3D151 Edit Code 2 Ure’s

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  • 1/200 Questions

    What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?

    • Remedy.
    • Remedy new.
    • Remedy user.
    • Remedy ticket.
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3D151 Edit Code 2 Ure’s - Quiz
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  • 2. 

    In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?

    • A resolution group only.

    • A specific technician only.

    • Remedy automatically assigns tickets.

    • A resolution group or specific technician.

    Correct Answer
    A. A resolution group or specific technician.
    Explanation
    In Remedy, tickets to fix problems can be assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician. This means that the responsibility for resolving the issues can be given to a team of individuals in a resolution group or to a single technician. The choice of assignment depends on the nature of the problem and the available resources.

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  • 3. 

    Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • Automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes.

    • Function as a common interactive interface for other systems.

    • Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.

    • Provide status and inventory data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is designed to automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes, function as a common interactive interface for other systems, and provide status and inventory data. However, it does not have the function of rolling base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level. This means that it does not consolidate or transfer logistics data from lower-level units to the Air Force level.

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  • 4. 

    The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the

    • Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

    • Telecommunications Management System (TMS).

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

    • Automated Information System (AIS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). This is because the question asks for the online database program that is a part of a specific system, and AFEMS is the only option that fits this description. The other options, TMS, IMDS, and AIS, are not mentioned in relation to being an online database program.

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  • 5. 

    Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?

    • Weapons.

    • Support.

    • Telephone.

    • Communications.

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications.
    Explanation
    The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is specifically used to track and manage Air Force assets related to communications. This system helps in keeping a record of all communication equipment, such as radios, satellites, and other devices, ensuring their proper maintenance and availability for the Air Force's communication needs.

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  • 6. 

    The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?

    • Access database at Randolph Air Force Base (AFB).

    • Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

    • Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

    • Oracle database at Randolph AFB.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB. This means that the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes an Oracle database and it is located at Wright-Patterson AFB.

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  • 7. 

    Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?

    • Defense Courier Service.

    • Protected distribution system.

    • Communications security equipment.

    • Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Courier Service.
    Explanation
    The Defense Courier Service is not a means for secure telecommunications because it primarily focuses on physical delivery of classified materials rather than providing secure communication channels. The other options, such as the Protected Distribution System, Communications Security Equipment, and Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System, are all methods that ensure secure telecommunications by protecting data during transmission and detecting any unauthorized access or intrusion.

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  • 8. 

    In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?

    • Encrypted classified.

    • Encrypted unclassified.

    • Unencrypted classified.

    • Unencrypted unclassified.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unencrypted classified.
    Explanation
    The RED lines in the RED/BLACK concept carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that the information being transmitted through these lines is classified but not encrypted, making it potentially vulnerable to interception or unauthorized access.

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  • 9. 

    In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?

    • Encrypted classified or unclassified.

    • Encrypted classified only.

    • Unencrypted classified.

    • Unclassified only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Encrypted classified or unclassified.
    Explanation
    In the RED/BLACK concept, BLACK lines carry traffic that can be either encrypted classified or unclassified. This means that the BLACK lines can handle both types of traffic, providing secure communication for classified information as well as allowing unclassified information to pass through.

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  • 10. 

    What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?

    • Eliminate all instances of radiation of electrical impulses.

    • Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.

    • Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses.

    • Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. This program aims to prevent the unintentional electromagnetic radiation from electronic devices, which can potentially be intercepted and exploited by adversaries for eavesdropping or data theft purposes. By implementing TEMPEST standards, organizations can minimize the risk of compromising sensitive information through unintended electromagnetic emissions.

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  • 11. 

    What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?

    • Communications security.

    • Transmission security.

    • Emission security.

    • Computer security.

    Correct Answer
    A. Emission security.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Emission security." The Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force is referred to as emission security. This program focuses on preventing unintentional electromagnetic radiation from compromising classified information. It involves measures such as shielding, filtering, and grounding to minimize the risk of information leakage through electromagnetic emanations.

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  • 12. 

    Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?

    • Communications security.

    • Line route or visual.

    • Separation.

    • Electrical.

    Correct Answer
    A. Line route or visual.
    Explanation
    Protected distribution systems (PDS) require scheduled inspections to ensure the integrity and security of the communication lines. These inspections involve examining the line route or visually inspecting the system to identify any potential vulnerabilities, damages, or unauthorized access points. By regularly inspecting the line route or visually assessing the PDS, any issues can be promptly detected and addressed, ensuring the continued protection and reliability of the communication system.

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  • 13. 

    Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in which log?

    • Emission security (EMSEC).

    • Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST).

    • Inspection.

    • Protected Distribution Systems (PDS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Protected Distribution Systems (PDS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Protected Distribution Systems (PDS). This is because PDS events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in the log of the Protected Distribution Systems. The other options, Emission security (EMSEC), Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST), and Inspection, do not specifically mention the recording of PDS events.

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  • 14. 

    A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the

    • Total surface.

    • Visible area.

    • Concealed area.

    • Observable area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Total surface.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "total surface." In a line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS), a close visual inspection is conducted to assess the condition and integrity of the system. This inspection must cover the entire surface of the system, including both visible and concealed areas. By inspecting the total surface, any potential issues or damages can be identified and addressed, ensuring the proper functioning and safety of the PDS.

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  • 15. 

    What are the two different types of current used for power?

    • 100 v (volts) and 210 v.

    • 105 v and 215 v.

    • 110 v and 220 v.

    • 115 v and 225 v.

    Correct Answer
    A. 110 v and 220 v.
    Explanation
    The two different types of current used for power are 110 v and 220 v. These values represent the voltage of the electrical current, with 110 v being the standard voltage used in most residential buildings in the United States, and 220 v being the standard voltage used in many other countries. The higher voltage is typically used for larger appliances and equipment that require more power.

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  • 16. 

    Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?

    • Storage batteries.

    • Power wheel.

    • Flywheel.

    • Batteries.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flywheel.
    Explanation
    Flywheel UPS systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. These systems store energy in a rotating flywheel, which spins at a high speed and stores kinetic energy. When there is a power outage, the kinetic energy is converted back into electrical energy to provide uninterrupted power to the load. Flywheel UPS systems are preferred for larger loads due to their ability to provide high power output and longer backup times compared to other UPS systems like storage batteries.

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  • 17. 

    Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?

    • The office power requirements.

    • The amount of floor space available.

    • Future subscriber growth and reserve time required.

    • The number of alternating current converters in the office.

    Correct Answer
    A. The number of alternating current converters in the office.
    Explanation
    When selecting storage batteries for the central office, the number of alternating current converters in the office is not a consideration. The other options, such as office power requirements, amount of floor space available, and future subscriber growth and reserve time required, are important factors to consider when choosing storage batteries for the central office. The number of alternating current converters does not directly impact the selection of storage batteries.

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  • 18. 

    Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?

    • Diesel.

    • Gasoline.

    • Fossil fuel.

    • Liquid petroleum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fossil fuel.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is fossil fuel. Fossil fuels are a category of fuels that are derived from the remains of plants and animals that lived millions of years ago. They include coal, oil, and natural gas. Reciprocating generators, on the other hand, typically use diesel or gasoline as fuel to generate electricity. While diesel and gasoline are derived from fossil fuels, they are not considered fossil fuels themselves. Therefore, fossil fuel is the fuel that is not used for reciprocating generators.

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  • 19. 

    The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as

    • Configuration.

    • Configuration item.

    • Configuration control.

    • Configuration identification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration control.
    Explanation
    Configuration control refers to the process of reviewing and approving all approved changes in the configuration. It ensures that any modifications made to the configuration are properly evaluated and authorized before implementation. This helps in maintaining the integrity and stability of the configuration, ensuring that only authorized and tested changes are implemented. Configuration control is an essential part of configuration management, which involves the identification, documentation, and control of configuration items.

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  • 20. 

    Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?

    • Identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.

    • Record and report change processing and implementation status.

    • Control changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    All of the statements pertain to configuration management. Configuration management involves identifying and documenting the functional and physical characteristics of a configuration item (CI), recording and reporting change processing and implementation status, and controlling changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI. Therefore, all of the given statements are relevant to configuration management.

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  • 21. 

    Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account?

    • The user’s e-mail will be deleted from the Exchange server.

    • Restoring deleted e-mail requires proper justification.

    • The wrong account could be deleted.

    • Restoring deleted e-mail is difficult.

    Correct Answer
    A. The wrong account could be deleted.
    Explanation
    Extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account because the wrong account could be deleted. This means that if the deletion process is not done carefully, there is a risk of deleting the wrong account, which can lead to the loss of important emails and data. Therefore, it is important to exercise caution and double-check before proceeding with the deletion to avoid any irreversible mistakes.

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  • 22. 

    What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user’s domain account is deleted?

    • Changed.

    • Deleted.

    • Updated.

    • Reviewed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deleted.
    Explanation
    When a user's domain account is deleted, the associated email account is automatically deleted as well. This means that all emails, contacts, and other data within the email account will be permanently removed and cannot be accessed anymore. Deleting the domain account essentially removes all privileges and access rights, including the email account linked to it.

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  • 23. 

    What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?

    • Speed.

    • Storage.

    • Security.

    • Standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Speed.
    Explanation
    Symmetric cryptology offers the advantage of speed. In symmetric encryption, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, making the process faster compared to asymmetric encryption. With symmetric cryptology, data can be encrypted and decrypted quickly, making it suitable for applications that require fast processing, such as real-time communication and large-scale data transfers. Additionally, symmetric encryption algorithms are often simpler and require less computational power, further contributing to their speed advantage.

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  • 24. 

    Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

    • Symmetric.

    • Asymmetric.

    • Diametric.

    • None of the above, they are all the same.

    Correct Answer
    A. Asymmetric.
    Explanation
    Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because asymmetric encryption involves the use of two different keys for encryption and decryption, which requires more computational resources and time compared to symmetric encryption where only one key is used for both encryption and decryption.

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  • 25. 

    How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?

    • 64

    • 128

    • 192

    • 256

    Correct Answer
    A. 64
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 64. Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses a 64-bit key for encryption. The key length determines the strength of the encryption algorithm, and in the case of DES, it is considered relatively weak due to advancements in computing power. However, it was widely used in the past and served as a foundation for more secure encryption algorithms.

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  • 26. 

    Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

    • AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log.

    • AF Form 1119, Monthly Monetary Records.

    • AF Form 1019, Armament Recording Program Mission Data.

    • AF Form 1122, Personal Property and Personal Effects Inventory.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log.
    Explanation
    AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log, is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas. This form is specifically designed to track and document the entry and exit of visitors in restricted areas. It helps maintain security and accountability by providing a record of individuals who have accessed the restricted areas. The form includes fields for capturing visitor information such as name, organization, purpose of visit, and date/time of entry and exit. By using this form, authorities can easily monitor and control access to restricted areas, ensuring the safety and security of the premises.

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  • 27. 

    The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro is a packet encryption device for Internet Protocol (IP)

    • Version 4 and version 6.

    • Version 4 and version 5.

    • Version 5 only.

    • Version 4 only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Version 4 and version 6.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is version 4 and version 6. This means that the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE) - Micro is capable of encrypting packets for both Internet Protocol version 4 and version 6. This device can secure data transmitted over both IPv4 and IPv6 networks, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the information being transmitted.

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  • 28. 

    Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

    • Briefs users on the proper use of PWCS equipment.

    • Implements unit-level customer education program.

    • Turns in excess equipment over to the base PWCS manager.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager is responsible for completing all of the mentioned tasks. They brief users on the proper use of PWCS equipment, implement a unit-level customer education program, and turn in excess equipment to the base PWCS manager.

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  • 29. 

    What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets?

    • Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).

    • Tracking and Reporting System.

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System.

    • Core Automated Maintenance System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS). AIMS is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets. This system helps in tracking and managing the inventory of PWCS assets, ensuring accurate record-keeping and accountability. It provides a centralized platform for managing and reporting on these assets, allowing the Air Force to effectively monitor and maintain their inventory.

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  • 30. 

    What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems Security instructions (AFSSI), and Air Force manuals (AFMAN) do you use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS)?

    • AFI 17–210; AFI 11–101; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–118.

    • AFI 17–210; AFI 33–118; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–219.

    • AFI 17–210; AFI 33–219; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–201.

    • AFI 17–210; AFI 17–220; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 17–1302–O.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 17–210; AFI 17–220; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 17–1302–O.
  • 31. 

    Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device’s original intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?

    • Pager.

    • Land mobile radio (LMR).

    • Family radio service (FRS).

    • Personal digital assistant (PDA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Family radio service (FRS).
    Explanation
    The Family Radio Service (FRS) device was originally intended for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area. FRS devices are commonly used for recreational activities such as hiking, camping, or shopping, where a short-range communication is needed. Unlike other options listed, such as pager, land mobile radio (LMR), or personal digital assistant (PDA), FRS devices are specifically designed for personal wireless communication within a limited range.

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  • 32. 

    How many channels do the intra-squad radios operate on?

    • 11

    • 12

    • 13

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 14
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 14. This means that the intra-squad radios operate on 14 different channels. These channels allow for communication within the squad, ensuring that each member can stay connected and coordinate effectively. Having multiple channels also helps to prevent interference and maintain clear communication in various situations.

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  • 33. 

    What needs to be higher to improve the audio quality?

    • Bite rate.

    • Bit rate.

    • Samp rate.

    • Sample rate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bit rate.
    Explanation
    Bit rate refers to the number of bits that are processed or transmitted per unit of time. In the context of audio quality, a higher bit rate means that more data is being processed or transmitted, resulting in a higher quality audio signal. This is because a higher bit rate allows for more detailed and accurate representation of the audio waveform, capturing nuances and subtleties that may be lost at lower bit rates. Therefore, increasing the bit rate can help improve the audio quality.

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  • 34. 

    Each cell in a service area has what tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area?

    • Eastern.

    • Western.

    • Central.

    • Northern.

    Correct Answer
    A. Central.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Central. Each cell in a service area is equipped with a tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area. The term "central" refers to the location of these towers and transceiver assemblies in the service area.

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  • 35. 

    Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly?

    • Unit.

    • Installation spectrum manager (ISM).

    • Communications and Information Systems officer (CSO).

    • Base Personal Wireless Communications Systems (PWCS) manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit.
    Explanation
    The unit is usually responsible for their airtime charges and must budget accordingly. This means that each individual unit within an organization or military group is accountable for the expenses related to their airtime usage. They must plan and allocate their budget to cover these charges and ensure efficient use of resources.

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  • 36. 

    Cell sites are generally thought of as being a

    • Square.

    • Octagon.

    • Hexagon.

    • Pentagon.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hexagon.
    Explanation
    Cell sites are generally thought of as being in the shape of a hexagon. This is because cell towers are typically designed to cover a specific area with signal coverage, and a hexagon is the most efficient shape for this purpose. The hexagonal shape allows for equal distribution of signal strength and minimizes signal interference between neighboring cell sites. Additionally, the hexagon shape provides the most balanced coverage and allows for seamless handoffs between different cell towers as mobile devices move within the network.

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  • 37. 

    What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to digital signals?

    • Camera.

    • Coder-decoder (CODEC).

    • Network termination (NT) 1.

    • Central processing unit (CPU).

    Correct Answer
    A. Coder-decoder (CODEC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CODEC. In a video teleconferencing (VTC) system, the CODEC is responsible for converting analog signals, such as video and audio, into digital signals. This conversion allows the signals to be transmitted over digital networks and ensures that the quality of the signals is maintained during transmission. The CODEC also plays a crucial role in compressing and decompressing the digital signals, reducing the amount of data that needs to be transmitted and optimizing bandwidth usage.

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  • 38. 

    What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

    • Addresses.

    • Codes.

    • Labels.

    • Packets.

    Correct Answer
    A. Packets.
    Explanation
    When making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), voice messages are encoded into packets. VoIP breaks down the voice data into small packets and then transmits them over the internet. These packets contain the encoded voice data along with necessary information such as source and destination addresses. This packet-based approach allows for efficient transmission and delivery of voice messages over IP networks.

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  • 39. 

    What is a system of error control for data transmission, where the sender adds redundant data to its messages, allowing the receiver to detect and correct errors without the need to ask the sender for additional data?

    • Quality of service (QoS).

    • Real time protocol (RTP).

    • Forward error correction (FEC).

    • Real time control protocol (RTCP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Forward error correction (FEC).
    Explanation
    Forward error correction (FEC) is a system of error control for data transmission where the sender adds redundant data to its messages. This allows the receiver to detect and correct errors without the need to ask the sender for additional data. FEC is a proactive approach that helps in improving the reliability of data transmission by providing error correction capabilities at the receiver's end. It is commonly used in situations where retransmission of data is not feasible or efficient, such as in real-time communication or satellite transmission.

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  • 40. 

    Which commercial satellite communication system offers true pole-to-pole global coverage?

    • European Telecommunications Satellite Organization.

    • International Telecommunications Satellite Organization.

    • International Mobile Satellite Organization.

    • Iridium.

    Correct Answer
    A. Iridium.
    Explanation
    Iridium is the correct answer because it is a commercial satellite communication system that offers true pole-to-pole global coverage. The other options mentioned, such as the European Telecommunications Satellite Organization, the International Telecommunications Satellite Organization, and the International Mobile Satellite Organization, do not provide global coverage or have limitations in terms of coverage area. Iridium's network of satellites enables communication in even the most remote and polar regions of the world, making it the only system that offers true pole-to-pole coverage.

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  • 41. 

    Which does not fit the “Peaceful Purposes” clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system?

    • Military use, involving armed conflict.

    • Armed forces use, relating to the protection of the wounded.

    • United Nations (UN) peacekeeping use, acting under the auspices of the UN Security Council.

    • Armed forces use, protecting itself against armed attack within the limitations of UN charter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Military use, involving armed conflict.
    Explanation
    The International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system is primarily intended for peaceful purposes. While armed forces use, relating to the protection of the wounded, armed forces use protecting itself against armed attack within the limitations of the UN charter, and United Nations (UN) peacekeeping use, acting under the auspices of the UN Security Council, can all be considered as aligned with the "Peaceful Purposes" clause, military use involving armed conflict goes against the concept of peaceful purposes.

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  • 42. 

    What type of areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) coverage separated?

    • Geographical.

    • Continental.

    • Regional.

    • Ocean.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ocean.
    Explanation
    Inmarsat provides coverage for areas that are separated by oceans. This means that their satellite network is designed to provide communication services specifically for maritime users, ensuring connectivity in remote areas of the ocean where traditional terrestrial networks are not available.

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  • 43. 

    Which Inmarsat terminals have a land mobile terminal, typically has a one-meter flat array antenna, and weights 30 to 40 pounds?

    • B.

    • M.

    • Aero I.

    • Mini-M.

    Correct Answer
    A. B.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. The land mobile terminal with a one-meter flat array antenna and weighing 30 to 40 pounds is the Mini-M terminal.

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  • 44. 

    Which functions do client systems technicians perform regarding personal wireless communication systems?

    • Plan, schedule, and implement installations and maintenances.

    • Develop system timelines.

    • Implement fix actions.

    • Manage databases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Plan, schedule, and implement installations and maintenances.
    Explanation
    Client systems technicians are responsible for planning, scheduling, and implementing installations and maintenances of personal wireless communication systems. This includes tasks such as setting up new systems, upgrading existing systems, and performing routine maintenance to ensure optimal performance. They are not responsible for developing system timelines, implementing fix actions, or managing databases.

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  • 45. 

    What requirement must an Apprentice complete to be awarded Journeyman level?

    • All 7-skill level tasks.

    • Cyberspace Advancement Course.

    • Core tasks identified for client system craftsman.

    • Client System career development courses (CDC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Client System career development courses (CDC).
    Explanation
    To be awarded Journeyman level, an Apprentice must complete the Client System career development courses (CDC). This indicates that the Apprentice has undergone the necessary training and development in the field of client systems, which is a requirement for achieving the Journeyman level. The completion of these career development courses demonstrates the Apprentice's competence and readiness to progress to the next level of expertise.

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  • 46. 

    A non-wireless way to load software or interface hardware to a tablet is with the

    • Ethernet port.

    • Optical drive.

    • Network interface card (NIC).

    • Universal serial bus (USB) port.

    Correct Answer
    A. Universal serial bus (USB) port.
    Explanation
    A universal serial bus (USB) port is a non-wireless way to load software or interface hardware to a tablet. USB ports allow for the connection of various devices such as external hard drives, keyboards, and mice, making it possible to transfer files or install software onto the tablet. This port provides a reliable and efficient method of connecting and transferring data between the tablet and other devices.

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  • 47. 

    A personal computer (PC) is such a great tool because it

    • Is a single purpose processor.

    • Has a central processing unit.

    • Is a multi-purpose processor.

    • Has a hard drive.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is a multi-purpose processor.
    Explanation
    A personal computer (PC) is a great tool because it is a multi-purpose processor. Unlike single-purpose processors, which are designed for specific tasks, a PC can perform a wide range of functions due to its multi-purpose nature. This versatility allows users to use their PCs for various purposes such as word processing, internet browsing, gaming, and multimedia tasks. PCs are equipped with a central processing unit (CPU), which is responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations. Additionally, PCs typically have a hard drive for storing data and programs. However, the main reason why a PC is considered a great tool is its ability to serve multiple purposes efficiently.

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  • 48. 

    The primary interface for the hard drive that is now the most commonly used connector for hard drives is the

    • Motherboard.

    • Small computer system interface.

    • Integrated drive electronics controller.

    • Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA). SATA is the primary interface for hard drives that is now the most commonly used connector. It replaced the older IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) controller and provides faster data transfer rates and better performance. SATA is widely used in modern computers and is compatible with various types of hard drives, making it the preferred choice for connecting storage devices to the motherboard.

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  • 49. 

    Any hardware added to a computer that expands its capabilities is referred to as

    • A port.

    • A peripheral.

    • An interface.

    • An input/output (I/O) device.

    Correct Answer
    A. A peripheral.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a peripheral." A peripheral refers to any hardware device that is added to a computer to expand its capabilities. This can include devices such as printers, scanners, external hard drives, and keyboards. These peripherals connect to the computer through various interfaces, such as USB or Bluetooth, and allow the user to interact with the computer and perform tasks beyond its basic functions.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Mar 25, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Zach
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