2AX7X Edit Code 5 Vol 2

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  • 1/70 Questions

    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

    • 14 hrs
    • 15 hrs
    • 16 hrs
    • 18 hrs
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled '2ax7x edit code 5 vol 2' assesses knowledge in aviation maintenance under Air Education and Training Command. It covers administrative assignments, training methods, review protocols, authority levels for maintenance actions, and system notifications in TBA, enhancing technical qualifications and training statuses.

2AX7X Edit Code 5 Vol 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Maintenance supply liason personnel report directly to the commander of the

    • Maintenance squadron

    • Logistics readiness squadron

    • Aircraft maintenance squadron

    • Maintenance operations squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics readiness squadron
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the logistics readiness squadron. The logistics readiness squadron is responsible for coordinating and managing all logistics operations within the organization. This includes supply chain management, transportation, and maintenance support. As maintenance supply liaison personnel are involved in the supply and maintenance aspects of the organization, it makes sense for them to report directly to the logistics readiness squadron, which oversees these functions.

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  • 3. 

    Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. The PMIC code c indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to classify and identify items that are made of multiple precious metals, such as jewelry or electronic components. The other options, a, g, and p, do not specifically indicate a combination of precious metals.

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  • 4. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight provides a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the maintenance training flight updates the maintenance group commander on the progress and status of their training activities. This regular briefing helps the commander stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions regarding the maintenance training program.

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  • 5. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacipated.  provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual is due for a training recertification while TDY (Temporary Duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete the recertification after they have returned from their TDY, leave, or period of incapacitation. If they fail to complete the recertification within these 30 days, they will be decertified.

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  • 6. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course?

    • Operations officer

    • Group commander

    • Unit training manager

    • Maintenance training flight commander or chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course. This is because the unit training manager is in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They are responsible for ensuring that the trainee is prepared and ready for the career development course and that both the trainee and their supervisor are aligned on expectations and goals.

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  • 7. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account after how many days?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account. This transfer ensures that the assets are properly accounted for and integrated into the base's supply system for efficient management and distribution.

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  • 8. 

    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

    • D18, priority monitor report

    • D04, daily document register

    • M-24, organization effectiveness report

    • D23, repair cycle asset managment list

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, priority monitor report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d18, priority monitor report. This report is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. It is used to track the supply of these parts and prioritize their fulfillment based on their urgency of need.

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  • 9. 

    Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR must be submitted to the screening point within

    • 8 hrs

    • 16 hrs

    • 24 hrs

    • 32 hrs

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hrs
    Explanation
    Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR (Deficiency Report) must be submitted to the screening point within 24 hours. This means that any significant or critical issues that are identified must be reported and addressed within a day. This allows for prompt action to be taken to rectify the deficiency and prevent any potential negative consequences or impacts. The 24-hour timeframe ensures that the issue is promptly communicated and prioritized for resolution.

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  • 10. 

    The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is

    • 12 hrs

    • 13 hrs

    • 14 hrs

    • 15 hrs

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hrs
    Explanation
    The maximum continuous duty time that workers can be scheduled for without getting maintenance group commander approval is 12 hours. This means that any shift longer than 12 hours would require approval from the maintenance group commander.

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  • 11. 

    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a LRU or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • IA or JA

    • AR or BR

    • AA or AM

    • BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AR or BR. These urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to indicate a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a Line Replaceable Unit (LRU) or Shop Replaceable Unit (SRU) spare. The AR code signifies an urgent requirement, while the BR code indicates a routine requirement. Both codes are applicable in this scenario to request the necessary supplies for repair purposes.

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  • 12. 

    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?

    • QA

    • Engine management

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    • MOC

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the QA section. This is because the role of the Product Improvement Manager involves ensuring the quality and improvement of products. The QA section is responsible for quality assurance and testing, making it a suitable assignment for the Product Improvement Manager.

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  • 13. 

    The wing FOD monitor is normally located within the

    • Maintenance flight

    • QA section

    • Engine management section

    • MOC

    Correct Answer
    A. QA section
    Explanation
    The correct answer is QA section. The Quality Assurance (QA) section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities are performed correctly and in compliance with regulations. The wing FOD (Foreign Object Debris) monitor is a device used to detect and prevent foreign objects from entering the aircraft's engines or causing damage to other components. Since the QA section is responsible for monitoring and ensuring the quality of maintenance activities, it makes sense for the wing FOD monitor to be located within this section.

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  • 14. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • Xf3

    • Xd2

    • Xd1

    • Xb3

    Correct Answer
    A. Xb3
    Explanation
    The correct answer xb3 refers to the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) that must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock. The ERRC system is used to determine the level of maintenance support required for an asset, with xb3 indicating that the asset is expendable and cannot be repaired or recovered. This means that if the asset becomes unserviceable, it will be disposed of rather than repaired or replaced.

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  • 15. 

    What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

    • Audio visual center

    • Engineering data service center

    • AF primary standards laboratory

    • Communication and information system

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering data service center
    Explanation
    The engineering data service center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the relevant information related to engineering projects. This includes drawings, blueprints, specifications, and other technical data. By having a central repository, engineers and other stakeholders can easily access and retrieve the necessary information when needed. This helps to ensure that accurate and up-to-date data is available for reference and use in various engineering projects.

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  • 16. 

    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • 1

    • 3

    • 2b

    • 2a

    Correct Answer
    A. 2b
    Explanation
    Before assuming duties as a Due-In From Maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific block 2b of supply training. This training is essential as it provides the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively monitor and manage DIFM items, which are items that are awaiting repair or maintenance. The training likely covers topics such as tracking DIFM items, coordinating with maintenance personnel, and ensuring timely repairs and replacements.

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  • 17. 

    Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • Flight service center (FSC)

    • Equipment liason office (ELO)

    • Command equipment management office (CEMO)

    • Defense reutilization and marketing office (DRMO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment liason office (ELO)
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets that are recorded on in-use detail records. The ELO is in charge of coordinating equipment needs and ensuring proper maintenance and repair of assets. They work closely with other offices and departments to ensure that SPRAM assets are accounted for and properly managed.

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  • 18. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • Funded

    • Unfunded

    • Both funded and unfunded

    • Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have the necessary financial resources allocated to support them. This implies that there is a budget in place to cover the costs associated with these authorizations.

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  • 19. 

    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the inventory of bench stock assets should be sufficient to cover the organization's needs for a period of 30 days, ensuring that there is no shortage of essential items or equipment. Having a 30-day supply allows for efficient operations and minimizes the risk of disruptions due to stockouts or delays in replenishment.

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  • 20. 

    Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

    • Air aborts

    • Late takeoffs

    • Ground aborts

    • Aircraft status changes

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft status changes
    Explanation
    The maintenance of red balls is not intended to prevent aircraft status changes. Red balls are used to indicate that an aircraft is not ready for takeoff or that maintenance is being performed on it. They are not directly related to preventing or addressing aircraft status changes, which can occur due to various reasons such as mechanical issues, crew availability, or weather conditions.

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  • 21. 

    The wing FOD monitor must notify the majcom FOD mananger within how many hours of a FOD incident?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 24. This means that the wing FOD monitor must notify the majcom FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This time frame allows for prompt reporting and investigation of any foreign object debris incidents, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to prevent future incidents and maintain safety standards.

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  • 22. 

    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through aetc mission ready airman (MRA) and  training detachment courses?

    • Maintenance qualification

    • maintenance refresher

    • On-the-job

    • Ancillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance qualification
    Explanation
    Continuation training in maintenance consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that build upon the initial skills training received through AETC Mission Ready Airman (MRA) and training detachment courses. This training focuses on enhancing and expanding the maintenance qualifications of the individuals, ensuring they have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively. It helps them stay updated with the latest developments in their field and maintain their proficiency.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liason duty?

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • Advising supervisors on supply managenment documents

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a maintenance supply liaison would typically perform. However, collecting and turning in assets is more likely a responsibility of a different role or department within the organization.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetation

    • Stains on ground

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by various factors such as sediment, minerals, or air bubbles in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not the only cause. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be direct indicators of contamination in the environment.

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  • 25. 

    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-tranit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • Aircraft commander

    • Host installation commander

    • Operations group commander

    • Mission support group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Host installation commander
    Explanation
    The host installation commander is the correct answer because they are responsible for the overall security and operations of the installation. They have the authority to authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms to ensure its safety and prevent unauthorized access. The other options, such as the aircraft commander, operations group commander, and mission support group commander, may have specific roles and responsibilities within their respective areas, but the ultimate authority lies with the host installation commander.

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  • 26. 

    Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts requests?

    • Customer

    • Maintenance supply support

    • Maintenance supply liason

    • LRS customer service

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. As the end-user of the product or service, the customer is in the best position to understand their own needs and urgency. They can assess the importance of the request and communicate their priorities to the relevant parties involved in the supply chain.

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  • 27. 

    When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB, supply personnel notify the

    • Operations officer

    • Aircraft section flight chief

    • Maintenance operations center (MOC)

    • AMU P&S dedicated scheduler

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations center (MOC)
    Explanation
    When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB (Time Not Mission Capable Benchstock), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance activities, including the procurement and distribution of parts. They ensure that the necessary parts are available to maintain the operational readiness of aircraft and equipment. By notifying the MOC about the issuance of a MICAP part, supply personnel can initiate the process of acquiring the required part and ensure that it is promptly delivered to the appropriate maintenance personnel.

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  • 28. 

    What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special inspection

    • Personnel evaluation

    • Management inspection

    • Quality verification inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality verification inspection
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a quality verification inspection is performed. This inspection is conducted to ensure that the task has been completed according to the required standards and specifications. It involves checking the quality of the work performed by the technician and verifying that it meets the necessary criteria. This inspection helps to identify any errors or defects in the task and ensures that it meets the desired level of quality before it is considered complete.

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  • 29. 

    TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to distance learning courseware

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • Visibility of available formal training courses AF-wide

    • Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
    Explanation
    TBA provides AF personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that personnel can easily see and track their own qualifications, certifications, and training progress. This feature allows them to stay updated on their own professional development and ensure that they meet the necessary requirements for their roles.

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  • 30. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • Maintenance supply liason

    • Maintenance supply support

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liason
    Explanation
    A maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a point of contact between maintenance and supply personnel, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for maintenance operations. They also address any issues or discrepancies that may arise in the supply chain, working towards efficient and effective supply management.

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  • 31. 

    Provided it is still serviceable, which type of a shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    You are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date a shelf life item if it is still serviceable.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is not a TO change priority category?

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Standard

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard
    Explanation
    The given question asks for a category that is not a TO (Task Order) change priority. The options provided are "urgent," "routine," "standard," and "emergency." The correct answer is "standard" because "urgent," "routine," and "emergency" are all valid categories for TO change priority, indicating the level of urgency or importance. However, "standard" does not indicate any particular level of priority or urgency, making it the category that is not a TO change priority.

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  • 33. 

    Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

    • A4MT

    • A4YE

    • A4U

    • A4BM

    Correct Answer
    A. A4U
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A4U. This answer suggests that A4U has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system.

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  • 34. 

    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    The equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment is made up of 9 digits. This code is used to uniquely identify each piece of equipment and is commonly used in industries such as manufacturing, construction, and maintenance. Having a 9-digit code allows for a wide range of unique combinations, ensuring that each piece of equipment can be easily identified and tracked.

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  • 35. 

    What maintenance standardization and eval team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder eval while the technician performs a task?

    • Quality verification inspection

    • Managment inspection

    • Personnel eval

    • Special inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel eval
    Explanation
    A personnel evaluation is an individual assessment conducted by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) while the technician performs a task. This evaluation is done over-the-shoulder, meaning that the MSET member closely observes the technician's performance to assess their skills, knowledge, and adherence to maintenance standards. The purpose of this evaluation is to ensure that the technician is competent and meets the required standards for the task being performed.

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  • 36. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red-x" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • SMSgt

    • CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "red-x," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant or higher can have the authority to downgrade a "red-x." This requirement ensures that only experienced and knowledgeable individuals are given the responsibility to make such decisions, as they have demonstrated their expertise and leadership capabilities through their rank advancement.

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  • 37. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

    • Operations officer

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron commander

    • Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role is responsible for overseeing the day-to-day operations and safety within a specific section or department. They have direct knowledge of the hazards present in their work area and are in the best position to create and implement a training plan to ensure personnel are aware of these hazards and how to mitigate them.

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  • 38. 

    Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • Afto form 20, caution tag

    • Dd form 1574, serviceable tag-material

    • Dd form 1577-1 unserviceable tag

    • Dd form 1577-2, unserviceable tag (repairable)

    Correct Answer
    A. Afto form 20, caution tag
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "afto form 20, caution tag." The AFTO Form 20 is used to document maintenance actions, and the caution tag is specifically used to indicate that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag serves as a visual reminder to personnel that the part is ready for use and has been properly prepared.

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  • 39. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron commander

    • Flight commander/chief

    • Operations officer/maintenance superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian.

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  • 40. 

    Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

    • D18, priority monitor report

    • D04, daily document register

    • M-24, organization effectiveness report

    • D2, repair cycle asset managment list

    Correct Answer
    A. M-24, organization effectiveness report
    Explanation
    The organization effectiveness report, also known as the m-24 supply tracking document, provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report allows management to track and analyze the effectiveness of the organization's supply support system, ensuring that issues are being addressed and supplies are being properly managed. It provides valuable insights into the efficiency and effectiveness of the supply chain, allowing for improvements to be made as necessary.

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  • 41. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment, installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • Hour

    • 2 hours

    • 3 hours

    • 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must arrange for security checks to be conducted every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and protection of the sensitive equipment from unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks at frequent intervals help to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of the equipment, reducing the risk of any potential security breaches.

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  • 42. 

    Which is not normally a MXG TO distribution office (TODO) duty?

    • Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required

    • Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts

    • Advising MXG/CC on TO availability

    • Resolving TO availability problems

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
  • 43. 

    If a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority is required to notify

    • QA

    • Programs and resources flight

    • Maintenance managment analysis

    • PS&D

    Correct Answer
    A. PS&D
    Explanation
    When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the PS&D (Property, Supply, and Distribution) authority is required to be notified. PS&D is responsible for managing and tracking the distribution and supply of items, including serially controlled ones. They need to be informed about the cannibalization so that they can update their records and ensure proper inventory management. QA (Quality Assurance), programs and resources flight, and maintenance management analysis may be involved in the process, but the specific authority to be notified is PS&D.

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  • 44. 

    Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing and effective maintenance recovery operation?

    • AFTTP 3-21.1, aircraft maintenance

    • AFI 10-403, deployment planning and execution

    • AFI 33-103, requirements development and processing

    • AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance managment

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance managment
    Explanation
    AFI 21-101, aircraft and equipment maintenance management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and processes necessary for the management and maintenance of aircraft and equipment. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as maintenance recovery operations in the event of equipment failure or malfunction. This publication serves as a comprehensive guide for maintenance personnel to ensure efficient and effective maintenance operations.

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  • 45. 

    When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

    • DR

    • Supply discrepancy report

    • Maintenance cross-tell report

    • PQDR

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply discrepancy report
    Explanation
    When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a supply discrepancy report is submitted. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supplies received, such as incorrect or damaged items. By submitting a supply discrepancy report, the person can inform the appropriate authorities about the problem and request a refund or a replacement for the faulty item.

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  • 46. 

    Who acts as the DR focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

    • Originator

    • Action point

    • Screening point

    • Originating point

    Correct Answer
    A. Action point
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "action point." The action point acts as the DR focal point between the support point and the submitting organization. This means that the action point is responsible for coordinating and facilitating communication and actions between these two entities.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the dropped prevention program?

    • Bolt

    • Panel

    • Safety pin

    • Explosive munitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive munitions
    Explanation
    Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the dropped prevention program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations. Unlike bolts, panels, and safety pins, which are accidental or unintentional drops, explosive munitions are purposefully used and released as part of military operations. Therefore, they are not classified as dropped objects under the prevention program.

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  • 48. 

    What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

    • Af imt 453, report of survey register

    • Af imt 1185, statement of record data

    • Dd form 362, statement of charges/cash collection voucher

    • Dd form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Dd form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss
    Explanation
    The correct answer is dd form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed for investigating property loss and determining financial liability. The form helps in recording the details of the investigation, including the cause of the loss, responsible parties, and the amount of financial liability. This documentation is crucial for accountability and ensuring proper procedures are followed in cases of property loss.

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  • 49. 

    In the TBA, what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected dowtimes, and training update info?

    • Open suspenses

    • System upgrades

    • Application problems

    • Changes to your user roles

    Correct Answer
    A. Application problems
    Explanation
    The "system messages" board provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update info. This means that users will be informed about any issues or glitches with the application, allowing them to be aware of and possibly troubleshoot any problems they may encounter while using it.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jul 18, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Chorne1787
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