2A672 Edit Code 7

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  • 1/90 Questions

    When troubleshooting any electrical system, start by first finding the

    • Common ground bus
    • Main circuit breaker
    • External power source
    • Last known source of power
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2A672 Edit Code 7 - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '2A672 edit code 7', assesses knowledge on electron behavior, circuit analysis, and material properties. It covers topics like valence electrons, stability of atoms, and calculations involving Ohm's law, crucial for learners in physics and electrical engineering.

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  • 2. 

    This is the function of the deswirl ring on an A/M32A–95 gas turbine compressor

    • Accelerate air

    • Decrease air velocity

    • Increase air pressure

    • Smooth turbulent air flow

    Correct Answer
    A. Smooth turbulent air flow
    Explanation
    The deswirl ring on an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor is designed to smooth turbulent air flow. Turbulence in the air flow can cause inefficiencies and disruptions in the compressor's operation. The deswirl ring helps to eliminate or reduce turbulence by redirecting and guiding the air in a more controlled manner. This allows for a smoother and more efficient flow of air through the compressor, ultimately improving its performance.

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  • 3. 

    Which kind of loads is the A/M24T–16 load bank designed to test?

    • Alternating current (AC)

    • Direct current (DC)

    • AC and DC

    • AC, DC, and generator exciter

    Correct Answer
    A. AC and DC
    Explanation
    The A/M24T-16 load bank is designed to test both alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) loads. This means that it can be used to simulate and measure the performance of electrical equipment that operates on either AC or DC power. Additionally, the load bank can also test generator exciters, which are devices used to regulate and control the output of a generator. Therefore, the load bank is versatile and can be used to assess the functionality and efficiency of a wide range of electrical equipment.

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  • 4. 

    Which board(s) is/are used for maintenance and troubleshooting on the A/M24T–16 load bank?

    • Verification

    • Six load element

    • Resistance check

    • Verification and resistance check

    Correct Answer
    A. Verification and resistance check
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Verification and resistance check". The A/M24T-16 load bank requires maintenance and troubleshooting, which involves both verification and resistance check. This means that the board(s) used for these purposes would need to perform both verification and resistance check functions.

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  • 5. 

    When the A/M24T–16 load bank set load time has been reached the

    • Load is automatically removed and the cooling cycle begins.

    • Load bank will start the load test over again.

    • Load bank will automatically shut down.

    • Display will show results of the load test.

    Correct Answer
    A. Load is automatically removed and the cooling cycle begins.
    Explanation
    When the A/M24T-16 load bank set load time has been reached, it indicates that the load test has been completed. At this point, the load is automatically removed, meaning that the load bank stops applying the load to the system being tested. After the load is removed, the cooling cycle begins, which allows the system to cool down and return to its normal operating temperature. This process ensures that the load bank and the system being tested are not subjected to excessive heat, which could potentially cause damage or affect the accuracy of the test results.

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  • 6. 

    When there are eight electrons in the outer most shell of an atom, it is considered

    • Charged

    • Unstable

    • Complete

    • Stable

    Correct Answer
    A. Stable
    Explanation
    When there are eight electrons in the outermost shell of an atom, it is considered stable. This is because the outermost shell, also known as the valence shell, is fully filled with electrons, following the octet rule. This configuration gives the atom a stable electronic arrangement, as it has achieved a full outer shell, similar to the noble gases. Stable atoms are less likely to react with other elements and tend to have lower reactivity.

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  • 7. 

    This is relative motion between a conductor and a magnetic field that causes voltage to be induced.

    • Reluctance

    • Direct current

    • Magnetism

    • Electromagnetic induction

    Correct Answer
    A. Electromagnetic induction
    Explanation
    Electromagnetic induction refers to the phenomenon where voltage is induced in a conductor when it moves relative to a magnetic field. This occurs due to the interaction between the magnetic field and the electrons in the conductor, causing them to experience a force and thus generating an electric current. This principle is the basis for many important technologies, such as generators and transformers.

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  • 8. 

    If the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, how is capacitance affected?

    • Capacitance increases

    • Capacitance decreases

    • Capacitance remains the same

    • Capacitance increases only if the plate size doubles

    Correct Answer
    A. Capacitance increases
    Explanation
    When the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, the distance between the plates decreases. This leads to an increase in the electric field between the plates, resulting in an increase in capacitance. Therefore, as the size of the plates increases, the capacitance also increases.

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  • 9. 

    If there is a loss of residual magnetism in the exciter field poles

    • Connect TB4–11 to 14 volt direct current (VDC) power source

    • Check the field transformer

    • Field flash the generator

    • Check the fault display

    Correct Answer
    A. Field flash the generator
    Explanation
    When there is a loss of residual magnetism in the exciter field poles, the generator needs to be field flashed. Field flashing involves connecting TB4-11 to a 14-volt direct current power source. This process helps to restore the residual magnetism in the field poles and allows the generator to produce electricity. Checking the field transformer and the fault display are also necessary steps to identify and address any potential issues that may have caused the loss of residual magnetism.

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  • 10. 

    Which component determines the speed of the self-generating nitrogen servicing cart’s (SGNSC) nitrogen booster compressor?

    • Engine

    • End of stroke limit switch

    • Programmable logic controller (PLC) circuit

    • Directional control valve cycling control relay

    Correct Answer
    A. Programmable logic controller (PLC) circuit
    Explanation
    The speed of the self-generating nitrogen servicing cart's nitrogen booster compressor is determined by the programmable logic controller (PLC) circuit. The PLC circuit controls and regulates the operation of the compressor, allowing it to operate at the desired speed. This circuit can be programmed to adjust the speed based on various factors such as demand, pressure, or other parameters, ensuring optimal performance of the nitrogen booster compressor.

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  • 11. 

    In an atom, this electron contains the most energy.

    • Stationary electrons

    • Orbiting electrons

    • Valence electrons

    • K shell electrons

    Correct Answer
    A. Valence electrons
    Explanation
    Valence electrons are the electrons located in the outermost energy level of an atom. These electrons have the highest energy because they are furthest from the positively charged nucleus and are involved in chemical bonding. The other options, such as stationary electrons, orbiting electrons, and K shell electrons, do not accurately describe the electron with the most energy in an atom.

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  • 12. 

    These factors affect the resistance of a material

    • Area, weight, and state of material

    • Area, temperature, and type of material

    • Temperature, weight, and state of material

    • Temperature, type of material, and state of material

    Correct Answer
    A. Area, temperature, and type of material
    Explanation
    The factors that affect the resistance of a material are its area, temperature, and type of material. The area of a material affects its resistance because a larger area allows for more current to flow through, resulting in lower resistance. Temperature also affects resistance, as an increase in temperature leads to an increase in resistance due to the increased collisions between the electrons and the atoms in the material. Lastly, the type of material affects resistance because different materials have different atomic structures and conductivities, which determine their resistance.

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  • 13. 

    This statement best describes a diode

    • It is a five-terminal device

    • It is a three-terminal device

    • It has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other

    • It has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged

    Correct Answer
    A. It has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other
    Explanation
    A diode is a two-terminal device that allows current to flow in one direction and blocks it in the opposite direction. This property is known as rectification and is essential for various electronic applications, such as converting AC to DC in power supplies. Therefore, the statement "It has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other" accurately describes a diode.

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  • 14. 

    In order to turn off a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), the current must drop below the

    • Trigger current

    • Holding current

    • Variable current

    • Breakdown current

    Correct Answer
    A. Holding current
    Explanation
    The holding current is the minimum current required to keep the SCR in the off state once it has been triggered. When the current drops below the holding current, the SCR turns off. Therefore, to turn off an SCR, the current must drop below the holding current.

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  • 15. 

    This B809A generator set speed control system component produces a frequency pulse train for engine speed reference.

    • Magnetic pick-up

    • Engine speed governor

    • Speed trim potentiometer

    • Speed control potentiometer

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnetic pick-up
    Explanation
    A magnetic pick-up is a component that generates a frequency pulse train to serve as a reference for the engine speed in the B809A generator set speed control system. It is responsible for detecting the rotational speed of the engine and converting it into electrical signals, which are then used by the system to regulate and maintain the desired speed of the generator set.

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  • 16. 

    This action occurs when the B809A generator set alternating current (AC) card senses an AC supply fault

    • Only generator output stops

    • Only the AC contactor opens

    • AC supply warning light illuminates

    • AC contactor opens and generator output stops

    Correct Answer
    A. AC contactor opens and generator output stops
    Explanation
    When the B809A generator set AC card detects a fault in the AC supply, it triggers the opening of the AC contactor. This action interrupts the flow of electricity from the generator, causing the generator output to stop. Therefore, the correct answer is that the AC contactor opens and the generator output stops.

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  • 17. 

    This gas turbine engine component is specifically designed to break if the engine locks up.

    • Second stage impeller

    • First stage diffuser

    • Compressor shaft

    • Torsion shaft

    Correct Answer
    A. Torsion shaft
    Explanation
    The torsion shaft is specifically designed to break if the engine locks up. This is a safety feature that prevents further damage to the engine. When the engine locks up, the torsion shaft is designed to absorb the excess torque and break, preventing the transmission of the excessive force to other components of the engine. This helps to protect the engine from further damage and potential catastrophic failure.

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  • 18. 

    Which components on the EPU–6/E frequency converter must be inspected prior to use?

    • Air inlets for blockage

    • Wiring for secure mounting

    • Exterior air vents for corrosion

    • Interior air vents for secure mounting

    Correct Answer
    A. Air inlets for blockage
    Explanation
    Prior to using the EPU-6/E frequency converter, it is important to inspect the air inlets for blockage. This is because blockage in the air inlets can restrict the flow of air, which is essential for cooling the components of the converter. If the air inlets are blocked, it can lead to overheating of the components and potential damage to the converter. Therefore, inspecting the air inlets for blockage is necessary to ensure proper functioning and longevity of the EPU-6/E frequency converter.

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  • 19. 

    The MA–3D air conditioner engine is operating at 1,250 revolutions per minute (RPM), but the blower clutch does not engage. What action, if any, do you take?

    • Replace SW2

    • Replace the engine speed control

    • Nothing; this is normal operation. The blower clutch energizes at governed speed

    • Check the blower clutch switch to make sure it’s receiving the proper signal from the engine speed control

    Correct Answer
    A. Nothing; this is normal operation. The blower clutch energizes at governed speed
  • 20. 

    Which does frosting of a refrigeration system line or component indicate?

    • Open

    • Blockage

    • Condensing refrigerant

    • Low refrigerant charge

    Correct Answer
    A. Blockage
    Explanation
    Frosting of a refrigeration system line or component indicates a blockage. When there is a blockage in the system, the flow of refrigerant is restricted, causing a decrease in pressure and temperature. This leads to the formation of frost on the affected area. Therefore, if frosting is observed, it is a clear indication that there is a blockage in the refrigeration system.

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  • 21. 

    This is the major difference between a NPN and PNP transistor.

    • A PNP transistor can only be used as a regulator

    • An NPN transistor can only be used as a switch

    • Direction of current flow

    • Number of junctions

    Correct Answer
    A. Direction of current flow
    Explanation
    The major difference between a NPN and PNP transistor is the direction of current flow. In an NPN transistor, the current flows from the collector to the emitter, while in a PNP transistor, the current flows from the emitter to the collector. This difference in current flow direction is crucial when using transistors for different applications. An NPN transistor is commonly used as a switch, where it allows or blocks the flow of current depending on the input signal. On the other hand, a PNP transistor is often used as a regulator, where it controls the flow of current to maintain a stable output voltage.

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  • 22. 

    The emitter in a unijunction transistor always points toward the

    • Base 1 lead

    • Collector

    • Emitter

    • Gate

    Correct Answer
    A. Base 1 lead
    Explanation
    The emitter in a unijunction transistor always points toward the base 1 lead. This is because in a unijunction transistor, the base 1 lead is the terminal that controls the current flow between the emitter and the other terminal (collector or gate). The emitter is connected to the base 2 lead, and its direction is determined by the orientation of the base 1 lead. Therefore, the emitter always points towards the base 1 lead.

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  • 23. 

    Where is the best point to check voltage going to the A/M32A–86D generator exciter field?

    • J8, terminal D-F

    • J8, terminal V-X

    • VR1, terminal C-R

    • Automatic-manual switch S1

    Correct Answer
    A. J8, terminal D-F
    Explanation
    The best point to check voltage going to the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field is at J8, terminal D-F.

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  • 24. 

    During operation of the EPU–6/E frequency converter it is determined that E and F pin voltage is not needed for the aircraft. Therefore, place the loop/bypass/28 V to aircraft switch to which position?

    • 28 V TO AIRCRAFT

    • NEUTRAL

    • BYPASS

    • LOOP

    Correct Answer
    A. BYPASS
    Explanation
    During the operation of the EPU-6/E frequency converter, it has been determined that the E and F pin voltage is not required for the aircraft. Therefore, the loop/bypass/28 V to aircraft switch should be placed in the BYPASS position. This means that the converter will bypass the E and F pin voltage and provide power directly to the aircraft without utilizing those pins.

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  • 25. 

    While operating an A/M32A–86D at governed speed, you place S13 in the BUILD UP position and the UNDERVOLTAGE light comes on. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?

    • Voltage regulator

    • Plug interlock relay

    • Memory time delay relay

    • Overvoltage/undervoltage relay

    Correct Answer
    A. Memory time delay relay
    Explanation
    The memory time delay relay is a device that controls the time delay for certain functions in the A/M32A-86D. In this scenario, placing S13 in the BUILD UP position should not cause the UNDERVOLTAGE light to come on. Therefore, the probable cause of this trouble is the memory time delay relay malfunctioning, which could be preventing the correct voltage regulation and causing the undervoltage condition.

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  • 26. 

    The A/M32A–86D generator set is supplying 115 volts alternating current (VAC) to the aircraft and all of a sudden the AC contactor opens and there is no voltage indication on M2. Which is the probable cause of this trouble?

    • Load contactor

    • CR 17 forward biased

    • Overvoltage/undervoltage relay

    • Memory time-delay relay energized

    Correct Answer
    A. Memory time-delay relay energized
    Explanation
    The probable cause of this trouble is the memory time-delay relay being energized. This relay is responsible for controlling the time delay in the system, and if it is energized, it can cause the AC contactor to open and prevent voltage indication on M2.

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  • 27. 

    In a series-parallel circuit, the series current at I1 = 9 amps; in the two parallel branches, I2 = 5 amps; and the value of I3 is not listed. Use Ohm’s law to find the value of I3 and IT.

    • I3=5 amps and IT=14 amps

    • I3=4 amps and IT=9 amps

    • I3=4 amps and IT=18 amps

    • Not enough information to solve

    Correct Answer
    A. I3=4 amps and IT=9 amps
    Explanation
    In a series-parallel circuit, the total current (IT) is equal to the sum of the currents in the series and parallel branches. Since I1 is the series current and I2 is the current in the parallel branches, we can calculate IT by adding I1 and I2 together. Given that I1 = 9 amps and I2 = 5 amps, IT = 9 + 5 = 14 amps.

    To find the value of I3, we can use the fact that the current in a parallel branch splits between the two branches. Since I2 is 5 amps and the total current in the parallel branches is 9 amps (I1), the remaining current must be 4 amps (9 - 5 = 4). Therefore, I3 = 4 amps.

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  • 28. 

    On the A/M32A–60A gas turbine engine, fuel transfer to the main tanks stop when the

    • Main tanks are ½ full

    • Main tanks are ¾ full

    • Auxiliary tank is half empty

    • Auxiliary tank is completely empty

    Correct Answer
    A. Main tanks are ¾ full
    Explanation
    When the main tanks are ¾ full on the A/M32A-60A gas turbine engine, fuel transfer to the main tanks stops. This is likely a safety measure to prevent overfilling of the main tanks, which could lead to fuel spillage or other operational issues. By stopping the fuel transfer at this point, the system ensures that the main tanks do not exceed their intended capacity.

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  • 29. 

    This A/M32A–95 gas turbine compressor engine component accelerates hot expanding gases and directs them into the nozzle ring.

    • Torus assembly

    • Combustor can

    • Combustor cap

    • Plenum

    Correct Answer
    A. Torus assembly
    Explanation
    The torus assembly is the correct answer because it is the component that accelerates hot expanding gases and directs them into the nozzle ring. The other options listed are not involved in this process.

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  • 30. 

    These self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) components separate nitrogen from the oxygen

    • Nitrogen generators (NG)

    • Air separator membranes (ASM)

    • Nitrogen/air separator filters (NASF)

    • Nitrogen separator membranes (NSM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air separator membranes (ASM)
    Explanation
    Air separator membranes (ASM) are the components that separate nitrogen from oxygen in the self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC). They work by utilizing a membrane that allows nitrogen molecules to pass through while blocking oxygen molecules. This process helps to generate pure nitrogen gas, which can then be used for various applications such as aircraft maintenance, tire inflation, and industrial processes. By effectively separating nitrogen from oxygen, the ASM ensures that the nitrogen generated by the SGNSC is of high quality and suitable for the intended use.

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  • 31. 

    The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move

    • Inward

    • Outward

    • Inward, then outward

    • Outward, then inward

    Correct Answer
    A. Outward
    Explanation
    The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move outward. This is because positive ions have a deficiency of electrons, creating an imbalance of positive charge. As a result, the surrounding negative charges are attracted towards the positive ion, causing the electrostatic field lines to extend outward from the ion.

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  • 32. 

    A bridge rectifier is installed in an alternating current (AC) circuit to

    • Decrease direct current (DC) pulses

    • Provide fullwave rectification

    • Provide halfwave rectification

    • Decrease ripple frequency

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide fullwave rectification
    Explanation
    A bridge rectifier is a circuit that converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC) by utilizing a combination of diodes. Fullwave rectification refers to the conversion of the entire AC waveform into a pulsating DC waveform. In a bridge rectifier, four diodes are arranged in a bridge configuration, allowing both the positive and negative halves of the AC waveform to be rectified. This results in a smoother and more consistent DC output compared to halfwave rectification, where only one half of the AC waveform is rectified. Therefore, the purpose of installing a bridge rectifier in an AC circuit is to provide fullwave rectification.

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  • 33. 

    These are the three leads of a unijunction transistor (UJT).

    • Anode, cathode, and gate

    • Emitter, base 1, and base 2

    • Emitter, collector, and base

    • Common emitter, common collector, and common base

    Correct Answer
    A. Emitter, base 1, and base 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is emitter, base 1, and base 2. In a unijunction transistor (UJT), the emitter is the terminal through which the majority carriers (electrons) flow out. The base 1 and base 2 are the two terminals that control the UJT's conduction. The base 1 terminal is used for triggering the UJT, while the base 2 terminal is used for regulating the UJT's conduction.

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  • 34. 

    To test the load contactor relay K1 using test probes, in which position must the automatic-manual voltage control switch be placed?

    • AUTOMATIC

    • MANUAL

    • TEST

    • OFF

    Correct Answer
    A. AUTOMATIC
    Explanation
    To test the load contactor relay K1 using test probes, the automatic-manual voltage control switch must be placed in the AUTOMATIC position. This is because the automatic position allows the relay to function as intended and respond to the test probes accurately. Placing the switch in any other position may result in incorrect readings or the relay not responding to the test probes at all.

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  • 35. 

    During operation of an A/M32A–60A, what happens if K25 is energized?

    • The alternating current (AC voltage) drops off line

    • Its contacts open and energizes K11A

    • The undervoltage light illuminates

    • The unit operates normally

    Correct Answer
    A. The unit operates normally
    Explanation
    If K25 is energized during the operation of an A/M32A-60A, it means that the unit is functioning as intended and there are no issues or malfunctions. The energization of K25 does not cause any disruptions or changes in the unit's operation, indicating that it continues to operate normally.

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  • 36. 

    This switch on the A/M32A–95 gas turbine compressor starts the automatic starting cycle.

    • Turbine Start

    • Air Load

    • Inhibit

    • Master

    Correct Answer
    A. Turbine Start
    Explanation
    The given correct answer, "Turbine Start," is the switch on the A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor that initiates the automatic starting cycle. This switch is responsible for starting the turbine and initiating the necessary processes for the gas turbine compressor to begin its operation.

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  • 37. 

    This is how is a zener diode is connected in a circuit to protect the load

    • In parallel to the resistor

    • In series with the load

    • In parallel to the load

    • Forward biased

    Correct Answer
    A. In parallel to the load
    Explanation
    A zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in order to protect it. When the voltage across the load exceeds the breakdown voltage of the zener diode, it starts conducting and limits the voltage to the breakdown voltage. This ensures that the load does not receive a voltage higher than the desired level, protecting it from damage. By connecting the zener diode in parallel to the load, it provides a low resistance path for excessive voltage, effectively shunting away the excess current and protecting the load.

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  • 38. 

    An A/M32A–86D is operating and the alternating current (AC)voltmeter is reading 200 volts alternating current (VAC) on all three phases. Which do you do?

    • Adjust VR1

    • Adjust R61

    • Adjust VR1 or R61

    • Switch S15 to the L-N position

    Correct Answer
    A. Switch S15 to the L-N position
    Explanation
    Switch S15 to the L-N position. This is the correct answer because when the AC voltmeter is reading 200 volts on all three phases, it indicates that the meter is measuring the line-to-line voltage. Switching S15 to the L-N position will change the meter to measure the line-to-neutral voltage, which is the correct measurement for this situation. Adjusting VR1 or R61 would not be the appropriate action in this case.

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  • 39. 

    During the operation of a A/M32A–60A generator set, the exhaust gas temperature is excessively high. Which is the probable cause?

    • Air oil seals

    • Fuel atomizer

    • Torus assembly

    • Pneumatic thermostat

    Correct Answer
    A. Pneumatic thermostat
    Explanation
    The probable cause for the excessively high exhaust gas temperature in the A/M32A-60A generator set is the pneumatic thermostat. The pneumatic thermostat is responsible for regulating the temperature in the generator set, and if it is malfunctioning or not functioning properly, it can result in the exhaust gas temperature being too high.

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  • 40. 

    This is the minimum interval that the input and output terminals of the EPU–6/E are inspected.

    • Daily

    • Prior to use

    • Every 6 months

    • Every 12 months

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 6 months
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Every 6 months". This means that the input and output terminals of the EPU-6/E need to be inspected at least once every 6 months. This regular inspection ensures that the terminals are in proper working condition and helps prevent any potential issues or malfunctions. By inspecting the terminals every 6 months, any necessary maintenance or repairs can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, ensuring the optimal performance of the EPU-6/E.

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  • 41. 

    On an A/M32A–95 gas turbine compressor which chambers are pressurized when the butterfly valve is closed?

    • 1 and 3

    • 2 and 4

    • 1, 2, and 3

    • 1, 3, and 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 3, and 4
    Explanation
    When the butterfly valve is closed on an A/M32A-95 gas turbine compressor, chambers 1, 3, and 4 are pressurized.

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  • 42. 

    When would you perform a current or voltage calibration on the A/M24T–16 load bank?

    • Never, the load bank automatically performs calibrations

    • When input values are outside acceptable tolerances.

    • Prior to placing the load on test unit.

    • After a load test is complete.

    Correct Answer
    A. When input values are outside acceptable tolerances.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "When input values are outside acceptable tolerances." This means that a current or voltage calibration on the A/M24T-16 load bank should be performed when the input values deviate from the acceptable range. Calibrations are necessary to ensure accurate and reliable measurements, and to maintain the performance of the load bank. By calibrating the load bank when input values are outside acceptable tolerances, any inaccuracies or deviations can be identified and corrected, ensuring that the load bank functions properly and provides accurate results.

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  • 43. 

    This transformer winding acts as a conductor and provides the path for the voltage to be induced into.

    • Stationary

    • Primary

    • Secondary

    • Field

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary
    Explanation
    The secondary winding of a transformer is responsible for transferring the induced voltage from the primary winding to the load. It acts as a conductor, allowing the voltage to flow through it and deliver power to the connected device. The primary winding, on the other hand, is responsible for receiving the input voltage and creating a magnetic field that induces the voltage in the secondary winding. The stationary and field options are not relevant to this explanation.

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  • 44. 

    You are driving on the flight line and notice an A/M32A–86D power unit with all the fault lights on. You try to reset S23, but the lights stay on. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?

    • S30 is shorted

    • S23 is stuck open

    • K17 contacts are closed

    • K23 contacts are closed

    Correct Answer
    A. S30 is shorted
    Explanation
    The probable cause of the trouble is that S30 is shorted. This means that there is a connection between the two terminals of S30 that should not be there, causing a short circuit. As a result, the fault lights on the A/M32A-86D power unit remain on even after attempting to reset S23.

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  • 45. 

    Which contacts on the annunciator card of the B809A generator set control the alternating current (AC) input to the voltage regulator?

    • Engine fault

    • Regulator fault

    • Generator fault

    • Contactor fault

    Correct Answer
    A. Generator fault
    Explanation
    The contacts on the annunciator card of the B809A generator set that control the AC input to the voltage regulator are the ones related to the generator fault. These contacts are responsible for detecting any faults or issues with the generator, which can affect the AC input to the voltage regulator. By monitoring these contacts, the system can identify and address any problems with the generator to ensure proper functioning of the voltage regulator and overall system performance.

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  • 46. 

    This is how a zener diode is connected in a solid state circuit to regulate voltage.

    • In parallel to the load

    • In series with the load

    • In parallel to the resistor

    • In series with the resistor

    Correct Answer
    A. In parallel to the load
    Explanation
    A zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in a solid state circuit to regulate voltage. When connected in parallel, the zener diode acts as a voltage regulator by maintaining a constant voltage across the load. It achieves this by allowing current to flow through it in the reverse direction when the voltage across the load exceeds the zener voltage. This causes the excess voltage to be dropped across the zener diode, keeping the voltage across the load constant.

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  • 47. 

    In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, how many diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of alternating current (AC)?

    • 4

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    During the first cycle of alternating current (AC) in a circuit using a bridge rectifier, two diodes are forward biased. A bridge rectifier consists of four diodes arranged in a bridge configuration. During the positive half-cycle of the AC input, the two diodes on the top of the bridge become forward biased and conduct current, while the two diodes on the bottom are reverse biased and do not conduct. Therefore, only two diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of AC.

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  • 48. 

    If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, which type of transistor is it?

    • N-type

    • P-type

    • NPN

    • PNP

    Correct Answer
    A. NPN
    Explanation
    If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, it indicates that it is an NPN transistor. In an NPN transistor, the majority charge carriers are electrons (N-type), and the arrow pointing away from the base represents the direction of electron flow.

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  • 49. 

    Which component on the B809A generator set fuel system distributes and delivers an accurate amount of fuel to the engine cylinders?

    • Injector pump

    • Transfer pump

    • Injector nozzles

    • Throttle actuator

    Correct Answer
    A. Injector pump
    Explanation
    The injector pump is responsible for distributing and delivering an accurate amount of fuel to the engine cylinders. It is a crucial component in the fuel system of the B809A generator set, ensuring that the engine receives the right amount of fuel for optimal performance. The injector pump pressurizes the fuel and delivers it to the injectors, which then spray the fuel into the engine cylinders for combustion. Without the injector pump, the engine would not receive the necessary fuel supply, leading to poor performance or even engine failure.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 26, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Ashley

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