3DX7X Vol 1 UREs 2019

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1. (024) What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

Explanation

The three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations are Law, Authority, and Policy. Law refers to the legal framework that governs cyberspace operations and ensures that actions taken are in compliance with applicable laws and regulations. Authority relates to the authorization and control of cyberspace operations, ensuring that the appropriate entities have the power and responsibility to conduct and oversee these operations. Policy encompasses the guidelines and procedures that dictate how cyberspace operations are conducted, including the establishment of rules and protocols to ensure security and effectiveness.

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3DX7X Vol 1 UREs 2019 - Quiz

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2. (011) What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

Explanation

A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, also known as key switches, are responsible for sending electrical signals to the computer when a key is pressed. The circuit board is designed in a way that each key corresponds to a specific switch, allowing the user to input characters and commands into the computer. Therefore, a keyboard fits the description of a device with a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board.

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3. (012) Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

Explanation

Norton Utilities includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It is a software suite that offers various tools for optimizing and maintaining computer performance. One of the features of Norton Utilities is the ability to recover lost files, whether they have been accidentally deleted or lost due to a system failure. Additionally, Norton Utilities provides tools for diagnosing and repairing common computer issues, as well as optimizing system performance and protecting against malware and other threats.

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4. (025) Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor?

Explanation

Information Superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having a superior ability to collect, process, analyze, and disseminate information compared to one's adversaries. This advantage allows for better decision-making, faster response times, and the ability to exploit and disrupt enemy information systems. Information Superiority is crucial in modern warfare as it enables commanders to gain a comprehensive understanding of the battlespace and effectively use information as a weapon.

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5. (026) Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

Explanation

Incident Response is the correct answer because it involves determining the extent of intrusions, developing courses of action to mitigate threats, and executing response actions. This sub-discipline focuses on quickly and effectively responding to cyber incidents to minimize damage and prevent further attacks. Incident Response teams are responsible for analyzing and containing the incident, investigating the cause, and implementing measures to prevent future incidents.

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6. (007) What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

Explanation

Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems. This means that COTS systems are widely used and accepted in both the government and private sectors, making them easily understood and maintained by different organizations. Additionally, COTS systems are typically built with security measures in place, making them defendable against potential threats. Overall, using COTS systems ensures consistency and reliability across different systems and organizations.

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7. (008) The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

Explanation

The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This code outlines the role and responsibilities of the Department of Defense and provides the legal basis for its existence.

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8. (008) When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

Explanation

When a person uses their position for personal gain, it is considered a misuse of their position. This means that they are exploiting their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of their organization or the public. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences, such as damage to the organization's reputation or legal repercussions.

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9. (016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?

Explanation

The IPv4 reserved address used for loop back is 127.0.0.1. This address is reserved for the loopback interface, which allows a device to send network traffic to itself. It is commonly used for testing and troubleshooting purposes, as it allows a device to verify that its network stack is functioning correctly.

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10. (014) Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

Explanation

The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in order to connect to the service. This may include obtaining and configuring the appropriate hardware or software encryption devices to ensure secure communication over the network.

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11. (015) In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?

Explanation

Before data can be transmitted between clients in a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, a connection must be established. This involves a handshake process where the client and server exchange control messages to negotiate and set up the connection. This ensures that both parties are ready to transmit and receive data and establishes a reliable, ordered, and error-checked communication channel between them.

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12. (001) Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

Explanation

The Communications Focal Point function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission. This means that the personnel working in this function may have different specialties depending on the specific needs and requirements of the unit they are serving.

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13. (027) Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

Explanation

A patch is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. It is used to fix bugs, vulnerabilities, and improve the overall functionality of the software. Patches are released by the software developers as updates to the existing software, and users are advised to install these patches to ensure their systems are protected from known vulnerabilities.

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14. (019) What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?

Explanation

The correct answer is Physical. Physical topology refers to the physical arrangement of devices and media in a network. It defines how the devices are connected to each other and to the network media, such as cables or wireless connections. This includes the physical location of devices, the type of cables used, and the overall layout of the network.

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15. (019) What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

Explanation

A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a switch or hub. In this configuration, each computer has its own dedicated cable that connects directly to the central component, forming a star-like pattern. This allows for better performance and reliability, as any issues with one cable or computer do not affect the rest of the network.

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16. (027) Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

Explanation

Biometrics is the correct answer because it is the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics refers to the measurement and analysis of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, to verify a person's identity. By scanning and comparing a person's fingerprint, biometric systems can accurately authenticate individuals, providing a secure and reliable method of identity verification.

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17. (027) Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

Explanation

Knowledge-based identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user. This process involves the user providing specific information or answering security questions that only they should know. The password acts as a form of authentication and verifies the user's identity.

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18. (021) A modem is a device that

Explanation

A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. This means that it converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals that can be transmitted over telephone lines or other communication channels, and then converts the analog signals back into digital signals at the receiving end. This modulation and demodulation process allows for the transmission of data over long distances using existing infrastructure.

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19. (021) What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

Explanation

A bridge is a Data Link Layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the MAC addresses of the data packets it receives and forwarding them only to the segment where the destination MAC address is located, effectively reducing collisions and improving network performance. Unlike a hub, which simply broadcasts all incoming packets to all connected devices, a bridge intelligently filters and forwards packets based on their MAC addresses. A switch is similar to a bridge but operates at a higher speed and can handle more connections. A router, on the other hand, operates at the Network Layer and is used to connect multiple networks together.

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20. (028) The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes

Explanation

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement includes both the full cost and the recommended course of action. This means that the solution not only provides an estimate of the total cost associated with implementing the system but also suggests the best approach or plan of action to meet the requirement. This comprehensive approach ensures that decision-makers have all the necessary information to make informed decisions regarding the system implementation.

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21. (023) What is the most common wireless networking standard?

Explanation

The most common wireless networking standard is 802.11. This standard is widely used for wireless local area networks (WLANs) and provides high-speed wireless connectivity. It is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used in various devices such as laptops, smartphones, and routers. The 802.11 standard offers different versions, such as 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax, each with different capabilities and speeds. Overall, 802.11 is the most prevalent and widely adopted wireless networking standard in use today.

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22. (004) Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

Explanation

The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. This includes creating and implementing procedures and protocols to ensure that inspections are conducted regularly and in accordance with established standards. The Flight Commander/Chief is also responsible for overseeing the inspection process and ensuring that any necessary corrective actions are taken. By establishing these controls, the Flight Commander/Chief helps to ensure the safety and compliance of the organization's operations.

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23. (010) What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

Explanation

The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a full year, starting in October and ending in September of the following year.

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24. (006) Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

Explanation

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting individual training and is used to track an individual's training history. It provides a standardized format for recording training information, including the type of training, date completed, and the name and signature of the person conducting the training. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can easily keep track of their subordinates' safety training and ensure that all required training is completed and documented.

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25. (024) Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

Explanation

The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness, detecting and reporting any suspicious or malicious activity. The other options, such as the Base Defense Operations Center, 624th Operations Center, and Air Operations Center, do not specifically focus on network monitoring and control.

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26. (009) What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

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27. (015) What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

Explanation

The correct answer is Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. These are the two classifications of transport protocols. Connection-oriented protocols establish a connection before transmitting data, ensuring reliable and ordered delivery. Connectionless-oriented protocols do not establish a connection and do not guarantee reliable delivery, but they are faster and more efficient for transmitting small amounts of data.

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28. (018) The design of communications network is known as

Explanation

The design of communications network is known as network architecture. Network architecture refers to the overall structure and organization of a network, including its components, protocols, and connectivity options. It involves planning and designing the layout of the network, determining how different devices and systems will be connected, and defining the necessary protocols and technologies to ensure efficient communication. Network architecture plays a crucial role in ensuring the reliability, scalability, and performance of a communications network.

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29. (013) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The IEEE divides the OSI Data Link Layers into these two sublayers. The LLC sublayer is responsible for flow control, error control, and framing, while the MAC sublayer is responsible for addressing and accessing the media. These two sublayers work together to provide a reliable and efficient data link layer protocol.

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30. (025) What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

Explanation

Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority because it allows for a systematic and thoughtful approach. By carefully planning, one can anticipate potential risks and vulnerabilities, develop strategies to address them, and consider the potential consequences of actions taken. This helps to minimize the likelihood of unintended or undesirable effects and ensures that actions taken are aligned with achieving cyberspace superiority. Careful planning also allows for coordination and synchronization of efforts, enabling a more effective response to any challenges or threats that may arise.

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31. (027) Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

Explanation

Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages to a large number of recipients. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming, it typically does not pose a direct threat to the security or integrity of systems or data. On the other hand, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are more malicious in nature and can cause significant harm by infecting systems, stealing sensitive information, or tricking users into revealing personal data.

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32. (009) Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

Explanation

MILCON funds are specifically allocated for the construction, expansion, or relocation of military facilities. This includes the cost of relocating facilities to better serve military operations. MILCON funds are separate from other types of funds, such as MILPERS (which covers personnel costs), O&M (which covers day-to-day operations), and RDT&E (which covers research and development). Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer for covering the cost of relocating facilities.

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33. (016) Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are expressed in colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. This format uses a combination of numbers and letters in base 16, making it easier for users to read and remember. The use of colons also helps to separate different sections of the address, improving readability. This format is an improvement over the dotted decimal notation used in IPv4 addresses, which can be more difficult to interpret and remember.

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34. (002) Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized

Explanation

The correct answer is "at Headquarters Air Force (HAF)". This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the headquarters of the Air Force. This suggests that decisions and strategies related to manpower planning and programming are made at the highest level of the Air Force command structure.

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35. (002) Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

Explanation

Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is a unique code that identifies and tracks specific elements of a program's budget. The PEC helps in organizing and categorizing costs associated with different aspects of the program, such as research, development, production, and sustainment. By using PECs, program managers can effectively monitor and control costs, allocate resources, and make informed decisions about budgeting and funding priorities.

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36. (010) Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

Explanation

The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. The options provided are different levels within the military hierarchy, and the Wing is typically higher in rank than the Group, Squadron, and major command. Therefore, it is the most likely level at which quarterly awards would be presented.

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37. (006) Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

Explanation

The goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM) is to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate ORM into mission processes, and create a culture where everyone is trained and motivated to manage risk. However, the statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" does not align with the goals of ORM. It suggests actively seeking ways to decrease effectiveness, which goes against the purpose of ORM to preserve assets and safeguard health and welfare.

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38. (008) Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title

Explanation

The correct answer is 32. The procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 32. This code outlines the specific guidelines and requirements for the activation of units by Congress. It is important for Congress to have a clear framework in place to ensure that the decision to activate units is made in a lawful and appropriate manner.

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39. (016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

Explanation

Class C is the correct answer because it is used for networks with approximately 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for up to 254 usable host addresses. This makes it suitable for small to medium-sized networks. Class D is used for multicast addresses, Class E is reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F is reserved for future use.

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40. (009) Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

Explanation

The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This means that GPC cardholders are not responsible for tracking and managing the funds associated with the purchases made using the GPC. This responsibility typically falls on the finance or accounting department within the government organization.

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41. (010) Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

Explanation

After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the Air Force and is responsible for overseeing the entire organization. Their review ensures that the selections align with the overall goals and objectives of the Air Force.

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42. (023) Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

Explanation

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is made up of pairs of insulated copper wires twisted together, which helps to reduce interference and crosstalk. This makes it ideal for transmitting analog signals, such as voice, over short to medium distances. Twisted pair cables are commonly used in telephone networks and are cost-effective and easy to install, making them a popular choice for voice communication.

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43. (025) Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

Explanation

Electronic attack is the correct answer because it refers to the use of jamming to disrupt or deny the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS). Jamming involves emitting signals or noise to interfere with the enemy's communications, radar systems, or other electronic devices, thereby reducing their effectiveness. This capability is a crucial aspect of electronic warfare, which aims to control and exploit the electromagnetic spectrum in order to gain a tactical advantage in military operations.

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44. (021) Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and

Explanation

The correct answer is "Transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork." This is because the question asks about two basic routing activities, and out of the given options, transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork is the only activity that directly relates to routing. The other options either do not mention routing or involve different aspects of networking such as error determination, VPN tunnel determination, or modulation of datagrams.

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45. (021) Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

Explanation

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It considers factors such as network congestion, link quality, and other metrics to determine the most efficient path for data transmission. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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46. (007) Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?

Explanation

The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The other options, such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs, are all included in TO 00-5-1.

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47. (016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D is the correct answer because it is the Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address used for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows for the transmission of data to multiple recipients simultaneously, in a group. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are reserved for multicast communication.

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48. (015) What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?

Explanation

The sliding window is a mechanism that regulates how much information can be sent over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. It allows the sender to transmit a certain number of packets without waiting for an acknowledgement, improving efficiency and reducing latency. The size of the sliding window determines the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgement is required. As the receiver acknowledges the packets, the window slides forward, allowing more packets to be sent. This helps to ensure reliable and efficient transmission of data over the TCP connection.

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49. (006) How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

Explanation

Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps: identification of hazards, assessment of risks, development of controls and countermeasures, decision-making, implementation of controls, and supervision and review. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.

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50. (012) A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

Explanation

A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers that typically consists of a smaller number of computers. It is not specified exactly how many computers are in a workgroup, but it is stated that it is "no more than 20." This means that a workgroup can have a maximum of 20 computers, but it could also have fewer than that. Therefore, the correct answer is "No more than 20."

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51. (006) Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

Explanation

The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis is a systematic process used to identify and analyze potential hazards associated with a specific job or task. The correct terms for Job Safety Analysis are Job Hazard Analysis (JHA), Task Hazard Analysis (THA), and Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA). These terms refer to different approaches or variations of the same process of analyzing job hazards. However, "Job Safety Training (JST)" does not specifically refer to the analysis of job hazards, but rather focuses on the training aspect of job safety.

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52. (012) Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

Explanation

The term "Positive" is not a recognized type of UNIX pathname. The other options, Simple, Relative, and Absolute, are all valid types of UNIX pathnames.

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53. (016) What class uses a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

Explanation

Class A uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. This class is used for large networks as it allows for a large number of hosts. The first bit in the first octet is always set to 0 in Class A addresses, which allows for a maximum of 126 networks. Each network can have up to 16,777,214 hosts.

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54. (017) The range of well-known port numbers is

Explanation

The range of well-known port numbers is 0 to 1023. Well-known ports are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) and are used by commonly used protocols such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These port numbers are reserved for specific services and are typically used by system processes or by programs executed by privileged users. Ports in the range 1024 to 49151 are registered ports, which can be used by user processes or applications. Ports in the range 49152 to 65535 are dynamic or private ports, which can be used by any application or process.

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55. (011) The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

Explanation

A FireWire bus can support a maximum of 63 devices. This means that you can connect up to 63 devices, such as external hard drives, cameras, or audio interfaces, to a FireWire bus. This limit is determined by the design and specifications of the FireWire technology, which allows for a certain number of devices to be connected and communicate with each other simultaneously.

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56. (017) Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

Explanation

Port 8080 is commonly used for hosting HTTP servers and proxies. While the default port for HTTP is 80, port 8080 is often used as an alternative to avoid conflicts or for testing purposes. It allows web developers to run multiple web servers on the same machine without interference. Therefore, port 8080 is the correct answer for this question.

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57. (003) Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This means that their attendance is not required but they have the option to attend if they choose to.

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58. (007) Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?

Explanation

The authoring OPR's supervisor should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official because they are responsible for overseeing the work of the authoring OPR and ensuring its accuracy and compliance with guidelines.

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59. (025) Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?

Explanation

Electronic Warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic energy to control the electromagnetic spectrum and disrupt enemy communication and radar systems. It focuses on radiated energy and includes activities like jamming, spoofing, and deception. On the other hand, Computer Network Operations (CNO) refers to the use of computer networks to gather intelligence, launch cyber attacks, or defend against cyber threats. While both EW and CNO involve the use of technology, EW specifically deals with radiated energy, while CNO encompasses a broader range of activities related to computer networks.

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60. (009) In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)

Explanation

The correct answer is 64–117. This is because Air Force Instruction (AFI) 64–117 provides in-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels.

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61. (004) What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the correct answer because it is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is a comprehensive database that allows users to track and manage maintenance actions, including documentation of actions taken on items with SRDs. Remedy is a separate system used for tracking and resolving IT service requests, SITREP is a report used to provide situational information, and TMS is a system used for managing telephone communications.

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62. (018) What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. It allows these devices to share resources and communicate with each other through a common communications line. A LAN is typically owned and controlled by a single organization, and it provides high-speed and reliable connectivity for the devices within its network.

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63. (001) What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

Explanation

The document that directs the Communications Focal point key processes is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.

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64. (002) Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized positions within the organization, including the number of personnel required for each position and the specific duties and responsibilities associated with each position. The UMD helps the organization effectively manage its manpower resources by ensuring that the right number of personnel are in the right positions at all times.

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65. (003) Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

Explanation

The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by the personnel or manpower offices within the MAJCOM.

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66. (008) Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

Explanation

The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual has the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites.

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67. (018) What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

Explanation

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN), which is limited to a small area like a building or campus, a MAN covers a larger area. It provides high-speed connectivity and allows users to access resources and services within the defined geographical region. MANs are commonly used by organizations or institutions that have multiple locations within a city and need to share resources and data between them.

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68. (024) What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

Explanation

National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the United States Code section that governs the organization and role of the armed forces. It specifically pertains to the active duty and reserve components of the military, including the National Guard. Therefore, being in Title 10 status allows National Guard Guardsmen to engage in cyber operations.

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69. (001) Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

Explanation

The correct answer is Computer Systems Programming because this specialty code specifically deals with programming and requires members to have knowledge and skills in electronic data processing. Passing the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test would ensure that the members have the necessary proficiency in this area. The other specialty codes listed do not have a direct focus on programming or electronic data processing.

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70. (014) What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency. Defense Information Systems Agency is the combat information technology communication support agency of the Department of Defense. It provides secure and reliable communications and IT support to the military services, combatant commands, and other DoD components. It is responsible for managing and operating the DoD's information networks, including the Defense Information Systems Network.

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71. (003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). They are responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the training requirements and utilization needs of the career field are met. The MAJCOM Functional Manager has the knowledge and expertise in the specific career field to effectively participate in these meetings and make informed decisions on behalf of the MAJCOM.

Submit
72. (009) Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
73. (022) What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder?

Explanation

Link encryption is the type of encryption that is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, ensuring that all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder. This type of encryption secures the communication link between two points, such as routers or switches, by encrypting the data that is transmitted over the link. It provides protection against eavesdropping and unauthorized access to the information being transmitted.

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74. (003) Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Explanation

The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to career field education and training. These actions include drafting and signing minutes, finalizing part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalizing the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, the team is not responsible for finalizing Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

Submit
75. (003) What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the tasks, knowledge, and skills required for a particular career field, which serves as the foundation for developing the CFETP and STS. The CFETP outlines the training and education requirements for individuals in the career field, while the STS provides detailed information on the specific training standards and objectives.

Submit
76. (026) Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?

Explanation

Proactive Defense is the correct answer because it involves conducting continuous monitoring to ensure the timely delivery of critical information. This sub-discipline focuses on actively identifying and addressing potential threats and vulnerabilities in the network, rather than waiting for an attack to occur. By continuously monitoring the network, proactive defense helps to prevent and mitigate potential risks, ensuring that critical information is delivered in a timely manner.

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77. (018) Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?

Explanation

802.11n is the correct answer because it is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. This standard uses multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, which allows for faster data transfer rates and improved signal strength. It is backward compatible with previous 802.11 standards and offers better performance and range compared to its predecessors.

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78. (005) Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

Explanation

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after the ARC personnel have received and started using the new equipment or system, their performance and suitability for the specific tasks related to the equipment/system will be evaluated within 120 days. This evaluation is necessary to ensure that the personnel are properly trained and competent in using the new equipment/system.

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79. (015) Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment?

Explanation

The correct answer is Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data. This is because these are the fields that are included in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment. The Source Port field specifies the port number of the sending process, the Destination Port field specifies the port number of the receiving process, the Length field specifies the length of the UDP segment including the header and data, the Checksum field is used for error detection, and the Data field contains the actual data being transmitted.

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80. (016) How many bits are in an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

Explanation

An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address consists of 32 bits. Each bit in the address represents a binary digit (0 or 1), resulting in a total of 32 bits. These bits are used to identify and locate devices on a network, allowing for communication and data transfer between them.

Submit
81. (009) At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

Explanation

The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They oversee the day-to-day operations of the program, ensuring compliance with regulations and guidelines, providing training to cardholders and approving officials, and monitoring card usage to prevent misuse or fraud. The A/OPC acts as a liaison between the installation and higher-level program management offices, ensuring effective communication and coordination of program activities.

Submit
82. (020) Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of

Explanation

ISDN, or Integrated Services Digital Network, is a digital telecommunications network that allows for the transmission of voice, video, and data over a single pair cable. It is capable of transmission rates of 144 Kbps, which means it can transmit data at a speed of 144,000 bits per second. This speed is sufficient for many basic internet activities, such as web browsing and email. However, it is relatively slow compared to modern broadband connections, which can reach speeds of several Mbps or even Gbps.

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83. (004) Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?

Explanation

The MDC monitor is responsible for reviewing IMDS reports, matching reports with OIL, and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions. However, ensuring equipment status is entered into ESR is not listed as a common duty of the MDC monitor.

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84. (013) Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Explanation

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication between hosts and ensures reliable and error-free delivery of data. It establishes a virtual circuit, which is a logical connection between two endpoints, and manages the flow control and error recovery mechanisms. Therefore, the correct answer is Transport.

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85. (018) Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency?

Explanation

The correct answer is 802.11b. This standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and operates at the 2.4 GHz frequency. 802.11a has a higher throughput of 54 Mbps but operates at the 5 GHz frequency. 802.11g also has a higher throughput of 54 Mbps but operates at the 2.4 GHz frequency. 802.11n has a higher throughput of up to 600 Mbps and can operate at both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies. Therefore, based on the given information, 802.11b is the correct answer.

Submit
86. (003) Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?

Explanation

Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment focuses on assessing the proficiency levels of individuals and determining the resources needed for their training. It involves evaluating the current training capabilities and identifying any gaps or deficiencies in training resources. By addressing these issues, Segment 2 ensures that the necessary training is provided to achieve the desired proficiency levels and effectively allocate training resources.

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87. (027) What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

Explanation

Capacity planning is the correct answer because it involves the long trend analysis of network devices to identify future constraints. It helps in determining the resources required to meet future demands and ensures that the technical baselines are updated accordingly. This process helps in preventing any potential performance issues or bottlenecks by proactively addressing capacity constraints.

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88. (010) Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
89. (001) Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

Explanation

The completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, such as minimum rank of SSgt, 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees, and completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement to the 7-skill level.

Submit
90. (007) Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

Explanation

The American National Standard Institute (ANSI) provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). ANSI is a non-profit organization that oversees the development of voluntary consensus standards for various industries, including telecommunications. Their accreditation ensures that TIA meets certain criteria and standards in their operations and services.

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91. (023) Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?

Explanation

Coaxial cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard. This type of cable was commonly used in the early days of Ethernet networking. It consists of a central conductor surrounded by a layer of insulation, a metallic shield, and an outer plastic sheath. Coaxial cable was widely used for Ethernet connections because it provided good signal quality and was relatively easy to install. However, it has been largely replaced by twisted-pair cables, such as UTP and STP, and fiber optic cables in modern Ethernet networks due to their higher data transmission rates and better noise immunity.

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92. (026) Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

Explanation

A Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) is a type of Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem that connects to sensors in a process. It is responsible for converting the analog signals from the sensors into digital data that can be transmitted and processed by the SCADA system. The RTU acts as an interface between the physical sensors and the SCADA system, allowing for the collection and monitoring of data from the sensors in real-time.

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93. (013) Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Explanation

Routers operate at the Network layer of the OSI model. The Network layer is responsible for routing data packets across different networks and determining the best path for data transmission. Routers use IP addresses to make decisions on how to forward packets to their destination. They also provide network connectivity by connecting multiple networks together.

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94. (005) Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?

Explanation

The Job Qualification Standard is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center. This means that if the work center requires specific job qualifications, the Job Qualification Standard will be included in the Master Training Plan to ensure that personnel are trained and qualified for their roles. However, if the work center does not have any specific job qualification requirements, the Job Qualification Standard may not be included in the Master Training Plan.

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95. (007) Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

Explanation

The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the needs of the equipment and ensure that the necessary checklists and work cards are in place to maintain and operate the equipment effectively.

Submit
96. (007) Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Explanation

The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards.

Submit
97. (013) Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Explanation

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between nodes on a network. Switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN). They examine the destination MAC address of incoming packets and forward them only to the appropriate port where the destination device is connected. This helps to optimize network performance and prevent unnecessary broadcast of data packets.

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98. (028) Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?

Explanation

The Authorizing Official (AO) is responsible for providing the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode. This includes ensuring that the system is using a prescribed set of safeguards and that any acceptable risks have been identified and addressed. The AO has the authority to make decisions regarding the system's security posture and is accountable for any potential risks associated with its operation.

Submit
99. (026) Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

Explanation

The Supervisory System is the SCADA subsystem that gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor. This system acts as the central control unit and is responsible for monitoring and controlling the various components and processes within the SCADA system. It collects data from the remote terminal units and human machine interface, and then sends commands to the processor to make necessary adjustments or changes in the process.

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100. (007) Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on

Explanation

AFTO Form 22 is the correct answer because it is the designated form for submitting recommended technical order (TO) changes. AFTO Form 673 and AF Form 673 are not relevant to TO changes, and AF Form 22 is also not the appropriate form for this purpose.

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