output

    • B.

      Peripheral resistance

    • C.

      Blood volume

    • D.

      Parasympathetic innervation

    • E.

      Force of cardiac contraction

    Correct Answer
    D. Parasympathetic innervation
    Explanation
    Blood pressure increases with increased cardiac output, peripheral resistance, blood volume, and force of cardiac contraction. However, parasympathetic innervation has the opposite effect on blood pressure. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for promoting relaxation and decreasing heart rate, which in turn lowers blood pressure. Therefore, increased parasympathetic innervation would not lead to an increase in blood pressure.

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  • 34. 

    The two common iliac veins form the ___

    • A.

      Femoral vein

    • B.

      Greater saphenous vein

    • C.

      Inferior vena cava

    • D.

      Hepatic portal vein

    • E.

      Innominate vein

    Correct Answer
    C. Inferior vena cava
    Explanation
    The two common iliac veins join together to form the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body back to the heart. It is located on the right side of the body and runs parallel to the abdominal aorta.

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  • 35. 

    Compared to arteries, veins ____

    • A.

      Are more elastic

    • B.

      Have more smooth muscle in their tunica media

    • C.

      Have a pleated endothelium

    • D.

      Have thinner walls

    • E.

      Hold their shape better when cut

    Correct Answer
    D. Have thinner walls
    Explanation
    Veins have thinner walls compared to arteries. This is because veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart at a lower pressure than arteries, which carry oxygenated blood away from the heart at a higher pressure. Thinner walls allow veins to expand and accommodate larger volumes of blood. Additionally, veins have valves to prevent blood from flowing backward, and their walls are less muscular and elastic than arteries.

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  • 36. 

    At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the ________ artery

    • A.

      Iliac

    • B.

      Deep femoral

    • C.

      Popliteal

    • D.

      Tibial

    • E.

      Peroneal

    Correct Answer
    C. Popliteal
    Explanation
    At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the popliteal artery. The popliteal artery is a continuation of the femoral artery and is located behind the knee joint. It supplies blood to the lower leg and foot.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial space

    • A.

      Blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from the capillary into the interstitial space.

    • B.

      Blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from the interstitial space into the capillary

    • C.

      The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure

    • D.

      The hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is largely unimportant in determining fluid movement

    • E.

      The net filtration pressure is usually zero

    Correct Answer
    E. The net filtration pressure is usually zero
    Explanation
    The net filtration pressure is usually zero means that the forces pushing fluid out of the capillary (blood hydrostatic pressure) are balanced by the forces pushing fluid back into the capillary (blood osmotic pressure). This equilibrium prevents excessive fluid accumulation in the interstitial space and ensures proper fluid balance between the capillaries and interstitial fluid.

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  • 38. 

    Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure, except __

    • A.

      Release of renin

    • B.

      Decrease in blood volume

    • C.

      Decreased peripheral resistance

    • D.

      Increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)

    • E.

      Decreased levels of aldosterone

    Correct Answer
    A. Release of renin
    Explanation
    The release of renin is not associated with a decrease in blood pressure. Renin is an enzyme that is released by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure or low blood volume. It plays a key role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which helps to regulate blood pressure. When renin is released, it converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and stimulates the release of aldosterone, both of which increase blood pressure. Therefore, the release of renin actually leads to an increase in blood pressure, not a decrease.

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  • 39. 

    Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following, except the __

    • A.

      Length of a blood vessel

    • B.

      Osmolarity of interstitial fluids

    • C.

      Flow characteristics

    • D.

      Blood viscosity

    • E.

      Blood vessel diameter

    Correct Answer
    B. Osmolarity of interstitial fluids
    Explanation
    Total peripheral resistance is a measure of the resistance encountered by blood flow in the systemic circulation. It is influenced by factors such as blood viscosity, blood vessel diameter, and flow characteristics. The length of a blood vessel also affects resistance, as longer vessels offer more resistance to blood flow. However, osmolarity of interstitial fluids does not directly impact total peripheral resistance. Osmolarity refers to the concentration of solutes in the interstitial fluid, which can affect fluid balance and cellular function, but it does not directly influence the resistance to blood flow in the peripheral vasculature.

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  • 40. 

    The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the ___

    • A.

      Concentration of plasma proteins

    • B.

      Number of red blood cells

    • C.

      Concentration of plasma sodium ions

    • D.

      Concentration of plasma glucose

    • E.

      Concentration of plasma waste products

    Correct Answer
    A. Concentration of plasma proteins
    Explanation
    The blood colloid osmotic pressure is mainly determined by the concentration of plasma proteins. Plasma proteins, such as albumin, exert an osmotic force that helps to maintain the balance of fluid between the blood vessels and the surrounding tissues. These proteins attract water, causing it to move from the tissues into the blood vessels, preventing excessive fluid leakage. Therefore, a higher concentration of plasma proteins leads to a higher colloid osmotic pressure, which helps to maintain fluid balance in the body.

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  • 41. 

    An inflammatory response is triggered when __

    • A.

      Red blood cells release pyrogens

    • B.

      T cells release interferon

    • C.

      Mast cells release histamine and heparin

    • D.

      Neutrophils phagocytize bacteria

    • E.

      Blood flow to an area increases

    Correct Answer
    C. Mast cells release histamine and heparin
    Explanation
    When mast cells release histamine and heparin, it triggers an inflammatory response. Histamine causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable, allowing immune cells and fluid to move into the affected area. This leads to redness, swelling, and heat. Heparin helps prevent blood clotting, allowing immune cells to move freely. Together, histamine and heparin contribute to the inflammatory response, which is an important part of the body's immune defense against infection and injury.

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  • 42. 

    The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would ___

    • A.

      Cause inflammation

    • B.

      Produce a fever

    • C.

      Activate complement

    • D.

      Opsonize pathogens

    • E.

      Activate antibodies

    Correct Answer
    B. Produce a fever
    Explanation
    The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would produce a fever. Endogenous pyrogen is a type of cytokine that is released by immune cells, particularly macrophages, in response to infection or inflammation. It acts on the hypothalamus in the brain, causing an increase in body temperature and resulting in a fever. This immune response helps to fight off pathogens and promote healing.

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  • 43. 

    The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells

    • A.

      NK

    • B.

      Plasma

    • C.

      Helper T

    • D.

      Thymus

    • E.

      Liver

    Correct Answer
    B. Plasma
    Explanation
    Plasma cells are the cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins. Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by plasma cells that play a crucial role in the immune response. These antibodies circulate in the blood and other bodily fluids, helping to neutralize pathogens and promote immune defense. Therefore, plasma cells are the correct answer as they are specialized cells that produce immunoglobulins for the immune system.

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  • 44. 

    Areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes are known as _

    • A.

      Peyer patches

    • B.

      Adenoids

    • C.

      White pulp

    • D.

      Red pulp

    • E.

      Lymph nodes

    Correct Answer
    C. White pulp
    Explanation
    The correct answer is white pulp. The white pulp of the spleen contains large aggregations of lymphocytes. These lymphocytes play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances such as bacteria and viruses. The white pulp also contains specialized structures called germinal centers, where B cells undergo maturation and produce antibodies. This makes the white pulp an important site for immune surveillance and defense against infections.

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  • 45. 

    __ are clusters of lymphoid nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine

    • A.

      Tonsils

    • B.

      Adenoids

    • C.

      Peyer patches

    • D.

      Immune complexes

    • E.

      Lymph glands

    Correct Answer
    C. Peyer patches
    Explanation
    Peyer patches are clusters of lymphoid nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine. They are part of the body's immune system and play a role in protecting against harmful pathogens that may enter the digestive system through food or water. Peyer patches contain specialized immune cells, such as lymphocytes, which help in the recognition and elimination of these pathogens.

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  • 46. 

    Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are __

    • A.

      IgA

    • B.

      IgD

    • C.

      IgE

    • D.

      IgG

    • E.

      IgM

    Correct Answer
    D. IgG
    Explanation
    IgG is the correct answer because it is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the body and plays a crucial role in providing resistance against various viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins. IgG is able to recognize and bind to these pathogens, facilitating their destruction by other components of the immune system. It is also able to cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to the fetus during pregnancy.

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  • 47. 

    The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following, except __

    • A.

      Destruction of target cell plasma membranes

    • B.

      Stimulation of inflammation

    • C.

      Inhibition of the immune response

    • D.

      Opsonization

    • E.

      Chemotaxis

    Correct Answer
    C. Inhibition of the immune response
    Explanation
    The complement system is a part of the immune system that helps in the defense against pathogens. When activated, it can lead to various effects such as destruction of target cell plasma membranes, stimulation of inflammation, opsonization (enhancing phagocytosis), and chemotaxis (attracting immune cells to the site of infection). However, it does not inhibit the immune response. In fact, the complement system plays a crucial role in enhancing and coordinating the immune response. Therefore, the correct answer is "inhibition of the immune response."

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  • 48. 

    Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the __

    • A.

      Right lymphatic duct

    • B.

      Thoracic duct

    • C.

      Cisterna chyli

    • D.

      Hepatic portal vein

    • E.

      Dural sinus

    Correct Answer
    B. Thoracic duct
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the thoracic duct. The thoracic duct is the largest lymphatic vessel in the body and is responsible for returning the majority of lymph back into the venous circulation. It begins in the abdomen, receives lymph from the lower limbs, pelvis, abdomen, and left side of the thorax, and then ascends through the thorax to drain into the left subclavian vein. This is in contrast to the right lymphatic duct, which only drains lymph from the right side of the head and neck, right upper limb, and right side of the thorax. The cisterna chyli is a dilation of the thoracic duct in the abdomen, the hepatic portal vein is responsible for carrying blood from the gastrointestinal tract to the liver, and the dural sinus is a venous channel within the brain.

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  • 49. 

    Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells

    • A.

      Plasma

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      Helper T

    • D.

      Cytotoxic T

    • E.

      Suppressor T

    Correct Answer
    D. Cytotoxic T
    Explanation
    Cytotoxic T cells are a type of lymphocytes that are responsible for destroying foreign cells or virus-infected cells. They are part of the immune system and play a crucial role in eliminating pathogens and infected cells from the body. These cells recognize specific antigens on the surface of infected cells and release toxic substances to kill them. Therefore, cytotoxic T cells are the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 50. 

    The body's nonspecific defenses include all of the following, except __

    • A.

      The skin

    • B.

      Complement

    • C.

      Interferon

    • D.

      Inflammation

    • E.

      Antibodies

    Correct Answer
    E. Antibodies
    Explanation
    The body's nonspecific defenses include the skin, complement, interferon, and inflammation. Antibodies, on the other hand, are part of the body's specific immune response. They are produced by B cells in response to a specific pathogen and help to neutralize or eliminate the pathogen. Unlike the other options listed, antibodies are not considered nonspecific defenses because they target specific antigens.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 23, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 23, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    JUSTICE
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