2AX7X Edit Code 5 Vol 2

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1. Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

Explanation

Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve shifts exceeding the standard 12-hour limit. In this case, the correct answer is 16 hours, indicating that the maintenance group commanders can approve shifts up to 16 hours in duration.

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2AX7X Edit Code 5 Vol 2 - Quiz

This quiz titled '2ax7x edit code 5 vol 2' assesses knowledge in aviation maintenance under Air Education and Training Command. It covers administrative assignments, training methods, review protocols,... see moreauthority levels for maintenance actions, and system notifications in TBA, enhancing technical qualifications and training statuses. see less

2. Maintenance supply liason personnel report directly to the commander of the

Explanation

Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the logistics readiness squadron. The logistics readiness squadron is responsible for coordinating and managing all logistics operations within the organization. This includes supply chain management, transportation, and maintenance support. As maintenance supply liaison personnel are involved in the supply and maintenance aspects of the organization, it makes sense for them to report directly to the logistics readiness squadron, which oversees these functions.

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3. Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. The PMIC code c indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to classify and identify items that are made of multiple precious metals, such as jewelry or electronic components. The other options, a, g, and p, do not specifically indicate a combination of precious metals.

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4. How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander?

Explanation

The maintenance training flight provides a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the maintenance training flight updates the maintenance group commander on the progress and status of their training activities. This regular briefing helps the commander stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions regarding the maintenance training program.

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5. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacipated.  provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

Explanation

If an individual is due for a training recertification while TDY (Temporary Duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete the recertification after they have returned from their TDY, leave, or period of incapacitation. If they fail to complete the recertification within these 30 days, they will be decertified.

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6. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course?

Explanation

The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course. This is because the unit training manager is in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They are responsible for ensuring that the trainee is prepared and ready for the career development course and that both the trainee and their supervisor are aligned on expectations and goals.

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7. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account after how many days?

Explanation

After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account. This transfer ensures that the assets are properly accounted for and integrated into the base's supply system for efficient management and distribution.

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8. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

Explanation

The correct answer is d18, priority monitor report. This report is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. It is used to track the supply of these parts and prioritize their fulfillment based on their urgency of need.

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9. Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR must be submitted to the screening point within

Explanation

Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR (Deficiency Report) must be submitted to the screening point within 24 hours. This means that any significant or critical issues that are identified must be reported and addressed within a day. This allows for prompt action to be taken to rectify the deficiency and prevent any potential negative consequences or impacts. The 24-hour timeframe ensures that the issue is promptly communicated and prioritized for resolution.

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10. The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is

Explanation

The maximum continuous duty time that workers can be scheduled for without getting maintenance group commander approval is 12 hours. This means that any shift longer than 12 hours would require approval from the maintenance group commander.

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11. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a LRU or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

Explanation

The correct answer is AR or BR. These urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to indicate a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a Line Replaceable Unit (LRU) or Shop Replaceable Unit (SRU) spare. The AR code signifies an urgent requirement, while the BR code indicates a routine requirement. Both codes are applicable in this scenario to request the necessary supplies for repair purposes.

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12. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?

Explanation

The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the QA section. This is because the role of the Product Improvement Manager involves ensuring the quality and improvement of products. The QA section is responsible for quality assurance and testing, making it a suitable assignment for the Product Improvement Manager.

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13. The wing FOD monitor is normally located within the

Explanation

The correct answer is QA section. The Quality Assurance (QA) section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities are performed correctly and in compliance with regulations. The wing FOD (Foreign Object Debris) monitor is a device used to detect and prevent foreign objects from entering the aircraft's engines or causing damage to other components. Since the QA section is responsible for monitoring and ensuring the quality of maintenance activities, it makes sense for the wing FOD monitor to be located within this section.

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14. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

Explanation

The correct answer xb3 refers to the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) that must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock. The ERRC system is used to determine the level of maintenance support required for an asset, with xb3 indicating that the asset is expendable and cannot be repaired or recovered. This means that if the asset becomes unserviceable, it will be disposed of rather than repaired or replaced.

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15. What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

Explanation

The engineering data service center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the relevant information related to engineering projects. This includes drawings, blueprints, specifications, and other technical data. By having a central repository, engineers and other stakeholders can easily access and retrieve the necessary information when needed. This helps to ensure that accurate and up-to-date data is available for reference and use in various engineering projects.

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16. What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

Explanation

Before assuming duties as a Due-In From Maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific block 2b of supply training. This training is essential as it provides the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively monitor and manage DIFM items, which are items that are awaiting repair or maintenance. The training likely covers topics such as tracking DIFM items, coordinating with maintenance personnel, and ensuring timely repairs and replacements.

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17. Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets that are recorded on in-use detail records. The ELO is in charge of coordinating equipment needs and ensuring proper maintenance and repair of assets. They work closely with other offices and departments to ensure that SPRAM assets are accounted for and properly managed.

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18. The wing FOD monitor must notify the majcom FOD mananger within how many hours of a FOD incident?

Explanation

The correct answer is 24. This means that the wing FOD monitor must notify the majcom FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This time frame allows for prompt reporting and investigation of any foreign object debris incidents, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to prevent future incidents and maintain safety standards.

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19. Manpower authorizations are

Explanation

Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have the necessary financial resources allocated to support them. This implies that there is a budget in place to cover the costs associated with these authorizations.

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20. The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

Explanation

The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the inventory of bench stock assets should be sufficient to cover the organization's needs for a period of 30 days, ensuring that there is no shortage of essential items or equipment. Having a 30-day supply allows for efficient operations and minimizes the risk of disruptions due to stockouts or delays in replenishment.

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21. Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

Explanation

The maintenance of red balls is not intended to prevent aircraft status changes. Red balls are used to indicate that an aircraft is not ready for takeoff or that maintenance is being performed on it. They are not directly related to preventing or addressing aircraft status changes, which can occur due to various reasons such as mechanical issues, crew availability, or weather conditions.

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22. What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a quality verification inspection is performed. This inspection is conducted to ensure that the task has been completed according to the required standards and specifications. It involves checking the quality of the work performed by the technician and verifying that it meets the necessary criteria. This inspection helps to identify any errors or defects in the task and ensures that it meets the desired level of quality before it is considered complete.

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23. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through aetc mission ready airman (MRA) and  training detachment courses?

Explanation

Continuation training in maintenance consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that build upon the initial skills training received through AETC Mission Ready Airman (MRA) and training detachment courses. This training focuses on enhancing and expanding the maintenance qualifications of the individuals, ensuring they have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively. It helps them stay updated with the latest developments in their field and maintain their proficiency.

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24. Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liason duty?

Explanation

The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a maintenance supply liaison would typically perform. However, collecting and turning in assets is more likely a responsibility of a different role or department within the organization.

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25. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by various factors such as sediment, minerals, or air bubbles in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not the only cause. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be direct indicators of contamination in the environment.

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26. Who must authorize temporary storage of in-tranit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

Explanation

The host installation commander is the correct answer because they are responsible for the overall security and operations of the installation. They have the authority to authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms to ensure its safety and prevent unauthorized access. The other options, such as the aircraft commander, operations group commander, and mission support group commander, may have specific roles and responsibilities within their respective areas, but the ultimate authority lies with the host installation commander.

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27. Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts requests?

Explanation

The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. As the end-user of the product or service, the customer is in the best position to understand their own needs and urgency. They can assess the importance of the request and communicate their priorities to the relevant parties involved in the supply chain.

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28. When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB, supply personnel notify the

Explanation

When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB (Time Not Mission Capable Benchstock), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance activities, including the procurement and distribution of parts. They ensure that the necessary parts are available to maintain the operational readiness of aircraft and equipment. By notifying the MOC about the issuance of a MICAP part, supply personnel can initiate the process of acquiring the required part and ensure that it is promptly delivered to the appropriate maintenance personnel.

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29. What maintenance standardization and eval team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder eval while the technician performs a task?

Explanation

A personnel evaluation is an individual assessment conducted by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) while the technician performs a task. This evaluation is done over-the-shoulder, meaning that the MSET member closely observes the technician's performance to assess their skills, knowledge, and adherence to maintenance standards. The purpose of this evaluation is to ensure that the technician is competent and meets the required standards for the task being performed.

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30. TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time

Explanation

TBA provides AF personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that personnel can easily see and track their own qualifications, certifications, and training progress. This feature allows them to stay updated on their own professional development and ensure that they meet the necessary requirements for their roles.

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31. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

Explanation

A maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a point of contact between maintenance and supply personnel, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for maintenance operations. They also address any issues or discrepancies that may arise in the supply chain, working towards efficient and effective supply management.

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32. Provided it is still serviceable, which type of a shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

Explanation

You are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date a shelf life item if it is still serviceable.

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33. Which of the following is not a TO change priority category?

Explanation

The given question asks for a category that is not a TO (Task Order) change priority. The options provided are "urgent," "routine," "standard," and "emergency." The correct answer is "standard" because "urgent," "routine," and "emergency" are all valid categories for TO change priority, indicating the level of urgency or importance. However, "standard" does not indicate any particular level of priority or urgency, making it the category that is not a TO change priority.

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34. Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

Explanation

The correct answer is A4U. This answer suggests that A4U has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system.

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35. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment?

Explanation

The equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment is made up of 9 digits. This code is used to uniquely identify each piece of equipment and is commonly used in industries such as manufacturing, construction, and maintenance. Having a 9-digit code allows for a wide range of unique combinations, ensuring that each piece of equipment can be easily identified and tracked.

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36. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing and effective maintenance recovery operation?

Explanation

AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and processes necessary for the management and maintenance of aircraft and equipment. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as maintenance recovery operations in the event of equipment failure or malfunction. This publication serves as a comprehensive guide for maintenance personnel to ensure efficient and effective maintenance operations.

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37. In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red-x" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of

Explanation

To be given authority to downgrade a "red-x," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant or higher can have the authority to downgrade a "red-x." This requirement ensures that only experienced and knowledgeable individuals are given the responsibility to make such decisions, as they have demonstrated their expertise and leadership capabilities through their rank advancement.

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38. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

Explanation

The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role is responsible for overseeing the day-to-day operations and safety within a specific section or department. They have direct knowledge of the hazards present in their work area and are in the best position to create and implement a training plan to ensure personnel are aware of these hazards and how to mitigate them.

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39. Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

Explanation

The correct answer is "afto form 20, caution tag." The AFTO Form 20 is used to document maintenance actions, and the caution tag is specifically used to indicate that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag serves as a visual reminder to personnel that the part is ready for use and has been properly prepared.

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40. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

Explanation

The squadron commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian.

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41. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

Explanation

The organization effectiveness report, also known as the m-24 supply tracking document, provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report allows management to track and analyze the effectiveness of the organization's supply support system, ensuring that issues are being addressed and supplies are being properly managed. It provides valuable insights into the efficiency and effectiveness of the supply chain, allowing for improvements to be made as necessary.

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42. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment, installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must arrange for security checks to be conducted every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and protection of the sensitive equipment from unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks at frequent intervals help to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of the equipment, reducing the risk of any potential security breaches.

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43. Which is not normally a MXG TO distribution office (TODO) duty?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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44. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority is required to notify

Explanation

When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the PS&D (Property, Supply, and Distribution) authority is required to be notified. PS&D is responsible for managing and tracking the distribution and supply of items, including serially controlled ones. They need to be informed about the cannibalization so that they can update their records and ensure proper inventory management. QA (Quality Assurance), programs and resources flight, and maintenance management analysis may be involved in the process, but the specific authority to be notified is PS&D.

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45. Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the dropped prevention program?

Explanation

Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the dropped prevention program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations. Unlike bolts, panels, and safety pins, which are accidental or unintentional drops, explosive munitions are purposefully used and released as part of military operations. Therefore, they are not classified as dropped objects under the prevention program.

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46. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

Explanation

When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a supply discrepancy report is submitted. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supplies received, such as incorrect or damaged items. By submitting a supply discrepancy report, the person can inform the appropriate authorities about the problem and request a refund or a replacement for the faulty item.

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47. Who acts as the DR focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

Explanation

The correct answer is "action point." The action point acts as the DR focal point between the support point and the submitting organization. This means that the action point is responsible for coordinating and facilitating communication and actions between these two entities.

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48. What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is dd form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed for investigating property loss and determining financial liability. The form helps in recording the details of the investigation, including the cause of the loss, responsible parties, and the amount of financial liability. This documentation is crucial for accountability and ensuring proper procedures are followed in cases of property loss.

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49. In regards to the modification managment program, which agency serves as the operators interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?

Explanation

The lead command serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system in the modification management program. This means that the lead command is responsible for communicating and coordinating with the single point manager, who oversees the modifications of the weapons system. The lead command acts as the intermediary between the operators and the single point manager, ensuring effective communication and smooth management of the modifications.

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50. In the TBA, what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected dowtimes, and training update info?

Explanation

The "system messages" board provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update info. This means that users will be informed about any issues or glitches with the application, allowing them to be aware of and possibly troubleshoot any problems they may encounter while using it.

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51. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held

Explanation

The correct answer is monthly because a meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is typically held once a month. Holding the meeting on a monthly basis allows for regular updates and discussions on staffing needs and concerns within the group. This frequency ensures that any issues related to manning can be addressed in a timely manner and appropriate actions can be taken to resolve them.

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52. Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

Explanation

Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated areas where specific maintenance tasks are performed and access is limited to authorized personnel. While radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks all involve maintenance activities that require restricted areas for safety reasons, weapons loading operations typically take place in designated areas such as armories or specialized facilities, rather than in restricted maintenance areas.

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53. When a unit has received an unsat maintenance standardization and eval team rating (MSET), the MXG/CC directs QA to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

Explanation

When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection within 30 days. This allows QA to assess the unit's progress in addressing the deficiencies identified in the MSET rating and ensure that corrective actions have been implemented effectively.

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54. Who in the maintenance group is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

Explanation

The maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements. This individual oversees the operations and maintenance of the squadron, ensuring that they have the necessary resources, equipment, and personnel to meet the manufacturing needs of the local area. They are responsible for coordinating with other units and departments to ensure that the necessary capabilities are in place and that any issues or challenges are addressed promptly.

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55. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Explanation

The LRS chief inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all necessary inspections and programming are conducted on the unit's supply assets. They have the authority to review and approve the list, making sure that all assets are properly maintained and programmed for operational use.

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56. Who designates the impoundment official for a particular impoundment situation?

Explanation

The applicable impoundment authority is responsible for designating the impoundment official for a particular impoundment situation. This authority has the power to determine who will be in charge of the impoundment process. The MXG vice commander and MXG impoundment release authority may have certain roles and responsibilities within the impoundment process, but they are not specifically designated to choose the impoundment official. The applicable squadron commander may have some authority in the impoundment situation, but the final decision lies with the applicable impoundment authority.

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57. Who is the QA chief inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program functions are performed?

Explanation

The QA chief inspector is directly responsible to the QA OIC/SUPT for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program functions are performed. This means that the QA OIC/SUPT is the person who oversees and supervises the QA chief inspector in their role. They are responsible for ensuring that the necessary maintenance standards and evaluation programs are being carried out effectively and efficiently.

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58. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which majcom?

Explanation

Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for recruiting, training, and educating the Air Force personnel. As TDs are directly involved in training activities, it makes sense for them to be assigned to the command that focuses on education and training. The other options, Air Combat Command (ACC), Air Training Command (ATC), and Air Reserve Command (ARC), have different areas of responsibility and are not specifically dedicated to training and education.

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59. The block training method is normally used to each which maintenance training flight (mtf) training course?

Explanation

The block training method is typically used to teach maintenance orientation in a maintenance training flight (MTF) course. This method involves grouping related topics together in blocks or modules, allowing for a more organized and comprehensive approach to training. Maintenance orientation is crucial in familiarizing trainees with the basic concepts, procedures, and responsibilities related to maintenance operations. It provides an overview of the maintenance organization, safety practices, documentation requirements, and other essential aspects of the maintenance field.

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60. What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, majcom mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2. The training phase that has these four sub-phases is the Initial Qualification Training phase. This phase includes multiphase training, which involves learning the basic skills and knowledge required for the job. The majcom mandatory phase focuses on specific requirements set by the Major Command. The freeflow phase allows trainees to practice their skills in a more independent and flexible manner. Finally, the maintenance qualification training phase ensures that trainees are fully qualified and competent in their job before moving on to operational duties.

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61. Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

Explanation

Supply point accounts must be reconciled semiannually by the workcenter supply point monitor. This means that the reconciliation process should be conducted twice a year. Reconciling the accounts helps ensure accuracy and consistency in tracking supply points and their inventory. It allows for identifying any discrepancies or errors in the records, as well as maintaining proper control over the supply chain. By reconciling the accounts semiannually, the workcenter supply point monitor can ensure that the supply points are properly managed and that any issues are promptly addressed.

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62. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

Explanation

The correct answer is d04, daily document register. The daily document register is a supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps a record of all the documents that have been processed, allowing for easy tracking and reference.

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63. Who designates cannibalization authorities?

Explanation

The MXG commander is responsible for designating cannibalization authorities. Cannibalization refers to the practice of removing parts or components from one aircraft to be used on another aircraft in order to keep it operational. As the commander of the Maintenance Group (MXG), they have the authority to make decisions regarding maintenance operations and resource allocation, including authorizing cannibalization when necessary.

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64. How often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (scr)

Explanation

The maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent must review and sign the Special Certification Roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster twice a year. This ensures that they stay updated on the certifications of the personnel listed on the roster and can take appropriate actions if any certifications have expired or need renewal. Reviewing and signing the SCR semi-annually helps maintain the accuracy and validity of the certifications within the maintenance operations.

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65. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?

Explanation

Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. This is because the LRS material management element is responsible for managing and providing the necessary materials and supplies for maintenance operations. They ensure that the required items are available and properly distributed to support maintenance activities. Therefore, coordination with the LRS material management element is crucial in establishing and locating a supply point in a maintenance work area.

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66. What maintenance operations flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies? 

Explanation

The plans, scheduling, and documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies. This section is in charge of creating and maintaining maintenance plans, scheduling maintenance activities, and documenting all maintenance operations. They play a crucial role in ensuring that all maintenance tasks are properly recorded and managed in accordance with time compliance technical orders.

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67. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW

Explanation

When a dropped object leads to casualties or property damage, it must be reported according to AFI 10-206, which deals with operational reporting. This regulation likely outlines the specific steps and procedures that need to be followed when reporting such incidents. It ensures that the appropriate authorities are notified and that proper documentation is maintained for accountability and further investigation if necessary.

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68. Who has the responsibility for overall DR program managment for the submitting organizatioin or group?

Explanation

The originating point refers to the individual or group who is responsible for the overall management of the Disaster Recovery (DR) program for the submitting organization or group. They are in charge of initiating and overseeing the entire DR program, ensuring that all necessary steps are taken to effectively respond to and recover from potential disasters or emergencies.

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69. Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?

Explanation

The mission support group commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians. This individual is in charge of overseeing the mission support group, which includes various functions such as logistics, communications, and personnel support. As a result, they have the authority and responsibility to review and approve or deny SPRAM authorizations to ensure they align with the group's mission and objectives.

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70. Who is the office of primary responsibility for developement of wing procedures for control and managment of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?

Explanation

The maintenance group commander is responsible for the development of wing procedures for the control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas. This role involves overseeing the maintenance group and ensuring that proper procedures are in place for the safe and efficient use of tools and equipment. The maintenance group commander is in a leadership position and has the authority to make decisions and implement necessary changes to improve the maintenance processes.

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Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for...
Maintenance supply liason personnel report directly to the commander...
Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of...
How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of...
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on...
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee...
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be...
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all...
Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR must be submitted to...
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for...
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply...
The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to...
The wing FOD monitor is normally located within the
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC)...
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and...
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive...
Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized...
The wing FOD monitor must notify the majcom FOD mananger within how...
Manpower authorizations are
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how...
Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent
What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician...
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on...
Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liason...
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-tranit classified material...
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery...
When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB, supply personnel...
What maintenance standardization and eval team (MSET) individual...
TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall...
Provided it is still serviceable, which type of a shelf life item are...
Which of the following is not a TO change priority category?
Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO...
How many digits make up an equipment identification designator code...
Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing and...
In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red-x" an...
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan...
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly...
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for...
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which...
Which is not normally a MXG TO distribution office (TODO) duty?
If a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority is...
Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew...
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type...
Who acts as the DR focal point between the support point and...
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
In regards to the modification managment program, which agency serves...
In the TBA, what type of notification does the "system...
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is...
Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance...
When a unit has received an unsat maintenance standardization and eval...
Who in the maintenance group is responsible for ensuring the...
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply...
Who designates the impoundment official for a particular impoundment...
Who is the QA chief inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the...
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which...
The block training method is normally used to each which maintenance...
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, majcom...
Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled...
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document...
Who designates cannibalization authorities?
How often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance...
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance...
What maintenance operations flight section is responsible for...
A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage...
Who has the responsibility for overall DR program managment for the...
Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for...
Who is the office of primary responsibility for developement of wing...
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