2a674 Volume 1 CDC Ure
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001) Who is responsible for appointing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order custodian to administer technical order requirements of assigned MXG missions
- A.
Maintenance squadron commander
- B.
MXG deputy commander
- C.
MXG superintendent
- D.
MXG commander
Correct Answer
D. MXG commanderExplanation
The MXG commander is responsible for appointing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order custodian to administer technical order requirements of assigned MXG missions. This individual is in a leadership position within the MXG and has the authority to make appointments and decisions regarding technical order management.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(001) Which is not normally a maintenance group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
- A.
Supervising technical order administrative services being provided by lower-level TODOs in the MXG.
- B.
Maintaining physical media technical order libraries/electronic technical orders (eTO)/electronic Tools (eTools).
- C.
Assisting organizations within the MXG to establish additional TODO accounts.
- D.
Advising the MXG commander on technical order availability.
Correct Answer
B. Maintaining physical media technical order libraries/electronic technical orders (eTO)/electronic Tools (eTools).Explanation
The MXG TODO duty of maintaining physical media technical order libraries/electronic technical orders (eTO)/electronic Tools (eTools) is not normally a responsibility of the maintenance group. This duty is typically handled by other personnel or departments within the organization. The MXG TODO is primarily responsible for supervising technical order administrative services provided by lower-level TODOs, assisting organizations within the MXG to establish additional TODO accounts, and advising the MXG commander on technical order availability.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(002) What type of time change technical order (TCTO) is issued when unsafe conditions, if not corrected, could result in serious or fatal personal injury?
- A.
Urgent action.
- B.
Routine action.
- C.
Immediate action.
- D.
Emergency action
Correct Answer
C. Immediate action.Explanation
Immediate action TCTOs are issued when unsafe conditions, if not corrected, could result in serious or fatal personal injury. This type of TCTO requires immediate attention and corrective action to prevent any harm to personnel.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(002) What type of time change is technical order (TCTO) issued when a deficiency could result in injury to personnel, damage to property, or unacceptable reductions in combat efficiency?
- A.
Urgent action.
- B.
Routine action.
- C.
Immediate action.
- D.
Emergency action.
Correct Answer
A. Urgent action.Explanation
A technical order (TCTO) is issued to address deficiencies that could result in injury to personnel, damage to property, or unacceptable reductions in combat efficiency. When a TCTO is issued for such situations, it is categorized as "urgent action." This means that immediate attention and action are required to rectify the deficiency and prevent any potential harm or damage.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(002) If the deficiencies in an urgent action time change technical order (TCTO) are not corrected within the specified time limit, what action(s) must be taken?
- A.
Remove the aircraft or equipment from service.
- B.
Have a qualified 7-skill level clear the deficiency in the forms.
- C.
Make a NOTE in the equipment forms and delay the discrepancy.
- D.
Delay the discrepancy and downgrade the TCTO to routine action.
Correct Answer
A. Remove the aircraft or equipment from service.Explanation
If the deficiencies in an urgent action time change technical order (TCTO) are not corrected within the specified time limit, the appropriate action to be taken is to remove the aircraft or equipment from service. This is necessary to ensure the safety and functionality of the equipment and to prevent any potential hazards or malfunctions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(002) Which type of time change technical order (TCTO) is issued when material, mechanical, operational, or tactical deficiencies occur which could result in conditions that reduce the operational life of equipment?
- A.
Emergency action.
- B.
Immediate action.
- C.
Routine action.
- D.
Urgent action.
Correct Answer
C. Routine action.Explanation
A Routine action time change technical order (TCTO) is issued when material, mechanical, operational, or tactical deficiencies occur which could result in conditions that reduce the operational life of equipment. This type of TCTO is used for non-emergency situations where the deficiency is not immediately critical but still needs to be addressed to prevent further damage or reduce the lifespan of the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 7.
7. (002) Who is responsible for ensuring that accurate documentation of time compliance technical orders (TCTO) is made upon completing the inspection or modification procedures outlined in the TCTO?
- A.
Flight or section supervisor
- B.
Maintenance group superintendent.
- C.
Plans, scheduling, and documentation.
- D.
Technical order distribution office custodian.
Correct Answer
A. Flight or section supervisorExplanation
The flight or section supervisor is responsible for ensuring that accurate documentation of time compliance technical orders (TCTO) is made upon completing the inspection or modification procedures outlined in the TCTO.Rate this question:
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- 8.
8. (003) Who is given broad discretionary powers to waive compliance with technical order procedures in emergency situations?
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
- B.
Air force safety center commander.
- C.
Quality assurance chief.
- D.
On-scene commander.
Correct Answer
D. On-scene commander.Explanation
The on-scene commander is given broad discretionary powers to waive compliance with technical order procedures in emergency situations. This is because the on-scene commander is directly responsible for managing and responding to the emergency situation, and therefore needs the authority to make quick decisions and take necessary actions without being constrained by technical order procedures. The other options, such as the MAJCOM commander, Air Force Safety Center commander, and Quality Assurance chief, do not have the same level of direct involvement and responsibility in emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 9.
9. (003) Within Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC), who has the overall responsibility for Air Force policy governing the technical order system?
- A.
A4BM.
- B.
A4MT.
- C.
A4F.
- D.
A4YE.
Correct Answer
C. A4F.Explanation
A4F has the overall responsibility for Air Force policy governing the technical order system within Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).Rate this question:
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- 10.
10. (003) Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order waivers or deviations?
- A.
Telephone.
- B.
Signed letter.
- C.
Organizational e-mail.
- D.
Defense Message System
Correct Answer
A. Telephone.Explanation
Telephone is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order waivers or deviations. This means that using a telephone to communicate and authorize any changes or deviations from technical orders is not allowed. The other options, such as signed letter, organizational email, and Defense Message System, are approved methods for issuing these waivers or deviations.Rate this question:
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- 11.
11.(004) The Air Force supply system is different from civilian supply systems because it
- A.
Is not as concerned with the economy of operation.
- B.
Receives its supplies from many different vendors.
- C.
Is not as concerned with the constantly changing needs of its customers.
- D.
Deals with thousands of customers worldwide and requires more flexibility.
Correct Answer
D. Deals with thousands of customers worldwide and requires more flexibility.Explanation
The Air Force supply system deals with thousands of customers worldwide and requires more flexibility compared to civilian supply systems. This is because the Air Force operates on a global scale and has to provide supplies to various bases and units located in different parts of the world. The needs of these customers can vary greatly, and the Air Force supply system must be able to adapt and provide the necessary resources efficiently. In contrast, civilian supply systems typically operate on a smaller scale and may not require the same level of flexibility and adaptability.Rate this question:
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- 12.
12.(005) Which system allows logistics personnel, customers, and commanders to track every item in the supply system through standardized procedures?
- A.
Standard base supply system (SBSS).
- B.
Bench stock management system (BSMS).
- C.
Maintenance supply interface system (MSIS).
- D.
Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS).
Correct Answer
A. Standard base supply system (SBSS).Explanation
The correct answer is the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). This system allows logistics personnel, customers, and commanders to track every item in the supply system through standardized procedures. It provides a centralized and standardized approach to managing and tracking supplies, ensuring visibility and accountability throughout the supply chain. This system is essential for effective logistics management and enables efficient and timely supply support to meet operational needs.Rate this question:
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- 13.
13.(005) Which supply element is the first point in the process of obtaining material from supply?
- A.
Retail sales.
- B.
Customer service.
- C.
Demand processing.
- D.
Equipment management.
Correct Answer
C. Demand processing.Explanation
Demand processing is the first point in the process of obtaining material from supply. This involves analyzing and forecasting the demand for materials, determining the quantity and timing of orders, and initiating the procurement process. It is essential to understand the demand for materials before proceeding with other supply elements such as retail sales, customer service, and equipment management.Rate this question:
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- 14.
14. (006) Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?
- A.
Customer.
- B.
Customer supply liaison.
- C.
Maintenance supply support.
- D.
Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) customer service.
Correct Answer
A. Customer.Explanation
The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request.Rate this question:
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- 15.
16.(006) Which urgency justification codes (UJC) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
- A.
1A or JA.
- B.
AR or BR.
- C.
AA or AM.
- D.
BM or CM.
Correct Answer
B. AR or BR.Explanation
The urgency justification codes (UJC) AR and BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.Rate this question:
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- 16.
17. (007) Which type of asset has an expendability, recoverability, reparability code (ERRC) of XF3?
- A.
Consumable.
- B.
Field (base) reparable or consumable.
- C.
Depot reparable Serialized Control and Reporting System (SCARS) asset.
- D.
Depot reparable Air Force Recoverable Assembly Management System (AFRAMS) asset.
Correct Answer
B. Field (base) reparable or consumable.Explanation
The correct answer is Field (base) reparable or consumable. This is because assets with an ERRC code of XF3 are considered field (base) reparable or consumable. This means that they can be repaired at the field or base level, or they can be consumed and replaced when necessary.Rate this question:
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- 17.
18.(007) Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issues and bench stock supply support?
- A.
D18, Priority Monitor Report
- B.
D04, Daily Document Register.
- C.
M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
- D.
D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
Correct Answer
C. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.Explanation
The M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report, provides a management product for monitoring issues and bench stock supply support. This report allows management to track and monitor the effectiveness of the organization's supply support and identify any issues that may arise. It provides valuable information for decision-making and helps ensure that the organization has adequate supply support to meet its needs.Rate this question:
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- 18.
19.(008) Which technical order details the deficiency reporting process?
- A.
00–5–1.
- B.
00–5–15.
- C.
00–20–9.
- D.
00–35D–54.
Correct Answer
D. 00–35D–54.Explanation
Technical Order 00-35D-54 details the deficiency reporting process.Rate this question:
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- 19.
20.(008) Using the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS), submissions of deficiency reports may be accomplished by
- A.
Major command and staff members only.
- B.
Flight chiefs or superintendents only.
- C.
Quality assurance personnel only.
- D.
Anyone.
Correct Answer
D. Anyone.Explanation
The correct answer is anyone. This means that submissions of deficiency reports can be made by anyone using the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS). There are no specific restrictions or limitations on who can submit these reports, allowing for a wide range of individuals to report deficiencies and contribute to the improvement of the system.Rate this question:
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- 20.
20.(008) Using the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS), submissions of deficiency reports may be accomplished by
- A.
Major command and staff members only.
- B.
Flight chiefs or superintendents only.
- C.
Quality assurance personnel only.
- D.
Anyone.
Correct Answer
D. Anyone.Explanation
The correct answer is anyone. This means that submissions of deficiency reports can be done by anyone, not just specific individuals such as major command and staff members, flight chiefs or superintendents, or quality assurance personnel. This allows for a more inclusive and accessible system, ensuring that any individual who identifies a deficiency can report it through the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS).Rate this question:
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- 21.
21.(008) At most bases, who performs the function of the screening point?
- A.
Base supply.
- B.
Item manager.
- C.
Originating unit.
- D.
Technical order distribution office or quality assurance
Correct Answer
D. Technical order distribution office or quality assuranceExplanation
The technical order distribution office or quality assurance performs the function of the screening point at most bases. They are responsible for ensuring that all technical orders and quality standards are met before items are distributed or used. This helps to maintain the safety and efficiency of operations at the base.Rate this question:
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- 22.
22.(009) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
- A.
Section supervisor.
- B.
Squadron commander.
- C.
Flight commander/chief.
- D.
Operations officer/maintenance superintendent.
Correct Answer
B. Squadron commander.Explanation
The squadron commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This individual will be responsible for managing and maintaining the squadron's equipment inventory. The squadron commander has the authority to make this appointment and ensure that the equipment is properly accounted for and maintained. The section supervisor, flight commander/chief, and operations officer/maintenance superintendent may have input or play a role in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the squadron commander.Rate this question:
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- 23.
23.(009) Which specific block of supply training is provided for due-in from maintenance (DIFM)monitors?
- A.
I.
- B.
B. III.
- C.
C. IIB.
- D.
D. IIA.
Correct Answer
C. C. IIB. -
- 24.
24.(009) After the initial inventory, how often must an equipment account be inventoried?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Annually.
- D.
Biennially.
Correct Answer
C. Annually.Explanation
An equipment account must be inventoried annually, meaning it needs to be checked and recorded once a year. This allows for regular monitoring and assessment of the equipment's condition, ensuring that any necessary repairs or replacements can be made in a timely manner. Additionally, annual inventories help to maintain accurate records and prevent any discrepancies or errors in the equipment account.Rate this question:
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- 25.
25.(010) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverableauthorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
- A.
Equipment accountability element (EAE).
- B.
Materiel management activity.
- C.
Equipment liaison office (ELO).
- D.
System program director (SPD).
Correct Answer
B. Materiel management activity.Explanation
The Materiel Management Activity is responsible for accounting for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records. This office is in charge of managing and tracking the equipment and ensuring its availability and accountability. The Equipment Accountability Element (EAE) is responsible for overall equipment accountability, not specifically SPRAM assets. The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for coordinating equipment-related issues with other units, and the System Program Director (SPD) is responsible for managing specific systems or programs, not SPRAM assets.Rate this question:
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- 26.
26.(010) Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purposerecoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
- A.
Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.
- B.
Mission support group (MSG) commander.
- C.
Maintenance group (MXG) commander.
- D.
MXG deputy commander.
Correct Answer
B. Mission support group (MSG) commander.Explanation
The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for Special Purpose Recoverable Authorized Maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians, unless delegated. This means that the MSG commander is the designated authority to oversee and approve SPRAM authorizations within the organization. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander, Maintenance Group (MXG) commander, and MXG deputy commander may have other responsibilities within their respective areas, but the ultimate responsibility for reviewing SPRAM authorizations lies with the MSG commander.Rate this question:
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- 27.
27.(011) To which major command (MAJCOM) are training detachments (TD) administrativelyassigned?
- A.
Air Combat Command (ACC).
- B.
Air Training Command (ATC).
- C.
Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC).
- D.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Correct Answer
D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).Explanation
Training detachments (TD) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This major command is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. Therefore, it makes sense that training detachments would be under the administrative control of AETC, as they are directly involved in training activities.Rate this question:
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- 28.
28.(011) Which maintenance training course normally makes use of the block training method?
- A.
Weight and balance.
- B.
Any 7-skill level course.
- C.
Maintenance orientation.
- D.
General Technical Order System.
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance orientation.Explanation
The correct answer is Maintenance orientation. This course typically uses the block training method.Rate this question:
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- 29.
30.(012) In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X,” an individual must be approved bythe maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
- A.
Technical sergeant (TSgt).
- B.
Master sergeant (MSgt).
- C.
Senior master sergeant (SMSgt).
- D.
chief master sergeant (CMSgt).
Correct Answer
B. Master sergeant (MSgt).Explanation
To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of master sergeant (MSgt). This means that only individuals who have attained the rank of master sergeant and have been approved by the MXG/CC are authorized to downgrade a "Red-X."Rate this question:
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- 30.
31.(013) Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
- A.
Access to distance learning courseware.
- B.
Access to special certification roster criteria listings.
- C.
Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
- D.
Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training status.
Correct Answer
D. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training status.Explanation
The correct answer is visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training status. The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with the ability to see their own technical qualifications, certifications, and training status. This allows individuals to track their progress and ensure they are meeting the necessary requirements for their job roles. It also helps supervisors and managers to monitor the training and qualifications of their team members. This visibility is important for maintaining a skilled and qualified workforce.Rate this question:
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- 31.
32.(013) In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “SystemMessages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and trainingupdate information?
- A.
Open suspenses.
- B.
System upgrades.
- C.
Application problems.
- D.
Changes to your user roles.
Correct Answer
C. Application problems.Explanation
The "SystemMessages" board in the Training Business Area (TBA) provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that the board is used to inform users about any issues or glitches with the application that may affect its functionality or performance.Rate this question:
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- 32.
33.(013) The actions that the Training Business Area (TBA) allows you to perform are based on
- A.
Whether or not you have attended the Air Force Trainer Course.
- B.
Roles you have been assigned.
- C.
Network capabilities.
- D.
Your rank.
Correct Answer
B. Roles you have been assigned.Explanation
The actions that the Training Business Area (TBA) allows you to perform are based on the roles you have been assigned. This means that the access and permissions within the TBA system are determined by the specific responsibilities and duties associated with the roles assigned to individuals. Attending the Air Force Trainer Course, network capabilities, and rank may be factors that contribute to the assignment of roles, but they are not the direct determining factors for the actions allowed within TBA.Rate this question:
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- 33.
34.(014) All newly assigned maintenance personnel must receive maintenance orientation trainingwithin how many days of arrival on station?
- A.
15.
- B.
30.
- C.
45.
- D.
60.
Correct Answer
D. 60.Explanation
Newly assigned maintenance personnel must receive maintenance orientation training within 60 days of arrival on station. This training is important to ensure that the personnel are familiar with the maintenance procedures and protocols specific to the station they are assigned to. It helps them understand their roles and responsibilities, as well as any safety precautions they need to take while performing maintenance tasks. By receiving this training within 60 days, the personnel will have enough time to settle in and become acquainted with their new environment before starting their maintenance duties.Rate this question:
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- 34.
35.(014) Which training phase is made up of the four sub-phases multiphase: major command(MAJCOM) mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training (MQT)?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
B. IIExplanation
The correct answer is II. The training phase made up of the four sub-phases multiphase: major command (MAJCOM) mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training (MQT) is Phase II.Rate this question:
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- 35.
36.(015) How often does the maintenance training section (MTS) provide a status of training (SOT)briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semiannually.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
A. Monthly.Explanation
The maintenance training section (MTS) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTS updates the MXG/CC regularly on the current training status of the maintenance group. Providing this briefing monthly allows the MXG/CC to stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or improvements to the training program as needed.Rate this question:
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- 36.
37.(015) An individual comes due for a training recertification while on temporary duty (TDY), onleave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date,how many days are allowed after returning to duty before decertification is required?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
If an individual comes due for a training recertification while on temporary duty (TDY), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning to duty before decertification is required. This means that they have a 30-day grace period to complete the recertification after they resume their normal duties.Rate this question:
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- 37.
38.(015) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisorbefore a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Operations officer.
- B.
Group commander.
- C.
Unit training manager.
- D.
Maintenance training section commander (MTS/CC) or chief.
Correct Answer
C. Unit training manager.Explanation
The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC).Rate this question:
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- 38.
39.(015) Once you have completed the master task list (MTL) for your master training plan (MTP),your next step is to
- A.
Evaluate training.
- B.
Select training strategies.
- C.
Determine training needs.
- D.
Determine training capabilities.
Correct Answer
C. Determine training needs.Explanation
The correct answer is "determine training needs." After completing the master task list (MTL) for the master training plan (MTP), the next step is to assess and identify the specific training needs that exist within the organization or for the individuals involved. This involves analyzing the skills, knowledge, and abilities required for each task identified in the MTL and identifying any gaps or areas that need improvement. By determining the training needs, organizations can develop targeted and effective training programs to address those needs and enhance performance.Rate this question:
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- 39.
40.(015) Which kinds of tasks require third-party certification?
- A.
Core tasks.
- B.
Critical tasks.
- C.
Non-core tasks.
- D.
Workcenter tasks.
Correct Answer
B. Critical tasks.Explanation
Third-party certification is necessary for critical tasks because these tasks involve high levels of risk or have significant consequences if not performed correctly. These tasks require an independent and objective evaluation to ensure that they meet specific standards or regulations. Core tasks are essential to the organization's core business processes, but they may not necessarily require third-party certification. Non-core tasks are not directly related to the organization's core business processes and may not require third-party certification. Workcenter tasks refer to tasks performed within a specific workcenter and do not necessarily indicate the need for third-party certification.Rate this question:
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- 40.
41.(016) What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators?
- A.
Performance and health.
- B.
Trending and impacting.
- C.
Positive and negative.
- D.
Leading and lagging.
Correct Answer
D. Leading and lagging.Explanation
Leading and lagging are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators. Leading indicators are proactive measures that help predict future performance and identify potential issues before they occur. They provide early warning signs and allow for preventive actions to be taken. Lagging indicators, on the other hand, are reactive measures that assess past performance and identify areas for improvement. They provide a retrospective view and help evaluate the effectiveness of maintenance efforts. By using both leading and lagging indicators, maintenance teams can have a comprehensive understanding of their performance and make informed decisions to optimize maintenance activities.Rate this question:
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- 41.
42.(016) Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows problems first, as they directly impactmaintenance’s capability to provide resources to execute the mission?
- A.
Leading.
- B.
Lagging.
- C.
Trending.
- D.
Impacting.
Correct Answer
A. Leading.Explanation
The primary maintenance metric indicator that shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission, is leading. Leading indicators are proactive and predictive in nature, allowing maintenance personnel to identify potential issues or areas of concern before they become major problems. By monitoring leading indicators, maintenance can take corrective actions and allocate resources effectively to ensure the mission is executed successfully.Rate this question:
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- 42.
43.(016) Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends?
- A.
Leading.
- B.
Lagging.
- C.
Trending.
- D.
Impacting.
Correct Answer
B. Lagging.Explanation
Lagging is the correct answer because a lagging indicator is a metric that shows the results or outcomes of past performance. It follows firmly established trends because it is based on historical data and is used to assess the effectiveness of past actions or decisions. Lagging indicators are useful for evaluating the overall performance and success of a maintenance program.Rate this question:
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- 43.
44.(016) Mission capable (MC) rate, total not mission capable maintenance (TNMCM) rate, and totalnot mission capable supply (TNMCS) rate are all examples of which primary maintenance metricindicator?
- A.
Leading.
- B.
Lagging.
- C.
Trending
- D.
Impacting.
Correct Answer
B. Lagging.Explanation
The primary maintenance metric indicators mentioned in the question, such as mission capable (MC) rate, total not mission capable maintenance (TNMCM) rate, and total not mission capable supply (TNMCS) rate, are all examples of lagging indicators. Lagging indicators are used to measure the performance and effectiveness of maintenance activities after they have occurred. They provide insights into past performance and help identify areas for improvement. In contrast, leading indicators are used to predict future performance and are typically proactive in nature.Rate this question:
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- 44.
45.(017) Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures forcontrol and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenanceindustrial areas?
- A.
Wing commander (WG/CC).
- B.
Wing vice commander (WG/CV).
- C.
Maintenance group commander (MXG/CC).
- D.
Maintenance group deputy commander (MXG/CD).
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance group commander (MXG/CC).Explanation
The Maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) is responsible for the development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas. They oversee the maintenance group and have the authority to establish and enforce procedures within their command. The other options, such as the Wing commander and Wing vice commander, may have higher-ranking positions but they are not specifically responsible for the development of these procedures. The Maintenance group deputy commander may assist the MXG/CC in their responsibilities, but they are not the primary office of responsibility.Rate this question:
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- 45.
46.(017) In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support personnel conduct anddocument a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all supportsection tools and equipment?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semiannually.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
D. Annually.Explanation
Support personnel must conduct and document a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment annually. This means that they need to perform this inspection once every year to ensure that all tools and equipment are in proper working condition and meet the required standards. This regular inspection helps to identify any issues or deficiencies and allows for timely repairs or replacements to maintain the operational readiness of the support section.Rate this question:
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- 46.
47.(017) How many characters (numbers/letters) make up an equipment identification designator(EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?
- A.
8
- B.
9
- C.
10
- D.
11
Correct Answer
B. 9Explanation
An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many characters (numbers/letters) make up this code. The correct answer is 9. This means that the EID code consists of 9 characters, which can be a combination of numbers and letters.Rate this question:
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- 47.
48.(017) Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing ared X for a lost tool that has not been found?
- A.
Maintenance (MX) operations officer or MX superintendent (SUPT).
- B.
Flight or aircraft maintenance unit (AMU) commander (CC).
- C.
Squadron commander (SQ/CC).
- D.
Flight or AMU chief.
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance (MX) operations officer or MX superintendent (SUPT).Explanation
The correct answer is Maintenance (MX) operations officer or MX superintendent (SUPT). This is because they are the individuals who have the authority and responsibility to clear a red X for a lost tool that has not been found. The other options, such as the flight or AMU commander, squadron commander, or flight or AMU chief, do not have the necessary authority to clear the red X without a waiver.Rate this question:
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- 48.
49.(018) What time frame is used for determining if an item that falls off an aircraft is considered adropped object?
- A.
Take-off to landing.
- B.
Taxi-out to taxi-in for final park.
- C.
Engine start to engine shutdown.
- D.
Aircrew arrival until aircraft released to maintenance.
Correct Answer
C. Engine start to engine shutdown.Explanation
The time frame used for determining if an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a dropped object is from engine start to engine shutdown. This means that any item that falls off the aircraft during this time period will be considered a dropped object.Rate this question:
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- 49.
50.(018) A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported inaccordance with Air Force Manual (AFMAN)
- A.
10–2502, Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS) Standards and Procedures.
- B.
10–206, Operational Reporting (OPREP).
- C.
91–224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports.
- D.
91–221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports.
Correct Answer
B. 10–206, Operational Reporting (OPREP).Explanation
When a dropped object results in casualties or property damage, it must be reported according to the Operational Reporting (OPREP) standards and procedures outlined in AFMAN 10-206. This manual provides guidelines for reporting incidents within the Air Force. The other options listed, AFMAN 10-2502, AFIMS Standards and Procedures, AFMAN 91-224, and AFMAN 91-221, do not specifically address the reporting of dropped objects resulting in casualties or property damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 10-206, Operational Reporting (OPREP).Rate this question:
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- 50.
51.(019) Which Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) individualassessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?
- A.
Quality verification inspection (QVI).
- B.
Management inspection (MI).
- C.
Personnel evaluation (PE).
- D.
Special inspection (SI).
Correct Answer
C. Personnel evaluation (PE).Explanation
The correct answer is Personnel evaluation (PE). This assessment involves an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task. It is a method used to evaluate the individual's performance and proficiency in carrying out maintenance tasks. The other options, Quality verification inspection (QVI), Management inspection (MI), and Special inspection (SI), do not specifically involve evaluating the technician's performance during task execution.Rate this question:
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