3d1x1 Volume Ure CDC: Toughest Quiz!

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1. This practice uses tapes, electronic vaulting, or mirrored disks and should be done regularly

Explanation

Data backup is the correct answer because the question is asking for a practice that involves using tapes, electronic vaulting, or mirrored disks and should be done regularly. Data backup is the process of creating copies of important data to protect against data loss. Tapes, electronic vaulting, and mirrored disks are commonly used methods for backing up data. Regularly performing data backups ensures that in the event of data loss or system failure, the data can be restored from the backup copies.

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3d1x1 Volume Ure CDC: Toughest Quiz! - Quiz

Challenge your knowledge with the '3D1X1 Volume URE CDC: Toughest Quiz!' Focused on client systems, this quiz tests your understanding of information systems, hardware, handheld devices, and data... see moreinterfaces. Essential for learners aiming to master technical communication and management skills in IT. see less

2. What entails how we communicate and manage data?

Explanation

Information systems encompass the processes, technologies, and resources used to collect, store, analyze, and disseminate data and information within an organization or between different entities. These systems play a crucial role in facilitating communication and data management by providing tools and infrastructure for data storage, retrieval, and sharing. They enable organizations to efficiently process and transmit data, support decision-making processes, and improve overall communication and collaboration among individuals and departments. Therefore, information systems are the most appropriate choice to explain how we communicate and manage data.

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3. What devices are mostly small, lightweight, and designed for mobile use?

Explanation

Handhelds are mostly small, lightweight, and designed for mobile use. Unlike computers or hardware, which can be larger and less portable, handhelds are specifically designed to be easily carried and used on the go. They are typically compact in size, making them convenient for mobile use. This makes handhelds the most suitable option for individuals who require a portable device for tasks such as communication, entertainment, or accessing information while on the move.

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4. When troubleshooting after a system failure, this step is a last resort effort when all other avenues have been exhausted

Explanation

When troubleshooting after a system failure, removing and replacing the operating system (OS) is considered a last resort effort when all other avenues have been exhausted. This step involves completely removing the existing OS and replacing it with a fresh installation. It is often done when all other troubleshooting methods, such as rebooting the system or reinstalling application programs, have failed to resolve the issue. By removing and replacing the OS, any underlying software or configuration issues that may have caused the system failure can be eliminated, providing a clean slate for troubleshooting.

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5. What type of remote network provides a private tunnel through public cloud (the Internet)?

Explanation

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a type of remote network that provides a private tunnel through the public cloud, which is the Internet. It allows users to securely access and transmit data over the internet by encrypting the connection between the user's device and the VPN server. This ensures that the data remains private and protected from unauthorized access or interception. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to establish secure connections and protect sensitive information while accessing the internet remotely.

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6. What is an essential tool for any CST to find software approved for use on an AF network?

Explanation

The evaluated/approved product list is an essential tool for any CST (Cybersecurity Technician) to find software that has been approved for use on an AF (Air Force) network. This list ensures that the software meets the necessary security standards and has undergone a thorough evaluation process. By referring to this list, the CST can ensure that they are using software that is authorized and safe to use on the network.

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7. What part of client systems includes the physical aspect of computers, telecommunications, and other devices, to include the interconnect devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is hardware because it refers to the physical aspect of client systems, including computers, telecommunications equipment, and other devices. This encompasses the tangible components of the system, such as the computer itself, cables, routers, switches, and any other equipment used to connect and communicate with other devices. Programs and processes are not part of the physical aspect of client systems, while paperwork is unrelated to the physical components of the system.

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8. What are minor software updates or improvements called?

Explanation

Minor software updates or improvements are commonly referred to as patches. Patches are small pieces of code that are designed to fix bugs, enhance functionality, or improve security in software applications. They are typically released by software developers to address specific issues or make minor changes to the software without requiring a complete update or reinstall. Patches are essential for maintaining the performance and stability of software systems and are regularly released by developers to ensure that their products remain up-to-date and reliable.

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9. What is the unique identification number a NIC provides to a personal computer?

Explanation

A NIC (Network Interface Card) provides a unique identification number known as a MAC address (Media Access Control address) to a personal computer. This address is assigned to the network adapter by the manufacturer and is used to identify the device on a network. The MAC address is a combination of six pairs of hexadecimal digits, separated by colons or hyphens. It is unique to each network interface and is used for communication within a local area network (LAN).

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10. What protocol provides an almost unlimited number of IP addresses?

Explanation

IPv6 provides an almost unlimited number of IP addresses compared to IPv4. IPv4 uses a 32-bit address format, allowing for approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses. On the other hand, IPv6 uses a 128-bit address format, which allows for approximately 340 undecillion unique addresses. This expanded address space of IPv6 ensures that there are enough IP addresses to meet the growing demand for devices and services connected to the internet. Therefore, IPv6 is the correct answer for the question.

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11. What is one of the best habits a CST can form in order to save time, effort, and prevent mistakes?

Explanation

Getting organized is one of the best habits a CST can form in order to save time, effort, and prevent mistakes. When a CST is organized, they can easily locate and access the tools and resources they need, reducing the time spent searching for them. Being organized also helps in prioritizing tasks and managing time effectively, leading to increased productivity. Additionally, being organized reduces the chances of making mistakes as everything is in its proper place and can be easily tracked. Overall, getting organized allows a CST to work more efficiently and effectively.

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12. In Remedy, tickets can be assigned to whom?

Explanation

In Remedy, tickets can be assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician. This means that when a ticket is created, it can be assigned to a group of individuals responsible for resolving the issue or to a specific technician who has the expertise to handle the problem. This flexibility allows for efficient ticket management and ensures that the ticket is assigned to the most appropriate person or group for resolution.

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13. What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to digital signals?

Explanation

The correct answer is the coder/decoder (CODEC). In a video teleconferencing (VTC) system, the CODEC is responsible for converting analog signals, such as video and audio, into digital signals that can be transmitted over the network. This conversion allows for efficient transmission and playback of the video and audio during a teleconference. The CODEC also decodes the received digital signals back into analog signals for display and playback on the receiving end.

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14. What condition occurs when a signal is induced into one circuit from another?

Explanation

Crosstalk is the condition that occurs when a signal is induced into one circuit from another. It happens when there is an unwanted coupling of signals between two or more conductors. This can lead to interference and distortion in the original signal, affecting the overall performance and quality of the circuit. Crosstalk is a common issue in complex electronic systems and can be minimized through proper shielding and isolation techniques.

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15. Which type of precipitation attenuates radio frequency (RF) energy just like rain?

Explanation

Fog is a type of precipitation that consists of tiny water droplets suspended in the air. These droplets can cause attenuation of radio frequency (RF) energy, just like rain does. When RF energy encounters fog, the water droplets scatter and absorb the energy, reducing its strength and causing signal loss. This attenuation can affect the transmission and reception of RF signals, making fog a significant factor to consider in RF communication systems.

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16. What provides the Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) with its security services?

Explanation

The Fortezza card provides the Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) with its security services. The Fortezza card is a cryptographic smart card that is used for secure communication. It is designed to provide encryption and authentication services, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the communication. The card stores encryption keys and performs cryptographic operations, allowing the STE to securely transmit and receive sensitive information.

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17. What item below is not found in the Active Directory structure?

Explanation

The Active Directory structure is a hierarchical framework used to organize and manage resources in a network environment. It includes domains, which are logical groupings of objects, and forests, which are collections of multiple domains. Objects refer to various entities like users, computers, and groups that are stored within the Active Directory. However, Wi-Fi is not a component or item that is typically found within the Active Directory structure. Wi-Fi is a wireless networking technology used to connect devices to a network, but it is not directly related to the organization and management of resources within the Active Directory.

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18. Any hardware added to a computer that expands its capabilities is referred to as a/an

Explanation

A peripheral is any hardware device that is added to a computer to enhance or expand its capabilities. This can include devices such as printers, scanners, keyboards, and mice, which are connected to the computer through various ports or interfaces. These peripherals provide additional functionality and allow the user to interact with the computer system. Therefore, the correct answer is "peripheral".

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19. Printer hardware configuration via the web is done through

Explanation

Printer hardware configuration via the web is done through hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP). HTTP is the protocol used for transmitting data over the internet and allows users to access and interact with web pages. In the context of printer configuration, HTTP enables users to access the printer's web interface through a web browser, where they can make changes to the printer's settings and configuration. This method provides a user-friendly and convenient way to configure printer hardware remotely.

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20. What is installed on a computer to act as the interface between the computer and network?

Explanation

A Network Interface Card (NIC) is installed on a computer to act as the interface between the computer and the network. It is a hardware component that allows the computer to connect to a network and communicate with other devices on the network. The NIC provides the necessary physical connection and protocols for data transmission between the computer and the network, enabling the computer to send and receive data over the network.

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21. Producing radio frequency (RF) energy and radiating useful signals into space is the purpose of the

Explanation

The purpose of a transmitter is to produce radio frequency (RF) energy and radiate useful signals into space. A transmitter is an electronic device that generates and amplifies the RF signal, converting it into electromagnetic waves that can be transmitted through the air or space. It is used in various communication systems such as radio broadcasting, television broadcasting, and wireless communication to transmit information to a receiver. Therefore, the transmitter is the correct answer for this question.

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22. What is the newest generation of secure voice telephone?

Explanation

The newest generation of secure voice telephone is called Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). This device is designed to provide secure communication by encrypting voice signals and protecting against eavesdropping. It is commonly used by government agencies and military organizations to ensure the confidentiality of sensitive information during telephone conversations.

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23. What piece of equipment is at the core of most Wi-Fi networks?

Explanation

A router is at the core of most Wi-Fi networks because it acts as the central hub that connects all devices within the network and facilitates the communication between them. It is responsible for directing data packets between different networks, managing network traffic, and assigning IP addresses to devices. Without a router, devices would not be able to connect to the internet or communicate with each other within the network. Therefore, a router is an essential piece of equipment in Wi-Fi networks.

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24. Who centrally manages the Air Force server updates that keep your workstation antivirus software current?

Explanation

The Air Force Network Operation Center is responsible for centrally managing the Air Force server updates that keep the workstation antivirus software current. They ensure that the antivirus software is up to date and provide support for any issues related to it.

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25. What form of remote network access is often the only choice for rural or remote areas?

Explanation

Dial-up is often the only choice for rural or remote areas because it uses existing telephone lines to establish a connection. These areas may not have access to high-speed internet options like broadband or wireless due to infrastructure limitations. Dial-up provides a basic and slow internet connection by dialing a phone number and connecting to an internet service provider. While it may be outdated and slower compared to other options, it remains a viable choice for areas where other forms of remote network access are not available.

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26. With a software license agreement, who has the full rights to the software and its further distribution and reproduction?

Explanation

The publisher of the software has the full rights to the software and its further distribution and reproduction. A software license agreement typically grants certain rights to the buyer, but the publisher retains the overall ownership and control of the software. They have the authority to determine how the software can be used, distributed, and reproduced, as stated in the license agreement. The US Air Force and US government may have certain rights or restrictions depending on the specific circumstances, but the publisher is the primary entity with full rights.

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27. Which item is not a good practice in helping with future troubleshooting?

Explanation

Remembering every step taken is not a good practice in helping with future troubleshooting because relying solely on memory can lead to errors and omissions. It is difficult to recall every detail accurately, especially when dealing with complex issues. Documentation, on the other hand, provides a reliable record of the troubleshooting process and allows for easy reference in the future. Knowing your network and gathering facts are also important practices as they help in understanding the system and identifying potential issues.

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28. What program translates commands between a device and the programs that use the device?

Explanation

A driver is a program that acts as a translator between a device and the programs that use the device. It allows the operating system and applications to communicate with the device by converting the commands and instructions from the software into a language that the device can understand. The driver ensures that the device functions properly and that the software can utilize its features effectively.

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29. What type of printer software configuration option requires a new port to be created?

Explanation

TCP/IP printing is a type of printer software configuration option that requires a new port to be created. This is because TCP/IP printing uses the TCP/IP protocol to establish a connection between the computer and the printer. In order to establish this connection, a new port needs to be created to facilitate the communication between the two devices. This allows for the successful printing of documents using the TCP/IP printing option.

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30. The term used to refer to the process of launching the OS is the

Explanation

The term used to refer to the process of launching the OS is "boot". This refers to the process of starting up a computer system and loading the operating system into the computer's memory. During the boot process, the computer's hardware is initialized, and the necessary files and settings are loaded into memory, allowing the operating system to start running.

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31. Which of these is a disadvantage of client-server networks?

Explanation

Managing servers requires a dedicated staff is a disadvantage of client-server networks. This means that organizations need to allocate resources and personnel specifically for the task of managing servers, which can be costly and time-consuming. This disadvantage highlights the need for skilled IT professionals to handle server maintenance, updates, and troubleshooting, adding to the overall complexity and cost of maintaining a client-server network.

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32. Which media has a storage capacity of gigabyte (GB) - terabyte (TB), has a slow to moderate speed and is moderately expensive?

Explanation

Tape is the correct answer because it has a storage capacity ranging from gigabytes (GB) to terabytes (TB). It is known for its slow to moderate speed, making it suitable for long-term storage rather than quick access. Additionally, tape drives and tapes themselves can be moderately expensive compared to other storage media options like CDs or DVDs.

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33. What limits a direct wave to normally less than 20 miles?

Explanation

Direct waves, also known as line-of-sight waves, propagate in a straight line from the transmitter to the receiver. However, the curvature of the Earth limits the range of these waves to normally less than 20 miles. As the distance between the transmitter and receiver increases, the Earth's curvature causes the direct wave to gradually bend away from the receiver, resulting in a loss of signal strength. This phenomenon is particularly pronounced at longer distances, ultimately preventing the direct wave from reaching beyond a certain range.

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34. What does Wi-Fi use to carry network signals to the network access point?

Explanation

Wi-Fi uses radio waves to carry network signals to the network access point. Radio waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation that can transmit data wirelessly through the air. Wi-Fi devices, such as routers and smartphones, use radio waves to communicate with each other and provide internet connectivity. These radio waves are transmitted at various frequencies and can travel through walls and other obstacles, allowing for wireless network connections within a certain range.

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35. What cabling is the most commonly used?

Explanation

Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) is the most commonly used cabling. UTP consists of pairs of wires twisted together, without any additional shielding. It is widely used in Ethernet networks and telephone systems due to its cost-effectiveness and ease of installation. UTP is capable of transmitting data at high speeds and is less susceptible to electromagnetic interference. It is a reliable and versatile option for most networking applications.

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36. Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time?

Explanation

Users are required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time to ensure they don't create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place. Default passwords are often well-known and can be easily exploited by hackers. By requiring users to change their passwords, it reduces the risk of unauthorized access to the network and protects the security and integrity of the system.

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37. What describes how a computer finds a specific byte it is looking for in memory?

Explanation

Memory addressing refers to the method by which a computer locates a specific byte in its memory. When the computer needs to access or retrieve data from memory, it uses memory addressing to identify the exact location of the byte it is looking for. This involves assigning unique addresses to each byte in memory, allowing the computer to efficiently and accurately retrieve the desired information. Memory addressing is an essential aspect of computer architecture and plays a crucial role in the overall functioning of a computer system.

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38. The primary reason you measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to

Explanation

Before removing and replacing terminal or distribution frame protectors, it is important to measure the voltage across them to ensure that dangerous voltages are not present on the line. This is crucial for the safety of the individual performing the task, as well as for preventing any potential damage or harm that could be caused by working with live circuits. By measuring the voltage, one can ensure that the line is de-energized and safe to work on.

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39. Use which tool to list all installed device drivers and their status, find hardware components that are not functioning properly or two devices that are in conflict on an OS?

Explanation

Device Manager is the correct answer because it is a tool in the Control Panel of an operating system that allows users to view and manage all the installed device drivers. It provides a detailed list of all the hardware components and their status, allowing users to identify any devices that are not functioning properly or conflicting with each other. Event Viewer is not the correct answer because it is a tool used to view and analyze system event logs, not device drivers. Network Connections is also not the correct answer because it is a tool used to manage network connections, not device drivers.

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40. Which file system is the best choice for data storage if the server is dedicated Windows server?

Explanation

NTFS is the best choice for data storage on a dedicated Windows server because it offers advanced security features, supports larger file sizes and volumes, provides better performance and reliability, and has built-in support for features like encryption and compression. FATS, on the other hand, is an older file system that lacks many of these features and is more suitable for older systems or removable storage devices. Therefore, the correct answer is NTFS.

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41. When a security container is opened, it is inventoried at the

Explanation

The correct answer is "end of the shift or duty day." When a security container is opened, it is standard procedure to inventory its contents at the end of the shift or duty day. This ensures that any items taken from or placed into the container during the day are properly recorded and accounted for. Conducting the inventory at the end of the shift or duty day also allows for a smooth transition between shifts and ensures that the container is secure and ready for the next day's operations.

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42. What are the two major ways to implement a client server network?

Explanation

Thick/thin refers to two major ways of implementing a client-server network. In a thick client model, the client machine performs most of the processing and storage, while the server is responsible for data storage and management. In contrast, a thin client model offloads most of the processing and storage to the server, with the client machine primarily serving as a display terminal. These two approaches offer different trade-offs in terms of cost, performance, and scalability, allowing organizations to choose the most suitable implementation for their specific needs.

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43. What major equipment in a TDC package provides mobile units with flexible, lightweight, secure, modular, and integrated deployable communications?

Explanation

The major equipment in a TDC package that provides mobile units with flexible, lightweight, secure, modular, and integrated deployable communications is the Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) and ICAP. This equipment allows for versatile and adaptable communication capabilities in various environments. The LMST provides satellite connectivity, while the ICAP ensures secure and integrated communication operations. Together, they offer a comprehensive solution for mobile units in need of reliable and efficient communication systems.

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44. Which secure voice telephone can be used on the ISDN?

Explanation

The correct answer is Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). STE is a secure voice telephone that can be used on the ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network). It provides encryption and authentication features to ensure secure communication. STU, CT, and PGPfone are not specifically designed for use on the ISDN network.

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45. When the gain of an anisotropic radiator is compared to the isotropic radiator, the stronger signal of the directional antenna is expressed as

Explanation

When the gain of an anisotropic radiator is compared to the isotropic radiator, the stronger signal of the directional antenna is expressed as decibels (dB) gain. Gain is a measure of the increase in power or intensity of a signal produced by an antenna compared to a reference antenna. Decibels (dB) is a logarithmic unit used to express the ratio of two values, in this case, the ratio of the signal strength of the directional antenna to the signal strength of the isotropic radiator. Therefore, expressing the gain in decibels (dB) helps to quantify and compare the increased signal strength of the directional antenna.

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46. What drives faster processing speeds and increases the power of many computers and communication devices?

Explanation

Nanotechnology is the correct answer because it involves the manipulation and control of matter at the nanoscale level, which allows for the development of smaller and more efficient components. By utilizing nanotechnology, computers and communication devices can be made smaller, faster, and more powerful, as nanoscale materials and structures have unique properties that enhance their performance.

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47. The specifications that should be met, if not exceeded, to ensure a computer is compatible as well as powerful enough to run an operating system without constant problems is for the computer to have the minimum

Explanation

The correct answer is "hardware". In order for a computer to run an operating system without constant problems, it needs to have the necessary hardware components. This includes the processor, memory, storage, and other peripherals that are required for the operating system to function properly. Without adequate hardware, the computer may experience performance issues, crashes, or other compatibility problems with the operating system. Therefore, having the right hardware specifications is crucial for a computer to be compatible and powerful enough to run an operating system smoothly.

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48. What is the simplest and most efficient way to duplicate a computer's software, with no loss of files or configurations within the programs?

Explanation

Imaging software is the simplest and most efficient way to duplicate a computer's software without any loss of files or configurations within the programs. Imaging software allows users to create an exact copy or image of the entire computer system, including the operating system, installed programs, and user data. This image can then be easily restored onto another computer or the same computer in case of any issues or when setting up multiple systems with the same software configuration.

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49. Top secret keying material must be handled, stored, transported and destroyed under

Explanation

Two-person integrity (TPI) control is the correct answer because it ensures that top secret keying material is handled, stored, transported, and destroyed by two individuals working together. This control measure helps to minimize the risk of unauthorized access, theft, or compromise of the keying material. By requiring two people to be present and actively involved in all aspects of handling the material, it adds an extra layer of security and accountability. This reduces the chances of any single individual being able to tamper with or misuse the keying material.

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50. Which models of end offices in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?

Explanation

DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100 are commonly used models of end offices in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS) family to provide base telephone services at Air Force bases.

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51. Which PWCS device can be used for command and control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Land mobile radio (LMR). LMR devices are commonly used for command and control purposes in various industries and organizations. These devices provide reliable and secure communication channels, allowing users to coordinate and manage operations effectively. LMR devices are designed to withstand harsh environments and provide wide area coverage, making them suitable for command and control applications. They offer features such as group calling, emergency alerts, and encryption, ensuring efficient and secure communication between team members.

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52. Which is not a valid form of identity management?

Explanation

Hair is not a valid form of identity management because it is not unique to each individual and can easily be altered through cutting, coloring, or styling. Unlike other options such as iris, palm, and voice, hair does not possess distinct characteristics that can be reliably used for identification purposes.

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53. Who may close tickets in Remedy?

Explanation

The Help Desk may close tickets in Remedy. The Help Desk is responsible for providing support and assistance to customers or end-users. They handle incoming tickets, troubleshoot issues, and provide resolutions. Closing tickets is part of their role as they are responsible for ensuring that the reported issues are resolved or addressed appropriately. Technicians, shift leads, and customers may also interact with the tickets in Remedy, but the primary responsibility for closing tickets lies with the Help Desk.

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54. What are the two types of accounts supported by Windows operation systems?

Explanation

Windows operating systems support two types of accounts: domain and local. A domain account is used to access resources and services on a network, allowing users to log in to multiple computers within a domain. On the other hand, a local account is specific to a single computer and grants access only to resources on that particular machine. Therefore, the correct answer is "Domain and local."

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55. One of the main purposes of the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) handset telephone test set is to

Explanation

The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) handset telephone test set is designed to verify a dial tone. This means that it is used to check if a dial tone is present on the telephone line. This is an important function as a dial tone indicates that the telephone line is operational and ready to make a call. By verifying the presence of a dial tone, the test set helps ensure that the telephone line is functioning correctly and can be used for communication purposes.

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56. Which hardware requirement is defined as the model and clock speed of the CPU?

Explanation

The hardware requirement defined as the model and clock speed of the CPU is processing power. The model of the CPU refers to its specific type or brand, while the clock speed refers to the number of cycles the CPU can execute per second. These factors determine the CPU's ability to handle and process data, making processing power a crucial aspect of hardware requirements.

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57. How many byte sectors is a hard disk divided into?

Explanation

A hard disk is divided into 512 byte sectors. This is a standard sector size used in most modern hard drives. Each sector is a small unit of storage that can hold data. By dividing the hard disk into sectors, it allows for efficient organization and retrieval of data.

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58. What is long-haul transmission component of TDC?

Explanation

The long-haul transmission component of TDC is the Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST). This terminal is designed to provide reliable and secure communication over long distances. It is capable of transmitting and receiving signals across multiple frequency bands, making it versatile and adaptable to different operational requirements. The LMST is lightweight and portable, allowing for easy deployment and mobility in various environments. It plays a crucial role in enabling long-range communication for the TDC system.

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59. Which port on the office version Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine?

Explanation

The RS-232 port on the office version Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine. RS-232 is a standard communication interface that allows serial communication between devices. It is commonly used for connecting devices such as modems, printers, and fax machines to a computer or other equipment.

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60. What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency?

Explanation

TDMA is a channel access method that divides the available frequency into time slots, with each call being assigned a specific portion of time. This allows multiple calls to share the same frequency by transmitting in different time slots. By assigning dedicated time slots to each call, TDMA ensures efficient utilization of the frequency spectrum and minimizes interference between calls. Therefore, TDMA is the correct answer for the channel access method that assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency.

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61. Cell sites are generally thought of as being a

Explanation

Cell sites are generally thought of as being in the shape of a hexagon. This is because a hexagon provides the most efficient coverage area for cell signals. The six sides of a hexagon allow for equal distribution of signal strength and minimize any gaps in coverage. Additionally, the hexagonal shape allows for easy connectivity between neighboring cell sites, ensuring seamless handoff of signals as mobile devices move between coverage areas.

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62. Reading and storing a document on a hard disk or some other storage medium for processing at a more convenient time is called

Explanation

Spooling refers to the process of reading and storing a document on a hard disk or other storage medium for later processing. This allows for more efficient use of system resources, as the document can be processed at a more convenient time instead of immediately. Spooling is commonly used in printing, where documents are added to a print queue and then printed in the order they were received.

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63. What area is described as the complete building or facility area under direct physical control within which unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?

Explanation

A Controlled Access Area (CAA) is described as the complete building or facility area under direct physical control. This means that unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and must either be escorted by authorized individuals or be under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This ensures that only authorized personnel are allowed access to the area, enhancing security and preventing unauthorized entry.

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64. Who is usually responsbile for their air time charges and must budget accordingly?

Explanation

The correct answer is Unit. The unit is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly. This means that each individual unit or group within an organization is responsible for managing and budgeting their own air time charges for communication and information systems.

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65. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)–Micro may be equipped to handle all of the following types of networks except?

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro is capable of handling Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), Gigabit Ethernet, and Fast Ethernet networks. However, it is not equipped to handle wireless networks.

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66. What conventional LMR device serves as the hub of a net?

Explanation

A base station serves as the hub of a network in conventional LMR (Land Mobile Radio) systems. It is a fixed communication device that connects various portable and mobile radios within a specific coverage area. The base station acts as a central point for transmitting and receiving signals, allowing communication between different radios within the network. It provides a stable and reliable connection, ensuring effective communication among users in the network.

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67. In trunked LMR systems, different user groups are known as

Explanation

In trunked LMR systems, different user groups are known as talkgroups. Talkgroups are a way to organize users into specific groups or channels, allowing them to communicate with each other. This helps in efficiently managing communication within the system by dividing users based on their roles, responsibilities, or departments. Each talkgroup has a unique identifier, and users can select the talkgroup they want to communicate with, ensuring that only relevant users are involved in the conversation.

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68. The Asset Inventory Management (AIM) system includes what type of database and is located where?

Explanation

The AIM system includes an Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

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69. Which category (Cat) of cable can support data rates up to 100Mbps?

Explanation

Cat 5 cable can support data rates up to 100Mbps. This type of cable is commonly used for Ethernet networks and is capable of transmitting data at fast speeds. It is an older standard compared to Cat 6 and Cat 5E, but it is still widely used for various applications that do not require higher data rates. Cat 3 cable, on the other hand, is an older and slower type of cable that can only support data rates up to 10Mbps.

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70. Which alarm category in the network management system indicates a warning?

Explanation

The alarm category in the network management system that indicates a warning is Cyan.

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71. What percentage of all network problems occur at the data link and physical laters of the OSI reference model?

Explanation

According to the OSI reference model, the data link and physical layers are responsible for handling network problems related to the actual transmission of data over the network. These layers deal with issues such as physical connectivity, data framing, error detection, and flow control. Since these layers are directly involved in the transmission process, it is likely that a significant percentage of network problems occur at these layers. Therefore, it can be inferred that 60 percent of all network problems occur at the data link and physical layers of the OSI reference model.

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72. Which type of memory stores configuration information, and is used by the BIOS during system boot up?

Explanation

Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) memory is a type of memory that stores configuration information and is used by the BIOS during system boot up. It is a low-power, non-volatile memory that retains data even when the computer is powered off. CMOS memory is responsible for storing settings such as date, time, and hardware configuration, allowing the BIOS to access this information during the boot process.

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73. What type of memory is nonvolatile, considered permanent, and is also called firmware in reference to the data and instructions stored?

Explanation

ROM stands for Read-Only Memory. It is a type of memory that is nonvolatile, meaning it retains its data even when the power is turned off. ROM is considered permanent because its contents cannot be easily changed or erased. It is also referred to as firmware because it contains the permanent instructions that are necessary for a computer or electronic device to boot up and perform basic functions. Unlike RAM (Random Access Memory), ROM cannot be written to or modified by the user. Therefore, ROM is the correct answer for this question.

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74. Which type of memory is used to duplicate frequently used information stored elsewhere or computed earlier, because the original data is time consuming to retrieve or to compute?

Explanation

Cache memory is used to duplicate frequently used information stored elsewhere or computed earlier because the original data is time-consuming to retrieve or compute. Cache memory is a small, high-speed memory that is located closer to the CPU than main memory (RAM) or secondary storage (ROM). It stores a copy of frequently accessed data, allowing the CPU to access it quickly without having to retrieve it from the original source. This helps to improve overall system performance by reducing the time it takes to access data.

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75. Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

Explanation

Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data remains whole and complete, without any corruption or unauthorized modifications. Data integrity is essential for maintaining the trustworthiness and usability of data, as it guarantees that the information is accurate and reliable for decision-making and other purposes.

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76. What tool can launch individual troubleshooting/configuration programs and other utilities having to do with networking, video display, printers, sound, and email configuration on an OS?

Explanation

The Control Panel is a tool that can launch individual troubleshooting/configuration programs and other utilities related to networking, video display, printers, sound, and email configuration on an operating system. It provides a centralized location for managing various settings and options, allowing users to easily access and modify their system's configuration. It is a common feature in most operating systems, including Windows, and is designed to simplify the process of configuring and troubleshooting various aspects of the system.

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77. This OS tool allows the viewing of the number of sent packets, status, total connection time, and speed of a network

Explanation

Network Connections is the correct answer because it is an OS tool that allows users to view various information about their network connection. It provides details such as the number of sent packets, connection status, total connection time, and network speed. This tool is commonly used to troubleshoot network issues, monitor network performance, and manage network connections on a computer. The other options, Device Manager, Control Panel, and Event Viewer, do not specifically provide the same functionality as Network Connections in terms of viewing network-related information.

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78. Which is not a transmission medium for a wireless local area network?

Explanation

Fiber optics is not a transmission medium for a wireless local area network because it relies on the use of cables to transmit data, whereas wireless networks do not require physical cables for transmission. Wireless networks typically use microwaves, radio waves, or light waves to transmit data without the need for physical connections.

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79. What standard antenna is used for antenna gain comparison?

Explanation

An isotropic antenna is used for antenna gain comparison because it radiates power equally in all directions. It is an ideal reference antenna that provides a baseline for comparing the gain of other antennas. The gain of an antenna is a measure of its ability to direct or concentrate the radiated power in a particular direction. By comparing the gain of different antennas to the isotropic antenna, we can determine how much more power is being radiated in a specific direction.

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80. If this security feature is enabled on a wireless network, access points or routers perform additional checks, helping prevent network break-ins

Explanation

MAC address filtering is a security feature that, when enabled on a wireless network, allows access points or routers to perform additional checks. It helps prevent network break-ins by only allowing devices with specific MAC addresses to connect to the network. This means that even if someone gains access to the network's SSID and encryption keys, they will be unable to connect unless their device's MAC address is authorized. This additional layer of security makes it more difficult for unauthorized users to gain access to the network and helps protect against potential network break-ins.

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81. What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?

Explanation

The ratio used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise is called signal-to-noise ratio. It is a measure of the level of the desired signal compared to the level of the unwanted noise present in a communication system. A higher signal-to-noise ratio indicates a stronger and clearer signal, while a lower ratio indicates a weaker and more distorted signal.

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82. The KIV-7 cryptographic device provides protection up to what classification level?

Explanation

The KIV-7 cryptographic device provides protection up to the Top Secret classification level. This means that it is designed to safeguard highly sensitive and classified information, ensuring that only authorized individuals with the appropriate security clearance can access and decrypt the data. The device employs advanced encryption algorithms and security measures to prevent unauthorized access or interception of the information it protects.

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83. The most common hardware diagnostic tool is the

Explanation

A loopback plug is a hardware diagnostic tool that is commonly used to test the functionality of computer ports, such as serial, parallel, or Ethernet ports. It is a small device that plugs into the port and creates a loopback connection, allowing the computer to send and receive data to itself. By using a loopback plug, technicians can verify if the port is working correctly and identify any potential issues with the hardware. This tool is widely used due to its simplicity and effectiveness in diagnosing hardware problems.

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84. Which voicemail system was one of the earliest digital voicemail systems running on a private branch exchange (PBX)?

Explanation

Meridian mail was one of the earliest digital voicemail systems running on a private branch exchange (PBX). It was developed by Nortel, a telecommunications equipment manufacturer. Meridian mail allowed users to receive and store voice messages digitally, providing a more efficient and convenient voicemail system compared to traditional analog systems.

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85. What is the transmission rate, in megabits per second (Mbps), of Mode 3 in channel bank operations?

Explanation

Mode 3 in channel bank operations has a transmission rate of 1.544 Mbps.

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86. What should be done before anything else, once the operating system installation is complete?

Explanation

Once the operating system installation is complete, it is important to install an antivirus software before doing anything else. This is because without antivirus protection, the system is vulnerable to various malware and viruses that can compromise its security and functionality. Installing antivirus software helps to safeguard the system and prevent any potential threats or attacks, ensuring a safer and more secure computing experience.

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87. What piece of test equipment can help verify connectivity and identify shorts, reversed, crossed, or split pairs on a network?

Explanation

A local-area network tester is a piece of test equipment that can help verify connectivity and identify shorts, reversed, crossed, or split pairs on a network. It is specifically designed to diagnose and troubleshoot issues within a local-area network. This device can send signals through the network cables and analyze the responses to determine if there are any connectivity problems or wiring faults. By using a local-area network tester, network technicians can quickly identify and resolve any issues that may be affecting the network's performance.

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88. Which TIA/EIA parameter test is a measure of the unwanted signal coupling from a transmitter at the near-end into neighboring (non-energized) pair measured at the near-end?

Explanation

Near-end crosstalk (NEXT) is a TIA/EIA parameter test that measures the unwanted signal coupling from a transmitter at the near-end into neighboring (non-energized) pair, which is also measured at the near-end. It helps to determine the level of interference or crosstalk between adjacent pairs in a communication system. NEXT is an important parameter to consider in order to ensure the quality and performance of the transmission.

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89. A spooled print job can be several times larger than the printed document size because of the conversion to the

Explanation

When a print job is spooled, it is temporarily stored in a print queue before being sent to the printer. The printer's language refers to the specific language or format that the printer understands. This language is used to convert the print job into a format that the printer can interpret and print. Since the printer's language is more complex and contains additional information compared to the original document, the spooled print job can be several times larger in size.

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90. What stores print jobs in a print queue until a printer becomes available?

Explanation

A print server is a device or software that manages print jobs sent from multiple computers to a printer. It stores print jobs in a print queue until a printer becomes available to process them. This allows for efficient printing and ensures that print jobs are not lost or delayed when the printer is busy or offline.

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91. Which model of Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 family switches is installed in compact modular cabinets?

Explanation

The Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100 model of Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 family switches is installed in compact modular cabinets.

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92. TEMPEST is

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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93. What is the TEMPEST program in the Air Force called?

Explanation

The TEMPEST program in the Air Force is called Emission Security. Emission Security refers to the protection of classified information from being intercepted through unintentional electromagnetic emissions. This program focuses on preventing unauthorized access to sensitive information by controlling and minimizing the electromagnetic radiation emitted by electronic devices. It ensures that potential adversaries cannot exploit these emissions to gain access to classified information.

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94. Which PWCS device's original intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?

Explanation

The Family Radio Service (FRS) device was originally intended for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area. This means that FRS devices are specifically designed for personal communication within a limited range, making them suitable for activities like camping, hiking, or other outdoor adventures where staying in touch with your group is important.

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95. Which patch will prevent exploitation and remove or mitigate a threat's capability to exploit a specific vulnerability in an asset, and is the primary method of fixing vulnerabilities in software?

Explanation

A security patch is a software update that is specifically designed to fix vulnerabilities in software and prevent exploitation by potential threats. It is the primary method used to address and mitigate the risks associated with specific vulnerabilities in an asset. By applying a security patch, the software is updated to remove or mitigate the vulnerability, making it more secure and less susceptible to exploitation.

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96. How many channels are used when a voice over IP (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another IP host?

Explanation

When a voice over IP (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another IP host, two channels are used, one for each direction. This means that there is a separate channel for transmitting data from the PBX to the IP host, and another channel for transmitting data from the IP host to the PBX. This allows for simultaneous two-way communication between the PBX and the IP host during the VoIP session.

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97. Members of this group have full control of the server or individual workstations and can assign user rights and access control permissions

Explanation

Local Administrators have full control of the server or individual workstations and can assign user rights and access control permissions. They have the highest level of administrative privileges on a local machine, allowing them to manage all aspects of the system, including installing software, modifying system settings, and managing user accounts. This group is typically used for managing the local resources of a specific machine and does not have control over domain-wide resources.

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98. A formatted disk partition that is used for particular file system is called

Explanation

A formatted disk partition that is used for a particular file system is called a volume. A volume is a logical storage unit that can be assigned a drive letter and accessed by the operating system. It represents a separate storage space on a disk and can be formatted with a specific file system, such as NTFS or FAT32, to organize and manage files and folders.

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99. The Communications Security (COMSEC) program is designed to

Explanation

The correct answer is to detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information. The Communications Security (COMSEC) program aims to identify any vulnerabilities or flaws in the procedures followed for communication security. By detecting and correcting these weaknesses, the program ensures that critical information is not at risk of being exposed to unauthorized individuals or entities. This helps to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of classified material and prevents any compromise of national security.

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100. What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

Explanation

AFI 33-119 is the correct reference for guidance on Air Force messaging. This document provides comprehensive guidelines and procedures for the creation, management, and dissemination of Air Force messages. It covers various aspects such as message formats, handling instructions, security protocols, and message distribution. By referring to AFI 33-119, Air Force personnel can ensure that their messaging practices align with established standards and protocols, facilitating effective communication within the Air Force community.

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101. The process of mixing or combining two frequencies in a nonlinear device in an amplitude modulated (AM) receiver is called

Explanation

Heterodyning is the process of combining two frequencies in a nonlinear device in an AM receiver. This technique is used to convert the incoming high frequency signal to a lower intermediate frequency (IF) signal, which is easier to process and demodulate. By mixing the incoming signal with a local oscillator frequency, the desired signal is shifted to the IF frequency range. Heterodyning allows for better signal reception and improved selectivity in the receiver.

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102. What field provides the basis of radio frequency (RF) communications by detaching from the conductor and traveling through space?

Explanation

The field that provides the basis of radio frequency (RF) communications by detaching from the conductor and traveling through space is radiation. Radiation refers to the emission of energy as electromagnetic waves or as moving subatomic particles, such as electrons. In the context of RF communications, radio waves are generated and transmitted through space as radiation, allowing for wireless communication.

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103. The Public Key Infrastructure component that would be necessary if the private key of a key holder was compromised is referred to as the certificate

Explanation

If the private key of a key holder is compromised, the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) component that would be necessary is the revocation authority. This component is responsible for revoking or invalidating the compromised certificate, ensuring that it can no longer be used for authentication or encryption purposes. By revoking the certificate, the compromised private key becomes useless, preventing any unauthorized access or misuse of the key holder's identity or data.

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104. Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms and inspections are recorded where?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Protected distribution system (PDS) log. This log is where events such as alarms and inspections related to the protected distribution system are recorded. It serves as a record of any activities or incidents that occur within the PDS, providing valuable information for monitoring and maintenance purposes. The log helps ensure the security and integrity of the PDS by documenting any events that may have an impact on its operation.

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105. User accounts are uniquely identified by the

Explanation

User accounts are uniquely identified by the SID (Security Identifier). The SID is a unique alphanumeric string assigned to each user account by the operating system. It is used to identify and authenticate the user account when accessing resources on a network or system. The SID remains the same even if the user account is renamed or moved to a different domain, making it a reliable identifier for the user account.

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106. The transfer of eight bits of data simultaneously through eight separate lines in a single cable is a function of a

Explanation

A parallel port is capable of transferring eight bits of data simultaneously through eight separate lines in a single cable. This means that each bit of data is sent through its own dedicated line, allowing for faster data transfer compared to a serial port where data is sent sequentially through a single line. Therefore, a parallel port is the correct answer in this case.

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107. What program sets up the divisions of memory that hold the operating system, user information and applications?

Explanation

The bootstrap loader is a program that sets up the divisions of memory that hold the operating system, user information, and applications. It is responsible for initializing the computer system and loading the operating system into memory. The bootstrap loader is typically stored in the computer's firmware or read-only memory (ROM) and is executed when the computer is powered on. It plays a crucial role in the startup process by preparing the memory divisions necessary for the functioning of the operating system and the execution of user applications.

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108. This type of memory is blank and instructions can be placed on permanently

Explanation

PROM stands for Programmable Read-Only Memory. It is a type of memory that can be programmed only once by the manufacturer or user. Once the instructions or data are written onto PROM, they cannot be changed or erased. This makes PROM a non-volatile memory, meaning the data remains even when the power is turned off. Therefore, PROM is a type of memory where instructions can be permanently placed.

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109. The first sector at the beginning of a hard drive is called the master

Explanation

The first sector at the beginning of a hard drive is called the boot record. This sector contains important information about the file system and the operating system installed on the hard drive. During the boot process, the computer reads this sector to initiate the loading of the operating system. It also contains instructions on how to locate the operating system files and start the booting process.

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110. What equipment is included in a customer access node (CAN) to provide the inter-site connectivity?

Explanation

The Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) is included in a customer access node (CAN) to provide inter-site connectivity. The LMST is a portable satellite communications terminal that allows for communication between different sites. It is lightweight and can support multiple frequency bands, making it an ideal choice for providing connectivity in remote or challenging environments.

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111. Which information is not required when configuring TCP/IP?

Explanation

The Media Access Control (MAC) address is not required when configuring TCP/IP. The MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces by the manufacturer and is used at the data link layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack. It is automatically assigned and managed by the network hardware, so it does not need to be manually configured. The other options, such as the IP address, DNS server address, and administrator access, are all necessary for configuring TCP/IP.

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112. The process of condensation occurs when air particles are

Explanation

When air particles are pressurized, it means that the pressure on them increases. As a result, the particles are forced to move closer together. This process is known as condensation. Condensation occurs when water vapor in the air cools down and turns into liquid water. The increased pressure on the air particles causes them to come together and form water droplets or clouds.

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113. Noise may be introduced into speech signals by thermal agitation and

Explanation

Black body radiation refers to the electromagnetic radiation emitted by a perfect black body at a given temperature. In the context of speech signals, black body radiation can introduce noise due to the random fluctuations in the electromagnetic field. This noise can affect the amplitude and power variations of the speech signal, leading to distortions and interference. Therefore, black body radiation is a plausible source of noise in speech signals.

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114. What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100 will support?

Explanation

The maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100 will support is 30,000.

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115. What access control uses segregation of duties and security screening for users?

Explanation

Administrative access control uses segregation of duties and security screening for users. This means that different tasks and responsibilities are divided among different individuals, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of information. Security screening ensures that users are thoroughly vetted before being granted access to sensitive systems or data. This type of access control focuses on the administrative processes and procedures that govern user access and privileges, ensuring that only authorized individuals have the necessary permissions to perform their designated tasks.

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116. For best communications, the transmitting antenna

Explanation

The correct answer is that the transmitting and receiving antenna should have the same polarization. Polarization refers to the orientation of the electric field in an electromagnetic wave. When the transmitting and receiving antennas have the same polarization, it allows for better signal transmission and reception. This is because when the electric fields of both antennas are aligned, there is less signal loss and interference. Therefore, having the same polarization between the transmitting and receiving antennas ensures optimal communication.

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117. What is the purpose of the TEMPEST program?

Explanation

The purpose of the TEMPEST program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. This means that the program aims to minimize the electromagnetic signals that can be intercepted and exploited by unauthorized individuals. By implementing measures to mitigate electromagnetic radiation, the program helps to enhance the security and confidentiality of sensitive information and prevent potential eavesdropping or hacking attempts.

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118. What technology involves the capture and storage of distinctive, measurable characteristic, feature, or trait of an individual for later recognition by automated means?

Explanation

Biometrics involves the capture and storage of distinctive, measurable characteristics of an individual for later recognition by automated means. This technology uses unique traits such as fingerprints, iris patterns, facial features, or voice patterns to identify and verify individuals. It is commonly used for security purposes, such as access control systems or authentication processes.

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119. Which logical troubleshooting step would invlude classifying the problem as hardware or software related?

Explanation

The logical troubleshooting step that would involve classifying the problem as hardware or software related is "Isolate the problem." This step involves identifying the source of the issue by determining whether it is caused by hardware or software. By isolating the problem, it becomes easier to determine the appropriate solution and take the necessary steps to resolve it.

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120. What is a method of putting many users on a single cable pair?

Explanation

Time division multiplexing is a method of putting many users on a single cable pair. It works by dividing the time into small intervals and assigning each user a specific time slot during which they can transmit their data. This allows multiple users to share the same cable pair without interfering with each other's transmissions.

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121. Which type of network is often called the GigE network?

Explanation

The type of network that is often called the GigE network is 1000 BaseT. This is because "1000" refers to the speed of the network, which is 1000 Mbps (or 1 Gbps), and "BaseT" refers to the type of Ethernet cable used, which is twisted pair. Therefore, 1000 BaseT is commonly used to describe a Gigabit Ethernet network that uses twisted pair cables.

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122. The loudness of a sound is closely related to what part of the sine wave?

Explanation

The loudness of a sound is closely related to its amplitude. Amplitude refers to the maximum displacement of a wave from its equilibrium position. In the context of sound, it represents the magnitude or strength of the sound wave. A larger amplitude corresponds to a louder sound, while a smaller amplitude corresponds to a softer sound. Therefore, the amplitude of a sound wave directly affects its loudness.

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123. What devices receives information from the internet and translates it into a radio signal and sends it to the computer's wireless adapter?

Explanation

A router is a device that receives information from the internet and translates it into a radio signal, which is then sent to the computer's wireless adapter. This allows the computer to connect to the internet wirelessly. A Network Interface Card (NIC) is a hardware component that allows a computer to connect to a network, but it does not specifically translate internet information into a radio signal. Ethernet is a type of wired network connection, not a device. Wi-Fi is a wireless technology that allows devices to connect to a network, but it does not specifically translate internet information into a radio signal. Therefore, the correct answer is router.

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124. What is the shortest wavelength an antenna can be made resonant?

Explanation

An antenna can be made resonant at the shortest wavelength by using a half-wavelength antenna. This is because a half-wavelength antenna is able to efficiently transmit and receive electromagnetic waves at its resonant frequency. The length of the antenna is directly proportional to the wavelength, so by using a half-wavelength antenna, the resonant frequency will be at the shortest wavelength possible.

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125. A line route inspection of a protected disribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the

Explanation

The correct answer is "total surface" because during a line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS), all surfaces of the system need to be visually inspected. This includes both the visible and concealed areas to ensure that there are no damages or issues present. By inspecting the total surface, any potential problems can be identified and addressed in order to maintain the integrity and functionality of the PDS.

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126. In network troubleshooting, any event that has a negative effect on the service of the network is referred to as a

Explanation

A fault in network troubleshooting refers to any event that negatively affects the service of the network. It could be a malfunction, error, or failure in the network components or infrastructure that disrupts the normal functioning of the network. This term is commonly used to describe issues or problems that need to be identified and resolved to restore the network's optimal performance.

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127. What is used to organize different types of accounts into manageable units?

Explanation

A group is used to organize different types of accounts into manageable units. By grouping accounts together, it becomes easier to manage and administer permissions and access control settings for multiple accounts at once. This allows for more efficient management of user privileges and simplifies the process of granting or revoking access to resources or services.

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128. In hertz (Hz), what range of sound can the human ear detect?

Explanation

The human ear can detect sounds within the range of 20 to 20,000 Hz. This range is commonly referred to as the audible frequency range. Sounds with frequencies below 20 Hz are considered infrasound and those above 20,000 Hz are considered ultrasound, which are typically not detectable by the human ear.

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129. Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

Explanation

AF Form 1109 is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas.

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130. Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?

Explanation

The Defense Courier Service is a means for secure telecommunications, so it cannot be the method that is not a means for secure telecommunications.

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131. Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?

Explanation

Line route inspections are required for protected distribution systems (PDS). This involves inspecting the physical routes of the distribution lines to ensure that they are secure and free from any potential threats or vulnerabilities. These inspections help identify any weaknesses or issues in the line routes that could compromise the security and reliability of the PDS. By regularly conducting line route inspections, organizations can proactively address any concerns and maintain the integrity of their protected distribution systems.

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132. The Asset Inventory Management (AIM) is part of what?

Explanation

The Asset Inventory Management (AIM) is a part of the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). AFEMS is a system used by the Air Force to manage and track their equipment inventory. AIM specifically focuses on the management of assets within this system, ensuring accurate and up-to-date information on the location, status, and condition of each asset. By being part of AFEMS, AIM contributes to the overall effectiveness and efficiency of equipment management within the Air Force.

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133. Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

Explanation

Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because asymmetric encryption involves the use of two different keys, a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The encryption process is computationally intensive and requires more processing power and time compared to symmetric encryption, where the same key is used for both encryption and decryption.

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134. In response to disaster relief operations, the DoD Policy on Procurement of Mobile Satellite Services (MSS) was amended in 2006 to allow the DoD to use additional MSS providers for

Explanation

The DoD Policy on Procurement of Mobile Satellite Services (MSS) was amended in 2006 to allow the DoD to use additional MSS providers for unclassified purposes within the CONUS. This means that the Department of Defense can now utilize additional MSS providers for non-sensitive purposes within the continental United States. This amendment was likely made to enhance the DoD's ability to respond to disaster relief operations and other non-classified activities within the country.

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135. What type areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) coverage separated into?

Explanation

Inmarsat coverage is separated into different types of areas based on oceans. This suggests that Inmarsat provides satellite communication services specifically designed for maritime use, ensuring that ships and vessels can stay connected even in remote areas of the ocean.

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136. What publication governs the format of Alias names for email accounts?

Explanation

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–119 governs the format of Alias names for email accounts in the Air Force. This publication provides guidelines and regulations on how email accounts should be named using aliases. It ensures consistency and standardization in the naming conventions for email accounts within the Air Force.

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137. Groups in Active Directory are directory

Explanation

In Active Directory, groups are considered as objects. Objects are the fundamental building blocks in Active Directory and can represent various entities such as users, computers, printers, and groups. Groups are used to organize and manage collections of users, providing a convenient way to assign permissions, apply policies, and simplify administrative tasks. Therefore, in the context of Active Directory, groups are classified as objects.

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138. Which principle is not addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B standard?

Explanation

The ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B standard addresses the minimum requirements for telecommunications cabling, the life span of the telecommunications cabling system, and the connecting hardware performance specifications. However, it does not address the color of the cable.

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139. Which of these is not a prominent characteristic of an operating system?

Explanation

The given answer, "The way it processes," is not a prominent characteristic of an operating system. Operating systems primarily manage hardware and software resources, provide an interface between the user and the computer, and enable multitasking. The way an operating system processes information is an internal mechanism that is not typically considered a distinct characteristic.

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140. What are the two major established Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) transmission rates?

Explanation

The two major established Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) transmission rates are the Basic rate interface (BRI) and the Primary rate interface (PRI). The BRI provides two B channels for data transmission and one D channel for signaling, with a total transmission rate of 144 kbps. The PRI, on the other hand, provides 23 B channels and one D channel, giving a total transmission rate of 1.544 Mbps. These two interfaces are commonly used for voice and data communication over digital networks.

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141. How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to implement VoIP?

Explanation

VoIP, or Voice over Internet Protocol, is a technology that allows voice communication over the internet. In order to implement VoIP successfully, the one-way delay from endpoint to endpoint should be less than 150 milliseconds. This is because any delay beyond this threshold can result in noticeable delays and disruptions in the conversation, causing a poor user experience. Therefore, a delay of less than 150 milliseconds is necessary to ensure smooth and real-time voice communication in VoIP.

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142. The ultra high frequency designation applies to frequencies from

Explanation

The ultra high frequency designation applies to frequencies from 300 to 3,000 MHz. This range falls within the microwave frequency band and is commonly used for various applications such as satellite communication, radar systems, and wireless networks. Frequencies within this range have shorter wavelengths and higher energy compared to lower frequency bands, allowing for faster data transmission and higher bandwidth.

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143. Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

Explanation

The form used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package is SF 153.

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144. In hertz (Hz), what is the actual voice frequency band?

Explanation

The actual voice frequency band is the range of frequencies in which the human voice typically operates. The correct answer, 300 to 3,400 Hz, falls within this range. This means that most of the sounds produced by the human voice, such as speech and singing, can be found within this frequency range.

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145. What's the difference between the basic access module (BAM) and the configurable access module (CAM)?

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that the basic access module (BAM) and the configurable access module (CAM) both provide a secure data network to local subscribers. However, the difference lies in their capabilities. The CAM has a fixed capability, meaning that it cannot be customized or modified to meet specific needs or requirements. On the other hand, the BAM also has a fixed capability, indicating that it too cannot be customized or modified. Therefore, the main difference between the two modules is that they both provide secure data networks, but the CAM cannot be modified while the BAM also has a fixed capability.

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146. What must customers do to connect telephones and computer workstations to the TDC backbone network?

Explanation

To connect telephones and computer workstations to the TDC backbone network, customers must adhere to various open system standards and interfaces such as Ethernet. This means that they need to ensure that their devices and systems are compatible with the Ethernet protocol, which is widely used for local area networks (LANs). By adhering to these standards and interfaces, customers can ensure seamless connectivity and communication with the TDC backbone network.

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147. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) can combine voice and data services over the same wires because it uses

Explanation

ISDN can combine voice and data services over standard telephone lines because it is a digital communication technology that uses circuit-switching to transmit data. It converts analog signals into digital signals, allowing for the simultaneous transmission of voice and data over the same line. This enables more efficient use of existing telephone infrastructure, as it eliminates the need for separate lines for voice and data communication.

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148. Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?

Explanation

Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption, which means it requires the use of three individual keys. Each operation in Triple DES uses a different key, providing a higher level of security compared to the original DES algorithm. By using three keys, Triple DES adds an extra layer of protection against attacks, making it more difficult for unauthorized individuals to decrypt the encrypted data. Therefore, the correct answer is three.

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149. Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

Explanation

A parity bit is a very simple example of an error detecting code. It is used to detect errors in data transmission by adding an extra bit to the binary code. This extra bit is set to either 0 or 1, depending on the number of 1s in the data. If the number of 1s is even, the parity bit is set to 0, and if the number of 1s is odd, the parity bit is set to 1. When the data is received, the parity bit is checked, and if it doesn't match the expected value, an error is detected. This allows for the detection of single-bit errors.

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150. What is an electronic credit card-like device that establishes your credentials when doing business or other transactions on the Internet?

Explanation

A digital certificate is an electronic credit card-like device that establishes your credentials when doing business or other transactions on the Internet. It is a cryptographic file that contains information about the holder's identity, such as their name, email address, and public key. Digital certificates are issued by a trusted third-party called a Certificate Authority (CA) and are used to verify the authenticity of the holder's identity during online transactions. They play a crucial role in ensuring secure communication and protecting sensitive information exchanged over the Internet.

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151. Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS) component uses 16-bit Motorola 68000 or 8bit Intel microprocessors?

Explanation

The peripheral module's (PM) peripheral processor (PP) uses either a 16-bit Motorola 68000 or an 8-bit Intel microprocessor in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS). This component is responsible for controlling and managing the peripheral devices connected to the DMS. It handles the communication between the peripheral devices and the central processing unit (CPU) of the computing module (CM).

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152. The Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with the

Explanation

The Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) is designed to provide secure communication. However, it cannot communicate securely with a land mobile radio. This is because land mobile radios operate on different frequencies and protocols than the STE, making it incompatible for secure communication.

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153. What is configured to provide or deny users access to service on a local computer or on the local network/domain?

Explanation

Profiles are configured to provide or deny users access to services on a local computer or on the local network/domain. A profile contains a set of rules and settings that determine what resources and services a user can access. By configuring profiles, administrators can control user access to specific services, such as file sharing, printing, or internet access. Profiles can be set up at the local computer level or at the domain level, allowing administrators to manage access permissions for multiple users across a network or domain.

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154. What function enables the higher layer protocol data units to fit into the lower layer PDU for transmission across the network?

Explanation

Fragmentation is the process of dividing a higher layer protocol data unit (PDU) into smaller units called fragments, so that they can fit into the lower layer PDU for transmission across the network. This is necessary when the size of the higher layer PDU exceeds the maximum size allowed by the lower layer protocol. Fragmentation ensures that the data can be successfully transmitted and reassembled at the receiving end. Frame relays, round trip delay, and asynchronous transfer mode are not directly related to the process of fitting higher layer PDUs into lower layer PDUs.

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155. Which is not a way in which round trip delay can be determined?

Explanation

The maximum delay is not a way in which round trip delay can be determined because it only provides information about the longest delay experienced during the round trip. It does not give any insight into the overall delay or the variations in delay throughout the trip. Other methods such as minimum delay, average delay, and total delay provide more comprehensive information about the round trip delay.

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156. Each 125μs time period in the digital signal (DS) 30 signaling format (used within the voice network system) is called a

Explanation

In the digital signal 30 signaling format used in the voice network system, each 125μs time period is referred to as a frame. This frame serves as a unit of time within the DS30 signaling format, allowing for the transmission and synchronization of data within the voice network system.

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157. How many bits long are the addresses that computer instructions work with?

Explanation

Computer instructions work with addresses that are 16 bits long. The length of an address determines the maximum number of memory locations that can be accessed. In this case, with 16 bits, there can be a maximum of 2^16 (or 65,536) memory locations. This allows the computer to access a large amount of memory and perform complex tasks.

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158. Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?

Explanation

Open encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type because it does not involve any form of encryption. It refers to a system or network that does not have any encryption measures in place to protect the transmitted data. This means that the data is sent in plain text, making it vulnerable to interception and unauthorized access. In contrast, narrowband, network, and bulk encryption are all types of encryption used in telecommunications to secure data transmission.

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159. What is the design architecture of theater deployable communications (TDC) metropolitan area network (MAN)?

Explanation

The design architecture of theater deployable communications (TDC) metropolitan area network (MAN) is hub-spoke. In this architecture, there is a central hub that connects to multiple spokes. The hub acts as a central point of control and communication, while the spokes are connected to the hub and communicate through it. This architecture allows for efficient communication and control within the network, with the hub serving as a central point for data exchange.

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160. What data integrity method is used in high-end personal computers and file servers?

Explanation

Error correction code memory is used in high-end personal computers and file servers to ensure data integrity. This method involves adding extra bits to the data being stored, which allows for the detection and correction of errors that may occur during data transmission or storage. By using error correction code memory, these systems can detect and fix errors, ensuring that the data remains accurate and reliable.

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161. What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal and responds to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals?

Explanation

A phase-locked loop (PLL) is a control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal and responds to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals. It is commonly used in communication systems to synchronize the frequency and phase of the received signal with the local oscillator. By continuously adjusting the phase of the local oscillator, the PLL ensures that the received signal is in sync with the reference signal, allowing for accurate and reliable data transmission. Therefore, the PLL is the correct answer to the question.

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162. What software activates the actual transmission and receipt of data over the network?

Explanation

Network interface drivers are software programs that enable the network interface card (NIC) to function properly. These drivers facilitate the transmission and receipt of data over the network by providing the necessary instructions and protocols for the NIC to communicate with the network. Without these drivers, the NIC would not be able to activate and establish a connection, making it impossible to send or receive data over the network. Therefore, network interface drivers are essential for enabling the actual transmission and receipt of data.

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163. What cabling system subsystem provides any or all of the functions of a telecommunications room?

Explanation

The equipment room is a cabling system subsystem that provides any or all of the functions of a telecommunications room. It is a dedicated space where network equipment and servers are housed, and it serves as a central hub for connecting various cabling systems. The equipment room typically contains racks, cabinets, and other infrastructure to support the networking and telecommunications needs of an organization. It is responsible for housing and organizing the equipment necessary for the functioning of the cabling system.

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164. What characteristic enables a receiver to reproduce a desired signal from several closely spaced stations or from interfering frequencies?

Explanation

Selectivity is the characteristic that enables a receiver to reproduce a desired signal from several closely spaced stations or from interfering frequencies. It refers to the ability of the receiver to selectively tune in to a specific frequency while rejecting or minimizing the interference from other frequencies. A receiver with high selectivity can effectively filter out unwanted signals and focus on the desired signal, allowing for clear and accurate reproduction of the desired signal.

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165. How many channels of data does each digital signal (DS) 30 speech link carry?

Explanation

Each digital signal (DS) 30 speech link carries 32 channels of data.

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166. Which is NOT a basic function of antivirus programs?

Explanation

Antivirus programs perform several functions to protect computer systems from malware. These include removal, detection, and scanning. However, vaccination is not a basic function of antivirus programs. Vaccination typically refers to the process of administering a vaccine to prevent or protect against a specific disease. In the context of antivirus programs, vaccination is not a common term or function associated with their operation. Therefore, scanning is the correct answer as it is not a basic function of antivirus programs.

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167. TACLANE–Classic and TACLANE–E100 are high-speed encryption devices that provide confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication security services for which type of network?

Explanation

TACLANE-Classic and TACLANE-E100 are high-speed encryption devices that provide confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication security services for Internet Protocol networks. This means that these devices are specifically designed to secure communication within IP networks, ensuring that the data transmitted remains confidential, intact, and authenticated. They may not be suitable for other types of networks such as serial networks, tactical networks, or point to point connections.

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168. The KG–175D is what type of Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)?

Explanation

The correct answer is TACLANE-Micro. The question is asking about the type of Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE) that the KG-175D is. Out of the given options, TACLANE-Micro is the correct answer.

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169. Which is not a use for local user accounts?

Explanation

Local user accounts are not used to control a user's permissions on the local network. Local user accounts are typically used to manage access and permissions on a specific computer or device, rather than on a network. Network user accounts, such as domain accounts, are used to control a user's permissions on a local network.

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170. What Meridian application provides LAN connectivity so you can share equipment, data files, and application software utilizing a modem?

Explanation

The Meridian application called CompuCALL provides LAN connectivity, allowing users to share equipment, data files, and application software using a modem.

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171. A static internet protocol address on a network printer during hardware configuration is used for

Explanation

A static internet protocol address on a network printer during hardware configuration is used for print job locating. By assigning a static IP address to the network printer, it becomes easier to locate and connect to the printer on the network. This allows users to send print jobs directly to the printer without any confusion or delay in locating the printer's IP address.

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172. Which backup type does not clear archive flags once the backup job is complete?

Explanation

A differential backup type does not clear archive flags once the backup job is complete. Differential backups only back up the files that have changed since the last full backup, so the archive flags are not cleared for the files that have been backed up. This allows for an efficient way to backup only the changed files without affecting the archive flags of the unchanged files.

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173. Only after what, are tickets allowed to be placed in the "Closed" status in Remedy?

Explanation

Tickets are allowed to be placed in the "Closed" status in Remedy only after step-by-step fix actions have been annotated. This means that the actions taken to resolve the issue have been documented and recorded. This ensures that the resolution process has been properly followed and documented for future reference.

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174. Which of the following is not one of the three types of interfaces?

Explanation

The given question asks for the type of interface that is not one of the three types mentioned. The three types mentioned are hardware, software, and user interfaces. The answer, graphical, is not one of the three types mentioned, therefore it is the correct answer.

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175. What type of sheld contains the CD552A channel service unit (CSU)?

Explanation

The CD552A channel service unit (CSU) is typically found in a modem. A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates signals to transmit data over communication lines. CSUs are often integrated into modems to provide additional functionality, such as monitoring and controlling the quality of the connection. Therefore, the correct answer is modem.

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176. By default, the first domain controller in active directory service is a

Explanation

The first domain controller in active directory service is a global catalog. The global catalog is a distributed data repository that contains a partial copy of all objects in every domain within a forest. It is used to facilitate searching and locating objects in a multi-domain environment.

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177. What are frequencies from 30 to 300 megahertz (MHz) internationally designated as?

Explanation

Frequencies from 30 to 300 megahertz (MHz) are internationally designated as "Very high". This frequency range is commonly used for various purposes including radio broadcasting, television broadcasting, aviation communications, and military communications. It is considered "Very high" because it falls within the higher end of the radio frequency spectrum, but it is not as high as the frequencies used for satellite communications or microwave transmissions.

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178. How many connector interfaces does a NIC provide for network cables?

Explanation

A NIC (Network Interface Card) provides four connector interfaces for network cables. These interfaces are commonly known as Ethernet ports or RJ-45 ports. Each port can be used to connect a network cable, allowing the NIC to establish multiple network connections simultaneously. This is useful in scenarios where multiple devices need to be connected to a network using a single NIC.

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179. Which subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling system provides the point at which outdoor cabling interfaces with the intrabuilding backbone cabling?

Explanation

The entrance facility is the subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling system that provides the point at which outdoor cabling interfaces with the intrabuilding backbone cabling. It is the location where the service provider's cabling connects to the building's cabling infrastructure. This is where the demarcation point is established, allowing for the transfer of signals between the outdoor and indoor cabling systems.

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180. What type modulation produces a constant amplitude transmission?

Explanation

Frequency modulation produces a constant amplitude transmission. In frequency modulation, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied in proportion to the amplitude of the modulating signal. This means that the amplitude of the carrier signal remains constant while the frequency changes. As a result, the transmitted signal has a constant amplitude, regardless of the variations in the modulating signal.

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181. What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) directs implementation of protected distribution systems?

Explanation

Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) 7703 directs the implementation of protected distribution systems.

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182. The total resistive properties of a circuit when resistance, capacitive reactance, and inductive reactance are formulated together is called

Explanation

Impedance is the correct answer because it refers to the total resistive properties of a circuit when resistance, capacitive reactance, and inductive reactance are combined. Impedance is a complex quantity that includes both resistance and reactance, and it is measured in ohms. It represents the opposition to the flow of alternating current in a circuit and determines how much current will flow through the circuit.

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183. What transmission line is very common in both fixed and tactical application?

Explanation

Flexible coax is a very common transmission line in both fixed and tactical applications. It is widely used because of its flexibility, which allows for easy installation and routing in various environments. Flexible coax also provides good signal transmission and is capable of carrying high-frequency signals over long distances. Its versatility and reliability make it a popular choice for both fixed installations and portable applications where flexibility is required.

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184. What is the maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the TACLANE–E100?

Explanation

The maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the TACLANE-E100 is 165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex. This means that when using full-duplex mode, the device can transmit and receive data simultaneously at a rate of 165 Mbps, while in half-duplex mode, it can only transmit or receive data at a rate of 100 Mbps.

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185. What enhanced features of the trunking LMR allows the system manager to completely disable radios in the field from the system terminal?

Explanation

The enhanced feature of selective radio inhibit in trunking LMR allows the system manager to completely disable radios in the field from the system terminal. This feature gives the manager the ability to remotely deactivate specific radios, preventing them from transmitting or receiving any communication on the system. This can be useful in situations where a radio needs to be temporarily taken out of service or if there is a security concern with a particular radio. By using selective radio inhibit, the system manager has control over the radios in the field and can manage their usage effectively.

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186. Which is not a function that maintainers perform with the Integrate Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

Explanation

The Integrate Maintenance Data System (IMDS) performs various functions to maintain equipment and manage data. It automates equipment history, scheduling, and other processes, functioning as a common interactive interface for other systems. It also provides status and inventory data. However, it does not roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level. This means that the system does not consolidate or aggregate logistics data from lower-level units and transfer it to the Air Force level.

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187. In the pulse code modulation (PCM) process, changing the quantized samples into a binary word is called

Explanation

In the pulse code modulation (PCM) process, changing the quantized samples into a binary word is called encoding. This involves converting the discrete amplitude levels obtained through quantization into a digital representation using binary digits. Encoding is an essential step in PCM as it allows for the efficient storage and transmission of analog signals in a digital format.

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188. Which Telecommunications Management System (TMS) network management functional area contains line, circuit, cable, and customer information?

Explanation

Configuration management is the correct answer because this functional area of Telecommunications Management System (TMS) deals with managing the configuration details of the network, including line, circuit, cable, and customer information. This includes keeping track of the physical and logical components of the network, their interconnections, and the associated customer details. Fault management focuses on identifying and resolving network faults, security management deals with network security measures, and performance management focuses on monitoring and optimizing network performance.

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189. Where is the optional supervisory lamp panel for the 291 Conference/Alerting System usually installed?

Explanation

The optional supervisory lamp panel for the 291 Conference/Alerting System is usually installed at the master station.

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190. Upon arrival in a theater, what frequency band does a Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) use for initial communications connectivity to the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is X only because the Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) uses the X frequency band for initial communications connectivity to the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS). It does not use the C or Ku frequency bands for this purpose.

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191. When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?

Explanation

When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. This means that the data transmitted through the STE is encoded in such a way that it becomes unreadable to anyone who does not have the proper decryption key. Encrypting the digital signal ensures that the information being transmitted remains secure and protected from unauthorized access or interception.

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192. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)–Micro can acquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address via Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro can acquire an IP address via DHCP on either the ciphertext or plaintext side. This means that it can obtain an IP address regardless of whether the data is encrypted or not.

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193. Which International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system has a land mobile terminal, typically has a one meter flat array antenna, and weighs 30 to 40 pounds?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. The Mini-M system of the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) is a land mobile terminal that typically has a one meter flat array antenna and weighs 30 to 40 pounds.

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194. Which principle is not addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B standard?

Explanation

The ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B standard addresses various aspects of structured cabling, including connector and pin assignment, subsystems of structured cabling, and installation methods and practices. However, it does not specifically address recommended wireless topology and distances. This standard primarily focuses on the physical infrastructure of cabling systems for data communication.

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195. What is another name for stuffing or S-bit in relationship to a channel service unit (CSU)?

Explanation

Framing is another name for stuffing or S-bit in relation to a channel service unit (CSU). Framing refers to the process of dividing a continuous stream of data into smaller, manageable units called frames. The S-bit, or stuffing bit, is used in the framing process to ensure that the frames are properly aligned and synchronized. It is inserted into the data stream when necessary to maintain the correct timing and structure of the frames. Therefore, the correct answer is framing.

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196. Which Communications Security (COMSEC) application provides us with guidance to deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources?

Explanation

Physical security is the correct answer because it refers to the measures taken to protect physical assets, such as buildings, equipment, and personnel. In the context of Communications Security (COMSEC), physical security plays a crucial role in safeguarding priority resources of the US Air Force from hostile acts. It includes measures like access control, surveillance, and protection against theft, sabotage, and unauthorized access. By implementing physical security measures, the Air Force can deter, detect, and defeat any threats to their priority resources, ensuring the integrity and confidentiality of their communications.

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197. The RED/BLACK concept has which two parts?

Explanation

The RED/BLACK concept is a security principle used in computer networks to separate sensitive and non-sensitive information. Physical separation refers to physically isolating the networks or systems that handle sensitive information from those that handle non-sensitive information. This can be done by using separate physical networks or by implementing physical barriers. Electrical separation, on the other hand, refers to using different electrical circuits or power sources for the sensitive and non-sensitive systems. This helps to prevent the leakage of sensitive information through electrical means. Therefore, the correct answer is physical separation and electrical separation.

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198. Integrate Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is an Air Force enterprise-level automated maintenance management information system for

Explanation

IMDS is an Air Force automated maintenance management system specifically designed for weapons systems and support equipment. It helps in tracking and managing maintenance activities for these systems, ensuring their optimal performance and readiness. The system is not meant for communication systems or operations equipment, making the given answer the correct one.

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199. In Secure Socket Layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the web server give to the browser?

Explanation

In Secure Socket Layer (SSL), the web server gives the browser its public key before an encrypted transaction takes place. The public key is used to encrypt the data that is being sent from the browser to the server, ensuring that it can only be decrypted by the server using its corresponding private key. This helps to establish a secure and encrypted connection between the server and the browser, protecting the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted data.

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200. The ability to maintain a constant output carrier frequency refers to a transmitter's frequency

Explanation

The ability to maintain a constant output carrier frequency refers to the accuracy of a transmitter. Accuracy in this context means how closely the transmitter can maintain the desired carrier frequency without any deviation or drift. A transmitter with high accuracy will be able to consistently transmit signals at the intended frequency, ensuring reliable communication.

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In hertz (Hz), what range of sound can the human ear detect?
Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into...
Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?
Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled...
The Asset Inventory Management (AIM) is part of what?
Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing...
In response to disaster relief operations, the DoD Policy on...
What type areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization...
What publication governs the format of Alias names for email accounts?
Groups in Active Directory are directory
Which principle is not addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B standard?
Which of these is not a prominent characteristic of an operating...
What are the two major established Integrated Services Digital Network...
How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to...
The ultra high frequency designation applies to frequencies from
Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC...
In hertz (Hz), what is the actual voice frequency band?
What's the difference between the basic access module (BAM) and...
What must customers do to connect telephones and computer workstations...
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) can combine voice and data...
Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound...
Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
What is an electronic credit card-like device that establishes your...
Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS) component uses 16-bit Motorola...
The Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with...
What is configured to provide or deny users access to service on a...
What function enables the higher layer protocol data units to fit into...
Which is not a way in which round trip delay can be determined?
Each 125μs time period in the digital signal (DS) 30 signaling...
How many bits long are the addresses that computer instructions work...
Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?
What is the design architecture of theater deployable communications...
What data integrity method is used in high-end personal computers and...
What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed...
What software activates the actual transmission and receipt of data...
What cabling system subsystem provides any or all of the functions of...
What characteristic enables a receiver to reproduce a desired signal...
How many channels of data does each digital signal (DS) 30 speech link...
Which is NOT a basic function of antivirus programs?
TACLANE–Classic and TACLANE–E100 are high-speed encryption...
The KG–175D is what type of Tactical Local Area Network...
Which is not a use for local user accounts?
What Meridian application provides LAN connectivity so you can share...
A static internet protocol address on a network printer during...
Which backup type does not clear archive flags once the backup job is...
Only after what, are tickets allowed to be placed in the "Closed"...
Which of the following is not one of the three types of interfaces?
What type of sheld contains the CD552A channel service unit (CSU)?
By default, the first domain controller in active directory service is...
What are frequencies from 30 to 300 megahertz (MHz) internationally...
How many connector interfaces does a NIC provide for network cables?
Which subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B structured cabling system...
What type modulation produces a constant amplitude transmission?
What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) directs...
The total resistive properties of a circuit when resistance,...
What transmission line is very common in both fixed and tactical...
What is the maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the...
What enhanced features of the trunking LMR allows the system manager...
Which is not a function that maintainers perform with the Integrate...
In the pulse code modulation (PCM) process, changing the quantized...
Which Telecommunications Management System (TMS) network management...
Where is the optional supervisory lamp panel for the 291...
Upon arrival in a theater, what frequency band does a Lightweight...
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)–Micro can...
Which International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system...
Which principle is not addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B standard?
What is another name for stuffing or S-bit in relationship to a...
Which Communications Security (COMSEC) application provides us with...
The RED/BLACK concept has which two parts?
Integrate Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is an Air Force...
In Secure Socket Layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes...
The ability to maintain a constant output carrier frequency refers to...
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