3D151 Client Systems U.R.E. Vol 2 (Edit Code 2)

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

    • Briefs users on the proper use of PWCS equipment
    • Implements unit-level customer education program
    • Turns in excess equipment over to the base PWCS manager
    • All of the above
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge on client systems management, focusing on the use of Remedy for ticketing and the integration of IMDS with ES-S. It tests understanding of system replacement, ticket assignment, and forms used in problem resolution, crucial for IT and support roles.

3D151 Client Systems U.R.E. Vol 2 (Edit Code 2) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?

    • A resolution group only

    • A specific technician only

    • Remedy automatically assigns tickets

    • A resolution group or specific technician

    Correct Answer
    A. A resolution group or specific technician
    Explanation
    In Remedy, tickets for fixing problems can be assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician. This means that the responsibility for resolving the issues can be distributed among a group of individuals or assigned to a single technician based on the nature of the problem and the availability of resources.

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  • 3. 

    What are the two different types of current used for power?

    • 100 v (volts) and 210 v

    • 105 v and 215 v

    • 110 v and 220 v

    • 115 v and 225 v

    Correct Answer
    A. 110 v and 220 v
    Explanation
    The two different types of current used for power are 110 volts and 220 volts. These are standard voltages used in many countries for household electrical systems. The lower voltage of 110 volts is typically used for smaller appliances and electronics, while the higher voltage of 220 volts is used for larger appliances and equipment.

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  • 4. 

    Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?

    • Identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a CI

    • Record and report change processing and implementation status

    • Control changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above statements pertain to configuration management. Configuration management involves identifying and documenting the functional and physical characteristics of a Configuration Item (CI), recording and reporting change processing and implementation status, as well as controlling changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI. These activities are essential in ensuring that the configuration of a system or product is properly managed and maintained throughout its lifecycle.

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  • 5. 

    What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user’s domain account is deleted?

    • Changed

    • Deleted

    • Updated

    • Reviewed

    Correct Answer
    A. Deleted
    Explanation
    When a user's domain account is deleted, their e-mail account is also deleted. This means that all the data and settings associated with the e-mail account, such as emails, contacts, and preferences, are permanently removed and cannot be accessed anymore. Deleting the domain account essentially terminates the user's access to the e-mail account as well.

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  • 6. 

    Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

    • AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log

    • AF Form 1119, Monthly Monetary Records

    • AF Form 1019, Armament Recording Program Mission Data

    • AF Form 1122, Personal Property and Personal Effects Inventory

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log
    Explanation
    AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log is the correct answer because it is specifically designed for recording visitors into restricted areas. This form serves as a register log to maintain a record of individuals who have accessed these areas, ensuring security and accountability. The other forms listed are not relevant to visitor registration or restricted areas.

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  • 7. 

    What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system ( PWCS) assets?

    • Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS)

    • Tracking and Reporting System

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System

    • Core Automated Maintenance System

    Correct Answer
    A. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS)
    Explanation
    The only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets is the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS). This system is specifically designed to track and manage the inventory of PWCS assets, ensuring accurate and up-to-date records of these assets. The other options listed, such as the Tracking and Reporting System, Integrated Maintenance Data System, and Core Automated Maintenance System, are not specifically designed for PWCS assets and therefore are not the correct answer.

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  • 8. 

    Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?

    • Weapons

    • Support

    • Telephone

    • Communications

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications
    Explanation
    AIMS is an Asset Inventory Management System used by the Air Force to track and manage various assets. The correct answer, "Communications," refers to the specific type of assets that AIMS is used to track and manage. This could include equipment, devices, and systems related to communication within the Air Force, such as radios, satellites, and network infrastructure. By using AIMS, the Air Force can effectively monitor and maintain their communication assets for optimal performance and readiness.

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  • 9. 

    Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device’s original intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?

    • Pager

    • Land mobile radio ( LMR)

    • Family radio service (FRS)

    • Personal digital assistant (PDA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Family radio service (FRS)
    Explanation
    The Family Radio Service (FRS) device was originally intended for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area. This service provides a low-cost and easy-to-use wireless communication option for personal use. It allows individuals to stay connected and communicate with each other in situations such as outdoor activities, shopping, or during emergencies. The FRS device operates on a set of specific frequencies and does not require a license to use, making it accessible and convenient for personal wireless communication needs.

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  • 10. 

    Each cell in a service area has what tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area?

    • Eastern

    • Western

    • Central

    • Northern

    Correct Answer
    A. Central
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Central" because the question is asking about the tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in each cell of a service area. The term "Central" suggests that this tower and assembly are located centrally within the service area, allowing for efficient coverage and communication with cell phones in that area.

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  • 11. 

    What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?

    • Communications security

    • Transmission security

    • Emission security

    • Computer security

    Correct Answer
    A. Emission security
    Explanation
    The Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force is called "Emission security." Emission security refers to the measures taken to protect against the unintentional release of compromising emanations from electronic equipment. These emanations can be intercepted and exploited by adversaries to gather sensitive information. The TEMPEST program focuses on ensuring that electronic equipment used by the Air Force does not emit any compromising signals that could be intercepted. Therefore, emission security is the correct term for the TEMPEST program in the Air Force.

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  • 12. 

    Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?

    • Communications security

    • Line route or visual

    • Separation

    • Electrical

    Correct Answer
    A. Line route or visual
    Explanation
    Protected distribution systems (PDS) require scheduled inspections of the line route or visual. This means that regular inspections need to be conducted to ensure that the physical route of the distribution system is secure and free from any potential vulnerabilities or threats. This includes visually inspecting the line and its surroundings to identify any signs of tampering or damage that could compromise the security of the system. These inspections help to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the PDS in protecting sensitive information and communication.

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  • 13. 

    Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?

    • Diesel

    • Gasoline

    • Fossil fuel

    • Liquid petroleum

    Correct Answer
    A. Fossil fuel
    Explanation
    Fossil fuel is not used for reciprocating generators. Reciprocating generators typically use diesel or gasoline as fuel sources. Fossil fuel is a general term that includes coal, oil, and natural gas, which are not typically used directly as fuel for reciprocating generators. Liquid petroleum is a type of fossil fuel, so it is also not used for reciprocating generators.

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  • 14. 

    Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

    • Secure telephone unit (STU)

    • Cryptographic telephone ( CT)

    • Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)

    • Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone)

    Correct Answer
    A. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). STE is a secure voice telephone that can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN). It provides encryption and decryption capabilities to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of voice communications over ISDN lines. STE is commonly used by government and military organizations to protect sensitive information during telephone conversations.

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  • 15. 

    The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro is a packet encryption device for Internet Protocol (IP)

    • Version 4 and version 6

    • Version 4 and version 5

    • Version 5 only

    • Version 4 only

    Correct Answer
    A. Version 4 and version 6
    Explanation
    The TACLANE-Micro is a packet encryption device that is designed to encrypt Internet Protocol (IP) packets. It is capable of encrypting both version 4 and version 6 of the IP protocol. This means that it can secure communications over both IPv4 and IPv6 networks, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the data being transmitted.

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  • 16. 

    What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?

    • Percentage of modulation

    • Signal-to-noise

    • Selectivity

    • Distortion

    Correct Answer
    A. Signal-to-noise
    Explanation
    Signal-to-noise ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise. It is a measure of the level of a desired signal compared to the level of background noise. A higher signal-to-noise ratio indicates a stronger, clearer signal, while a lower ratio indicates more noise interference. This ratio is commonly used in various fields, such as telecommunications, audio engineering, and data analysis, to assess the quality and reliability of signals.

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  • 17. 

    Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?

    • Software or hardware

    • Software and equipment

    • Application or hardware

    • Application and equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Software or hardware
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Software or hardware." In Remedy, there are two types of forms used depending on the problem type, which can either be related to software or hardware. This suggests that Remedy is a system that deals with both software and hardware issues, and provides specific forms for each type of problem.

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  • 18. 

    Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?

    • Defense Courier Service

    • Protected distribution system

    • Communications security equipment

    • Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Courier Service
    Explanation
    The Defense Courier Service is not a means for secure telecommunications because it is a physical delivery service used for transporting classified and sensitive materials, rather than transmitting information electronically. The other options, such as the protected distribution system, communications security equipment, and intrusion detection optical communications system, are all methods that are specifically designed to ensure secure telecommunications by encrypting, protecting, and detecting any unauthorized access or interception of data during transmission.

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  • 19. 

    How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    In directory and resource administrator (DRA), only one object can be manipulated at a time. This means that users can perform actions on a single object, such as modifying its properties or permissions, at any given time. The system does not allow simultaneous manipulation of multiple objects in DRA.

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  • 20. 

    What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?

    • Speed

    • Storage

    • Security

    • Standards

    Correct Answer
    A. Speed
    Explanation
    Symmetric cryptology offers the advantage of speed. This means that the encryption and decryption processes using symmetric algorithms are faster compared to asymmetric algorithms. In symmetric cryptology, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, which eliminates the need for complex mathematical operations involved in asymmetric encryption. As a result, symmetric cryptology is ideal for applications that require quick and efficient encryption and decryption, such as secure communication and data transfer.

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  • 21. 

    Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

    • Symmetric

    • Asymmetric

    • Diametric

    • None of the above, they are all the same

    Correct Answer
    A. Asymmetric
    Explanation
    Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because asymmetric encryption involves the use of two different keys, a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The process of generating and managing these keys requires more computational resources and time compared to symmetric encryption, where the same key is used for both encryption and decryption.

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  • 22. 

    Cell sites are generally thought of as being a

    • Square

    • Octagon

    • Hexagon

    • Pentagon

    Correct Answer
    A. Hexagon
    Explanation
    Cell sites are generally designed in a hexagonal shape because it provides the most efficient coverage and minimizes signal interference. The hexagon shape allows for equal distance between each cell tower, ensuring that the signal strength is consistent throughout the network. Additionally, the hexagonal shape allows for easy expansion and scalability of the network by adding more cell sites in a systematic pattern. This shape also helps in reducing the number of dead zones and maximizing the overall coverage area.

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  • 23. 

    What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

    • Addresses

    • Codes

    • Labels

    • Packets

    Correct Answer
    A. Packets
    Explanation
    When making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), voice messages are encoded into packets. VoIP technology breaks down the voice data into small packets, which are then transmitted over the internet. These packets contain the encoded voice information and are sent individually across the network. At the receiving end, the packets are reassembled and decoded to recreate the original voice message. This packetization process allows for efficient transmission of voice data over IP networks.

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  • 24. 

    Which commercial satellite communication system offers true pole-to-pole global coverage?

    • European Telecommunications Satellite Organization

    • International Telecommunications Satellite Organization

    • International Mobile Satellite Organization

    • Iridium

    Correct Answer
    A. Iridium
    Explanation
    Iridium is the correct answer because it is the only commercial satellite communication system that offers true pole-to-pole global coverage. The other options mentioned are organizations, but they do not provide the same level of global coverage as Iridium.

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  • 25. 

    Up to what level of classification does the Iridium Secure Module (ISM) provide secure voice communications?

    • Secret

    • Top Secret

    • Confidential

    • For Official Use Only

    Correct Answer
    A. Top Secret
    Explanation
    The Iridium Secure Module (ISM) provides secure voice communications up to the level of Top Secret. This means that the module is designed to protect sensitive information and conversations that are classified as Top Secret, ensuring that they cannot be intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals.

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  • 26. 

    The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?

    • Access database at Randolph Air Force Base (AFB)

    • Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB

    • Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB

    • Oracle database at Randolph AFB

    Correct Answer
    A. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB
    Explanation
    The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes an Oracle database located at Wright-Patterson AFB.

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  • 27. 

    What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?

    • Eliminate all instances of radiation of electrical impulses

    • Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses

    • Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses

    • Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. TEMPEST is a set of standards and guidelines that aim to prevent the unintentional electromagnetic radiation that can be emitted from electronic devices. By implementing TEMPEST measures, the risk of sensitive information being intercepted or compromised through the unintentional electromagnetic radiation is minimized.

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  • 28. 

    Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?

    • Storage batteries

    • Power wheel

    • Flywheel

    • Batteries

    Correct Answer
    A. Flywheel
    Explanation
    Flywheel UPS systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. Unlike storage batteries, which store electrical energy chemically, flywheel UPS systems store energy mechanically. They use a spinning flywheel to store kinetic energy, which can be converted back to electrical energy when needed. This makes flywheel UPS systems more suitable for applications that require high power and short duration backup, such as data centers or industrial facilities.

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  • 29. 

    Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption. Each operation uses a different key, resulting in a total of three individual keys being used in Triple DES. This provides a higher level of security compared to regular DES, as it requires an attacker to break through three layers of encryption.

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  • 30. 

    Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?

    • Narrowband

    • Network

    • Bulk

    • Open

    Correct Answer
    A. Open
    Explanation
    The encryption type "Open" is not a telecommunications encryption type. This is because "Open" refers to a lack of encryption, indicating that the data is transmitted without any form of encryption. In contrast, "Narrowband," "Network," and "Bulk" are all encryption types commonly used in telecommunications to secure data transmission.

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  • 31. 

    Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device can be used for command and control?

    • Pager

    • Land mobile radio (LMR)

    • Family radio service (FRS)

    • Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Land mobile radio (LMR)
    Explanation
    Land mobile radio (LMR) is the correct answer because it is a type of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device that is commonly used for command and control purposes. LMR devices are widely used by public safety agencies, military organizations, and other industries that require reliable and secure communication between personnel in the field and command centers. LMR devices provide clear and instant communication over a dedicated frequency band, allowing for effective coordination and management of operations.

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  • 32. 

    Which does not fit the “Peaceful Purposes” clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization ( Inmarsat) system?

    • Military use, involving armed conflict

    • Armed forces use, relating to the protection of the wounded

    • United Nations (UN) peacekeeping use, acting under the auspices of the UN Security Council

    • Armed forces use, protecting itself against armed attack within the limitations of UN charter

    Correct Answer
    A. Military use, involving armed conflict
    Explanation
    The "Peaceful Purposes" clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system implies that the system should be used for non-military activities and should not involve armed conflict. Therefore, military use involving armed conflict does not fit this clause as it goes against the principle of peaceful purposes.

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  • 33. 

    What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs personal wireless communications system (PWCS) management?

    • 17–100

    • 21–116

    • 17–210

    • 33–118

    Correct Answer
    A. 17–210
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 17-210 governs personal wireless communications system (PWCS) management.

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  • 34. 

    Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly?

    • Unit

    • Installation spectrum manager (ISM)

    • Communications and Information Systems officer (CSO)

    • Base Personal Wireless Communications Systems (PWCS) manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit
    Explanation
    The unit is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly. This means that the unit is accountable for managing and paying for their own air time expenses. They need to plan and allocate their budget accordingly to ensure that they have enough funds to cover the costs of their air time usage.

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  • 35. 

    How many channels are used when a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another Internet Protocol (IP) host?

    • One, they share the same channel

    • Two, one for each direction

    • Three, two to transmit/receive and one to signal

    • Four, two to transmit and two to receive

    Correct Answer
    A. Two, one for each direction
    Explanation
    When a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another Internet Protocol (IP) host, two channels are used, one for each direction. This means that there is a separate channel for transmitting data from the PBX to the IP host and another channel for transmitting data from the IP host to the PBX. This allows for two-way communication between the two devices during the VoIP session.

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  • 36. 

    A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the

    • Total surface

    • Visible area

    • Concealed area

    • Observable area

    Correct Answer
    A. Total surface
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "total surface" because a line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) requires a close visual inspection of the entire surface area of the system. This includes both the visible and concealed areas, ensuring that all parts of the system are thoroughly examined for any potential issues or damages. The observable area may not cover all parts of the system, so it is important to inspect the total surface to ensure the safety and functionality of the PDS.

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  • 37. 

    Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?

    • The office power requirements

    • The amount of floor space available

    • Future subscriber growth and reserve time required

    • The number of alternating current converters in the office

    Correct Answer
    A. The number of alternating current converters in the office
    Explanation
    When selecting storage batteries for the central office, the number of alternating current converters in the office is not a consideration. The other options, such as the office power requirements, the amount of floor space available, and future subscriber growth and reserve time required, are all important factors to consider when choosing storage batteries for the central office. The number of alternating current converters does not directly impact the selection of storage batteries.

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  • 38. 

    The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can acquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?

    • Static IP only

    • Plaintext only

    • Ciphertext only

    • Ciphertext or plaintext

    Correct Answer
    A. Ciphertext or plaintext
    Explanation
    The TACLANE-Micro can acquire an IP address by DHCP on either the ciphertext or plaintext side. This means that it can obtain an IP address regardless of whether the data is encrypted or not.

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  • 39. 

    What system serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications systems ( PWCS) assets?

    • Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS)

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System

    • Work Order Management System

    • Remedy

    Correct Answer
    A. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS)
    Explanation
    The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) assets. This system is responsible for managing and tracking the inventory of PWCS assets, including suggesting upgrades or replacements when necessary. It helps ensure that the PWCS assets are up to date and functioning optimally by providing a centralized platform for managing upgrades and maintenance.

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  • 40. 

    What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to digital signals?

    • Camera

    • Coder-decoder (CODEC)

    • Network termination (NT) 1

    • Central processing unit (CPU)

    Correct Answer
    A. Coder-decoder (CODEC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Coder-decoder (CODEC). The CODEC is responsible for converting analog signals, such as audio and video, into digital signals that can be transmitted over a network. It performs the encoding of the analog signals into a digital format and the decoding of the digital signals back into analog format for display or playback. This conversion is essential in video teleconferencing systems to ensure the transmission and reception of high-quality audio and video signals.

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  • 41. 

    What component of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint on the network that provides real time, bi-directional communications between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN)?

    • Gateway

    • Gatekeeper

    • Terminal adapter

    • Multipoint control unit (MCU)

    Correct Answer
    A. Gateway
    Explanation
    A gateway is a component of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) that acts as an endpoint on the network. It provides real-time, bi-directional communication between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN). Gateways are responsible for converting voice signals into data packets and vice versa, allowing communication between different networks. They facilitate the interoperability between different protocols and enable communication between VoIP networks and traditional telephone networks. Gateways play a crucial role in connecting different networks and ensuring seamless communication between various devices and systems.

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  • 42. 

    What is a system of error control for data transmission, where the sender adds redundant data to its messages, allowing the receiver to detect and correct errors without the need to ask the sender for additional data?

    • Quality of service (QoS)

    • Real time protocol ( RTP)

    • Forward error correction (FEC)

    • Real time control protocol (RTCP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Forward error correction (FEC)
    Explanation
    Forward error correction (FEC) is a system of error control for data transmission where the sender adds redundant data to its messages. This allows the receiver to detect and correct errors without having to request additional data from the sender. By including extra information in the transmission, FEC enables the receiver to identify and fix errors, improving the reliability and accuracy of data transmission. Unlike other options such as Quality of Service (QoS), Real-Time Protocol (RTP), and Real-Time Control Protocol (RTCP), FEC specifically focuses on error detection and correction without relying on additional data from the sender.

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  • 43. 

    Which Inmarsat terminals have a land mobile terminal, typically has a one-meter flat array antenna, and weights 30 to 40 pounds?

    • B

    • M

    • Aero I

    • Mini-M

    Correct Answer
    A. B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. The explanation for this answer is that Inmarsat terminals that have a land mobile terminal, typically have a one-meter flat array antenna, and weigh 30 to 40 pounds are represented by option B.

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  • 44. 

    What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?

    • Remedy

    • Remedy new

    • Remedy user

    • Remedy ticket

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy user
    Explanation
    To create a new ticket, you must use the tool called "Remedy user." This tool is specifically designed for users to create and manage tickets within the Remedy system. It provides the necessary interface and functionalities to input all the required information and details for the new ticket.

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  • 45. 

    What area is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control where unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?

    • Controlled access area (CAA)

    • Restricted access area (RAA)

    • Limited control area (LCA)

    • Uncontrolled access area (UAA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled access area (CAA)
    Explanation
    A controlled access area (CAA) is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control. This means that unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This ensures that only authorized individuals are allowed access to the area, enhancing security and preventing unauthorized entry. Restricted access areas (RAA), limited control areas (LCA), and uncontrolled access areas (UAA) do not necessarily have the same level of security measures in place as a controlled access area.

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  • 46. 

    In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or

    • Turbine batteries

    • A turbine engine

    • An engine

    • Batteries

    Correct Answer
    A. A turbine engine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a turbine engine. In electrical power equipment, generators can be either reciprocating or turbine engines. Reciprocating engines use pistons to convert the energy of the fuel into mechanical energy, which is then converted into electrical energy. On the other hand, turbine engines use a turbine to convert the energy of a fluid (such as steam, gas, or water) into mechanical energy, which is then converted into electrical energy. Therefore, a turbine engine is a valid type of generator in electrical power equipment.

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  • 47. 

    Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account?

    • The user’s e-mail will be deleted from the Exchange server

    • Restoring deleted e-mail requires proper justification

    • The wrong account could be deleted

    • Restoring deleted e-mail is difficult

    Correct Answer
    A. The wrong account could be deleted
    Explanation
    Extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account because the wrong account could be deleted. This means that if the person deleting the account is not careful, they might accidentally delete the wrong account, resulting in the loss of important emails and data. This emphasizes the need for caution and double-checking before deleting an account to prevent any irreversible mistakes.

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  • 48. 

    Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a communications security (COMSEC) package?

    • Standard Form ( SF) 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt

    • SF 153, COMSEC Material Report

    • SF 701, Activity Security Checklist

    • SF 702, Security Container Checklist

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 153, COMSEC Material Report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SF 153, COMSEC Material Report. This form is used to accompany a communications security (COMSEC) package. It is specifically designed for reporting and tracking COMSEC material, ensuring that it is properly documented and accounted for during transfer. The SF 135 is used for general records transmittal and receipt, while SF 701 and SF 702 are checklists used for activity and security container security, respectively.

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  • 49. 

    Who appoints the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

    • Unit commander

    • Wing commander

    • Major command (MAJCOM) commander

    • Communications and Information Systems officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit commander
    Explanation
    The unit commander is responsible for appointing the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager. This individual is in charge of overseeing and managing the PWCS within the unit. They are selected by the unit commander based on their qualifications and expertise in communications and information systems. The unit commander has the authority to make this appointment and ensure that the PWCS is effectively managed within the unit.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 24, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Dmkogot

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