3D151 Edit Code 2 Ure’s

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Zach
Z
Zach
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 98
| Attempts: 98 | Questions: 200
Please wait...
Question 1 / 200
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. What requirement must an Apprentice complete to be awarded Journeyman level?

Explanation

To be awarded Journeyman level, an Apprentice must complete the Client System career development courses (CDC). This indicates that the Apprentice has undergone the necessary training and development in the field of client systems, which is a requirement for achieving the Journeyman level. The completion of these career development courses demonstrates the Apprentice's competence and readiness to progress to the next level of expertise.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
3D151 Edit Code 2 Ure’s - Quiz

.

Tell us your name to personalize your report, certificate & get on the leaderboard!
2. What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?

Explanation

Symmetric cryptology offers the advantage of speed. In symmetric encryption, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, making the process faster compared to asymmetric encryption. With symmetric cryptology, data can be encrypted and decrypted quickly, making it suitable for applications that require fast processing, such as real-time communication and large-scale data transfers. Additionally, symmetric encryption algorithms are often simpler and require less computational power, further contributing to their speed advantage.

Submit
3. What is a system of error control for data transmission, where the sender adds redundant data to its messages, allowing the receiver to detect and correct errors without the need to ask the sender for additional data?

Explanation

Forward error correction (FEC) is a system of error control for data transmission where the sender adds redundant data to its messages. This allows the receiver to detect and correct errors without the need to ask the sender for additional data. FEC is a proactive approach that helps in improving the reliability of data transmission by providing error correction capabilities at the receiver's end. It is commonly used in situations where retransmission of data is not feasible or efficient, such as in real-time communication or satellite transmission.

Submit
4. In a cable Internet, as the distance increases, the speed of the overall transfer rate of data

Explanation

In a cable Internet connection, the speed of the overall transfer rate of data stays the same as the distance increases. This is because cable Internet uses coaxial cables to transmit data, which are designed to maintain a consistent signal strength over longer distances. Unlike other types of connections, such as DSL or fiber optic, cable Internet does not experience a significant decrease in speed as the distance between the user and the service provider increases. Therefore, the speed remains constant regardless of the distance.

Submit
5. What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?

Explanation

To create a new ticket, you must use the "Remedy user" tool. This tool is specifically designed for users to log and track their tickets or issues. It allows users to input necessary details, such as the problem description, priority level, and any relevant attachments. The Remedy user tool ensures that all necessary information is captured accurately and efficiently, facilitating effective ticket management and resolution.

Submit
6. Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

Explanation

Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because asymmetric encryption involves the use of two different keys for encryption and decryption, which requires more computational resources and time compared to symmetric encryption where only one key is used for both encryption and decryption.

Submit
7. Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?

Explanation

Protected distribution systems (PDS) require scheduled inspections to ensure the integrity and security of the communication lines. These inspections involve examining the line route or visually inspecting the system to identify any potential vulnerabilities, damages, or unauthorized access points. By regularly inspecting the line route or visually assessing the PDS, any issues can be promptly detected and addressed, ensuring the continued protection and reliability of the communication system.

Submit
8. Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is designed to automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes, function as a common interactive interface for other systems, and provide status and inventory data. However, it does not have the function of rolling base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level. This means that it does not consolidate or transfer logistics data from lower-level units to the Air Force level.

Submit
9. How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?

Explanation

The correct answer is 64. Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses a 64-bit key for encryption. The key length determines the strength of the encryption algorithm, and in the case of DES, it is considered relatively weak due to advancements in computing power. However, it was widely used in the past and served as a foundation for more secure encryption algorithms.

Submit
10. How many channels do the intra-squad radios operate on?

Explanation

The correct answer is 14. This means that the intra-squad radios operate on 14 different channels. These channels allow for communication within the squad, ensuring that each member can stay connected and coordinate effectively. Having multiple channels also helps to prevent interference and maintain clear communication in various situations.

Submit
11. The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). This is because the question asks for the online database program that is a part of a specific system, and AFEMS is the only option that fits this description. The other options, TMS, IMDS, and AIS, are not mentioned in relation to being an online database program.

Submit
12. Which is not a transmission medium for a wireless local area network?

Explanation

Fiber optics is not a transmission medium for a wireless local area network because it requires physical cables to transmit data. In a wireless local area network, data is transmitted through radio waves, microwaves, or light signals, without the need for physical cables.

Submit
13. What stores print jobs in a print queue until a printer becomes available?

Explanation

A print server is a device or software that manages print jobs sent from multiple computers to a printer. It stores these print jobs in a print queue until a printer becomes available. This allows for efficient printing by prioritizing and organizing the print jobs in the queue, ensuring that they are processed in the order they were received. A print pool refers to a group of printers that are available for printing, while a print farm refers to a large collection of printers. Distributive print is not a commonly used term in relation to print job storage.

Submit
14. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?

Explanation

The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is specifically used to track and manage Air Force assets related to communications. This system helps in keeping a record of all communication equipment, such as radios, satellites, and other devices, ensuring their proper maintenance and availability for the Air Force's communication needs.

Submit
15. Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?

Explanation

Flywheel UPS systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. These systems store energy in a rotating flywheel, which spins at a high speed and stores kinetic energy. When there is a power outage, the kinetic energy is converted back into electrical energy to provide uninterrupted power to the load. Flywheel UPS systems are preferred for larger loads due to their ability to provide high power output and longer backup times compared to other UPS systems like storage batteries.

Submit
16. What should you usually check before you begin in-depth troubleshooting on a network?

Explanation

Before beginning in-depth troubleshooting on a network, it is important to check for connectivity. This involves verifying that all devices are properly connected, cables are secure, and there are no physical issues causing a loss of network connection. By ensuring connectivity is established, it eliminates the possibility of a simple connection problem before diving into more complex troubleshooting steps related to software or protocols such as TCP/IP.

Submit
17. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro is a packet encryption device for Internet Protocol (IP)

Explanation

The correct answer is version 4 and version 6. This means that the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE) - Micro is capable of encrypting packets for both Internet Protocol version 4 and version 6. This device can secure data transmitted over both IPv4 and IPv6 networks, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the information being transmitted.

Submit
18. With a software license agreement, who has the full rights to the software and its further distribution and reproduction?

Explanation

The publisher has the full rights to the software and its further distribution and reproduction. A software license agreement typically grants the buyer a license to use the software, but the ownership and rights remain with the publisher. The buyer is restricted by the terms of the license agreement and cannot distribute or reproduce the software without the publisher's permission. The United States Air Force (USAF) and the United States government may have certain rights and licenses for specific software, but in general, the publisher retains the full rights.

Submit
19. Any hardware added to a computer that expands its capabilities is referred to as

Explanation

The correct answer is "a peripheral." A peripheral refers to any hardware device that is added to a computer to expand its capabilities. This can include devices such as printers, scanners, external hard drives, and keyboards. These peripherals connect to the computer through various interfaces, such as USB or Bluetooth, and allow the user to interact with the computer and perform tasks beyond its basic functions.

Submit
20. In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?

Explanation

In Remedy, tickets to fix problems can be assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician. This means that the responsibility for resolving the issues can be given to a team of individuals in a resolution group or to a single technician. The choice of assignment depends on the nature of the problem and the available resources.

Submit
21. Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in which log?

Explanation

The correct answer is Protected Distribution Systems (PDS). This is because PDS events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in the log of the Protected Distribution Systems. The other options, Emission security (EMSEC), Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST), and Inspection, do not specifically mention the recording of PDS events.

Submit
22. What operating system (OS) task ensures each process and application receives time to function and is used for real work as often as possible?

Explanation

Processor management is the correct answer because it is responsible for allocating the CPU's resources to different processes and applications. It ensures that each process and application receives time to function and is used for real work as often as possible. This involves scheduling tasks, prioritizing processes, and managing the CPU's utilization efficiently. Memory management, device management, and application program interface (API) are all important tasks in an operating system, but they do not specifically address the allocation of CPU resources to processes and applications.

Submit
23. What is an essential tool for any client systems technician (CST) to find software approved for use on an Air Force (AF) network?

Explanation

The Evaluated/Approved Product List (E/APL) is an essential tool for any client systems technician (CST) to find software approved for use on an Air Force (AF) network. This list ensures that the software has been evaluated and approved for use, meeting the necessary security and compatibility requirements. It helps the CST in selecting software that is authorized and trusted by the Air Force, minimizing the risk of using unauthorized or potentially harmful software on the network.

Submit
24. What needs to be higher to improve the audio quality?

Explanation

Bit rate refers to the number of bits that are processed or transmitted per unit of time. In the context of audio quality, a higher bit rate means that more data is being processed or transmitted, resulting in a higher quality audio signal. This is because a higher bit rate allows for more detailed and accurate representation of the audio waveform, capturing nuances and subtleties that may be lost at lower bit rates. Therefore, increasing the bit rate can help improve the audio quality.

Submit
25. A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the

Explanation

The correct answer is "total surface." In a line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS), a close visual inspection is conducted to assess the condition and integrity of the system. This inspection must cover the entire surface of the system, including both visible and concealed areas. By inspecting the total surface, any potential issues or damages can be identified and addressed, ensuring the proper functioning and safety of the PDS.

Submit
26. A non-wireless way to load software or interface hardware to a tablet is with the

Explanation

A universal serial bus (USB) port is a non-wireless way to load software or interface hardware to a tablet. USB ports allow for the connection of various devices such as external hard drives, keyboards, and mice, making it possible to transfer files or install software onto the tablet. This port provides a reliable and efficient method of connecting and transferring data between the tablet and other devices.

Submit
27. A personal computer (PC) is such a great tool because it

Explanation

A personal computer (PC) is a great tool because it is a multi-purpose processor. Unlike single-purpose processors, which are designed for specific tasks, a PC can perform a wide range of functions due to its multi-purpose nature. This versatility allows users to use their PCs for various purposes such as word processing, internet browsing, gaming, and multimedia tasks. PCs are equipped with a central processing unit (CPU), which is responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations. Additionally, PCs typically have a hard drive for storing data and programs. However, the main reason why a PC is considered a great tool is its ability to serve multiple purposes efficiently.

Submit
28. What form of remote network access is often the only choice for rural or remote areas?

Explanation

Dial-up is often the only choice for rural or remote areas because it uses existing telephone lines to establish a connection. In these areas, infrastructure for other forms of remote network access like wireless or broadband may be limited or unavailable. Dial-up allows users to connect to the internet by dialing a phone number using a modem, making it a suitable option for areas with limited connectivity options.

Submit
29. Which hardware requirement is defined as the model and the clock speed of central processing units (CPU)?

Explanation

The hardware requirement defined as the model and the clock speed of central processing units (CPU) is referred to as processing power. The processing power of a CPU is determined by its model, which represents its capabilities and features, and its clock speed, which measures the number of cycles the CPU can execute per second. This determines how fast and efficiently the CPU can process instructions and perform tasks.

Submit
30. Which commercial satellite communication system offers true pole-to-pole global coverage?

Explanation

Iridium is the correct answer because it is a commercial satellite communication system that offers true pole-to-pole global coverage. The other options mentioned, such as the European Telecommunications Satellite Organization, the International Telecommunications Satellite Organization, and the International Mobile Satellite Organization, do not provide global coverage or have limitations in terms of coverage area. Iridium's network of satellites enables communication in even the most remote and polar regions of the world, making it the only system that offers true pole-to-pole coverage.

Submit
31. The specifications that should be met, if not exceeded, to ensure a computer is compatible as well as powerful enough to run an operating system (OS) without constant problems is for the computer to have the minimum

Explanation

To ensure a computer is compatible and powerful enough to run an operating system without constant problems, it is essential to have the appropriate hardware. The hardware components of a computer, such as the processor, memory, storage, and graphics card, determine its performance and capability to handle the demands of an operating system. Without adequate hardware, the computer may struggle to run the OS smoothly, leading to constant problems like crashes, freezes, and slow performance. Therefore, having the right hardware specifications is crucial for a compatible and powerful computer.

Submit
32. Each cell in a service area has what tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area?

Explanation

The correct answer is Central. Each cell in a service area is equipped with a tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area. The term "central" refers to the location of these towers and transceiver assemblies in the service area.

Submit
33. Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly?

Explanation

The unit is usually responsible for their airtime charges and must budget accordingly. This means that each individual unit within an organization or military group is accountable for the expenses related to their airtime usage. They must plan and allocate their budget to cover these charges and ensure efficient use of resources.

Submit
34. What command-line tool displays Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) protocol statistics and active connections to and from the computer?

Explanation

The correct answer is Network Statistics (NETSTAT). NETSTAT is a command-line tool that displays TCP/IP protocol statistics and active connections to and from the computer. It provides information about the current network connections, including the local and remote IP addresses, the protocol being used, and the state of the connection. NETSTAT is commonly used for troubleshooting network issues, monitoring network activity, and identifying unauthorized connections.

Submit
35. Cell sites are generally thought of as being a

Explanation

Cell sites are generally thought of as being in the shape of a hexagon. This is because cell towers are typically designed to cover a specific area with signal coverage, and a hexagon is the most efficient shape for this purpose. The hexagonal shape allows for equal distribution of signal strength and minimizes signal interference between neighboring cell sites. Additionally, the hexagon shape provides the most balanced coverage and allows for seamless handoffs between different cell towers as mobile devices move within the network.

Submit
36. What process in troubleshooting will help organize thoughts, prevent repeated steps from happening, and provide the basis for preparing service records?

Explanation

Documentation is the correct answer because it involves recording all the steps taken during the troubleshooting process. By documenting the steps, it helps organize thoughts and prevents repeated steps from happening in the future. Additionally, documentation provides the basis for preparing service records, which can be used for reference or to communicate the troubleshooting process to others.

Submit
37. What tool can launch individual troubleshooting/configuration programs and other utilities having to do with networking, video display, printers, sound, and electronic mail (e-mail) configuration on an operating system (OS)?

Explanation

The control panel is a tool that allows users to access various troubleshooting and configuration programs on an operating system. It provides easy access to networking, video display, printers, sound, and email configuration settings. Users can make adjustments and troubleshoot any issues related to these areas using the control panel. The event viewer is used to view and analyze system events and logs, while the device manager is used to manage hardware devices. Disk management is used to manage storage devices and partitions.

Submit
38. Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?

Explanation

When selecting storage batteries for the central office, the number of alternating current converters in the office is not a consideration. The other options, such as office power requirements, amount of floor space available, and future subscriber growth and reserve time required, are important factors to consider when choosing storage batteries for the central office. The number of alternating current converters does not directly impact the selection of storage batteries.

Submit
39. The primary interface for the hard drive that is now the most commonly used connector for hard drives is the

Explanation

The correct answer is Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA). SATA is the primary interface for hard drives that is now the most commonly used connector. It replaced the older IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) controller and provides faster data transfer rates and better performance. SATA is widely used in modern computers and is compatible with various types of hard drives, making it the preferred choice for connecting storage devices to the motherboard.

Submit
40. Which Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) standard for wireless fidelity (Wi-Fi) has a good range, penetration, and the highest data rate?

Explanation

802.11ac is the correct answer because it is an IEEE standard for Wi-Fi that offers a good range, penetration, and the highest data rate. This standard operates on the 5 GHz frequency band and uses advanced technologies such as multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) and beamforming to improve performance. It can achieve data rates of up to 1.3 Gbps, making it ideal for high-bandwidth applications such as streaming HD videos and online gaming.

Submit
41. What is one of the best habits a client systems technician (CST) can form in order to save time, effort and prevent mistakes?

Explanation

Getting organized is one of the best habits a client systems technician (CST) can form in order to save time, effort, and prevent mistakes. By having a systematic approach and keeping track of tasks, appointments, and important information, the CST can work efficiently and effectively. Being organized also helps in prioritizing tasks, finding necessary resources quickly, and reducing the chances of overlooking important details or making errors. Overall, being organized allows the CST to streamline their workflow, improve productivity, and deliver high-quality service to clients.

Submit
42. What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to digital signals?

Explanation

The correct answer is CODEC. In a video teleconferencing (VTC) system, the CODEC is responsible for converting analog signals, such as video and audio, into digital signals. This conversion allows the signals to be transmitted over digital networks and ensures that the quality of the signals is maintained during transmission. The CODEC also plays a crucial role in compressing and decompressing the digital signals, reducing the amount of data that needs to be transmitted and optimizing bandwidth usage.

Submit
43. Which alarm category in the network monitor system (NMS) indicates a warning?

Explanation

In the network monitor system (NMS), the alarm category that indicates a warning is Cyan. This is because cyan is typically associated with a cautionary or advisory status, indicating a potential issue or concern that requires attention. Red is commonly used to indicate critical or severe problems, blue may represent informational or normal status, and orange is often used for alerts or notifications. Therefore, cyan is the most appropriate choice for a warning category in the NMS.

Submit
44. Transferring eight bits of data simultaneously through eight separate lines in a single cable is a function of what kind of port?

Explanation

Transferring eight bits of data simultaneously through eight separate lines in a single cable indicates a parallel port. In a parallel port, multiple bits of data are transmitted simultaneously through separate lines, allowing for faster data transfer compared to serial ports where data is transmitted one bit at a time. Therefore, the correct answer is parallel.

Submit
45. What network troubleshooting tool can dramatically reduce the number of alarms displayed on the network monitor system (NMS) alarm browser?

Explanation

An event correlation system is a network troubleshooting tool that can significantly reduce the number of alarms displayed on the network monitor system (NMS) alarm browser. This system helps in identifying and grouping related events or alarms, eliminating duplicate or insignificant alarms, and providing a more concise and meaningful view of the network's status. By correlating events, it helps in identifying the root cause of issues and reduces the number of unnecessary alarms, making it an effective tool for troubleshooting and managing network operations.

Submit
46. What drives faster processing speeds and increases the power of many computers and communication devices?

Explanation

Nanotechnology is the correct answer because it involves the manipulation and control of matter at the nanoscale level, which allows for the development of smaller and more efficient components. This technology enables faster processing speeds and increases the power of computers and communication devices by enhancing their performance and reducing their size. Nanotechnology has revolutionized various industries, including electronics, medicine, and energy, by providing innovative solutions and advancements in materials, devices, and systems.

Submit
47. The most common hardware diagnostic tool is the

Explanation

A loopback plug is a hardware diagnostic tool that is commonly used to test the functionality of computer ports, such as serial or Ethernet ports. It is a small device that plugs into the port and creates a loopback circuit, allowing the computer to send and receive signals to itself. By doing so, it helps in determining if the port is working properly. The BIOS card, on the other hand, is a firmware that initializes the hardware components of a computer during the boot process. While it can provide some diagnostic information, it is not specifically designed for hardware diagnostics like the loopback plug.

Submit
48. Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?

Explanation

The correct answer is fossil fuel. Fossil fuels are a category of fuels that are derived from the remains of plants and animals that lived millions of years ago. They include coal, oil, and natural gas. Reciprocating generators, on the other hand, typically use diesel or gasoline as fuel to generate electricity. While diesel and gasoline are derived from fossil fuels, they are not considered fossil fuels themselves. Therefore, fossil fuel is the fuel that is not used for reciprocating generators.

Submit
49. Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

Explanation

AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log, is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas. This form is specifically designed to track and document the entry and exit of visitors in restricted areas. It helps maintain security and accountability by providing a record of individuals who have accessed the restricted areas. The form includes fields for capturing visitor information such as name, organization, purpose of visit, and date/time of entry and exit. By using this form, authorities can easily monitor and control access to restricted areas, ensuring the safety and security of the premises.

Submit
50. Which does not fit the "Peaceful Purposes" clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system?

Explanation

The International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system is primarily intended for peaceful purposes. While armed forces use, relating to the protection of the wounded, armed forces use protecting itself against armed attack within the limitations of the UN charter, and United Nations (UN) peacekeeping use, acting under the auspices of the UN Security Council, can all be considered as aligned with the "Peaceful Purposes" clause, military use involving armed conflict goes against the concept of peaceful purposes.

Submit
51. What type of areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) coverage separated?

Explanation

Inmarsat provides coverage for areas that are separated by oceans. This means that their satellite network is designed to provide communication services specifically for maritime users, ensuring connectivity in remote areas of the ocean where traditional terrestrial networks are not available.

Submit
52. Which protocol provides an almost unlimited number of Internet Protocol addresses?

Explanation

IPv6 provides an almost unlimited number of Internet Protocol addresses compared to IPv4. IPv4 uses a 32-bit address format, allowing for approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses. In contrast, IPv6 uses a 128-bit address format, which allows for approximately 340 undecillion unique addresses. This vast increase in address space ensures that there will be enough IP addresses to accommodate the growing number of devices and users on the internet.

Submit
53. What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

Explanation

When making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), voice messages are encoded into packets. VoIP breaks down the voice data into small packets and then transmits them over the internet. These packets contain the encoded voice data along with necessary information such as source and destination addresses. This packet-based approach allows for efficient transmission and delivery of voice messages over IP networks.

Submit
54. What are the two different types of current used for power?

Explanation

The two different types of current used for power are 110 v and 220 v. These values represent the voltage of the electrical current, with 110 v being the standard voltage used in most residential buildings in the United States, and 220 v being the standard voltage used in many other countries. The higher voltage is typically used for larger appliances and equipment that require more power.

Submit
55. What describes how computers find a specific byte it is looking for in memory?

Explanation

Memory addressing is the process by which computers locate a specific byte in memory. It involves assigning unique addresses to each byte in memory, allowing the computer to access and retrieve the desired information. This is essential for efficient data retrieval and manipulation within a computer system. Processing refers to the execution of tasks by the computer's central processing unit (CPU), while programming involves writing instructions for the computer to follow. Memory segmenting refers to dividing memory into segments for organization and management purposes.

Submit
56. Which Inmarsat terminals have a land mobile terminal, typically has a one-meter flat array antenna, and weights 30 to 40 pounds?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. The land mobile terminal with a one-meter flat array antenna and weighing 30 to 40 pounds is the Mini-M terminal.

Submit
57. A formatted disk partition that is used for a particular file system is called

Explanation

A formatted disk partition that is used for a particular file system is called a volume. A volume is a logical storage unit that can be assigned a drive letter and is typically used to organize and store files. It can be formatted with a specific file system such as NTFS or FAT32, allowing the operating system to manage and access the files stored on the volume.

Submit
58. Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

Explanation

The unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager is responsible for completing all of the mentioned tasks. They brief users on the proper use of PWCS equipment, implement a unit-level customer education program, and turn in excess equipment to the base PWCS manager.

Submit
59. The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as

Explanation

Configuration control refers to the process of reviewing and approving all approved changes in the configuration. It ensures that any modifications made to the configuration are properly evaluated and authorized before implementation. This helps in maintaining the integrity and stability of the configuration, ensuring that only authorized and tested changes are implemented. Configuration control is an essential part of configuration management, which involves the identification, documentation, and control of configuration items.

Submit
60. Which functions do client systems technicians perform regarding personal wireless communication systems?

Explanation

Client systems technicians are responsible for planning, scheduling, and implementing installations and maintenances of personal wireless communication systems. This includes tasks such as setting up new systems, upgrading existing systems, and performing routine maintenance to ensure optimal performance. They are not responsible for developing system timelines, implementing fix actions, or managing databases.

Submit
61. Which item is not an optical storage media?

Explanation

The core optical disk is not an optical storage media because it does not use lasers to read and write data. Instead, it uses a magnetic field to store and retrieve information. Optical storage media, such as CD-ROMs, erasable optical disks, and WORM optical disks, rely on lasers to read and write data onto their surfaces.

Submit
62. How many bits long are the addresses that computer instructions work with?

Explanation

Computer instructions work with addresses that are 16 bits long. In computer architecture, an address is used to specify the location of data or instructions in the memory. The number of bits in an address determines the maximum number of unique memory locations that can be accessed. With a 16-bit address, a computer can access up to 65,536 different memory locations. This allows for a large amount of memory to be addressed, which is essential for running complex programs and storing large amounts of data.

Submit
63. What hardware quick test should only be used to localize problems?

Explanation

The hardware quick test that should only be used to localize problems is "Touch." This means physically examining the hardware by touching it to identify any issues or abnormalities. This method allows for a direct assessment of the hardware's physical condition and can help pinpoint the source of the problem. Smell and visual tests may also provide some information, but they are not as effective in localizing problems as the tactile examination provided by touch. Connections, on the other hand, refer to the process of checking and ensuring all hardware components are properly connected, which is a separate step from localizing specific problems.

Submit
64. Which file system is the best choice for data storage if the computer is a 32-bit Windows System?

Explanation

The best choice for data storage on a 32-bit Windows System is the New Technology File System (NTFS). NTFS is a modern file system that offers advanced features such as file compression, encryption, and improved security. It supports larger file sizes and has better performance compared to the File Allocation Table System (FAT). Therefore, NTFS is the recommended file system for data storage on a 32-bit Windows System.

Submit
65. Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?

Explanation

All of the statements pertain to configuration management. Configuration management involves identifying and documenting the functional and physical characteristics of a configuration item (CI), recording and reporting change processing and implementation status, and controlling changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI. Therefore, all of the given statements are relevant to configuration management.

Submit
66. The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?

Explanation

The correct answer is Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB. This means that the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes an Oracle database and it is located at Wright-Patterson AFB.

Submit
67. What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets?

Explanation

The correct answer is Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS). AIMS is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets. This system helps in tracking and managing the inventory of PWCS assets, ensuring accurate record-keeping and accountability. It provides a centralized platform for managing and reporting on these assets, allowing the Air Force to effectively monitor and maintain their inventory.

Submit
68. What provides the logical network map?

Explanation

The correct answer is System Management Automated Report Tracking System (SMARTS). SMARTS provides the logical network map by automatically tracking and reporting on the status and performance of network devices and connections. It helps in identifying and resolving network issues by providing a visual representation of the network topology and its components. SMARTS is a comprehensive system management tool that offers network analysis, detection, and tracking capabilities, making it the most suitable option for providing a logical network map.

Submit
69. Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?

Explanation

The Defense Courier Service is not a means for secure telecommunications because it primarily focuses on physical delivery of classified materials rather than providing secure communication channels. The other options, such as the Protected Distribution System, Communications Security Equipment, and Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System, are all methods that ensure secure telecommunications by protecting data during transmission and detecting any unauthorized access or intrusion.

Submit
70. Which network troubleshooting step includes automatically polling network devices?

Explanation

The network troubleshooting step that includes automatically polling network devices is gathering the facts. This involves collecting information about the network devices, such as their current status, configurations, and performance metrics, by using automated tools or software. By gathering these facts, network administrators can obtain a comprehensive understanding of the network infrastructure, which is crucial for identifying and resolving any issues or problems that may arise.

Submit
71. In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?

Explanation

The RED lines in the RED/BLACK concept carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that the information being transmitted through these lines is classified but not encrypted, making it potentially vulnerable to interception or unauthorized access.

Submit
72. This type of random access memory (RAM) transfers sixteen times as much data per each clock cycle.

Explanation

DDR4 SDRAM is the correct answer because it transfers sixteen times as much data per each clock cycle compared to other types of RAM mentioned. This means that DDR4 SDRAM has a higher data transfer rate, allowing for faster and more efficient performance in terms of accessing and storing data.

Submit
73. In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?

Explanation

In the RED/BLACK concept, BLACK lines carry traffic that can be either encrypted classified or unclassified. This means that the BLACK lines can handle both types of traffic, providing secure communication for classified information as well as allowing unclassified information to pass through.

Submit
74. Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as

Explanation

Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as polling. This involves the client program regularly checking the device for any updates or changes in its status. This method allows the program to actively gather information from the device, ensuring that it is always up to date with the device's current state. Signaling refers to the process of notifying or alerting a program or process about an event or condition. Processing refers to the execution of tasks or operations by a program. Multitasking refers to the ability of a system to run multiple tasks simultaneously.

Submit
75. What does Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity) use to carry network signals to the network access point?

Explanation

Wi-Fi, short for wireless fidelity, uses radio waves to carry network signals to the network access point. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves that can transmit data wirelessly through the air. This allows devices to connect to the internet without the need for physical cables. Wi-Fi technology utilizes radio frequency bands to transmit and receive data, providing wireless connectivity for various devices such as smartphones, laptops, and smart home devices.

Submit
76. Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account?

Explanation

Extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account because the wrong account could be deleted. This means that if the deletion process is not done carefully, there is a risk of deleting the wrong account, which can lead to the loss of important emails and data. Therefore, it is important to exercise caution and double-check before proceeding with the deletion to avoid any irreversible mistakes.

Submit
77. What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user's domain account is deleted?

Explanation

When a user's domain account is deleted, the associated email account is automatically deleted as well. This means that all emails, contacts, and other data within the email account will be permanently removed and cannot be accessed anymore. Deleting the domain account essentially removes all privileges and access rights, including the email account linked to it.

Submit
78. What is installed on a computer to act as the interface between the computer and network?

Explanation

A network interface card (NIC) is installed on a computer to act as the interface between the computer and the network. It allows the computer to connect to a network and communicate with other devices on that network. The NIC is responsible for transmitting and receiving data packets between the computer and the network, enabling the computer to access resources, such as files and printers, on the network.

Submit
79. What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems Security instructions (AFSSI), and Air Force manuals (AFMAN) do you use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
80. What term refers to the process of launching an operating system (OS)?

Explanation

The term "boot" refers to the process of launching an operating system (OS). This process involves the computer's firmware (BIOS or UEFI) initializing the hardware components, loading the OS into memory, and starting its execution. The boot process is essential for the computer to become operational and for the user to interact with the OS and run applications. RAM, BIOS, and CMOS are all components involved in the boot process, but "boot" specifically refers to the overall process of starting the OS.

Submit
81. What technology involves the capture and storage of a distinctive, measurable characteristic, feature, or trait of an individual for later recognition by automated means?

Explanation

Biometrics refers to the technology that captures and stores unique characteristics of an individual, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial features, for later recognition by automated systems. This technology is widely used in various applications, including security systems, access control, and identification verification. Microtechnology and nanotechnology do not specifically relate to the capture and storage of individual characteristics, while protocols are sets of rules for communication between devices or systems.

Submit
82. What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. This program aims to prevent the unintentional electromagnetic radiation from electronic devices, which can potentially be intercepted and exploited by adversaries for eavesdropping or data theft purposes. By implementing TEMPEST standards, organizations can minimize the risk of compromising sensitive information through unintended electromagnetic emissions.

Submit
83. Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device's original intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?

Explanation

The Family Radio Service (FRS) device was originally intended for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area. FRS devices are commonly used for recreational activities such as hiking, camping, or shopping, where a short-range communication is needed. Unlike other options listed, such as pager, land mobile radio (LMR), or personal digital assistant (PDA), FRS devices are specifically designed for personal wireless communication within a limited range.

Submit
84. Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

Explanation

Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data remains whole and complete, without any unauthorized modifications or corruption. Therefore, data integrity is the term that best describes the concept of data being whole or complete.

Submit
85. What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Emission security." The Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force is referred to as emission security. This program focuses on preventing unintentional electromagnetic radiation from compromising classified information. It involves measures such as shielding, filtering, and grounding to minimize the risk of information leakage through electromagnetic emanations.

Submit
86. What is the unique identification number a network interface card (NIC) provides to a personal computer (PC)?

Explanation

A network interface card (NIC) provides a unique identification number to a personal computer (PC) known as the Media Access Control (MAC) address. This address is assigned by the manufacturer and is used to identify the NIC on a network. It consists of six pairs of hexadecimal digits and is essential for communication between devices on a network. The MAC address is unique to each NIC and cannot be changed.

Submit
87. How many principles govern all actions associated with risk management?

Explanation

The correct answer is four because risk management is guided by four key principles: identification, assessment, control, and monitoring. These principles help organizations effectively manage and mitigate risks by first identifying potential risks, then assessing their potential impact, implementing controls to minimize or eliminate the risks, and finally monitoring the effectiveness of these controls. By following these four principles, organizations can ensure a systematic and comprehensive approach to risk management.

Submit
88. Which encryption handles data that can come from equipment such as computers?

Explanation

Wideband encryption is designed to handle data that can come from various sources, including equipment such as computers. It is a type of encryption that can handle a wide range of frequencies and bandwidths, making it suitable for transmitting data from different devices and systems. Wideband encryption ensures that the data is securely encrypted regardless of the source it originates from, making it the correct choice for handling data from equipment such as computers.

Submit
89. What does the Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC) recommend for most military wireless network applications?

Explanation

The Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC) recommends satellite for most military wireless network applications. Satellite communication offers several advantages for military operations, including wide coverage, high bandwidth, and resilience against physical infrastructure damage. It allows for reliable and secure communication across large distances, making it suitable for military applications that require connectivity in remote and challenging environments. Additionally, satellite networks provide the flexibility to support various types of data transmission, such as voice, video, and data, which are essential for military operations.

Submit
90. Which operating system (OS) tool will provide a listing of hardware and software failures or warnings?

Explanation

The Event Viewer is an operating system tool that provides a listing of hardware and software failures or warnings. It allows users to view and analyze system events, such as errors, warnings, and information messages, which can help diagnose and troubleshoot issues on a computer. Control Panel, Device Manager, and Network Connections do not specifically provide this functionality, making Event Viewer the correct answer.

Submit
91. Which patch will prevent exploitation and remove or mitigate a threat's capability to exploit a specific vulnerability in an asset, and is the primary method of fixing vulnerabilities in software?

Explanation

The correct answer is Security. Security patches are updates or fixes that are released by software vendors to address vulnerabilities or weaknesses in their software. These patches help prevent exploitation of these vulnerabilities and remove or mitigate the threat's capability to exploit them. Therefore, security patches are the primary method of fixing vulnerabilities in software and enhancing the overall security of the system.

Submit
92. What components are used in both encryption and decryption?

Explanation

In both encryption and decryption processes, an algorithm is used to transform the data into a secure form and a key is required to unlock or decode the encrypted data. The algorithm determines how the data is manipulated and the key is used to ensure that only authorized individuals can access the decrypted data. Therefore, both algorithm and key are essential components in both encryption and decryption.

Submit
93. What area is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control where unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?

Explanation

A controlled access area (CAA) is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control. In this area, unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This ensures that only authorized individuals can enter and move freely within the area, enhancing security and preventing unauthorized access. Restricted access areas (RAA), limited control areas (LCA), and uncontrolled access areas (UAA) do not have the same level of security measures in place as a controlled access area.

Submit
94. What function enables the higher layer protocol data units (PDU) to fit into the lower layer PDU for transmission across the network?

Explanation

Fragmentation is the process of breaking up larger data units into smaller ones to fit into the lower layer protocol data units (PDU) for transmission across the network. This is necessary when the size of the higher layer PDU exceeds the maximum size allowed by the lower layer PDU. By fragmenting the data, it can be transmitted successfully across the network without any loss or errors. Frame relays, round trip delay, and asynchronous transfer mode are not directly related to the process of fitting higher layer PDUs into lower layer PDUs.

Submit
95. Which port on the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine?

Explanation

The correct answer is RS-232. RS-232 is a standard communication protocol that is commonly used for serial communication between devices. It is often used for connecting devices such as modems, printers, and fax machines to computers. RS-232 ports are commonly found on office equipment, including Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), and can be used to connect a fax machine. USB, EIA 530, and Firewire are not typically used for connecting fax machines.

Submit
96. Which is not a way in which round trip delay can be determined?

Explanation

Round trip delay refers to the time it takes for a signal to travel from the source to the destination and back. It can be determined by measuring the maximum delay, minimum delay, average delay, or total delay. However, the maximum delay is not a valid way to determine round trip delay because it only provides the longest delay experienced during the communication process, which may not accurately represent the overall delay. Therefore, the maximum delay is not a suitable method for determining round trip delay.

Submit
97. What is the maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–E100?

Explanation

The maximum throughput in Mbps for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–E100 is 165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex. This means that when the device is operating in full-duplex mode, it can transmit and receive data simultaneously at a maximum speed of 165 Mbps. In half-duplex mode, the device can only transmit or receive data at a time, resulting in a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.

Submit
98. What software category includes programs that do real work for users?

Explanation

The correct answer is Application. Applications are software programs that perform specific tasks or functions for users. They are designed to be user-friendly and provide practical solutions for various purposes such as productivity, communication, entertainment, and more. Unlike system software that manages and controls computer hardware, applications are focused on delivering functionality and value to users, allowing them to accomplish real work and tasks efficiently.

Submit
99. What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal and responds to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals?

Explanation

A phase-locked loop (PLL) is a control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal. It not only responds to the frequency of the input signals but also the phase. This makes it an ideal choice for applications where precise synchronization and tracking of signals are required, such as in communication systems, audio and video processing, and frequency synthesis. The other options, forward error correction (FEC), remote control protocol (RCP), and quality of service (QoS), do not specifically address the generation of a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal.

Submit
100. Which of these is not an occurrence during a system cold boot?

Explanation

During a system cold boot, various processes occur to initialize the computer. The power supply fan turns on to provide cooling, and an audible beep is heard as a confirmation of successful booting. The hard disk drive access light should come on, indicating that the computer is accessing the hard drive. However, the hard disk test is not visible on the monitor during a cold boot. This test typically occurs during the Power-On Self Test (POST) phase, which happens before the monitor is activated.

Submit
101. How fast you sample the audio to get your digital signal is called

Explanation

The given question is asking about the term used to describe the speed at which audio is sampled to create a digital signal. The correct answer is "bit rate." Bit rate refers to the number of bits (binary digits) that are processed per unit of time. It indicates the amount of data that is transmitted or processed in a given time period. Therefore, bit rate is the appropriate term to describe the speed at which audio is sampled to create a digital signal.

Submit
102. Which is not a type of computer user interface?

Explanation

The term "application driven" does not refer to a type of computer user interface. The other options mentioned in the question, namely command driven, graphical user, and menu driven, are all recognized types of computer user interfaces. A command-driven interface requires users to enter specific commands to perform tasks, a graphical user interface uses visual elements such as icons and windows to interact with the computer, and a menu-driven interface presents users with a list of options to choose from. However, "application driven" does not describe a distinct type of user interface.

Submit
103. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro may be equipped to handle all types of networks except

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro is a tactical local area network encryption device that is capable of handling various types of networks, such as asynchronous transfer mode (ATM), gigabit Ethernet, and fast Ethernet. However, it is not equipped to handle wireless networks. This means that it cannot provide encryption and security for wireless communication, making it incompatible with wireless network technologies.

Submit
104. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can acquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro can acquire an IP address by DHCP on either the ciphertext or plaintext side. DHCP is a network protocol that allows devices to automatically obtain IP addresses from a DHCP server. In this case, the TACLANE-Micro can acquire an IP address on either side, meaning it can obtain an IP address while the data is still encrypted (ciphertext) or after it has been decrypted (plaintext).

Submit
105. Which is not considered a utility application?

Explanation

A spreadsheet is not considered a utility application because it is primarily used for organizing and analyzing data, rather than performing specific tasks or functions like the other options. Utility applications are typically software programs that provide useful tools or services to enhance the functionality of a computer system, such as Adobe Acrobat reader for viewing and editing PDF files, an antivirus program for protecting against malware, and WinZip for compressing and decompressing files.

Submit
106. Up to what level of classification does the Iridium Secure Module (ISM) provide secure voice communications?

Explanation

The Iridium Secure Module (ISM) provides secure voice communications up to the level of Top Secret. This means that the ISM is capable of encrypting voice communications to the highest level of classification, ensuring that sensitive information remains protected and inaccessible to unauthorized individuals.

Submit
107. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) command verifies connections to a remote host and can determine the path an Internet Protocol (IP) packet takes to reach a destination or determine where an IP packet stopped?

Explanation

The correct answer is Trace Route (TRACERT). This command is used to verify connections to a remote host and determine the path an IP packet takes to reach a destination or where it stopped. It sends out a series of ICMP Echo Request messages with incrementally increasing Time to Live (TTL) values, and each router along the path sends back an ICMP Time Exceeded message, allowing the user to trace the route. The output provides information about the IP addresses of the routers along the path and the time it takes for the packets to reach each router.

Submit
108. The first sector at the beginning of a hard drive is called the master

Explanation

The first sector at the beginning of a hard drive is called the boot record. This sector contains important information, such as the file system type and location of the operating system's boot loader. When the computer starts up, it reads this boot record to initiate the booting process. The boot record is crucial for the proper functioning of the operating system and allows the computer to start up successfully.

Submit
109. What type of remote network provides a private tunnel through public clouds (the Internet)?

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) creates a secure and encrypted connection over the Internet, allowing users to access a private network remotely. It provides a private tunnel through public clouds, ensuring that data transmitted between the user and the network remains secure and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by businesses to allow remote employees to access company resources securely, as well as by individuals who want to protect their online privacy and bypass geographic restrictions. Peer-to-peer (P2P), broadband, and three-tier networks do not provide this level of security and privacy.

Submit
110. On a hard drive, how many logical drives can a primary partition have?

Explanation

A primary partition on a hard drive can have only one logical drive. A primary partition is a section of the hard drive that can be used to store data, and within that partition, only one logical drive can be created. Logical drives are used to organize and manage data within the primary partition, and multiple logical drives cannot exist within a single primary partition. Therefore, the correct answer is one.

Submit
111. What piece of test equipment can help verify connectivity and identify shorts, reversed, crossed or split pairs on a network?

Explanation

A local-area network tester is a piece of test equipment that can help verify connectivity and identify various issues on a network. It is specifically designed for testing and troubleshooting network connections within a local area network. It can detect shorts, reversed connections, crossed connections, and split pairs, which are common problems that can affect network performance. By using a local-area network tester, network administrators can quickly identify and resolve these issues, ensuring that the network is functioning properly.

Submit
112. What protocol does the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) use to transmit video teleconferencing (VTC) data?

Explanation

ISDN uses the H.320 protocol to transmit video teleconferencing (VTC) data. H.320 is a standard protocol that is specifically designed for videoconferencing over ISDN networks. It defines the necessary signaling, control, and compression methods to enable the transmission of video and audio data during a video teleconference. H.320 is widely used for videoconferencing applications and provides a reliable and efficient method for transmitting VTC data over ISDN connections.

Submit
113. What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts incoming four wire transmissions into two wire transmissions?

Explanation

The network termination (NT) 1 component in a video teleconferencing (VTC) system is responsible for converting incoming four wire transmissions into two wire transmissions. This conversion is necessary to ensure compatibility between different types of audio systems used in the VTC system. The NT1 component acts as an interface between the audio equipment and the network, allowing for seamless communication between participants in the teleconference.

Submit
114. Which logical troubleshooting step would include classifying the problem as hardware or software related?

Explanation

The logical troubleshooting step that would include classifying the problem as hardware or software related is "Isolate the problem." This step involves determining whether the issue is caused by a hardware malfunction or a software error. By isolating the problem, technicians can narrow down the potential causes and focus their troubleshooting efforts on the appropriate area, whether it be hardware or software. This helps in finding an effective solution and resolving the issue efficiently.

Submit
115. Which operating system (OS) tool allows the viewing of the number of sent packets, status, total connection time, and speed of a network?

Explanation

The correct answer is Network connections. Network connections tool in an operating system allows users to view the number of sent packets, status, total connection time, and speed of a network. This tool provides information about the network connections established by the device, allowing users to monitor and troubleshoot network-related issues. Device manager is used to manage hardware devices, control panel is used to configure system settings, and event viewer is used to view system logs and events.

Submit
116. Which settings are established through the startup software in the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS)?

Explanation

The settings that are established through the startup software in the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) are referred to as configuration settings. These settings include various options and parameters that determine the behavior and functionality of the computer hardware. They can include settings related to the boot order, power management, hardware devices, system time, and other system-specific configurations. These settings are essential for the proper functioning and customization of the computer system.

Submit
117. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can be used to overlay what type of networks on top of existing public and private network infrastructures?

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro can be used to overlay Secure Virtual Networks on top of existing public and private network infrastructures. This means that it provides a secure and encrypted network layer on top of the existing networks, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the data transmitted over the network. This allows organizations to securely transmit sensitive information over public or private networks without compromising security.

Submit
118. What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs personal wireless communications system (PWCS) management?

Explanation

Air Force instruction 17-210 governs personal wireless communications system (PWCS) management.

Submit
119. Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?

Explanation

Once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete, the responsibility for life-cycle maintenance falls on the production work center or contractor. This means that either the production work center or the contractor is accountable for maintaining and servicing the equipment throughout its entire life cycle.

Submit
120. What program sets up the divisions of memory that holds an operating system (OS), user information, and applications?

Explanation

The bootstrap loader is a program that sets up the divisions of memory that hold an operating system (OS), user information, and applications. It is responsible for loading the OS into memory and initializing the necessary components for the system to start functioning. The bootstrap loader is typically stored in ROM or firmware and is the first program that runs when a computer is turned on or restarted. It plays a crucial role in the boot process and ensures that the system is ready to execute the OS and other software.

Submit
121. How many channels are used when a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another Internet Protocol (IP) host?

Explanation

When a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another Internet Protocol (IP) host, two channels are used, one for each direction. This means that one channel is dedicated for transmitting data from the PBX to the IP host, and another channel is dedicated for transmitting data from the IP host to the PBX. This allows for bidirectional communication during the VoIP session.

Submit
122. Who appoints the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

Explanation

The unit commander is responsible for appointing the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager. This individual is chosen by the commander to oversee and manage the PWCS within the unit. They ensure that the system is properly maintained, operated, and secured. This appointment is within the authority of the unit commander, as they have direct control and responsibility for the unit's operations and personnel.

Submit
123. What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?

Explanation

Signal-to-noise ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise. It is a measure of how much stronger the signal is compared to the noise. A higher signal-to-noise ratio indicates a stronger and clearer signal, while a lower ratio indicates more noise interference. This ratio is commonly used in telecommunications and audio engineering to assess the quality of a signal and determine its usability.

Submit
124. What component of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint on the network that provides real time, bi-directional communications between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN)?

Explanation

A gateway in Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint on the network that provides real-time, bi-directional communications between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN). It acts as a bridge between different types of networks, converting the data from one format to another and enabling communication between devices that use different protocols. In this case, the gateway allows communication between H.323 terminals and SCN, ensuring seamless connectivity and interoperability between the two networks.

Submit
125. Which of these is not part of the personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager's duties?

Explanation

The personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager is responsible for maintaining the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) database, providing technical solutions, and handling maintenance tasks. However, conducting technical reviews is not mentioned as one of the manager's duties.

Submit
126. This type of memory is blank and instructions can be placed on it permanently.

Explanation

PROM stands for Programmable Read-Only Memory. It is a type of memory that can be programmed once with instructions or data and retains that information permanently. Unlike RAM, which is volatile and loses data when power is turned off, PROM is non-volatile. ROM is a type of memory that contains instructions or data that cannot be modified, so it does not fit the description of being programmable. CMOS refers to a type of technology used in integrated circuits and is not directly related to memory. Therefore, PROM is the correct answer as it matches the given description.

Submit
127. Which type of memory is used to duplicate frequently accessed information stored elsewhere or computed earlier because the original data is time consuming to retrieve or compute?

Explanation

Cache is a type of memory used to duplicate frequently accessed information stored elsewhere or computed earlier because the original data is time-consuming to retrieve or compute. It is designed to store a copy of data that is likely to be needed again in the near future, making it faster to access compared to retrieving the original data from its original source. Cache memory helps improve overall system performance by reducing the time required to access frequently used data.

Submit
128. Which type of memory is located on just about every kind of circuit board there is in today's computer technology?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
129. Which media has a storage capacity of gigabyte (GB)—terabyte (TB), has a slow to moderate speed and is moderately expensive?

Explanation

Tape is the correct answer because it has a storage capacity ranging from gigabytes (GB) to terabytes (TB), making it suitable for storing large amounts of data. It has a slow to moderate speed, meaning that it may take longer to access or transfer data compared to other media. Additionally, tape is moderately expensive, meaning that it is not as costly as some high-end storage options but still requires a significant investment.

Submit
130. Which two parts does the RED/BLACK concept have?

Explanation

The RED/BLACK concept involves two parts: physical separation and electrical separation. Physical separation refers to physically isolating sensitive information from untrusted networks or devices, while electrical separation involves using electrical means to prevent the leakage of sensitive information through electromagnetic emissions or electrical signals. This ensures that classified or sensitive information remains secure and protected from unauthorized access or interception.

Submit
131. How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?

Explanation

In directory and resource administrator (DRA), only one object can be manipulated at a time. This means that any changes or modifications can only be made to a single object at a given time. This limitation ensures that there is no confusion or conflicts when making changes to multiple objects simultaneously, and allows for a more controlled and organized management of directory and resource administration tasks.

Submit
132. What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event indicating the need for a change in execution?

Explanation

An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device to the CPU, indicating that it requires attention or that there is a need for a change in execution. It can be either asynchronous or synchronous, depending on the event that triggers it. A cache is a hardware or software component used for temporary storage of data, while a buffer is a temporary storage area for data during the transfer between devices. An interface refers to the point of interaction between two systems or components. Therefore, the correct answer is interrupt.

Submit
133. Which logical structure component is a container used to organize objects into logical administrative groups?

Explanation

Domains are a logical structure component that is used to organize objects into logical administrative groups. They provide a way to manage and administer a large number of objects, such as users, computers, and resources, in a hierarchical manner. Domains allow for centralized administration and provide security boundaries within a network. By grouping objects into domains, it becomes easier to manage and control access to resources and apply policies across the network.

Submit
134. What percentage of average network use indicates a busy network?

Explanation

A network is considered busy when the average network use exceeds 30%. This means that more than 30% of the network's capacity is being utilized, indicating a high level of network activity and potential congestion.

Submit
135. What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?

Explanation

The correct answer is symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system. Cryptology refers to the study of codes and ciphers used in encryption and decryption of information. In a symmetric-secret key system, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption. This means that the sender and receiver must have access to the same secret key. In an asymmetric-public key system, a pair of keys is used - a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The public key can be freely shared, while the private key must be kept secret.

Submit
136. What is the maximum packet size for Internet Protocol (IP)?

Explanation

The maximum packet size for Internet Protocol (IP) is 65,535 bytes. IP packets consist of a header and a payload, and the maximum size of the payload is determined by the 16-bit field in the IP header called Total Length. This field can hold a maximum value of 65,535, which translates to 65,535 bytes. This size allows for efficient transmission of data over IP networks while minimizing fragmentation and reassembly of packets.

Submit
137. The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) Integrated Subscriber Digital Network (ISDN) setting supports what speeds in kilobits per second (Kbps)?

Explanation

The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) Integrated Subscriber Digital Network (ISDN) setting supports a speed of 128 kilobits per second (Kbps).

Submit
138. Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?

Explanation

The explanation for the correct answer is that depending on the problem type, Remedy uses two types of forms, which can be either software or hardware. This means that when encountering an issue, Remedy can utilize either software forms or hardware forms to address and resolve the problem.

Submit
139. What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account?

Explanation

Mailbox security is the correct answer because it refers to the settings and permissions that control access to a user's mailbox. By modifying the mailbox security settings, administrators can add, delete, or modify user accounts that have the ability to receive or send emails on behalf of the account. This ensures that only authorized users can access and manage the mailbox, maintaining the security and privacy of the account.

Submit
140. In response to disaster relief operations, the Department of Defense (DOD) Policy on Procurement of mobile satellite services (MSS) was amended in 2006 to allow the DOD to use additional MSS providers for

Explanation

The correct answer is "unclassified purposes within the CONUS." This means that the Department of Defense (DOD) is allowed to use additional mobile satellite services (MSS) providers for unclassified purposes within the continental United States (CONUS). This amendment to the DOD policy was made in 2006 specifically for disaster relief operations. It allows the DOD to access and utilize MSS services from multiple providers to support their operations within the CONUS for unclassified purposes.

Submit
141. Which item is not a good practice in helping with future troubleshooting?

Explanation

Remembering every step taken is not a good practice in helping with future troubleshooting because relying solely on memory can lead to inaccuracies and omissions. It is more effective to document the steps taken during troubleshooting, as it provides a reliable reference for future problem-solving and allows for easier collaboration with others. Additionally, documentation helps in identifying patterns or recurring issues, which can aid in finding long-term solutions. Knowing your network and gathering facts are essential practices as they provide a solid foundation for troubleshooting by understanding the system and gathering relevant information.

Submit
142. What type of software piracy is it when a product offered was previously used to obtain an upgrade to a newer version?

Explanation

When a product that was previously used to obtain an upgrade to a newer version is offered, it falls under the category of internet piracy. Internet piracy refers to the unauthorized distribution, copying, or downloading of copyrighted software through the internet. In this case, the product is being shared or distributed without proper authorization, which is a form of software piracy.

Submit
143. What problem can reduce the throughput and range of a wireless access point?

Explanation

Radio frequency interference can reduce the throughput and range of a wireless access point. When other electronic devices or wireless networks operate on the same frequency band, they can cause interference and disrupt the wireless signal. This interference can result in decreased data transfer speeds and a shorter range for the wireless access point.

Submit
144. In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or

Explanation

The correct answer is a turbine engine. In electrical power equipment, the generator can be powered by either a reciprocating engine or a turbine engine. However, the question specifically mentions "turbine batteries," which does not make sense. Therefore, the most logical option is a turbine engine, as it is a common type of engine used to power generators in electrical power equipment.

Submit
145. What protocol is used to allow standard phone calls over the same data lines as electronic mail (e-mail) and Web traffic?

Explanation

VoIP is the correct answer because it is a protocol that allows standard phone calls to be transmitted over the same data lines as email and web traffic. VoIP converts analog voice signals into digital data packets that can be transmitted over the internet, making it possible to make phone calls using internet connections. This technology has revolutionized communication by eliminating the need for separate phone lines and allowing for more efficient use of network resources. TCP/IP, IPv4, and VIP are not specifically designed for transmitting phone calls over data lines, making them incorrect answers.

Submit
146. Which network impairment occurs when bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame?

Explanation

Alignment error occurs when bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame. This means that the bits within the frame are not properly aligned and do not follow the expected pattern. This can happen due to various reasons such as noise, interference, or hardware issues. When an alignment error occurs, it indicates a problem with the transmission of data and can lead to data corruption or loss.

Submit
147. What is the first step towards eliminating mishaps?

Explanation

The first step towards eliminating mishaps is to recognize and assess hazardous situations. By being able to identify potential dangers and evaluate the risks associated with them, appropriate measures can be taken to prevent accidents and mitigate any potential harm. This step is crucial in creating a safe and secure environment by proactively addressing and resolving hazardous situations before they escalate into mishaps.

Submit
148. What type of memory is non-volatile, considered permanent, and is also called firmware in reference to the data and instructions stored?

Explanation

Read-only memory (ROM) is a type of memory that is non-volatile, meaning it retains its data even when the power is turned off. It is considered permanent because the data and instructions stored in ROM cannot be easily modified or erased. ROM is often referred to as firmware because it contains software instructions that are permanently programmed during manufacturing and cannot be changed by normal computer operations. Therefore, ROM fits the description of being non-volatile, permanent, and also called firmware.

Submit
149. The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with what device?

Explanation

The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) is designed to provide secure communication. It is specifically built to communicate securely with devices such as the Secure Telephone Unit (STU)-III and satellite telephones. However, it is not compatible with land mobile radios, which are typically used for two-way communication in mobile vehicles. Therefore, the STE cannot communicate securely with land mobile radios.

Submit
150. What is the minimum packet size for Internet Protocol (IP)?

Explanation

The minimum packet size for Internet Protocol (IP) is 28 bytes. This is because an IP packet consists of a 20-byte header and an 8-byte payload. The header contains important information such as the source and destination IP addresses, protocol version, and other control information. The payload carries the actual data being transmitted. Therefore, the minimum size of an IP packet is 28 bytes, which includes both the header and payload.

Submit
151. Which of these is not defined by network protocols?

Explanation

Network protocols define the rules and standards for communication between devices on a network. They specify how data is formatted, transmitted, and received. Packet sizes, signal timing, and whether acknowledgment is needed are all aspects that are defined by network protocols. However, connector interfaces, which refer to the physical connectors used to connect devices, are not defined by network protocols. Connector interfaces are determined by the hardware and physical specifications of the devices being connected, rather than the protocols governing their communication.

Submit
152. Which information is not required when configuring Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)?

Explanation

When configuring TCP/IP, the information that is not required is the Media Access Control (MAC) address. The MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces, and it is used at the data link layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack. However, when configuring TCP/IP, the focus is on the network layer, which includes the IP address for identifying devices on the network and the DNS server address for translating domain names to IP addresses. Administrator access is also not directly related to TCP/IP configuration, as it pertains to user privileges and permissions.

Submit
153. In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the Web server give to the browser?

Explanation

In secure socket layer (SSL), the web server gives the browser its public key before an encrypted transaction takes place. The public key is used to encrypt the data sent from the browser to the server, ensuring secure communication. The private key, on the other hand, is kept secret by the server and is used to decrypt the data received from the browser. The public certificate is a document that contains the public key and other information about the server, while the private certificate is not a commonly used term in SSL.

Submit
154. What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time?

Explanation

Block algorithms and stream ciphers are the two major types of encryption algorithms that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time. Block algorithms divide the data into fixed-size blocks and process each block separately, while stream ciphers encrypt or decrypt the data bit by bit or byte by byte. These algorithms are commonly used in modern encryption systems to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of data.

Submit
155. The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces what system throughout the maintenance complex?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). The question asks about the system that the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces throughout the maintenance complex. The only option that fits this description is the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). Therefore, SBSS is the correct answer.

Submit
156. What part do client systems technicians (CST) play in amassing, distributing, and controlling information?

Explanation

Client systems technicians (CST) play a crucial role in ensuring the efficiency of amassing, distributing, and controlling information. They are responsible for optimizing the performance of client systems, troubleshooting issues, and implementing solutions to enhance productivity. By focusing on efficiency, CSTs aim to streamline processes, minimize downtime, and improve overall system performance, ultimately contributing to the effective management of information within an organization.

Submit
157. Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

Explanation

A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in computer systems. It is a single bit that is added to a set of binary data to ensure that the total number of 1s in the data (including the parity bit) is always either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in the transmission or storage of the data can be detected. This makes the parity bit a very simple and effective method for error detection.

Submit
158. What publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management. This publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts.

Submit
159. What are the two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)?

Explanation

The two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) are batteries or a flywheel. Batteries store electricity in chemical form and release it as needed, providing a reliable backup power source. On the other hand, a flywheel stores electricity in the form of kinetic energy, spinning at high speeds and releasing the stored energy when power is interrupted. Both options offer a means to store and provide electricity during power outages, ensuring uninterrupted power supply to critical systems.

Submit
160. Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?

Explanation

The encryption type "Open" is not a telecommunications encryption type. Telecommunications encryption types typically refer to specific methods or algorithms used to secure the transmission of data over telecommunications networks. "Narrowband," "Network," and "Bulk" could all potentially be encryption types used in telecommunications, but "Open" does not fit this category.

Submit
161. What is the most commonly used Electronic Industries Association (EIA) wiring standard for network connectors today?

Explanation

The most commonly used Electronic Industries Association (EIA) wiring standard for network connectors today is 568B. This standard specifies the arrangement of the wires in an Ethernet cable, ensuring compatibility and consistency in network connections. It is widely adopted in the industry and provides a straightforward and reliable method for wiring network connectors.

Submit
162. What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency?

Explanation

Time division multiple access (TDMA) is a channel access method that assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency. This means that multiple calls can share the same frequency by dividing the time into smaller slots. Each call is given its own time slot to transmit data, allowing for efficient use of the available frequency spectrum. TDMA is commonly used in cellular networks to maximize the capacity and accommodate multiple users simultaneously.

Submit
163. Over what percentage of all network problems occur at the Data Link and Physical Layers of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) reference model?

Explanation

The correct answer is 60. This means that 60% of all network problems occur at the Data Link and Physical Layers of the OSI reference model. These layers are responsible for the physical transmission of data and the establishment of a reliable connection between network devices. Issues at these layers can include problems with cables, network interface cards, and physical connectivity, which can greatly impact the overall performance and reliability of the network.

Submit
164. What is the preferred method for clearing magnetic tapes and is the only approved method for sanitizing?

Explanation

Degaussing is the preferred method for clearing magnetic tapes because it effectively demagnetizes the tape, rendering the data unreadable. It is also the only approved method for sanitizing magnetic tapes, as it completely erases all data and ensures that it cannot be recovered. Erasing, wiping, and overwriting may not completely remove the data from the tape, making them less secure and not approved for sanitizing purposes.

Submit
165. Which fault isolation technique may entail checking the cable connections as well as reseating devices and checking all switches and settings for devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Check hardware devices." This fault isolation technique involves checking the cable connections, reseating devices, and verifying the switches and settings for devices. By doing so, any hardware-related issues can be identified and resolved, ensuring that the devices are properly connected and functioning correctly. This step is crucial in troubleshooting and isolating faults that may arise from faulty hardware components or incorrect configurations.

Submit
166. Which management process prevents software fixes or updates from introducing new problems into computer systems?

Explanation

The management process that prevents software fixes or updates from introducing new problems into computer systems is called patching. A patch is a piece of software designed to fix or improve a program, and it is carefully tested before being applied to ensure that it does not introduce any new issues. Patching is an essential part of maintaining the security and functionality of computer systems by addressing vulnerabilities and bugs in software.

Submit
167. This must be done to any storage media before changing modes of operation or before using at a higher classification.

Explanation

Before changing modes of operation or using a storage media at a higher classification, it is necessary to clear the media. Clearing refers to the process of removing all data from the media, ensuring that it is completely erased and no longer accessible. This step is important to prevent any unauthorized access or leakage of sensitive information when transitioning to a different mode of operation or higher classification. Overwriting, sanitizing, and erasing may also involve data removal, but clearing specifically refers to the process of completely wiping the storage media.

Submit
168. Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

Explanation

The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a digital telecommunications network that allows for the transmission of voice, video, and data over traditional telephone lines. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) is a type of secure voice telephone that can be used on the ISDN. It provides encryption and other security features to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of voice communications. The other options, such as the Secure telephone unit (STU), Cryptographic telephone (CT), and Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone), may also provide secure voice communication capabilities but may not specifically be compatible with the ISDN network.

Submit
169. What system serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) assets?

Explanation

The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) assets. AIMS is a system that helps in managing and tracking the inventory of assets, including PWCS assets. It allows for efficient management of upgrades by providing a centralized platform to track and suggest upgrades for these assets. It helps in ensuring that the PWCS assets are up to date and functioning optimally.

Submit
170. This is an authorized method of cleaning and sanitizing many types of magnetic media.

Explanation

Overwriting is a method of cleaning and sanitizing magnetic media by replacing existing data with new data. This process ensures that the previous data is completely erased and cannot be recovered. By overwriting the magnetic media, all traces of the previous information are eliminated, making it a secure method of cleaning and sanitizing.

Submit
171. How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

Explanation

In order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), the one-way delay from endpoint to endpoint should be less than 150 milliseconds. This is because any delay greater than this can result in noticeable audio lag and poor call quality. VoIP relies on real-time communication, and a delay of more than 150 milliseconds can cause significant disruptions and hinder the effectiveness of the communication. Therefore, a delay of less than 150 milliseconds is necessary for smooth and seamless VoIP calls.

Submit
172. What network troubleshooting tool will indicate if a noteworthy event has occurred on the network?

Explanation

The alarm browser is a network troubleshooting tool that allows users to view and analyze alarms or notifications generated by the network. It provides a centralized location to monitor and investigate any noteworthy events that have occurred on the network. By using the alarm browser, network administrators can easily identify and address any issues or incidents that may impact the network's performance or security.

Submit
173. Who coordinates the management of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets for the installation commander?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Base communications and information systems officer (CSO). The CSO is responsible for coordinating the management of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets for the installation commander. They oversee the implementation, maintenance, and security of the PWCS, ensuring that it meets the needs of the installation and its personnel. This includes managing the allocation of resources, coordinating with other units and agencies, and ensuring compliance with regulations and policies.

Submit
174. Permanent markings can be completed by how many different methods?

Explanation

Permanent markings can be completed by two different methods. This suggests that there are multiple ways to create permanent markings, but specifically, there are only two methods available.

Submit
175. What mode of operation do cell phones use?

Explanation

Cell phones use duplex mode of operation, which allows for simultaneous two-way communication. This means that both parties can speak and listen at the same time without any interruptions. In duplex mode, cell phones can transmit and receive signals simultaneously, enabling smooth and efficient communication. This mode is essential for phone calls, video calls, and other forms of real-time communication on cell phones.

Submit
176. Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Classic and TACLANE–E100 are high-speed encryption devices that provide confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication security services for

Explanation

TACLANE devices, including TACLANE-Classic and TACLANE-E100, are high-speed encryption devices that offer security services like confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication. These devices are specifically designed for Internet Protocol networks, which means they are used to secure data transmitted over IP networks. They are not intended for serial networks, tactical networks, or point-to-point connections.

Submit
177. Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information and to ensure

Explanation

Communications security (COMSEC) refers to the measures and controls implemented to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing information and to guarantee the authenticity of the communication. Authenticity ensures that the information transmitted is genuine and has not been altered or tampered with. This is crucial in maintaining the confidentiality and trustworthiness of communications, as it ensures that the information received is from a trusted source and has not been modified during transmission. Compliance, integrity, and validity are also important aspects of communications security but do not directly relate to the concept of authenticity.

Submit
178. Which one of these requires the use of the latest technical order (TO) information listed?

Explanation

A configuration item refers to a specific product or component within a system that requires documentation and management. In order to accurately maintain and update the configuration item, the latest technical order (TO) information listed is necessary. This information includes instructions, specifications, and guidelines for the configuration item's design, installation, operation, and maintenance. Therefore, the use of the latest TO information is crucial for ensuring that the configuration item is properly managed and maintained.

Submit
179. The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) consists of a

Explanation

The correct answer is "host terminal and removable security core." This means that the Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) is composed of two main components: the host terminal and the removable security core. The host terminal is the main interface through which the user interacts with the STE, while the removable security core is responsible for providing the necessary security measures to protect the information being processed.

Submit
180. What percent packet loss should a network expect in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

Explanation

In order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), a network should expect less than 1 percent packet loss. Packet loss refers to the percentage of data packets that are lost or do not reach their destination. For VoIP, which relies on real-time communication, even a small amount of packet loss can result in degraded call quality. Therefore, a network with less than 1 percent packet loss is considered suitable for implementing VoIP.

Submit
181. What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?

Explanation

The correct answer is T–568A and T–568B. These are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6) cables. These standards define the pin assignments and color codes for the eight wires in the Ethernet cable, ensuring compatibility and proper functioning of the network connections. T–568A and T–568B are widely used and recognized standards in the telecommunications industry.

Submit
182. Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device can be used for command and control?

Explanation

Land mobile radio (LMR) is the correct answer because it is a personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device that can be used for command and control. LMR refers to a two-way radio system that is commonly used by public safety and emergency response agencies for communication and coordination. It allows users to transmit and receive voice messages, making it suitable for command and control purposes in various situations. Pagers, family radio service (FRS), and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) are not specifically designed for command and control functions.

Submit
183. Which computer system requirements must be satisfied for software to be usable at all?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Minimum" because it refers to the bare minimum computer system requirements that need to be met in order for the software to be usable. These requirements typically include the minimum processor speed, memory, and storage capacity needed to run the software. Meeting these minimum requirements ensures that the software can be installed and run on the computer system, albeit possibly with slower performance or limited features compared to higher-end systems.

Submit
184. When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?

Explanation

When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. STE is designed to provide secure communication by encrypting the digital data being transmitted. This encryption ensures that the information remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access or interception. Encrypting the digital signal adds a layer of security to prevent any potential breaches or data compromises during transmission.

Submit
185. What software activates the actual transmission and receipt of data over the network?

Explanation

Network interface drivers are responsible for activating the actual transmission and receipt of data over the network. These drivers act as a bridge between the operating system and the network interface card (NIC), allowing the computer to send and receive data packets. They provide the necessary instructions and protocols for the NIC to communicate with the network, enabling data transfer between devices. Without network interface drivers, the NIC would not be able to function properly, and data transmission would not be possible.

Submit
186. Which set of electrical standards does the KIV–7 not support?

Explanation

The KIV-7 does not support the RS-422 electrical standard. RS-422 is a standard for serial communication that specifies differential signaling over twisted pair cables. The KIV-7, on the other hand, supports other electrical standards such as EIA-644, EIA-530, and RS-232.

Submit
187. What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account?

Explanation

Mailbox rights is the correct answer because it refers to the exchange tab that allows the addition, deletion, or modification of user accounts with special permissions to the account. This tab provides control over who can access and manage a specific mailbox, granting or revoking permissions as needed. The other options mentioned, such as Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings, mailbox security, and custom attributes, are not directly related to managing user accounts with special permissions in this context.

Submit
188. What systems entail how we communicate and manage data?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Information" because systems that entail how we communicate and manage data are primarily focused on gathering, processing, storing, and transmitting information. These systems include various technologies, software, and networks that enable the collection, organization, and dissemination of data and knowledge. Information plays a crucial role in effective communication and efficient data management, allowing individuals and organizations to make informed decisions and carry out their tasks more effectively.

Submit
189. How does a router send information to the Internet on a wireless network?

Explanation

A router sends information to the Internet on a wireless network through an Ethernet connection. This is because the router acts as a bridge between the wireless network and the Internet. It receives data from devices connected to the wireless network and then uses the Ethernet connection to transmit that data to the Internet. The Ethernet connection provides a reliable and stable connection between the router and the Internet, ensuring seamless transmission of data.

Submit
190. Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a communications security (COMSEC) package?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 153, COMSEC Material Report. This form is used to accompany a communications security (COMSEC) package. It is specifically designed for reporting and tracking COMSEC materials, ensuring proper documentation and accountability during the transfer process. The SF 153 provides detailed information about the contents of the package, including the type and quantity of COMSEC materials being transferred. This form helps to maintain the security and integrity of COMSEC materials throughout their transportation and delivery.

Submit
191. Which communications security (COMSEC) application provides us with guidance to deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources?

Explanation

Physical security provides guidance to deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources. It involves measures such as access control, surveillance, and protection of physical assets to prevent unauthorized access, damage, theft, or sabotage. While cryptosecurity, emission security, and transmission security are all important aspects of communications security (COMSEC), they primarily focus on protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information during transmission and storage, rather than physical protection of resources.

Submit
192. How much power does a not and drive (NAND) require?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
193. What device receives information from the Internet, translates it into a radio signal, and sends it to the computer's wireless adapter?

Explanation

A router is a device that receives information from the Internet, translates it into a radio signal, and sends it to the computer's wireless adapter. It acts as a bridge between the Internet and the local network, allowing multiple devices to connect to the Internet wirelessly. A network interface card (NIC) is a hardware component that connects a computer to a network, but it does not perform the specific functions mentioned in the question. Ethernet is a type of wired network connection, while Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity) is a technology that allows devices to connect to a wireless network, but it does not specifically translate Internet information into a radio signal.

Submit
194. Which encryption handles multiplexed lines that come from combining multiple single data and voice lines into one?

Explanation

Bulk encryption is the correct answer because it refers to the encryption method that handles multiplexed lines. When multiple single data and voice lines are combined into one, bulk encryption ensures that the combined line is encrypted as a whole, providing security for all the data and voice transmissions within it. This encryption method is specifically designed to handle large amounts of data and multiple streams of information simultaneously.

Submit
195. Which item is not a common problem inherent to computers?

Explanation

The question asks for an item that is not a common problem inherent to computers. The options provided are Setup, Driver, System, and Configuration. Setup refers to the process of installing and configuring a computer system, which can sometimes lead to issues. Driver problems occur when the software that allows hardware devices to communicate with the computer malfunctions. Configuration problems can arise when settings are not properly adjusted. However, the correct answer, System, does not typically refer to a common problem in computers but rather refers to the overall functioning and components of a computer.

Submit
196. Which encryption handles software encryption?

Explanation

The correct answer is Network. Network encryption refers to the process of encrypting data as it is transmitted over a network. This type of encryption is typically used to protect sensitive information from unauthorized access or interception during transmission. It ensures that data remains secure and confidential while being transmitted between different devices or systems connected to a network.

Submit
197. A hard disk is divided into how many byte sectors?

Explanation

A hard disk is divided into 512-byte sectors. This means that the data on the hard disk is organized into blocks of 512 bytes each. This sector size is a standard in the industry and allows for efficient storage and retrieval of data on the hard disk.

Submit
198. Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?

Explanation

Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption: encryption, decryption, and encryption. Each operation uses a different individual key. Therefore, Triple DES incorporates the use of three individual keys.

Submit
199. How many connector interfaces does a network interface card (NIC) provide for network cables?

Explanation

A network interface card (NIC) typically provides four connector interfaces for network cables. These interfaces allow the NIC to connect to different types of networks, such as Ethernet or Wi-Fi. Each interface corresponds to a specific type of cable or connection, such as RJ-45 for Ethernet or SMA for Wi-Fi antennas. Having four connector interfaces gives the NIC flexibility to connect to various network setups and configurations.

Submit
200. What is the most common set of system requirements defined by an operating system (OS) or software application?

Explanation

The most common set of system requirements defined by an operating system or software application is the "Recommended" set. This set specifies the minimum hardware and software specifications that are recommended for optimal performance and functionality of the OS or application. It ensures that the system meets the necessary requirements to run the software smoothly without any issues.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 25, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Zach
Cancel
  • All
    All (200)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
What requirement must an Apprentice complete to be awarded Journeyman...
What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?
What is a system of error control for data transmission, where the...
In a cable Internet, as the distance increases, the speed of the...
What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?
Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing...
Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled...
Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System...
How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?
How many channels do the intra-squad radios operate on?
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database...
Which is not a transmission medium for a wireless local area network?
What stores print jobs in a print queue until a printer becomes...
Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage...
Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for...
What should you usually check before you begin in-depth...
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro is a...
With a software license agreement, who has the full rights to the...
Any hardware added to a computer that expands its capabilities is...
In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?
Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms, technical...
What operating system (OS) task ensures each process and application...
What is an essential tool for any client systems technician (CST) to...
What needs to be higher to improve the audio quality?
A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS)...
A non-wireless way to load software or interface hardware to a tablet...
A personal computer (PC) is such a great tool because it
What form of remote network access is often the only choice for rural...
Which hardware requirement is defined as the model and the clock speed...
Which commercial satellite communication system offers true...
The specifications that should be met, if not exceeded, to ensure a...
Each cell in a service area has what tower and transceiver assembly...
Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget...
What command-line tool displays Transmission Control Protocol/Internet...
Cell sites are generally thought of as being a
What process in troubleshooting will help organize thoughts, prevent...
What tool can launch individual troubleshooting/configuration programs...
Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the...
The primary interface for the hard drive that is now the most commonly...
Which Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)...
What is one of the best habits a client systems technician (CST) can...
What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts...
Which alarm category in the network monitor system (NMS) indicates a...
Transferring eight bits of data simultaneously through eight separate...
What network troubleshooting tool can dramatically reduce the number...
What drives faster processing speeds and increases the power of many...
The most common hardware diagnostic tool is the
Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?
Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into...
Which does not fit the "Peaceful Purposes" clause of using the...
What type of areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization...
Which protocol provides an almost unlimited number of Internet...
What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call...
What are the two different types of current used for power?
What describes how computers find a specific byte it is looking for in...
Which Inmarsat terminals have a land mobile terminal, typically has a...
A formatted disk partition that is used for a particular file system...
Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless...
The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the...
Which functions do client systems technicians perform regarding...
Which item is not an optical storage media?
How many bits long are the addresses that computer instructions work...
What hardware quick test should only be used to localize problems?
Which file system is the best choice for data storage if the computer...
Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type...
What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used...
What provides the logical network map?
Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?
Which network troubleshooting step includes automatically polling...
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?
This type of random access memory (RAM) transfers sixteen times as...
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?
Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program...
What does Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity) use to carry network signals to...
Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting...
What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user's domain...
What is installed on a computer to act as the interface between the...
What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems...
What term refers to the process of launching an operating system (OS)?
What technology involves the capture and storage of a distinctive,...
What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation...
Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device's original...
Which term describes that data is whole or complete?
What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard...
What is the unique identification number a network interface card...
How many principles govern all actions associated with risk...
Which encryption handles data that can come from equipment such as...
What does the Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC) recommend...
Which operating system (OS) tool will provide a listing of hardware...
Which patch will prevent exploitation and remove or mitigate a...
What components are used in both encryption and decryption?
What area is described as a complete building or facility area under...
What function enables the higher layer protocol data units (PDU) to...
Which port on the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) can...
Which is not a way in which round trip delay can be determined?
What is the maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the...
What software category includes programs that do real work for users?
What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed...
Which of these is not an occurrence during a system cold boot?
How fast you sample the audio to get your digital signal is called
Which is not a type of computer user interface?
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro may...
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can...
Which is not considered a utility application?
Up to what level of classification does the Iridium Secure Module...
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) command...
The first sector at the beginning of a hard drive is called the master
What type of remote network provides a private tunnel through public...
On a hard drive, how many logical drives can a primary partition have?
What piece of test equipment can help verify connectivity and identify...
What protocol does the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) use...
What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts...
Which logical troubleshooting step would include classifying the...
Which operating system (OS) tool allows the viewing of the number of...
Which settings are established through the startup software in the...
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can...
What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs personal wireless...
Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the...
What program sets up the divisions of memory that holds an operating...
How many channels are used when a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)...
Who appoints the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS)...
What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to...
What component of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint...
Which of these is not part of the personal wireless communications...
This type of memory is blank and instructions can be placed on it...
Which type of memory is used to duplicate frequently accessed...
Which type of memory is located on just about every kind of circuit...
Which media has a storage capacity of gigabyte (GB)—terabyte...
Which two parts does the RED/BLACK concept have?
How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and...
What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware...
Which logical structure component is a container used to organize...
What percentage of average network use indicates a busy network?
What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?
What is the maximum packet size for Internet Protocol (IP)?
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) Integrated Subscriber Digital...
Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in...
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that...
In response to disaster relief operations, the Department of Defense...
Which item is not a good practice in helping with future...
What type of software piracy is it when a product offered was...
What problem can reduce the throughput and range of a wireless access...
In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types,...
What protocol is used to allow standard phone calls over the same data...
Which network impairment occurs when bits are missing in one or more...
What is the first step towards eliminating mishaps?
What type of memory is non-volatile, considered permanent, and is also...
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with...
What is the minimum packet size for Internet Protocol (IP)?
Which of these is not defined by network protocols?
Which information is not required when configuring Transmission...
In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes...
What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today...
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the...
What part do client systems technicians (CST) play in amassing,...
Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
What publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail...
What are the two main options for storing electricity in an...
Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?
What is the most commonly used Electronic Industries Association (EIA)...
What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time...
Over what percentage of all network problems occur at the Data Link...
What is the preferred method for clearing magnetic tapes and is the...
Which fault isolation technique may entail checking the cable...
Which management process prevents software fixes or updates from...
This must be done to any storage media before changing modes of...
Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services...
What system serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for...
This is an authorized method of cleaning and sanitizing many types of...
How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to...
What network troubleshooting tool will indicate if a noteworthy event...
Who coordinates the management of personal wireless communications...
Permanent markings can be completed by how many different methods?
What mode of operation do cell phones use?
Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Classic and...
Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and...
Which one of these requires the use of the latest technical order (TO)...
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) consists of a
What percent packet loss should a network expect in order to implement...
What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and...
Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device can be...
Which computer system requirements must be satisfied for software to...
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?
What software activates the actual transmission and receipt of data...
Which set of electrical standards does the KIV–7 not support?
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that...
What systems entail how we communicate and manage data?
How does a router send information to the Internet on a wireless...
Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a...
Which communications security (COMSEC) application provides us with...
How much power does a not and drive (NAND) require?
What device receives information from the Internet, translates it into...
Which encryption handles multiplexed lines that come from combining...
Which item is not a common problem inherent to computers?
Which encryption handles software encryption?
A hard disk is divided into how many byte sectors?
Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound...
How many connector interfaces does a network interface card (NIC)...
What is the most common set of system requirements defined by an...
Alert!

Advertisement