3DX7X Vol 1 UREs 2019

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (001) Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

    • Communications Focal Point
    • Unit Deployment Monitor
    • Enterprise Service Desk
    • Quality Assurance
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3DX7X Vol 1 UREs 2019 - Quiz
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  • 2. 

    (004) Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

    • Communications Focal Point

    • Flight Commander/Chief

    • Production Controller

    • Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Commander/Chief
    Explanation
    The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. This includes creating and implementing procedures and protocols to ensure that inspections are conducted regularly and in accordance with established standards. The Flight Commander/Chief is also responsible for overseeing the inspection process and ensuring that any necessary corrective actions are taken. By establishing these controls, the Flight Commander/Chief helps to ensure the safety and compliance of the organization's operations.

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  • 3. 

    (007) What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

    • Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI)

    • Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)

    • Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)

    • Military only

    Correct Answer
    A. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)
    Explanation
    Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems. This means that COTS systems are widely used and accepted in both the government and private sectors, making them easily understood and maintained by different organizations. Additionally, COTS systems are typically built with security measures in place, making them defendable against potential threats. Overall, using COTS systems ensures consistency and reliability across different systems and organizations.

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  • 4. 

    (008) The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

    • 10

    • 15

    • 37

    • 50

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This code outlines the role and responsibilities of the Department of Defense and provides the legal basis for its existence.

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  • 5. 

    (008) When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

    • Misuse of position

    • Covered relationships

    • Non-public information

    • Personal conflict of interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Misuse of position
    Explanation
    When a person uses their position for personal gain, it is considered a misuse of their position. This means that they are exploiting their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of their organization or the public. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences, such as damage to the organization's reputation or legal repercussions.

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  • 6. 

    (010) What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

    • 1 October - 30 September

    • 1 January - 31 December

    • 1 April - 31 March

    • 1 July - 30 June

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 October - 30 September
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a full year, starting in October and ending in September of the following year.

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  • 7. 

    (011) What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

    • Monitor

    • Scanner

    • Keyboard

    • Graphics card

    Correct Answer
    A. Keyboard
    Explanation
    A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, also known as key switches, are responsible for sending electrical signals to the computer when a key is pressed. The circuit board is designed in a way that each key corresponds to a specific switch, allowing the user to input characters and commands into the computer. Therefore, a keyboard fits the description of a device with a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board.

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  • 8. 

    (012) Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

    • Norton Utilities

    • Acrobat Reader

    • Virus Scan

    • WinZip

    Correct Answer
    A. Norton Utilities
    Explanation
    Norton Utilities includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It is a software suite that offers various tools for optimizing and maintaining computer performance. One of the features of Norton Utilities is the ability to recover lost files, whether they have been accidentally deleted or lost due to a system failure. Additionally, Norton Utilities provides tools for diagnosing and repairing common computer issues, as well as optimizing system performance and protecting against malware and other threats.

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  • 9. 

    (014) Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

    • The customer

    • Security Manager

    • National Security Agency

    • Communications Squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. The customer
    Explanation
    The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in order to connect to the service. This may include obtaining and configuring the appropriate hardware or software encryption devices to ensure secure communication over the network.

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  • 10. 

    (015) In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?

    • Authorization

    • Connection establishment

    • Establishment of a clear channel

    • End-to-end connectivity between host applications

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection establishment
    Explanation
    Before data can be transmitted between clients in a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, a connection must be established. This involves a handshake process where the client and server exchange control messages to negotiate and set up the connection. This ensures that both parties are ready to transmit and receive data and establishes a reliable, ordered, and error-checked communication channel between them.

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  • 11. 

    (016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?

    • 0.0.0.0

    • 127.0.0.1

    • 207.55.157.255

    • 255.255.255.255

    Correct Answer
    A. 127.0.0.1
    Explanation
    The IPv4 reserved address used for loop back is 127.0.0.1. This address is reserved for the loopback interface, which allows a device to send network traffic to itself. It is commonly used for testing and troubleshooting purposes, as it allows a device to verify that its network stack is functioning correctly.

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  • 12. 

    (019) What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media?

    • Physical

    • Logical

    • Hybrid

    • Star

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Physical. Physical topology refers to the physical arrangement of devices and media in a network. It defines how the devices are connected to each other and to the network media, such as cables or wireless connections. This includes the physical location of devices, the type of cables used, and the overall layout of the network.

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  • 13. 

    (019) What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

    • Bus

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a switch or hub. In this configuration, each computer has its own dedicated cable that connects directly to the central component, forming a star-like pattern. This allows for better performance and reliability, as any issues with one cable or computer do not affect the rest of the network.

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  • 14. 

    (021) A modem is a device that

    • Transmits on every link attached to it

    • Modulates and demodulates data signals

    • Uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination

    • Operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model

    Correct Answer
    A. Modulates and demodulates data signals
    Explanation
    A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. This means that it converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals that can be transmitted over telephone lines or other communication channels, and then converts the analog signals back into digital signals at the receiving end. This modulation and demodulation process allows for the transmission of data over long distances using existing infrastructure.

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  • 15. 

    (021) What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

    • Hub

    • Bridge

    • Switch

    • Router

    Correct Answer
    A. Bridge
    Explanation
    A bridge is a Data Link Layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the MAC addresses of the data packets it receives and forwarding them only to the segment where the destination MAC address is located, effectively reducing collisions and improving network performance. Unlike a hub, which simply broadcasts all incoming packets to all connected devices, a bridge intelligently filters and forwards packets based on their MAC addresses. A switch is similar to a bridge but operates at a higher speed and can handle more connections. A router, on the other hand, operates at the Network Layer and is used to connect multiple networks together.

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  • 16. 

    (023) What is the most common wireless networking standard?

    • 802.3

    • 802.9

    • 802.11

    • 802.14

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11
    Explanation
    The most common wireless networking standard is 802.11. This standard is widely used for wireless local area networks (WLANs) and provides high-speed wireless connectivity. It is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used in various devices such as laptops, smartphones, and routers. The 802.11 standard offers different versions, such as 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax, each with different capabilities and speeds. Overall, 802.11 is the most prevalent and widely adopted wireless networking standard in use today.

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  • 17. 

    (024) What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

    • Policy, Security, Authority

    • Authority, Security, Law

    • Law, Authority, Policy

    • Security, Policy, Law

    Correct Answer
    A. Law, Authority, Policy
    Explanation
    The three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations are Law, Authority, and Policy. Law refers to the legal framework that governs cyberspace operations and ensures that actions taken are in compliance with applicable laws and regulations. Authority relates to the authorization and control of cyberspace operations, ensuring that the appropriate entities have the power and responsibility to conduct and oversee these operations. Policy encompasses the guidelines and procedures that dictate how cyberspace operations are conducted, including the establishment of rules and protocols to ensure security and effectiveness.

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  • 18. 

    (025) Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one’s favor?

    • Information Management

    • Network-centric warfare

    • Information Superiority

    • Information Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Information Superiority
    Explanation
    Information Superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having a superior ability to collect, process, analyze, and disseminate information compared to one's adversaries. This advantage allows for better decision-making, faster response times, and the ability to exploit and disrupt enemy information systems. Information Superiority is crucial in modern warfare as it enables commanders to gain a comprehensive understanding of the battlespace and effectively use information as a weapon.

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  • 19. 

    (026) Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

    • Computer Forensics

    • Incident Prevention

    • Incident Detection

    • Incident Response

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident Response
    Explanation
    Incident Response is the correct answer because it involves determining the extent of intrusions, developing courses of action to mitigate threats, and executing response actions. This sub-discipline focuses on quickly and effectively responding to cyber incidents to minimize damage and prevent further attacks. Incident Response teams are responsible for analyzing and containing the incident, investigating the cause, and implementing measures to prevent future incidents.

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  • 20. 

    (027) Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

    • Patches

    • Antivirus

    • Software removal

    • Vulnerability scanner

    Correct Answer
    A. Patches
    Explanation
    A patch is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. It is used to fix bugs, vulnerabilities, and improve the overall functionality of the software. Patches are released by the software developers as updates to the existing software, and users are advised to install these patches to ensure their systems are protected from known vulnerabilities.

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  • 21. 

    (027) Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

    • Token

    • Biometrics

    • Multifactor

    • Knowledge-based

    Correct Answer
    A. Biometrics
    Explanation
    Biometrics is the correct answer because it is the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics refers to the measurement and analysis of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, to verify a person's identity. By scanning and comparing a person's fingerprint, biometric systems can accurately authenticate individuals, providing a secure and reliable method of identity verification.

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  • 22. 

    (027) Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

    • Token

    • Biometrics

    • Multifactor

    • Knowledge-based

    Correct Answer
    A. Knowledge-based
    Explanation
    Knowledge-based identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user. This process involves the user providing specific information or answering security questions that only they should know. The password acts as a form of authentication and verifies the user's identity.

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  • 23. 

    (028) The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes

    • Only full costs

    • Recommended course of action only

    • Full cost and recommended course of action

    • Full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Full cost and recommended course of action
    Explanation
    The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement includes both the full cost and the recommended course of action. This means that the solution not only provides an estimate of the total cost associated with implementing the system but also suggests the best approach or plan of action to meet the requirement. This comprehensive approach ensures that decision-makers have all the necessary information to make informed decisions regarding the system implementation.

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  • 24. 

    (006) Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

    • AF Form 55

    • AF Form 971

    • AF Form 623A

    • AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting individual training and is used to track an individual's training history. It provides a standardized format for recording training information, including the type of training, date completed, and the name and signature of the person conducting the training. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can easily keep track of their subordinates' safety training and ensure that all required training is completed and documented.

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  • 25. 

    (009) What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

    • $100,000

    • $250,000

    • $750,000

    • $1,000,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $750,000
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

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  • 26. 

    (015) What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

    • Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented

    • Classful and Connectionless Oriented

    • Connectionless Oriented and Classless

    • Classful and Classless

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. These are the two classifications of transport protocols. Connection-oriented protocols establish a connection before transmitting data, ensuring reliable and ordered delivery. Connectionless-oriented protocols do not establish a connection and do not guarantee reliable delivery, but they are faster and more efficient for transmitting small amounts of data.

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  • 27. 

    (018) The design of communications network is known as

    • An internet suite

    • The physical layer

    • Network architecture

    • Network implementation

    Correct Answer
    A. Network architecture
    Explanation
    The design of communications network is known as network architecture. Network architecture refers to the overall structure and organization of a network, including its components, protocols, and connectivity options. It involves planning and designing the layout of the network, determining how different devices and systems will be connected, and defining the necessary protocols and technologies to ensure efficient communication. Network architecture plays a crucial role in ensuring the reliability, scalability, and performance of a communications network.

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  • 28. 

    (024) Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

    • Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)

    • Base Defense Operations Center

    • 624th Operations Center

    • Air Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness, detecting and reporting any suspicious or malicious activity. The other options, such as the Base Defense Operations Center, 624th Operations Center, and Air Operations Center, do not specifically focus on network monitoring and control.

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  • 29. 

    (002) Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized

    • At major command functional managers

    • At Headquarters Air Force (HAF) 

    • At the Air Force Personnel Center

    • With career field managers

    Correct Answer
    A. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF) 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "at Headquarters Air Force (HAF)". This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the headquarters of the Air Force. This suggests that decisions and strategies related to manpower planning and programming are made at the highest level of the Air Force command structure.

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  • 30. 

    (002) Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

    • Program Element Code (PEC)

    • Special Experience Identifier (SEI)

    • Authorization Change Request (ACR)

    • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Program Element Code (PEC)
    Explanation
    Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is a unique code that identifies and tracks specific elements of a program's budget. The PEC helps in organizing and categorizing costs associated with different aspects of the program, such as research, development, production, and sustainment. By using PECs, program managers can effectively monitor and control costs, allocate resources, and make informed decisions about budgeting and funding priorities.

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  • 31. 

    (009) Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

    • Military Personnel (MILPERS)

    • Military Construction (MILCON)

    • Operation and Maintenance (O&M)

    • Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)

    Correct Answer
    A. Military Construction (MILCON)
    Explanation
    MILCON funds are specifically allocated for the construction, expansion, or relocation of military facilities. This includes the cost of relocating facilities to better serve military operations. MILCON funds are separate from other types of funds, such as MILPERS (which covers personnel costs), O&M (which covers day-to-day operations), and RDT&E (which covers research and development). Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer for covering the cost of relocating facilities.

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  • 32. 

    (010) Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

    • Wing

    • Group

    • Squadron

    • Major command

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing
    Explanation
    The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. The options provided are different levels within the military hierarchy, and the Wing is typically higher in rank than the Group, Squadron, and major command. Therefore, it is the most likely level at which quarterly awards would be presented.

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  • 33. 

    (013) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

    • High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)

    • Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)

    • Distance Vector and Link State

    • RS–232 and RS–530

    Correct Answer
    A. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The IEEE divides the OSI Data Link Layers into these two sublayers. The LLC sublayer is responsible for flow control, error control, and framing, while the MAC sublayer is responsible for addressing and accessing the media. These two sublayers work together to provide a reliable and efficient data link layer protocol.

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  • 34. 

    (016) Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

    • Colon Hexadecimal Format

    • Dotted Decimal Notation

    • Hexadecimal

    • Octal

    Correct Answer
    A. Colon Hexadecimal Format
    Explanation
    IPv6 addresses are expressed in colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. This format uses a combination of numbers and letters in base 16, making it easier for users to read and remember. The use of colons also helps to separate different sections of the address, improving readability. This format is an improvement over the dotted decimal notation used in IPv4 addresses, which can be more difficult to interpret and remember.

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  • 35. 

    (025) What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary’s, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

    • Careful planning

    • Reactive operations

    • Immediate response

    • Information Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Careful planning
    Explanation
    Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority because it allows for a systematic and thoughtful approach. By carefully planning, one can anticipate potential risks and vulnerabilities, develop strategies to address them, and consider the potential consequences of actions taken. This helps to minimize the likelihood of unintended or undesirable effects and ensures that actions taken are aligned with achieving cyberspace superiority. Careful planning also allows for coordination and synchronization of efforts, enabling a more effective response to any challenges or threats that may arise.

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  • 36. 

    (027) Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

    • Virus

    • Spam

    • Spyware

    • Phishing

    Correct Answer
    A. Spam
    Explanation
    Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages to a large number of recipients. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming, it typically does not pose a direct threat to the security or integrity of systems or data. On the other hand, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are more malicious in nature and can cause significant harm by infecting systems, stealing sensitive information, or tricking users into revealing personal data.

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  • 37. 

    (006) Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare

    • Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission

    • Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities

    • Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost
    Explanation
    The goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM) is to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate ORM into mission processes, and create a culture where everyone is trained and motivated to manage risk. However, the statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" does not align with the goals of ORM. It suggests actively seeking ways to decrease effectiveness, which goes against the purpose of ORM to preserve assets and safeguard health and welfare.

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  • 38. 

    (008) Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title

    • 15

    • 18

    • 32

    • 37

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 32. The procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 32. This code outlines the specific guidelines and requirements for the activation of units by Congress. It is important for Congress to have a clear framework in place to ensure that the decision to activate units is made in a lawful and appropriate manner.

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  • 39. 

    (009) Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

    • Making authorized transactions

    • Reconciling transactions

    • Logging transactions

    • Funds accountability

    Correct Answer
    A. Funds accountability
    Explanation
    The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This means that GPC cardholders are not responsible for tracking and managing the funds associated with the purchases made using the GPC. This responsibility typically falls on the finance or accounting department within the government organization.

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  • 40. 

    (010) Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

    • Air Force Chief of Staff

    • Secretary of the Air Force

    • Selected major command Command Chiefs

    • Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Chief of Staff
    Explanation
    After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the Air Force and is responsible for overseeing the entire organization. Their review ensures that the selections align with the overall goals and objectives of the Air Force.

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  • 41. 

    (016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

    • Class C

    • Class D

    • Class E

    • Class F

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C
    Explanation
    Class C is the correct answer because it is used for networks with approximately 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for up to 254 usable host addresses. This makes it suitable for small to medium-sized networks. Class D is used for multicast addresses, Class E is reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F is reserved for future use.

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  • 42. 

    (023) Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

    • Twisted pair cable

    • Fiber optic cable

    • Coaxial cable

    • Twinax cable

    Correct Answer
    A. Twisted pair cable
    Explanation
    Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is made up of pairs of insulated copper wires twisted together, which helps to reduce interference and crosstalk. This makes it ideal for transmitting analog signals, such as voice, over short to medium distances. Twisted pair cables are commonly used in telephone networks and are cost-effective and easy to install, making them a popular choice for voice communication.

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  • 43. 

    (021) Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and

    • Modulation of datagrams through an internetwork

    • Layer–1 error determination and correction through an internetwork

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel determination through an internetwork

    • Transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork

    Correct Answer
    A. Transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork." This is because the question asks about two basic routing activities, and out of the given options, transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork is the only activity that directly relates to routing. The other options either do not mention routing or involve different aspects of networking such as error determination, VPN tunnel determination, or modulation of datagrams.

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  • 44. 

    (021) Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It considers factors such as network congestion, link quality, and other metrics to determine the most efficient path for data transmission. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 45. 

    (025) Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary’s use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

    • Electronic attack

    • Electronic protection

    • Network Exploitation

    • Electronic warfare support

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic attack
    Explanation
    Electronic attack is the correct answer because it refers to the use of jamming to disrupt or deny the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS). Jamming involves emitting signals or noise to interfere with the enemy's communications, radar systems, or other electronic devices, thereby reducing their effectiveness. This capability is a crucial aspect of electronic warfare, which aims to control and exploit the electromagnetic spectrum in order to gain a tactical advantage in military operations.

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  • 46. 

    (007) Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?

    • Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures

    • Resources required to manage and use TOs

    • Infrastructure to manage and use TOs

    • Training to manage and use TOs

    Correct Answer
    A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures
    Explanation
    The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The other options, such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs, are all included in TO 00-5-1.

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  • 47. 

    (015) What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?

    • Data receive message

    • Sliding Window

    • Buffer

    • Socket

    Correct Answer
    A. Sliding Window
    Explanation
    The sliding window is a mechanism that regulates how much information can be sent over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. It allows the sender to transmit a certain number of packets without waiting for an acknowledgement, improving efficiency and reducing latency. The size of the sliding window determines the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgement is required. As the receiver acknowledges the packets, the window slides forward, allowing more packets to be sent. This helps to ensure reliable and efficient transmission of data over the TCP connection.

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  • 48. 

    (016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing?

    • Class C

    • Class D

    • Class E

    • Class F

    Correct Answer
    A. Class D
    Explanation
    Class D is the correct answer because it is the Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address used for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows for the transmission of data to multiple recipients simultaneously, in a group. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are reserved for multicast communication.

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  • 49. 

    (006) How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps: identification of hazards, assessment of risks, development of controls and countermeasures, decision-making, implementation of controls, and supervision and review. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 17, 2023 +

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  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 29, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Wes
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