3D151 Edit Code 2 Ure’s
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?
- A.
Remedy.
- B.
Remedy new.
- C.
Remedy user.
- D.
Remedy ticket.
Correct Answer
C. Remedy user.Explanation
To create a new ticket, you must use the "Remedy user" tool. This tool is specifically designed for users to log and track their tickets or issues. It allows users to input necessary details, such as the problem description, priority level, and any relevant attachments. The Remedy user tool ensures that all necessary information is captured accurately and efficiently, facilitating effective ticket management and resolution.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?
- A.
Software or hardware.
- B.
Software and equipment.
- C.
Application or hardware.
- D.
Application and equipment.
Correct Answer
A. Software or hardware.Explanation
The explanation for the correct answer is that depending on the problem type, Remedy uses two types of forms, which can be either software or hardware. This means that when encountering an issue, Remedy can utilize either software forms or hardware forms to address and resolve the problem.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?
- A.
A resolution group only.
- B.
A specific technician only.
- C.
Remedy automatically assigns tickets.
- D.
A resolution group or specific technician.
Correct Answer
D. A resolution group or specific technician.Explanation
In Remedy, tickets to fix problems can be assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician. This means that the responsibility for resolving the issues can be given to a team of individuals in a resolution group or to a single technician. The choice of assignment depends on the nature of the problem and the available resources.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces what system throughout the maintenance complex?
- A.
Reliability and Maintainability System (REMIS).
- B.
Telephone Management System.
- C.
Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
- D.
Remedy.
Correct Answer
C. Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).Explanation
The correct answer is Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). The question asks about the system that the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces throughout the maintenance complex. The only option that fits this description is the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). Therefore, SBSS is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?
- A.
Automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes.
- B.
Function as a common interactive interface for other systems.
- C.
Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.
- D.
Provide status and inventory data.
Correct Answer
C. Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.Explanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is designed to automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes, function as a common interactive interface for other systems, and provide status and inventory data. However, it does not have the function of rolling base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level. This means that it does not consolidate or transfer logistics data from lower-level units to the Air Force level.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the
- A.
Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
- B.
Telecommunications Management System (TMS).
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
- D.
Automated Information System (AIS).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). This is because the question asks for the online database program that is a part of a specific system, and AFEMS is the only option that fits this description. The other options, TMS, IMDS, and AIS, are not mentioned in relation to being an online database program.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?
- A.
Weapons.
- B.
Support.
- C.
Telephone.
- D.
Communications.
Correct Answer
D. Communications.Explanation
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is specifically used to track and manage Air Force assets related to communications. This system helps in keeping a record of all communication equipment, such as radios, satellites, and other devices, ensuring their proper maintenance and availability for the Air Force's communication needs.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?
- A.
Access database at Randolph Air Force Base (AFB).
- B.
Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
- C.
Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
- D.
Oracle database at Randolph AFB.
Correct Answer
C. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.Explanation
The correct answer is Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB. This means that the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes an Oracle database and it is located at Wright-Patterson AFB.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?
- A.
Defense Courier Service.
- B.
Protected distribution system.
- C.
Communications security equipment.
- D.
Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System.
Correct Answer
A. Defense Courier Service.Explanation
The Defense Courier Service is not a means for secure telecommunications because it primarily focuses on physical delivery of classified materials rather than providing secure communication channels. The other options, such as the Protected Distribution System, Communications Security Equipment, and Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System, are all methods that ensure secure telecommunications by protecting data during transmission and detecting any unauthorized access or intrusion.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?
- A.
Encrypted classified.
- B.
Encrypted unclassified.
- C.
Unencrypted classified.
- D.
Unencrypted unclassified.
Correct Answer
C. Unencrypted classified.Explanation
The RED lines in the RED/BLACK concept carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that the information being transmitted through these lines is classified but not encrypted, making it potentially vulnerable to interception or unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?
- A.
Encrypted classified or unclassified.
- B.
Encrypted classified only.
- C.
Unencrypted classified.
- D.
Unclassified only.
Correct Answer
A. Encrypted classified or unclassified.Explanation
In the RED/BLACK concept, BLACK lines carry traffic that can be either encrypted classified or unclassified. This means that the BLACK lines can handle both types of traffic, providing secure communication for classified information as well as allowing unclassified information to pass through.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which two parts does the RED/BLACK concept have?
- A.
Physical separation and electromagnetic separation.
- B.
Electromagnetic separation and electrical separation.
- C.
Physical separation and electrical separation.
- D.
Physical separation and emission separation.
Correct Answer
C. Physical separation and electrical separation.Explanation
The RED/BLACK concept involves two parts: physical separation and electrical separation. Physical separation refers to physically isolating sensitive information from untrusted networks or devices, while electrical separation involves using electrical means to prevent the leakage of sensitive information through electromagnetic emissions or electrical signals. This ensures that classified or sensitive information remains secure and protected from unauthorized access or interception.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?
- A.
Eliminate all instances of radiation of electrical impulses.
- B.
Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.
- C.
Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses.
- D.
Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses.
Correct Answer
B. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.Explanation
The purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. This program aims to prevent the unintentional electromagnetic radiation from electronic devices, which can potentially be intercepted and exploited by adversaries for eavesdropping or data theft purposes. By implementing TEMPEST standards, organizations can minimize the risk of compromising sensitive information through unintended electromagnetic emissions.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?
- A.
Communications security.
- B.
Transmission security.
- C.
Emission security.
- D.
Computer security.
Correct Answer
C. Emission security.Explanation
The correct answer is "Emission security." The Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force is referred to as emission security. This program focuses on preventing unintentional electromagnetic radiation from compromising classified information. It involves measures such as shielding, filtering, and grounding to minimize the risk of information leakage through electromagnetic emanations.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What area is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control where unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?
- A.
Controlled access area (CAA).
- B.
Restricted access area (RAA).
- C.
Limited control area (LCA).
- D.
Uncontrolled access area (UAA).
Correct Answer
A. Controlled access area (CAA).Explanation
A controlled access area (CAA) is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control. In this area, unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This ensures that only authorized individuals can enter and move freely within the area, enhancing security and preventing unauthorized access. Restricted access areas (RAA), limited control areas (LCA), and uncontrolled access areas (UAA) do not have the same level of security measures in place as a controlled access area.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?
- A.
Communications security.
- B.
Line route or visual.
- C.
Separation.
- D.
Electrical.
Correct Answer
B. Line route or visual.Explanation
Protected distribution systems (PDS) require scheduled inspections to ensure the integrity and security of the communication lines. These inspections involve examining the line route or visually inspecting the system to identify any potential vulnerabilities, damages, or unauthorized access points. By regularly inspecting the line route or visually assessing the PDS, any issues can be promptly detected and addressed, ensuring the continued protection and reliability of the communication system.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in which log?
- A.
Emission security (EMSEC).
- B.
Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST).
- C.
Inspection.
- D.
Protected Distribution Systems (PDS).
Correct Answer
D. Protected Distribution Systems (PDS).Explanation
The correct answer is Protected Distribution Systems (PDS). This is because PDS events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in the log of the Protected Distribution Systems. The other options, Emission security (EMSEC), Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST), and Inspection, do not specifically mention the recording of PDS events.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the
- A.
Total surface.
- B.
Visible area.
- C.
Concealed area.
- D.
Observable area.
Correct Answer
A. Total surface.Explanation
The correct answer is "total surface." In a line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS), a close visual inspection is conducted to assess the condition and integrity of the system. This inspection must cover the entire surface of the system, including both visible and concealed areas. By inspecting the total surface, any potential issues or damages can be identified and addressed, ensuring the proper functioning and safety of the PDS.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What are the two different types of current used for power?
- A.
100 v (volts) and 210 v.
- B.
105 v and 215 v.
- C.
110 v and 220 v.
- D.
115 v and 225 v.
Correct Answer
C. 110 v and 220 v.Explanation
The two different types of current used for power are 110 v and 220 v. These values represent the voltage of the electrical current, with 110 v being the standard voltage used in most residential buildings in the United States, and 220 v being the standard voltage used in many other countries. The higher voltage is typically used for larger appliances and equipment that require more power.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What are the two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)?
- A.
Storage batteries or a power wheel.
- B.
Storage batteries or a flywheel.
- C.
Batteries or a power wheel.
- D.
Batteries or a flywheel.
Correct Answer
D. Batteries or a flywheel.Explanation
The two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) are batteries or a flywheel. Batteries store electricity in chemical form and release it as needed, providing a reliable backup power source. On the other hand, a flywheel stores electricity in the form of kinetic energy, spinning at high speeds and releasing the stored energy when power is interrupted. Both options offer a means to store and provide electricity during power outages, ensuring uninterrupted power supply to critical systems.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?
- A.
Storage batteries.
- B.
Power wheel.
- C.
Flywheel.
- D.
Batteries.
Correct Answer
C. Flywheel.Explanation
Flywheel UPS systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. These systems store energy in a rotating flywheel, which spins at a high speed and stores kinetic energy. When there is a power outage, the kinetic energy is converted back into electrical energy to provide uninterrupted power to the load. Flywheel UPS systems are preferred for larger loads due to their ability to provide high power output and longer backup times compared to other UPS systems like storage batteries.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?
- A.
The office power requirements.
- B.
The amount of floor space available.
- C.
Future subscriber growth and reserve time required.
- D.
The number of alternating current converters in the office.
Correct Answer
D. The number of alternating current converters in the office.Explanation
When selecting storage batteries for the central office, the number of alternating current converters in the office is not a consideration. The other options, such as office power requirements, amount of floor space available, and future subscriber growth and reserve time required, are important factors to consider when choosing storage batteries for the central office. The number of alternating current converters does not directly impact the selection of storage batteries.Rate this question:
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- 23.
In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or
- A.
Turbine batteries.
- B.
A turbine engine.
- C.
An engine.
- D.
Batteries.
Correct Answer
B. A turbine engine.Explanation
The correct answer is a turbine engine. In electrical power equipment, the generator can be powered by either a reciprocating engine or a turbine engine. However, the question specifically mentions "turbine batteries," which does not make sense. Therefore, the most logical option is a turbine engine, as it is a common type of engine used to power generators in electrical power equipment.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?
- A.
Diesel.
- B.
Gasoline.
- C.
Fossil fuel.
- D.
Liquid petroleum.
Correct Answer
C. Fossil fuel.Explanation
The correct answer is fossil fuel. Fossil fuels are a category of fuels that are derived from the remains of plants and animals that lived millions of years ago. They include coal, oil, and natural gas. Reciprocating generators, on the other hand, typically use diesel or gasoline as fuel to generate electricity. While diesel and gasoline are derived from fossil fuels, they are not considered fossil fuels themselves. Therefore, fossil fuel is the fuel that is not used for reciprocating generators.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?
- A.
Production work center or communication squadron.
- B.
Production work center or contractor.
- C.
Communications squadron.
- D.
Production work center.
Correct Answer
B. Production work center or contractor.Explanation
Once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete, the responsibility for life-cycle maintenance falls on the production work center or contractor. This means that either the production work center or the contractor is accountable for maintaining and servicing the equipment throughout its entire life cycle.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as
- A.
Configuration.
- B.
Configuration item.
- C.
Configuration control.
- D.
Configuration identification.
Correct Answer
C. Configuration control.Explanation
Configuration control refers to the process of reviewing and approving all approved changes in the configuration. It ensures that any modifications made to the configuration are properly evaluated and authorized before implementation. This helps in maintaining the integrity and stability of the configuration, ensuring that only authorized and tested changes are implemented. Configuration control is an essential part of configuration management, which involves the identification, documentation, and control of configuration items.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which one of these requires the use of the latest technical order (TO) information listed?
- A.
Configuration.
- B.
Configuration item.
- C.
Configuration control.
- D.
Configuration identification.
Correct Answer
B. Configuration item.Explanation
A configuration item refers to a specific product or component within a system that requires documentation and management. In order to accurately maintain and update the configuration item, the latest technical order (TO) information listed is necessary. This information includes instructions, specifications, and guidelines for the configuration item's design, installation, operation, and maintenance. Therefore, the use of the latest TO information is crucial for ensuring that the configuration item is properly managed and maintained.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?
- A.
Identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.
- B.
Record and report change processing and implementation status.
- C.
Control changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.
- D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above.Explanation
All of the statements pertain to configuration management. Configuration management involves identifying and documenting the functional and physical characteristics of a configuration item (CI), recording and reporting change processing and implementation status, and controlling changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI. Therefore, all of the given statements are relevant to configuration management.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?
- A.
T–586 and T–586A.
- B.
T–586A and T–586B.
- C.
T–568 and T–568A.
- D.
T–568A and T–568B.
Correct Answer
D. T–568A and T–568B.Explanation
The correct answer is T–568A and T–568B. These are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6) cables. These standards define the pin assignments and color codes for the eight wires in the Ethernet cable, ensuring compatibility and proper functioning of the network connections. T–568A and T–568B are widely used and recognized standards in the telecommunications industry.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Permanent markings can be completed by how many different methods?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
Correct Answer
B. 2.Explanation
Permanent markings can be completed by two different methods. This suggests that there are multiple ways to create permanent markings, but specifically, there are only two methods available.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts?
- A.
Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) 8502, Organizational Computer Security.
- B.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management.
- C.
AFI 33–201, Communications Security (COMSEC).
- D.
AFSSI 7700, Emission Security.
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management. This publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account?
- A.
Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings.
- B.
Mailbox rights.
- C.
Mailbox security.
- D.
Custom attributes.
Correct Answer
C. Mailbox security.Explanation
Mailbox security is the correct answer because it refers to the settings and permissions that control access to a user's mailbox. By modifying the mailbox security settings, administrators can add, delete, or modify user accounts that have the ability to receive or send emails on behalf of the account. This ensures that only authorized users can access and manage the mailbox, maintaining the security and privacy of the account.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account?
- A.
Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings.
- B.
Mailbox rights.
- C.
Mailbox security.
- D.
Custom attributes.
Correct Answer
B. Mailbox rights.Explanation
Mailbox rights is the correct answer because it refers to the exchange tab that allows the addition, deletion, or modification of user accounts with special permissions to the account. This tab provides control over who can access and manage a specific mailbox, granting or revoking permissions as needed. The other options mentioned, such as Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings, mailbox security, and custom attributes, are not directly related to managing user accounts with special permissions in this context.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account?
- A.
The user’s e-mail will be deleted from the Exchange server.
- B.
Restoring deleted e-mail requires proper justification.
- C.
The wrong account could be deleted.
- D.
Restoring deleted e-mail is difficult.
Correct Answer
C. The wrong account could be deleted.Explanation
Extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account because the wrong account could be deleted. This means that if the deletion process is not done carefully, there is a risk of deleting the wrong account, which can lead to the loss of important emails and data. Therefore, it is important to exercise caution and double-check before proceeding with the deletion to avoid any irreversible mistakes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user’s domain account is deleted?
- A.
Changed.
- B.
Deleted.
- C.
Updated.
- D.
Reviewed.
Correct Answer
B. Deleted.Explanation
When a user's domain account is deleted, the associated email account is automatically deleted as well. This means that all emails, contacts, and other data within the email account will be permanently removed and cannot be accessed anymore. Deleting the domain account essentially removes all privileges and access rights, including the email account linked to it.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
In directory and resource administrator (DRA), only one object can be manipulated at a time. This means that any changes or modifications can only be made to a single object at a given time. This limitation ensures that there is no confusion or conflicts when making changes to multiple objects simultaneously, and allows for a more controlled and organized management of directory and resource administration tasks.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?
- A.
The analog signal.
- B.
The digital signal.
- C.
The multiplexed signal.
- D.
The sender’s private key.
Correct Answer
B. The digital signal.Explanation
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. STE is designed to provide secure communication by encrypting the digital data being transmitted. This encryption ensures that the information remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access or interception. Encrypting the digital signal adds a layer of security to prevent any potential breaches or data compromises during transmission.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What components are used in both encryption and decryption?
- A.
Algorithm and key.
- B.
Certificate and key.
- C.
Telephone and receiver.
- D.
Algorithm and certificate.
Correct Answer
A. Algorithm and key.Explanation
In both encryption and decryption processes, an algorithm is used to transform the data into a secure form and a key is required to unlock or decode the encrypted data. The algorithm determines how the data is manipulated and the key is used to ensure that only authorized individuals can access the decrypted data. Therefore, both algorithm and key are essential components in both encryption and decryption.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?
- A.
Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-secret key system.
- B.
Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-secret key system.
- C.
Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system.
- D.
Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-public key system.
Correct Answer
C. Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system.Explanation
The correct answer is symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system. Cryptology refers to the study of codes and ciphers used in encryption and decryption of information. In a symmetric-secret key system, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption. This means that the sender and receiver must have access to the same secret key. In an asymmetric-public key system, a pair of keys is used - a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The public key can be freely shared, while the private key must be kept secret.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?
- A.
Speed.
- B.
Storage.
- C.
Security.
- D.
Standards.
Correct Answer
A. Speed.Explanation
Symmetric cryptology offers the advantage of speed. In symmetric encryption, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, making the process faster compared to asymmetric encryption. With symmetric cryptology, data can be encrypted and decrypted quickly, making it suitable for applications that require fast processing, such as real-time communication and large-scale data transfers. Additionally, symmetric encryption algorithms are often simpler and require less computational power, further contributing to their speed advantage.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?
- A.
Symmetric.
- B.
Asymmetric.
- C.
Diametric.
- D.
None of the above, they are all the same.
Correct Answer
B. Asymmetric.Explanation
Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because asymmetric encryption involves the use of two different keys for encryption and decryption, which requires more computational resources and time compared to symmetric encryption where only one key is used for both encryption and decryption.Rate this question:
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- 42.
In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the Web server give to the browser?
- A.
Its public key.
- B.
Its private key.
- C.
Its public certificate.
- D.
Its private certificate.
Correct Answer
A. Its public key.Explanation
In secure socket layer (SSL), the web server gives the browser its public key before an encrypted transaction takes place. The public key is used to encrypt the data sent from the browser to the server, ensuring secure communication. The private key, on the other hand, is kept secret by the server and is used to decrypt the data received from the browser. The public certificate is a document that contains the public key and other information about the server, while the private certificate is not a commonly used term in SSL.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time?
- A.
Stream algorithms and block ciphers.
- B.
Secure algorithms and block ciphers.
- C.
Block algorithms and stream ciphers.
- D.
Block algorithms and secure ciphers.
Correct Answer
C. Block algorithms and stream ciphers.Explanation
Block algorithms and stream ciphers are the two major types of encryption algorithms that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time. Block algorithms divide the data into fixed-size blocks and process each block separately, while stream ciphers encrypt or decrypt the data bit by bit or byte by byte. These algorithms are commonly used in modern encryption systems to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of data.Rate this question:
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- 44.
How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?
- A.
64
- B.
128
- C.
192
- D.
256
Correct Answer
A. 64Explanation
The correct answer is 64. Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses a 64-bit key for encryption. The key length determines the strength of the encryption algorithm, and in the case of DES, it is considered relatively weak due to advancements in computing power. However, it was widely used in the past and served as a foundation for more secure encryption algorithms.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption: encryption, decryption, and encryption. Each operation uses a different individual key. Therefore, Triple DES incorporates the use of three individual keys.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?
- A.
Narrowband.
- B.
Network.
- C.
Bulk.
- D.
Open.
Correct Answer
D. Open.Explanation
The encryption type "Open" is not a telecommunications encryption type. Telecommunications encryption types typically refer to specific methods or algorithms used to secure the transmission of data over telecommunications networks. "Narrowband," "Network," and "Bulk" could all potentially be encryption types used in telecommunications, but "Open" does not fit this category.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which encryption handles data that can come from equipment such as computers?
- A.
Wideband.
- B.
Narrowband.
- C.
Network.
- D.
Bulk.
Correct Answer
A. Wideband.Explanation
Wideband encryption is designed to handle data that can come from various sources, including equipment such as computers. It is a type of encryption that can handle a wide range of frequencies and bandwidths, making it suitable for transmitting data from different devices and systems. Wideband encryption ensures that the data is securely encrypted regardless of the source it originates from, making it the correct choice for handling data from equipment such as computers.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which encryption handles multiplexed lines that come from combining multiple single data and voice lines into one?
- A.
Bulk.
- B.
Network.
- C.
Wideband.
- D.
Narrowband.
Correct Answer
A. Bulk.Explanation
Bulk encryption is the correct answer because it refers to the encryption method that handles multiplexed lines. When multiple single data and voice lines are combined into one, bulk encryption ensures that the combined line is encrypted as a whole, providing security for all the data and voice transmissions within it. This encryption method is specifically designed to handle large amounts of data and multiple streams of information simultaneously.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which encryption handles software encryption?
- A.
Narrowband.
- B.
Wideband.
- C.
Network.
- D.
Bulk.
Correct Answer
C. Network.Explanation
The correct answer is Network. Network encryption refers to the process of encrypting data as it is transmitted over a network. This type of encryption is typically used to protect sensitive information from unauthorized access or interception during transmission. It ensures that data remains secure and confidential while being transmitted between different devices or systems connected to a network.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information and to ensure
- A.
Authenticity.
- B.
Compliance.
- C.
Integrity.
- D.
Validity.
Correct Answer
A. Authenticity.Explanation
Communications security (COMSEC) refers to the measures and controls implemented to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing information and to guarantee the authenticity of the communication. Authenticity ensures that the information transmitted is genuine and has not been altered or tampered with. This is crucial in maintaining the confidentiality and trustworthiness of communications, as it ensures that the information received is from a trusted source and has not been modified during transmission. Compliance, integrity, and validity are also important aspects of communications security but do not directly relate to the concept of authenticity.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 25, 2019Quiz Created by
Zach
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