CDC 3D151 Comprehensive Review

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1. What are minor software updates or improvements called?

Explanation

Minor software updates or improvements are commonly referred to as patches. Patches are small pieces of code that are designed to fix bugs, enhance functionality, or improve security in software applications. They are typically released by software developers to address specific issues or make minor enhancements to the software without requiring a complete update or reinstall of the application. Patches are an important part of software maintenance and help to ensure that software remains stable, secure, and up-to-date.

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About This Quiz
CDC 3D151 Comprehensive Review - Quiz

This is a comprehensive review of the 3D151 Client Systems Journeyman CDCs (3D151 01 1105, Edit Code 01). Answers are verified 100% correct from CDCs. This test encompasses... see moreall URE questions from all three volumes. In this test 100 out of the 286 possible questions will be displayed in random order along with the answers in random order, with only one being correct. Minimum passing score for this test is 65%, just like the EOC. Good Luck. see less

2. What type of remote network provides a private tunnel through public cloud (the Internet)?

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) is a type of remote network that allows users to create a secure and private connection over a public network, such as the Internet. It establishes a private tunnel through the public cloud, encrypting the data transmitted between the user's device and the network, ensuring privacy and security. This enables users to access resources on the network remotely, as if they were directly connected to it, making it an ideal solution for businesses and individuals seeking a secure remote connection.

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3. What entails how we communicate and manage data?

Explanation

Information systems encompass the processes, technologies, and resources used to collect, store, process, and distribute data in an organization. They include hardware, software, databases, networks, and people who manage and use the system. Information systems play a crucial role in facilitating communication and data management within an organization, enabling efficient and effective decision-making, collaboration, and information sharing. Satellite systems, airfield systems, and power systems are not directly related to communication and data management as information systems are.

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4. What devices are mostly small, lightweight, and designed for mobile use?

Explanation

Handhelds are mostly small, lightweight, and designed for mobile use. Unlike computers, which can be larger and less portable, handhelds are specifically designed for on-the-go use. Software and hardware are general terms that encompass a wide range of devices and components, whereas handhelds refer specifically to portable devices that can be easily carried and used while mobile.

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5. This practice uses tapes, electronic vaulting, or mirrored disks and should be done regularly.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Data backup". This is because the practice mentioned in the question involves using tapes, electronic vaulting, or mirrored disks to regularly back up data. This process helps in creating copies of important data to ensure its safety and availability in case of any unforeseen events or data loss situations.

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6. What is an essential tool for any Client Systems Technician to find software approved for use on an AF network?

Explanation

An essential tool for any Client Systems Technician to find software approved for use on an AF network is the Evaluated/Approved Product List. This list provides a comprehensive inventory of software that has been evaluated and approved for use on the network, ensuring that only authorized and secure software is installed on client systems. It helps the technician to easily identify and select software that meets the network's security and compatibility requirements, reducing the risk of introducing potential vulnerabilities or conflicts.

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7. What part of client systems includes the the physical aspect of computers, telecommunications, and other devices, to include the interconnect devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is hardware because it refers to the physical components of client systems such as computers, telecommunications devices, and interconnect devices. Programs and processes are software components, while paperwork is not directly related to the physical aspect of client systems.

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8. What program translates commands between a device and the programs that use the device?

Explanation

A driver is a program that acts as a translator between a device and the programs that use the device. It allows the operating system and applications to communicate with the device by converting the commands and instructions from the software into a language that the device can understand. The driver also enables the device to send data back to the software. Therefore, the correct answer is driver.

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9. What is one of the best habits a Client Systems Technician can form in order to save time, effort and prevent mistakes?

Explanation

Getting organized is one of the best habits a Client Systems Technician can form in order to save time, effort, and prevent mistakes. By organizing their work environment, files, and tasks, technicians can easily locate what they need, prioritize tasks efficiently, and avoid wasting time searching for information. Being organized also helps in preventing mistakes as it allows technicians to follow a systematic approach, ensuring that all necessary steps are completed accurately and in the right order. This habit promotes productivity, reduces stress, and enhances overall efficiency in the technician's work.

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10. What is installed on a computer to act as the interface between the computer and network?

Explanation

A Network Interface Card (NIC) is installed on a computer to act as the interface between the computer and the network. It allows the computer to connect to a network, whether it is wired or wireless, and enables communication between the computer and other devices on the network. The NIC handles the transmission and reception of data packets, converting them into a format that can be understood by the computer and the network. Ethernet, transceiver, and coaxial cable are all components that can be associated with a network connection, but the NIC is the actual device that facilitates the connection.

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11. What is the unique identification number a network interface card (NIC) provides to a personal computer?

Explanation

A network interface card (NIC) provides a unique identification number to a personal computer known as a MAC address. This address is assigned by the manufacturer and is used to uniquely identify the NIC on a network. The MAC address is a 48-bit number, typically represented as six pairs of hexadecimal digits, and is essential for communication between devices on a network.

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12. When troubleshooting after a system failure, this step is a last resort effort when all other avenues have been exhausted. 

Explanation

When troubleshooting after a system failure, removing and replacing the operating system is a last resort effort when all other avenues have been exhausted. This step involves completely reinstalling the operating system, which can help resolve any issues that may be causing the system failure. This is often done when other troubleshooting steps, such as rebooting the system or reinstalling application programs, have not been successful in resolving the problem. Removing and replacing the CD/DVD-ROM drive is not a typical step in troubleshooting a system failure, as it is more likely to be related to hardware issues rather than software or operating system problems.

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13. What piece of equiptment is a the core of most Wi-Fi networks?

Explanation

The router is the core of most Wi-Fi networks because it is responsible for connecting multiple devices to the network, managing the flow of data between them, and providing access to the internet. It acts as a central hub, allowing devices to communicate with each other and facilitating the wireless connection. Without a router, devices would not be able to connect to the network or access the internet, making it an essential piece of equipment in Wi-Fi networks.

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14. What component in the vido teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signal to digital signals?

Explanation

The correct answer is CODEC. In a video teleconferencing (VTC) system, the CODEC component is responsible for converting analog signals to digital signals. CODEC stands for coder/decoder and it performs the encoding of the analog video and audio signals into a digital format that can be transmitted over the network. On the receiving end, the CODEC decodes the digital signals back into analog signals for display and playback. This conversion is essential for the transmission and reception of high-quality audio and video during a teleconference.

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15. What protocol provides an almost unlimited number of Internet Protocol addresses?

Explanation

IPv6 provides an almost unlimited number of Internet Protocol addresses compared to its predecessor, IPv4. IPv4 uses a 32-bit address format, which limits the number of available addresses to approximately 4.3 billion. On the other hand, IPv6 uses a 128-bit address format, allowing for a significantly larger number of unique addresses, estimated to be around 340 undecillion. This expansion in address space is necessary to accommodate the growing number of devices connected to the internet. Therefore, IPv6 is the correct answer to the question.

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16. Which of these is a disadvantage of client-server networks?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Managing servers requires a dedicated staff." This is a disadvantage of client-server networks because it requires a dedicated team or staff to manage and maintain the servers. This can be costly and time-consuming for organizations, as they need to hire and train professionals to handle server-related tasks such as installation, configuration, monitoring, and troubleshooting. Additionally, having a dedicated staff also means that there is a dependency on these individuals, and any issues or delays in server management can impact the overall network performance and availability.

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17. What item below is not found in the Active Directory structure?

Explanation

The item that is not found in the Active Directory structure is Wi-Fi. Active Directory is a directory service that is used to manage and organize resources in a network environment. It provides a centralized database for storing information about network resources such as users, computers, and groups. Domains, objects, and forests are all components of the Active Directory structure, while Wi-Fi is a wireless networking technology that is not directly related to Active Directory.

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18. Any hardware added to a computer that expands its capabilities is referred to as a/an

Explanation

A peripheral refers to any hardware device that is added to a computer to enhance its capabilities or provide additional functionality. This can include devices such as printers, scanners, keyboards, and mice, among others. These peripherals are connected to the computer through ports or interfaces, allowing them to interact with the computer and expand its capabilities. Therefore, the correct answer is peripheral.

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19. Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time?

Explanation

Users are required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time to ensure they don't create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place. Default passwords are often well-known and easily accessible, making it easier for hackers to gain unauthorized access to the network. By forcing users to change their passwords, the risk of unauthorized access is reduced, as each user will have a unique password that is not easily guessed or known to others. This helps to enhance the overall security and protect sensitive information on the network.

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20. Use which tool to list all installed device drivers and their status, find hardware components that are not functioning properly or two devices that are in conflict on an operating system (OS)?

Explanation

Device Manager is the correct answer because it is a tool that allows users to view and manage all installed device drivers on an operating system. It provides information about the status of each driver and can identify hardware components that are not functioning properly. Additionally, Device Manager can detect conflicts between two devices and provide options to resolve them. Event Viewer is not the correct answer as it is a tool used to view system logs and monitor events on the computer. Control Panel and Network Connections are also not the correct answers as they do not specifically provide information about installed device drivers and their status.

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21. What provides the Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) with its security services?

Explanation

The Fortezza card provides the Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) with its security services. The Fortezza card is a cryptographic device that is used to encrypt and decrypt sensitive information transmitted over secure telephone lines. It ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of the communication by providing secure encryption algorithms and key management capabilities. The Fortezza card is specifically designed for secure communication and is widely used in government and military organizations to protect classified information.

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22. With a software license agreement, who has the full rights to the software and its further distribution and reproduction?

Explanation

The correct answer is Publisher. In a software license agreement, the publisher retains the full rights to the software, including its distribution and reproduction. The buyer only obtains a license to use the software under certain terms and conditions specified in the agreement. The US Air Force and US government are not necessarily involved in every software license agreement and do not automatically have full rights to the software.

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23. What is the simplest and most efficient way to duplicate a computer's software, with no loss of files or configurations within the programs?

Explanation

Imaging software is the simplest and most efficient way to duplicate a computer's software without any loss of files or configurations within the programs. Imaging software creates a complete copy or image of the computer's entire hard drive, including the operating system, applications, files, and settings. This image can then be easily transferred to another computer or restored onto the same computer, ensuring that all files and configurations remain intact. WinZip, Norton Utilities, and bundled software may have their own functionalities but they do not specifically specialize in duplicating a computer's software without any loss.

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24. What does Wi-Fi use to carry network signals to the network access point?

Explanation

Wi-Fi uses radio waves to carry network signals to the network access point. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves that transmit data wirelessly through the air. This allows devices to connect to the internet without the need for physical cables. Wi-Fi signals are transmitted and received by devices such as routers and wireless adapters, enabling wireless communication and internet access.

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25. One of the main purposes of the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) handset telephone test set is to 

Explanation

The main purpose of the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) handset telephone test set is to verify a dial tone. This test set allows technicians to check if a dial tone is present on the line, ensuring that the telephone line is active and ready for use. It is an essential tool for troubleshooting and testing telephone lines to ensure proper functionality.

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26. Who centrally manages the Air Force server updates that keep you workstation antivirus software current?

Explanation

The Air Force Network Operations Center is responsible for centrally managing the Air Force server updates that keep workstation antivirus software current. This means that they oversee and coordinate the updates to ensure that all workstations within the Air Force network have the latest antivirus software installed. They are the central authority in charge of maintaining the security and functionality of the network by ensuring that all antivirus software is up to date and capable of protecting the workstations from potential threats.

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27. What type of printer software configuration option requries a new port to be created?

Explanation

TCP/IP printing requires a new port to be created because it uses the TCP/IP protocol to send print jobs over a network. In order for the printer to communicate with the computer, a specific port needs to be assigned to establish a connection. This allows the printer software to send print jobs to the correct destination and ensures proper communication between the computer and the printer.

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28. The specifications that should be met, if not exceeded, to ensure a computer is compatible as well as powerful enough to run an operating system without constant problems is for the computer to have the minimum

Explanation

To ensure a computer is compatible and powerful enough to run an operating system without constant problems, it is essential for the computer to have the necessary hardware. Hardware refers to the physical components of a computer system, such as the processor, memory, storage devices, and input/output devices. These components need to meet or exceed the minimum requirements specified by the operating system to ensure smooth and efficient functioning. Without adequate hardware, the computer may struggle to handle the demands of the operating system, leading to performance issues and frequent problems.

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29. In Remedy, tickets can be assigned to whom?

Explanation

In Remedy, tickets can be assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician. This means that when a ticket is created, it can either be assigned to a group of people who specialize in resolving certain types of issues, or it can be assigned to a specific individual technician who is responsible for handling the ticket. This flexibility allows for efficient ticket management and ensures that tickets are assigned to the appropriate individuals or groups based on their expertise and workload.

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30. How may byte sectors is a hard disk divided into?

Explanation

A hard disk is typically divided into sectors, which are the smallest units of storage on the disk. These sectors are usually 512 bytes in size. This division allows for efficient organization and retrieval of data on the disk.

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31. What form of remote network access is often the only choice for rural or remote areas?

Explanation

Dial-up is often the only choice for rural or remote areas because it uses a telephone line to establish a connection to the internet. In areas where broadband or wireless networks are not available, dial-up remains a viable option as it relies on existing infrastructure. While it may be slower and less reliable compared to other forms of remote network access, it can still provide basic internet connectivity in areas where other options are limited or unavailable.

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32. Which item is not a good practice in helping with future troubleshooting?

Explanation

Remembering every step taken is not a good practice in helping with future troubleshooting because relying solely on memory can lead to inaccuracies and omissions. It is important to have documented records of the steps taken during troubleshooting to ensure accuracy and to easily refer back to them in the future. Documentation allows for better collaboration with others, enables the identification of patterns or recurring issues, and facilitates the sharing of knowledge within the team. Therefore, relying on memory alone is not a reliable method for troubleshooting.

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33. Which type of percipitation attenuates radio frequency (RF) energy just like rain?

Explanation

Fog attenuates radio frequency (RF) energy just like rain because both are composed of tiny water droplets suspended in the air. These water droplets in fog, similar to rain, scatter and absorb RF energy, causing a decrease in signal strength. This attenuation effect can disrupt wireless communications and affect the performance of RF devices. Ice, hail, and snow can also attenuate RF energy, but fog is specifically mentioned in the question.

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34. Which media has a storage capacity of a gigabyte (GB) - terabyte (TB), has a slow to moderate speed and is moderately expensive?

Explanation

Tape is the correct answer because it has a storage capacity ranging from gigabytes (GB) to terabytes (TB), making it suitable for storing large amounts of data. It has a slow to moderate speed compared to other media options, but it is still widely used for archival purposes due to its cost-effectiveness. CD-ROM and DVD-ROM have smaller storage capacities compared to tape, while network refers to a method of connecting devices rather than a storage medium.

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35. The term used to refer to the process of launching the OS is the

Explanation

The term used to refer to the process of launching the OS is "boot". This term is derived from the phrase "pulling oneself up by one's bootstraps" and it refers to the process of starting up a computer system. During the boot process, the computer's hardware is initialized, the operating system is loaded into memory, and various system checks and configurations are performed. The boot process is essential for the computer to become operational and ready for use.

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36. When a security container is opened, it is inventoried at the

Explanation

The correct answer is "end of the shift or duty day." This means that when a security container is opened, it is inventoried at the end of the shift or duty day. This practice ensures that any items taken or added to the container during the day are properly recorded and accounted for before the container is closed again. It helps maintain the security and integrity of the container's contents.

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37. Printer hardware configuration via the web is done through

Explanation

Printer hardware configuration via the web is done through hypertext transfer protocol. This means that the printer's hardware settings can be accessed and modified through a web browser using the HTTP protocol. This allows users to remotely configure and manage the printer's settings without the need for physical access to the printer or its front panel controls.

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38. Which hardware requirement is defined as the model and the clock speed of the CPU?

Explanation

The hardware requirement defined as the model and the clock speed of the CPU is processing power. This refers to the capability of the CPU to handle and execute tasks efficiently and quickly. The model of the CPU indicates its generation and features, while the clock speed represents the number of instructions the CPU can process per second. Therefore, processing power is a crucial factor in determining the overall performance and speed of a computer system.

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39. The first sector at the beginning of a hard drive is called the master

Explanation

The first sector at the beginning of a hard drive is called the boot record. This sector contains important information that is necessary for the computer to start up and load the operating system. It includes the instructions for the computer to locate and load the operating system files, as well as any other necessary system files. The boot record is crucial for the proper functioning of the hard drive and the overall system.

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40. Which file system is the best choice for data storage if the server is a dedicated Windows server?

Explanation

NTFS (New Technology File System) is the best choice for data storage on a dedicated Windows server. NTFS offers advanced features such as file and folder permissions, encryption, compression, and support for large file sizes and volumes. It provides better security, reliability, and performance compared to the older FAT (File Allocation Table) file system. NTFS also supports features like journaling, which helps in recovering from system crashes or power failures. Therefore, NTFS is the recommended file system for a dedicated Windows server.

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41. What limits a dirct wave to normally less than 20 miles?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Curvature of the earth." This is because as a direct wave propagates, it follows the curvature of the earth's surface. Due to the curvature, the direct wave gradually loses signal strength and becomes weaker over distance. This phenomenon limits the range of a direct wave to normally less than 20 miles.

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42. What are the two types of accounts supported by Windows operation systems?

Explanation

Windows operating systems support two types of accounts: domain accounts and local accounts. A domain account is used to access resources on a network and is managed by a domain controller. It allows users to access shared files, printers, and other network resources. On the other hand, a local account is specific to a single computer and is managed locally. It is used for logging into the computer itself and accessing local resources. Therefore, the correct answer is domain and local.

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43. What condition occurs when a signal is induced into one circuit from another?

Explanation

Crosstalk is the condition that occurs when a signal is induced into one circuit from another. It happens when there is an unwanted coupling of signals between two or more circuits, resulting in interference. This interference can cause distortion or degradation of the original signal, leading to errors or reduced performance. Crosstalk is a common issue in electronic systems, especially in high-speed communication or densely packed circuits. It is important to minimize crosstalk to ensure proper signal integrity and reliable operation of the circuits.

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44. What describes how a computer finds a specific byte it is looking for in memory?

Explanation

Memory addressing is the process by which a computer locates a specific byte in its memory. It involves assigning unique addresses to each byte in memory, allowing the computer to easily access and retrieve the desired data. This process is essential for efficient memory management and retrieval, enabling the computer to quickly find and retrieve the specific byte it is looking for. Processing refers to the execution of tasks by the computer's central processing unit, while programming refers to the creation and implementation of software instructions. Memory segmenting, on the other hand, involves dividing the computer's memory into segments for better organization and management.

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45. What is the newest generation of secure voice telephone?

Explanation

The newest generation of secure voice telephone is the Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). This is a secure communication device that provides encrypted voice communication, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the conversation. It is designed to protect against eavesdropping and unauthorized access, making it suitable for sensitive and classified communications. The other options mentioned, such as the Secure Telephone Unit (STU), Cryptographic Telephone (CT), and Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone), may also provide secure communication capabilities, but the STE is specifically mentioned as the newest generation.

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46. Which is not a valid form of identity management?

Explanation

Hair is not a valid form of identity management because it is not unique to an individual and can easily be altered or disguised. Unlike iris, palm, and voice, which have distinct patterns and characteristics that can be used for identification purposes, hair does not possess such distinguishing features. Therefore, it cannot be relied upon as a reliable method of identity management.

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47. The primary reason you measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to 

Explanation

Before removing and replacing terminal or distribution frame protectors, it is important to measure the voltage across them to ensure that dangerous voltages are not present on the line. This is crucial for the safety of the person performing the task as well as to prevent any potential damage to the equipment or circuits. By measuring the voltage, one can identify if there is any risk of electric shock or other hazards, allowing them to take appropriate precautions before proceeding with the replacement.

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48. Producing radio frequency (RF) energy and radiating useful signals into space is the purpose of the

Explanation

The purpose of producing radio frequency (RF) energy and radiating useful signals into space is achieved by the transmitter. It is responsible for generating and amplifying the signals before sending them through the antenna for transmission. The receiver, on the other hand, is responsible for capturing and processing the signals received from the transmitter. The antenna coupler and transmission lines are components that assist in the efficient transfer of signals between the transmitter and the antenna, but they do not directly produce or radiate RF energy.

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49. Which personal wireless communications system device can be used for command and control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Land mobile radio (LMR). LMR devices are commonly used for command and control purposes in personal wireless communications systems. They provide reliable and secure communication between different personnel involved in command and control operations. LMR devices are designed to withstand harsh environments and offer features like encryption and priority access to ensure effective command and control communication.

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50. What percentage of all network problems occur at the data link and physical layers of the open systems interconnect reference model?

Explanation

The correct answer is 60 percent. This means that the majority of network problems occur at the data link and physical layers of the open systems interconnect reference model. These layers are responsible for the transmission of data over the physical network infrastructure, so it is not surprising that a significant percentage of network problems occur at these layers.

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51. What are the two major way to implement a client server network?

Explanation

The two major ways to implement a client-server network are through thick and thin clients. A thick client refers to a computer or device that has a significant amount of processing power and can perform complex tasks locally. It relies less on the server for processing and storage. On the other hand, a thin client is a device that relies heavily on the server for processing and storage. It has minimal processing power and relies on the server to perform most tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is thick/thin.

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52. If the security feature is enabled on a wireless network, access points or routers perform additional checks, helping prevent network break-ins.

Explanation

If the security feature of MAC address filtering is enabled on a wireless network, access points or routers perform additional checks by allowing only specific devices with pre-approved MAC addresses to connect to the network. This helps prevent network break-ins as unauthorized devices with unknown MAC addresses are blocked from accessing the network. Encryption, SSID, and DHCP are also important security features, but they do not directly address the prevention of network break-ins like MAC address filtering does.

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53. What drives faster processing speed and increases the power of may computers and communication devices?

Explanation

Nanotechnology drives faster processing speed and increases the power of many computers and communication devices. Nanotechnology involves manipulating and controlling materials at the nanoscale level, which allows for the development of smaller and more efficient components. By utilizing nanoscale materials and structures, devices can be made faster, more powerful, and more energy-efficient. This technology has the potential to revolutionize various industries, including computing and communication, by enabling the creation of smaller and more advanced devices.

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54. Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

Explanation

The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a telecommunications network that allows for the transmission of voice, video, and data over digital lines. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) is a secure voice telephone that can be used on ISDN. It provides encryption and authentication features to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of voice communications. The other options, Secure Telephone Unit (STU), Cryptographic Telephone (CT), and Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone), are not specifically designed for use on ISDN and may not have the necessary encryption capabilities required for secure communication on this network.

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55. Which type of memory is used to duplicate frequently used information stored elsewhere or computer earlier, because the original data is time consuming to retrieve or to compute?

Explanation

Cache is a type of memory used to duplicate frequently used information stored elsewhere or computed earlier. It is used to improve the speed and efficiency of data retrieval by storing a copy of the most frequently accessed data. This helps to reduce the time-consuming process of retrieving the original data from the main memory or storage devices. Cache memory is faster than RAM and provides quicker access to the data, making it an ideal choice for storing frequently used information.

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56. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)–Micro may be equipped to handle all of the following types of networks except?

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro is capable of handling various types of networks such as Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), Gigabit Ethernet, and Fast Ethernet. However, it is not equipped to handle wireless networks. This means that it does not have the capability to encrypt and secure data transmitted over wireless connections.

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57. What should be done before anything else, once the operating system installation is complete?

Explanation

Once the operating system installation is complete, it is important to install antivirus software before anything else. This is because without antivirus protection, the system is vulnerable to various types of malware and security threats. Installing antivirus software helps to detect and remove any existing malware, as well as prevent future infections. It is a crucial step in ensuring the security and integrity of the operating system and the data stored on it.

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58. Which voicemail system was one of the earliest digital voicemail systems running on a private branch exchange (PBX)?

Explanation

Meridian mail was one of the earliest digital voicemail systems running on a private branch exchange (PBX). Nortel mail, Avaya mail, and Call pilot are not mentioned as being early digital voicemail systems on a PBX.

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59. What piece of test equiptment can help verify connectivity and identify shorts, reversed, crossed or split pairs on a network?

Explanation

A local-area network tester is a piece of test equipment that can help verify connectivity and identify shorts, reversed, crossed, or split pairs on a network. It is specifically designed for testing network connections within a local area network (LAN) environment. This tester can provide accurate and detailed information about the status of network connections, allowing technicians to quickly troubleshoot and fix any issues. It is an essential tool for network administrators and technicians to ensure the proper functioning of LAN connections.

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60. Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly?

Explanation

The correct answer is Unit. Units are usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly. This means that each individual unit within an organization is responsible for managing and budgeting their own air time charges for communication and information systems. It is important for units to plan and allocate their resources effectively to ensure they can cover the costs of their air time charges.

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61. Cell sites are generally thought of as beign a 

Explanation

Cell sites are generally thought of as being in the shape of a hexagon. This is because cell sites are designed to provide coverage in a specific area, and the hexagon shape allows for the most efficient distribution of signals. The hexagon shape ensures that each cell site can cover a roughly equal area without any gaps or overlaps in coverage. Additionally, the hexagon shape allows for easy expansion and scalability of the cellular network, as new cell sites can be added in a way that maximizes coverage and minimizes interference.

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62. Which is not a transmission medium for a wireless local area network?

Explanation

Fiber optics is not a transmission medium for a wireless local area network because it involves the use of cables made of glass or plastic fibers to transmit data through light signals. Wireless local area networks, on the other hand, rely on radio waves or microwaves to transmit data without the need for physical cables. Therefore, fiber optics is not a suitable option for wireless LAN transmission.

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63. Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

Explanation

Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data remains whole and complete, without any unauthorized modifications or corruption. Therefore, data integrity is the term that describes that data is whole or complete.

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64. The most common hardware diagnostic tool is the

Explanation

A loopback plug is a hardware diagnostic tool that is commonly used to test the functionality of network ports. It is a device that plugs into a port and redirects the outgoing signals back to the same port, allowing the user to check if the port is transmitting and receiving data properly. This tool is widely used in troubleshooting network connectivity issues and identifying faulty ports or cables. The other options mentioned in the question, such as the basic input/output system card, power-on self-test, and patch panel, are not specifically designed for hardware diagnostics like the loopback plug.

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65. Which model of Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 family switches is installed in compact modular cabinets?

Explanation

The Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100 model of Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 family switches is installed in compact modular cabinets.

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66. For best communications, the transmitting antenna

Explanation

The best communications occur when the transmitting and receiving antennas have the same polarization. Polarization refers to the orientation of the electromagnetic waves radiated by the antennas. When the polarization of both antennas is aligned, the signal transmission is more efficient and there is less signal loss. Therefore, for optimal communication, it is important for the transmitting and receiving antennas to have the same polarization.

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67. When the gain of an anisotropic radiator is compared to the isotropic radiator, the stronger signal of the directional antenna is expressed as

Explanation

The gain of an anisotropic radiator is expressed in decibels (dB) because it is a logarithmic unit used to compare the power or intensity of two signals. By comparing the gain of the directional antenna to the isotropic radiator, which radiates equally in all directions, the stronger signal of the directional antenna can be quantified in terms of dB gain. dB plus, over voltage, and over watts are not appropriate units for expressing the comparison of gain between the two types of radiators.

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68. User accounts are uniquely identified by the

Explanation

User accounts are uniquely identified by the Security Identifier (SID). A SID is a unique alphanumeric string assigned to each user account in a Windows operating system. It is used to identify and control access to various resources and objects on a computer or network. SIDs are persistent and remain the same even if the user account is renamed or moved to a different domain. Therefore, the SID is the correct answer for identifying user accounts uniquely.

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69. Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device's orginal intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves with a small area?

Explanation

The Family Radio Service (FRS) device was originally intended for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves in a small area. FRS devices are commonly used for personal communication within short distances, such as during outdoor activities or in a neighborhood.

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70. What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency?

Explanation

Time division multiple access (TDMA) is a channel access method that assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency. This means that multiple calls can share the same frequency by taking turns transmitting in different time slots. TDMA is commonly used in digital cellular systems, where it allows for efficient use of available frequencies and enables multiple users to access the network simultaneously.

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71. What is a method of putting many users on a single cable pair?

Explanation

Time division multiplexing is a method of putting many users on a single cable pair by dividing the available time into multiple time slots. Each user is assigned a specific time slot during which they can transmit their data. This allows multiple users to share the same cable pair efficiently without interfering with each other's transmissions.

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72. What cabling is the most commonly used?

Explanation

Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) is the most commonly used cabling. UTP consists of pairs of wires that are twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference. It is cost-effective, easy to install, and widely available. UTP is commonly used for Ethernet networks and telephone systems. Screened twisted pair (ScTP), shielded twisted pair (STP), and foiled twisted pair (FTP) are also types of twisted pair cabling, but they are less commonly used compared to UTP. ScTP and STP have additional shielding to provide better protection against interference, while FTP has a foil shield. However, UTP is still the most popular choice due to its affordability and reliability.

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73. Which category (Cat) of cable can support data rates up to 100Mbps?

Explanation

Cat 5 cable can support data rates up to 100Mbps. Cat 3 cable is capable of supporting data rates up to 10Mbps, Cat 6 cable can support data rates up to 10Gbps, and Cat 5E cable can support data rates up to 1Gbps. Therefore, Cat 5 is the correct answer as it is the only option that can support data rates up to 100Mbps.

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74. What conventional land mobile radio (LMR) devise serves as the hub of a net?

Explanation

A base station is a conventional land mobile radio (LMR) device that serves as the hub of a net. It is a fixed location radio system that provides communication coverage to a specific area. It acts as a central point for transmitting and receiving signals from portable and mobile radios within its range. The base station typically has a higher power output and a larger antenna compared to portable or mobile devices, allowing for extended coverage and improved communication capabilities.

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75. Top secret keying material must be handled, stored, transported and destroyed under

Explanation

Top secret keying material is highly sensitive and requires strict control to prevent unauthorized access or compromise. Two-person integrity (TPI) control is a security measure that ensures two individuals are present at all times when handling, storing, transporting, or destroying such material. This control minimizes the risk of insider threats or unauthorized actions, as both individuals are required to verify and validate each other's actions. TPI control provides an additional layer of security and accountability, making it the appropriate choice for handling top secret keying material.

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76. Which models of end offices in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?

Explanation

DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100 are commonly used models of end offices in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS) family to provide base telephone services at Air Force bases.

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77. The process of mixing or combining two frequencies in a nonlinear device in an amplitude modulated (AM) receiver is called

Explanation

Heterodyning is the process of mixing or combining two frequencies in a nonlinear device in an amplitude modulated (AM) receiver. This technique is used to convert the high frequency carrier signal to a lower frequency, which makes it easier to amplify and extract the audio signal. By combining the carrier signal with a local oscillator signal, the resulting mixed signal contains both sum and difference frequencies. The difference frequency, which corresponds to the audio signal, can then be extracted using a bandpass filter.

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78. The Asset Inventory Management (AIM) system includes what type of database and is located where?

Explanation

The AIM system includes an Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

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79. Which information is not required when configuring Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)?

Explanation

When configuring TCP/IP, the Media Access Control (MAC) address is not required. The MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces at the hardware level and is used for communication within a local network. However, when configuring TCP/IP, the focus is on the logical addressing scheme, specifically the Internet Protocol (IP) address. The IP address is necessary for identifying and communicating with devices on a network. The domain name system (DNS) server address is also important as it translates domain names into IP addresses. Administrator access is required for making configuration changes but is not directly related to TCP/IP configuration.

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80. The transfer of eight bits of data simultaneously through eight separate lines in a single cable is a function of a

Explanation

The transfer of eight bits of data simultaneously through eight separate lines in a single cable is a function of a parallel port. This is because a parallel port is designed to transfer multiple bits of data simultaneously, with each bit being sent through a separate line. In contrast, a serial port transfers data one bit at a time through a single line, making it unsuitable for transferring eight bits simultaneously. A switching port refers to a networking device that connects multiple devices together, while a universal serial bus (USB) port is a common interface for connecting peripherals to a computer, but it does not specifically support parallel data transfer.

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81. Which port on the office version Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine?

Explanation

RS-232 is a standard for serial communication that is commonly used for connecting devices such as modems, printers, and fax machines to computers. It provides a reliable and efficient way to transmit data between devices. While USB is a widely used interface for connecting various peripherals, it is not typically used for connecting fax machines to STE. EIA 530 is a standard for synchronous serial communication, and Firewire is a high-speed interface primarily used for connecting audio and video devices. Therefore, RS-232 is the most appropriate port for connecting a fax machine to STE.

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82. What technology involves the capture and storage of a distinctive, measurable characteristic, feature, or trait of an individual for later recognition by automated means?

Explanation

Biometrics is the technology that involves the capture and storage of a distinctive, measurable characteristic, feature, or trait of an individual for later recognition by automated means. This can include physical traits such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial features, as well as behavioral traits like voice or gait. Biometric systems are widely used for identification and authentication purposes in various fields, including security, access control, and law enforcement.

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83. Reading and storing a document on a hard disk or some other storage medium for processing at a more convenient time is called

Explanation

Spooling refers to the process of reading and storing a document on a storage medium, such as a hard disk, in order to process it at a later, more convenient time. This allows the computer to continue with other tasks while the document is being prepared for processing. Spooling is commonly used in printing, where documents are stored in a print queue until they can be printed out. Therefore, the correct answer is spooling.

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84. What is the long-haul transmission componet of Theather Deployable Communications (TDC)?

Explanation

The long-haul transmission component of Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is the Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST). This terminal is specifically designed for mobile forces and provides reliable and secure communication over long distances. It is lightweight and can be easily deployed in theater, making it an ideal choice for long-haul transmission in TDC operations.

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85. The loudness of a sound is closely related to what part of the sine wave?

Explanation

The loudness of a sound is closely related to its amplitude. Amplitude refers to the maximum displacement of particles in a medium from their equilibrium position when a sound wave passes through it. The greater the amplitude, the louder the sound. Therefore, the correct answer is amplitude.

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86. Who may close tickets in Remedy?

Explanation

The Help Desk may close tickets in Remedy. This suggests that the Help Desk team has the authority and responsibility to mark tickets as resolved or closed once the issue has been addressed. The other options, such as the Customer, Technician, and Shift lead, may play different roles in the ticketing process but do not have the authority to close tickets.

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87. What field provides the basis of radio frequency (RF) communication by detaching from the conductor and traveling through space?

Explanation

Radio frequency (RF) communication involves the transmission of electromagnetic waves through space. These waves detach from the conductor and propagate through the air or vacuum, allowing for wireless communication. The term "radiation" refers to the emission of energy as electromagnetic waves, making it the correct answer for this question.

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88. Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?

Explanation

The Defense Courier Service is not a method for secure telecommunications because it involves physically transporting classified or sensitive information through traditional mail or courier services, which can be vulnerable to interception or tampering. On the other hand, using a protected distribution system, communications security equipment, or an intrusion detection optical communications system are all methods that employ advanced technologies and protocols to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of telecommunications, making them more secure options.

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89. What is the TEMPEST program in the Air Force called?

Explanation

The correct answer is Emission Security. The TEMPEST program in the Air Force is referred to as Emission Security. This program focuses on preventing unauthorized access to classified information by analyzing and controlling unintentional electromagnetic emissions from electronic equipment. By implementing measures to minimize these emissions, the Air Force aims to protect sensitive data from being intercepted or exploited by adversaries.

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90. The Communications Security (COMSEC) program is designed to

Explanation

The correct answer is "detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information." The Communications Security (COMSEC) program aims to identify and address any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in procedures that could potentially lead to the exposure of sensitive or critical information. By detecting and correcting these weaknesses, the program helps to ensure the security and protection of classified material and prevent unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.

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91. In trunked land mobile radio (LMR) systems, different user groups are known as 

Explanation

In trunked land mobile radio (LMR) systems, different user groups are known as talkgroups. Talkgroups are a way to organize users into specific groups or channels, allowing them to communicate with each other. Each talkgroup is assigned a unique identifier, and when a user wants to communicate with a specific group, they select the corresponding talkgroup. This allows for efficient and organized communication within the LMR system, ensuring that users can easily connect with the appropriate group for their communication needs.

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92. In a network environment, what may be responsible for all or some of the network operational tasks?

Explanation

In a network environment, the server is responsible for all or some of the network operational tasks. Servers are powerful computers that store and manage data, files, and applications for multiple clients or workstations connected to the network. They handle tasks such as data storage, file sharing, user authentication, and network security. Servers also provide services like email, web hosting, and database management. By centralizing these tasks on a server, it allows for efficient and organized network operations.

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93. Which TIA/EIA parameter test is a measure of the unwanted signal coupling from a transmitter at the near-end into a neighboring (non-energized) pair measure at the near-end?

Explanation

Near-end crosstalk (NEXT) is a TIA/EIA parameter test that measures the unwanted signal coupling from a transmitter at the near-end into a neighboring (non-energized) pair at the near-end. This means it quantifies the interference or cross-talk that occurs between adjacent pairs of wires in a communication cable. NEXT is an important parameter to consider when evaluating the performance and quality of a communication system, as high levels of NEXT can result in signal degradation and reduced data transmission speeds.

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94. Which type of memory stores configuration information, and is used by the BIOS during system boot up?

Explanation

Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) memory is a type of memory that stores configuration information and is used by the BIOS during system boot up. CMOS memory is non-volatile, meaning it retains data even when the power is turned off. It is commonly used to store settings such as date and time, hardware configurations, and system preferences. During boot up, the BIOS reads this information from the CMOS memory to initialize the system according to the stored settings. Therefore, CMOS memory is the correct answer for this question.

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95. The KIV–7 cryptographic device provides protection up to what classification level?

Explanation

The KIV-7 cryptographic device provides protection up to the Top Secret classification level. This means that it is capable of securing and encrypting highly sensitive information that is classified as Top Secret.

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96. How many channels are used when a voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another IP host?

Explanation

When a voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another IP host, two channels are used, one for each direction. This means that one channel is used to transmit data from the PBX to the IP host, and another channel is used to transmit data from the IP host to the PBX. This allows for bidirectional communication during the VoIP session.

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97. A spooled print job be several times larger than the printed document size because of the

Explanation

The correct answer is "printer's language." When a print job is spooled, it is converted into a format that the printer can understand, known as the printer's language. This language includes commands and instructions specific to the printer model, such as how to format the text, images, and other elements on the page. The spooled print job can be larger than the original document size because it includes additional data for the printer's language, which is necessary for accurate printing.

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98. Noise may be introduced into speech signal by thermal agitation and 

Explanation

Black body radiation refers to the electromagnetic radiation emitted by a perfect black body at a given temperature. In the context of speech signals, it is unlikely that black body radiation would introduce noise into the signal. Thermal agitation and power variations are more plausible sources of noise in a speech signal, as they can lead to random fluctuations in the signal's amplitude or power. Molecular breakdown, on the other hand, is not a commonly known source of noise in speech signals.

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99. What standard antenna is used for antenna gain comparison?

Explanation

The correct answer is isotropic. Isotropic antennas are theoretical antennas that radiate equally in all directions. They are used as a reference point to compare the gain of other antennas. Antennas with higher gain will radiate more energy in a particular direction compared to the isotropic antenna. Therefore, isotropic antennas are commonly used as a standard for antenna gain comparison.

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100. A formatted disk partition that  is used for a particular file system is called

Explanation

A formatted disk partition that is used for a particular file system is called a volume. This is because a volume refers to a specific portion of a disk that has been formatted and allocated for a particular file system. It can be seen as a separate entity or unit within the disk, where files and folders are stored and organized.

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101. What is the purpose of the TEMPEST program?

Explanation

The purpose of the TEMPEST program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. This program aims to minimize the electromagnetic radiation emitted by electronic devices and systems, in order to prevent unauthorized interception and eavesdropping. By implementing certain measures and standards, the TEMPEST program helps to protect sensitive information from being compromised through electromagnetic emissions.

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102. What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?

Explanation

The ratio used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise is signal-to-noise. This ratio indicates how much stronger the signal is compared to the noise present in the background. It is an important measure in various fields such as telecommunications, audio engineering, and data analysis. A higher signal-to-noise ratio indicates a stronger and clearer signal, while a lower ratio implies that the signal is weaker and more susceptible to interference from noise.

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103. Which is not a use for local user accounts?

Explanation

Local user accounts are primarily used for controlling access and permissions on a specific computer or system. They are not typically used to control a user's permissions on a local network, as network permissions are usually managed through domain user accounts or network access controls. Local user accounts are more focused on managing access and privileges within the local machine or system itself.

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104. What area is described as the complete building or facility area under direct physical control within which unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted acccess and are either escorted by authorized personnel or are uner continuous physical or electronic surveillance?

Explanation

A Controlled Access Area (CAA) is described as the complete building or facility area under direct physical control. In this area, unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized personnel or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This means that only authorized individuals are allowed to enter and move freely within the area, ensuring the security and protection of the building or facility. Restricted Access Area (RAA), Limited-Control Area (LCA), and Uncontrolled Access Area (UAA) do not meet the criteria of having direct physical control, denying unrestricted access, and implementing continuous surveillance, making Controlled Access Area (CAA) the correct answer.

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105. This operating system tool allows the viewing of the number of sent packets, status, total connection time, and speed of a network.

Explanation

Network Connections is the correct answer because it is an operating system tool that allows users to view various network-related information such as the number of sent packets, network status, total connection time, and network speed. This tool provides a comprehensive overview of the network connections on the system, allowing users to monitor and troubleshoot network issues effectively. Device Manager is responsible for managing hardware devices, Control Panel provides access to various system settings, and Event Viewer is used to view system event logs, none of which specifically provide the mentioned network-related information.

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106. What type of memory is nonvolatile, considered permanent, and is also called firmware in reference to the data and instructions stored?

Explanation

ROM stands for Read-Only Memory. It is a type of memory that is nonvolatile, meaning it retains its data even when power is turned off. ROM is considered permanent because the data and instructions stored in it cannot be easily modified or erased. It is also called firmware because it contains essential software instructions for the computer system. Unlike RAM, which is volatile and loses its data when power is turned off, ROM provides long-term storage for critical system information. Cache and CMOS are not correct answers because they do not possess the characteristics mentioned in the question.

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107. This type of memory is blank and instructions can be placed on permanently.

Explanation

PROM stands for Programmable Read-Only Memory. It is a type of memory that can be programmed only once by the manufacturer or user. Once programmed, the instructions stored in PROM cannot be changed or erased, making it a permanent storage for instructions. This type of memory is commonly used for firmware or software that needs to be permanently stored and cannot be modified.

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108. A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the

Explanation

In order to conduct a thorough line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS), a close visual inspection must cover the total surface of the system. This means that all areas, both visible and concealed, need to be examined in order to identify any potential issues or damages. By inspecting the total surface, technicians can ensure that the entire PDS is in proper working condition and make any necessary repairs or maintenance.

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109. What equiptment is included in a customer access node (CAN) to provide the inter-site connectivity?

Explanation

The Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) is included in a customer access node (CAN) to provide inter-site connectivity. The LMST is a versatile and portable satellite communication system that allows for reliable and secure communication between different sites. It is designed to be lightweight and easy to transport, making it ideal for deployment in various locations. The LMST supports multiple frequency bands, enabling it to establish communication links over different satellite networks. Its inclusion in the CAN ensures that inter-site connectivity is efficiently and effectively provided.

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110. Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

Explanation

Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology. This is because asymmetric encryption involves the use of two different keys, a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The process of generating and managing these keys requires more computational resources and time. In contrast, symmetric encryption uses a single key for both encryption and decryption, making it faster and less resource-intensive. Therefore, the correct answer is asymmetric.

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111. What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100 will support?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30,000. The Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100 is capable of supporting a maximum of 30,000 ports.

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112. TEMPEST is

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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113. Groups in active directory are directory

Explanation

In Active Directory, groups are considered as objects. Active Directory is a hierarchical database that stores information about objects such as users, computers, and resources. Groups are used to organize and manage these objects by grouping them together based on certain criteria. Therefore, the correct answer is "objects".

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114. Which alarm category in the network management system indicates a warning?

Explanation

The correct answer is Cyan. In a network management system, different alarm categories are used to indicate different levels of severity. Cyan is typically used to indicate a warning level alarm. This means that there is a potential issue or condition that requires attention, but it is not as critical as a red or orange alarm. The cyan alarm category helps network administrators identify and address potential problems before they escalate into more serious issues.

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115. What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

Explanation

AFI 33-119 is the correct answer because it provides guidance on Air Force messaging. This document outlines the policies and procedures for creating, transmitting, and managing official Air Force messages. It covers topics such as message formats, handling classified information, and electronic messaging systems. By referring to AFI 33-119, individuals can ensure that they are following the correct protocols and guidelines when communicating through Air Force messaging channels.

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116. Members of this group have full control of the server or individual workstations and can assign user rights and access control permissions.

Explanation

Local Administrators have full control of the server or individual workstations and can assign user rights and access control permissions. Domain group accounts refer to groups that are created and managed within a domain, while domain user accounts are individual user accounts within a domain. Local users are accounts that are created and managed locally on a specific machine. Therefore, Local Administrators is the correct answer as they have the necessary privileges to control user rights and access permissions on a server or workstation.

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117. What stores print jobs in a print queue until a printer becomes avalible?

Explanation

A print server is a device or software that manages print jobs sent from multiple computers to a printer. It stores these print jobs in a print queue until a printer becomes available. This allows for efficient printing by ensuring that print jobs are processed in the order they were received, even if the printer is currently busy or offline. Print pool, print farm, and distributive print are not accurate terms for describing the storage of print jobs until a printer becomes available.

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118. What is the transmission rate, in megabits per second (Mbps), of Mode 3 in channel bank operations?

Explanation

Mode 3 in channel bank operations has a transmission rate of 1.544 Mbps.

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119. Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restriced areas?

Explanation

AF Form 1109 is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is used by the Air Force to maintain a record of individuals entering restricted areas. It helps in ensuring security and accountability by documenting the details of visitors, such as their name, purpose of visit, date, time, and duration of the visit.

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120. Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms an inspections are recorded where?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Protected distribution system (PDS) log." This is because PDS events such as alarms and inspections are recorded in the PDS log. The PDS log is a record of activities and events related to the protected distribution system, which is a system designed to safeguard sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access. The log helps track and monitor the security of the PDS and provides a record of any incidents or actions taken.

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121. What major equipment in a theater deployable communications (TDC) package provides mobile units with flexible, lighweight, secure, modular, and integrated deployble communications?

Explanation

The major equipment in a theater deployable communications (TDC) package that provides mobile units with flexible, lightweight, secure, modular, and integrated deployable communications is the Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) and Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP).

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122. What's the difference between the basic acces module (BAM) and the configurable access module (CAM)?

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that the difference between the basic access module (BAM) and the configurable access module (CAM) is that BAM has a fixed capability. This means that BAM provides a secure data network to local subscribers, but it does not have the ability to be configured or customized. On the other hand, CAM also provides a secure data network to local subscribers, but it has the additional feature of being configurable, allowing for customization based on specific needs or requirements.

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123. Which of these is not a prominent characteristic of an operating system?

Explanation

The given answer, "The way it processes," is not a prominent characteristic of an operating system. Operating systems are primarily responsible for managing computer hardware and software resources, providing an operational environment for applications to run, facilitating user interaction through a user interface, and enabling multitasking capabilities. The way an operating system processes information or performs tasks is an internal mechanism that is not typically considered a prominent characteristic when defining an operating system.

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124. The process of condensation occurs when air particles are

Explanation

When air particles are pressurized, it means that external force is applied to them, causing them to be compressed or squeezed. This compression leads to the particles moving closer together, which is the process of condensation. Condensation occurs when water vapor in the air cools down and changes into liquid water. The pressurization of air particles is a crucial step in this process as it allows the water vapor to come together and form droplets or clouds.

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125. What is the shortest wavelength an antenna can be made resonant?

Explanation

An antenna can be made resonant at the shortest wavelength by using a half-wavelength dipole antenna. This type of antenna is designed to have a length equal to half of the wavelength it is intended to transmit or receive. By using a half-wavelength antenna, the electrical signals can efficiently propagate and match the resonant frequency, resulting in better performance and signal reception.

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126. Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compund operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?

Explanation

Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption, which are applied in a specific sequence. These operations are known as the Data Encryption Algorithm (DEA), the Data Decryption Algorithm (DDA), and the Data Encryption Algorithm (DEA) again. Each of these operations requires its own individual key. Therefore, Triple DES incorporates the use of three individual keys.

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127. What tool can launch individual troubleshooting/configuration programs and other utilities having to do with network, video display, printers, sound, and email configuration on an operating system?

Explanation

The Control Panel is a tool that allows users to access and launch various troubleshooting and configuration programs related to network, video display, printers, sound, and email configuration on an operating system. It provides a centralized location for managing and customizing these settings, making it easier for users to resolve issues and make necessary adjustments to their system.

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128. Each 125us time period in the digital signal (DS)-30 signaling format (used within the voice network system) is called a

Explanation

In the DS-30 signaling format, each 125us time period is referred to as a "frame". This term is commonly used in voice network systems to describe a specific time interval within the digital signal. A frame typically contains a fixed number of bits or bytes and represents a unit of data transmission or processing.

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129. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) can combine voice and data service over the same wires because it uses

Explanation

ISDN can combine voice and data service over standard telephone lines because it is a digital communication technology that uses circuit-switched connections. It converts analog signals from voice and data into digital signals that can be transmitted over the existing copper telephone lines. This allows for simultaneous transmission of voice and data signals, making it possible to integrate both services over the same wires.

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130. What type areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) coverage separated into?

Explanation

The International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) coverage is separated into different types of areas, namely geographical, continental, regional, and ocean. Among these options, the correct answer is ocean. This means that Inmarsat provides coverage specifically in oceanic areas, ensuring reliable satellite communication services for maritime industries and vessels operating in remote areas of the ocean.

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131. Protected distribution system (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?

Explanation

Line route inspections are required for a protected distribution system (PDS). These inspections ensure that the distribution lines are properly installed and maintained, and that there are no obstructions or vulnerabilities along the route. By conducting regular line route inspections, potential issues or threats to the PDS can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring the system's security and reliability. Communications security inspections, separation inspections, and electrical inspections may also be important for overall system maintenance, but they are not specifically required for a PDS.

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132. Which principle is not  addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA-569-B standard?

Explanation

The ANSI/TIA/EIA-569-B standard addresses the minimum requirements for telecommunications cabling, the life span of a telecommunications cabling system, and connecting hardware performance specifications. However, it does not specifically address the color of the cable.

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133. What access control uses segregation of duties and security screening for users?

Explanation

Administrative access control involves the segregation of duties, which means dividing responsibilities among different individuals to prevent any single person from having complete control. It also includes security screening for users, ensuring that individuals are authorized and have the necessary credentials to access sensitive information or perform certain actions. These measures help to enhance security and minimize the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of resources, making administrative access control the correct answer.

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134. The Public Key Infrastructure component that would be necessary if the private key of a key holder was comprised is referred to as the certificate

Explanation

If the private key of a key holder is compromised, the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) component that would be necessary is called revocation. Revocation involves invalidating or revoking the compromised key holder's certificate, rendering it unusable. This ensures that the compromised private key cannot be used for any further cryptographic operations, maintaining the security and integrity of the system.

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135. What device receives information from the internet and translates it into radio signal and send it to the computer's wireless adapter?

Explanation

A router is a device that receives information from the internet and translates it into a radio signal to send it to the computer's wireless adapter. It acts as a bridge between the internet and the local network, allowing multiple devices to connect and access the internet wirelessly. A network interface card (NIC) is a hardware component that enables a computer to connect to a network, but it does not perform the specific function described in the question. Ethernet and Wi-Fi are types of network connections, but they are not the specific device responsible for receiving and translating internet information into a radio signal.

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136. What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal and respond to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals?

Explanation

A phase-locked loop (PLL) is a control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal. It is able to respond to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals. This means that the PLL can track and synchronize with the phase of the reference signal, making it useful in applications such as frequency synthesis, clock recovery, and demodulation. The other options, Quality of Service (QoS), Remote control protocol (RCP), and Forward error correction (FEC), do not specifically match the description of a control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal.

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137. Which logical troubleshooting step would include classifying the problem as hardware or software related?

Explanation

Isolating the problem involves determining whether the issue is caused by hardware or software. By separating the problem into these two categories, it becomes easier to identify the root cause and apply the appropriate troubleshooting techniques. This step helps in narrowing down the possible causes and facilitates a more efficient resolution process.

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138. Which encryption is not a telecommunication encryption type?

Explanation

The encryption type "Open" is not a telecommunication encryption type. Narrowband, Network, and Bulk are all examples of encryption types used in telecommunication, but "Open" does not fall into this category.

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139. Which principle is not addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B standard?

Explanation

The ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B standard addresses various aspects of structured cabling, including connector and pin assignment, subsystems of structured cabling, and installation methods and practices. However, it does not provide recommendations for wireless topology and distances. This standard primarily focuses on wired communication infrastructure rather than wireless technology.

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140. Which patch will prevent exploitation and remove or mitigate a threat's capability to exploit a specific vulnerability in an asset, and is the primary method of fixing vulnerabilities in software?

Explanation

A security patch is designed to prevent exploitation and mitigate the capability of a threat to exploit a specific vulnerability in an asset. It is the primary method of fixing vulnerabilities in software. By applying a security patch, the vulnerability is addressed, reducing the risk of potential attacks or breaches. This patch ensures that the software is updated and protected against known security vulnerabilities, enhancing the overall security posture of the system or application.

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141. The KG–175D is what type of Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)?

Explanation

The correct answer is TACLANE–Micro. This is because the question is asking for the type of Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE) that the KG-175D is, and the correct type is TACLANE-Micro.

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142. In network troubleshooting, any event that has a negative effect on the service of the network is referred to as a

Explanation

A fault refers to any event or issue that negatively impacts the service of a network. It can be a hardware failure, software glitch, or any other problem that disrupts the normal functioning of the network. Vulnerability, problem, and bug are not appropriate terms to describe such events as they do not specifically imply a negative effect on the network service.

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143. The Asset Inventory Management (AIM) is part of what?

Explanation

The Asset Inventory Management (AIM) is part of the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). This means that AIM is a component or module within the larger AFEMS system. AFEMS is likely a comprehensive system that manages all aspects of equipment management within the Air Force, including inventory management. AIM specifically focuses on managing and tracking assets within the Air Force, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and maintained.

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144. Which type of network is oftem call the GigE network?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1000 BaseT because GigE stands for Gigabit Ethernet, which refers to a network technology that can transmit data at a rate of 1 gigabit per second. 1000 BaseT specifically refers to a type of Gigabit Ethernet that uses twisted pair copper cables for transmission. Therefore, 1000 BaseT is often called the GigE network.

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145. What is an electronic credit card-like device the established you credentials when doing business or other transactions on the Internet?

Explanation

A digital certificate is an electronic credit card-like device that establishes your credentials when doing business or other transactions on the Internet. It is used to verify the authenticity of the user and ensure secure communication between parties. A digital certificate contains information such as the user's identity, public key, and the digital signature of a trusted third party known as a certificate authority. This certificate acts as a digital passport, allowing the user to securely engage in online activities and transactions.

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146. What Meridan application provides local area network (LAN) connectivity so you can share equiptment, data files, and application software utilizing a modem?

Explanation

The correct answer is CompuCALL. The Meridan application provides local area network (LAN) connectivity, allowing users to share equipment, data files, and application software using a modem. CompuCALL is a feature of Meridan that enables this functionality, allowing for efficient communication and collaboration within a LAN environment.

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147. What data integrity method is used in high-end personal computers and file servers?

Explanation

Error correction code (ECC) memory is a data integrity method used in high-end personal computers and file servers. ECC memory is designed to detect and correct errors that may occur during data storage or transmission. It achieves this by adding extra bits to each data word, allowing it to detect and correct single-bit errors, and detect multiple-bit errors. This makes ECC memory more reliable and less prone to data corruption, making it an ideal choice for high-end systems where data integrity is crucial.

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148. Which is not a basic function of antivirus programs?

Explanation

Antivirus programs are designed to protect computers from malware and other malicious threats. They perform various functions to achieve this, including removal, detection, and vaccination. Removal refers to the ability of antivirus programs to eliminate or quarantine identified threats. Detection involves the identification of malware or suspicious files on a computer. Vaccination refers to the process of immunizing a computer against known threats. Scanning, on the other hand, is a fundamental function of antivirus programs, where they scan the computer's files and processes to identify any potential threats. Therefore, scanning is a basic function of antivirus programs.

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149. TACLANE–Classic and TACLANE–E100 are high-speed encryption devices that provide confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication security services for which type of network?

Explanation

TACLANE-Classic and TACLANE-E100 are high-speed encryption devices that provide security services for Internet Protocol networks. This means that they are specifically designed to protect the confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication of data transmitted over IP networks. They may not be suitable for other types of networks such as serial networks, tactical networks, or point-to-point connections, as they are not explicitly mentioned in relation to these devices. Therefore, the correct answer is Internet Protocol networks.

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150. The total resistive properties of a circuit when resistance, capacitive reactance, and inductive reactance are formulated together is called

Explanation

Impedance is the correct answer because it refers to the total resistive properties of a circuit when resistance, capacitive reactance, and inductive reactance are combined. Impedance is a complex quantity that takes into account both resistance and reactance, and it is measured in ohms. Attenuation refers to the decrease in signal strength, resistance is the opposition to current flow, and distortion refers to any alteration in the waveform.

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151. What software activates the actual transmission and receipt of data over the network?

Explanation

Network interface drivers are responsible for activating the actual transmission and receipt of data over the network. These drivers are software components that enable communication between the network interface card (NIC) and the operating system. They provide the necessary protocols and instructions for the NIC to send and receive data packets, ensuring smooth and efficient network communication. The other options mentioned, such as network interface card connector interfaces, media access control, and open data interfaces, are not directly involved in the activation of data transmission and receipt.

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152. Which backup type does not clear archive flags once the backup job is complete?

Explanation

Differential backups do not clear archive flags once the backup job is complete. This means that the archive flags remain unchanged after the backup, allowing for future backups to include any changes made since the last full backup. In contrast, full, daily, and incremental backups clear the archive flags, indicating that the files have been backed up and any changes made after the backup will require a new backup.

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153. Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

Explanation

A parity bit is a simple error-detecting code that is commonly used in computer systems. It is a single bit added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in transmission can be detected. This makes it a very simple and effective method for error detection in data communication. Interrupt, data integrity, and asynchronous are not examples of error detecting codes, making the parity bit the correct answer.

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154. How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to implement voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

Explanation

In order to implement voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), the one-way delay from endpoint to endpoint should be less than 150 milliseconds. This is because any delay greater than this threshold can result in noticeable and disruptive audio delays during a conversation. Therefore, to ensure a smooth and seamless VoIP experience, it is necessary to keep the one-way delay below 150 milliseconds.

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155. A static internet protocol address on a network printer during hardware configuration is used for

Explanation

A static internet protocol address on a network printer during hardware configuration is used for print job locating. This means that the printer is assigned a specific IP address that does not change, allowing other devices on the network to easily locate and send print jobs to that specific printer. By having a static IP address, the printer can be consistently identified and accessed by other devices, ensuring that print jobs are sent to the correct printer.

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156. What must customers do to connect telephones and computer worksations to the theater deployable communications (TDC) backbone network?

Explanation

Customers must adhere to various open system standards and interfaces such as Ethernet in order to connect telephones and computer workstations to the theater deployable communications (TDC) backbone network. This means that they need to ensure that their devices and systems are compatible with the Ethernet protocol, which is a widely used standard for connecting devices in a network. By adhering to these standards, customers can ensure seamless connectivity and communication within the TDC backbone network.

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157. In hertz (Hz), what range of sound can the human ear detect?

Explanation

The human ear can detect sound waves within the frequency range of 20 to 20,000 hertz (Hz). This range is commonly referred to as the audible range. Frequencies below 20 Hz are known as infrasound and are typically felt rather than heard, while frequencies above 20,000 Hz are called ultrasound and are generally not audible to humans. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 to 20,000.

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158. What characteristics enables a receiver to reproduce a desired signal from several closely spaced stations or from interfering frequencies?

Explanation

Selectivity refers to the ability of a receiver to separate and extract the desired signal from multiple closely spaced stations or interfering frequencies. It determines the receiver's capability to reject unwanted signals and only amplify the desired signal. A receiver with high selectivity will effectively filter out interference and allow for clear reception of the desired signal, making it an important characteristic in overcoming signal interference and achieving reliable communication.

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159. Only after what, are tickets allowed to be placed in the "Closed" status in Remedy?

Explanation

Tickets are allowed to be placed in the "Closed" status in Remedy only after step-by-step fix actions have been annotated. This means that the necessary actions to fix the problem have been documented and recorded. Once this step is completed, the ticket can be closed as it indicates that the issue has been resolved and the necessary steps have been taken to address it.

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160. What function enables the higher layer protocol data units to fit into the lower layer PDU for transmission across the network?

Explanation

Fragmentation is the process of breaking down larger data units into smaller units to fit into the lower layer protocol data units for transmission across the network. This is necessary when the size of the higher layer protocol data units exceeds the maximum size allowed by the lower layer protocol. By fragmenting the data, it can be transmitted in smaller, manageable units and reassembled at the receiving end. Frame relays, round trip delay, and asynchronous transfer mode are not directly related to the process of fitting higher layer protocol data units into lower layer PDUs.

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161. What is used to organize different types of accounts into manageable units?

Explanation

A group is used to organize different types of accounts into manageable units. By grouping accounts together, it becomes easier to manage permissions and access control for multiple accounts at once. This allows for streamlined administration and efficient organization of user accounts within a system.

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162. What is the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) R interface?

Explanation

The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) R interface is the connection point between a non-ISDN compatible device and a terminal adapter (TA). This interface allows the non-ISDN device to connect to the ISDN network through the TA, which acts as a bridge between the two. The TA converts the signals from the non-ISDN device into a format that can be transmitted over the ISDN network, enabling communication between the non-ISDN device and other ISDN devices.

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163. Which is not a use for local accounts?

Explanation

Local accounts are typically used for managing access and permissions on a single computer or device. They are not designed to control a user's permissions on a local network, as network permissions are typically managed through domain accounts and network policies. Local accounts are more commonly used to have a computer act as a stand-alone system, limit a user's access to the printer on the local machine, and limit a user's access to the programs on the local machine.

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164. Which of the following is not one of the three types of interfaces?

Explanation

The question is asking to identify the option that is not one of the three types of interfaces. The options given are Graphical, Hardware, Software, and User. Out of these options, Graphical is the correct answer because it is not one of the three types of interfaces. The three types of interfaces commonly referred to are Hardware, Software, and User interfaces. Graphical, on the other hand, refers to the visual representation of information and does not specifically represent a type of interface.

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165. What program sets up the divisions of memory that hold the operating system, user information and applications?

Explanation

The bootstrap loader is responsible for setting up the divisions of memory that hold the operating system, user information, and applications. It is the first program that runs when a computer is turned on, and its main task is to load the operating system into memory. By doing so, it establishes the necessary memory partitions for the different components of the system to function properly.

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166. The Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with the

Explanation

The Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) is designed for secure communication and is commonly used by government agencies and military organizations. The STU-III, satellite telephone, and cellular telephone are all different types of communication devices that may not have the same level of security features as the STE. However, the land mobile radio is a two-way radio system used by public safety organizations and other professional users, which can also provide secure communication. Therefore, the STE cannot communicate securely with the land mobile radio.

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167. When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?

Explanation

When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. This means that the information transmitted through the STE, such as voice or data, is transformed into a coded form to protect it from unauthorized access or interception. The encryption process ensures that only authorized recipients with the necessary decryption keys can understand and access the information being transmitted.

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168. What cabling system subsystem provides any or all of the functions of a telecommunications room?

Explanation

The equipment room is a cabling system subsystem that provides any or all of the functions of a telecommunications room. This room is specifically designed to house the network equipment and servers required for the operation of a telecommunications system. It typically contains racks, cabinets, and other infrastructure to support the equipment and facilitate connectivity.

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169. What communication mode(s) of operation allows two or more stations to send intelligience in both directions but not simultaneously?

Explanation

This answer is incorrect. The correct answer is "Half duplex only." Half duplex mode allows two or more stations to send intelligence in both directions but not simultaneously. In this mode, only one station can transmit at a time while the others listen. Simplex mode, on the other hand, allows communication in only one direction, while duplex mode allows simultaneous communication in both directions.

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170. What component of a frequency modulated (FM) reciever removes the original signal from the sidebands an recreates the audio intelligence?

Explanation

The discriminator is the component of a frequency modulated (FM) receiver that removes the original signal from the sidebands and recreates the audio intelligence. It is responsible for demodulating the FM signal and extracting the original audio signal. The discriminator works by detecting the variations in frequency of the FM signal and converting them back into variations in voltage, which represents the audio signal.

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171. Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS) component uses 16-bit Motorola 68000 or 8-bit Intel microprocessors?

Explanation

The peripheral module's (PM) peripheral processor (PP) uses either a 16-bit Motorola 68000 or 8-bit Intel microprocessors in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS). This component is responsible for controlling and managing the peripheral devices connected to the DMS. It handles the communication and data processing tasks for these devices, utilizing the power and capabilities of the chosen microprocessor.

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172. What enhanced features of the trunking land mobile radio (LMR) allows the stem manager to completely disable radios in the field from the system terminal?

Explanation

Selective radio inhibit is the correct answer because it refers to the enhanced feature of trunking LMR that allows the system manager to disable specific radios in the field from the system terminal. This feature gives the system manager control over which radios can transmit or receive, providing a higher level of security and control over communication within the system. The other options listed, such as scan function, squelch circuit, and talkgroup selector switch, do not specifically enable the manager to disable radios in the field.

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173. Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a Communications Security (COMSEC) package?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 153. This form is used with a transfer report to accompany a Communications Security (COMSEC) package. SF 153 is specifically designed for the purpose of transferring COMSEC material and ensuring proper accountability and control. It contains important information such as the type of material being transferred, the quantity, and the names of the sending and receiving parties. By using SF 153, organizations can maintain a clear chain of custody for COMSEC material and ensure its secure transfer between authorized personnel.

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174. What is the design architecture of theater deployable communications (TDC) metropolitan are network (MAN)?

Explanation

The design architecture of theater deployable communications (TDC) metropolitan area network (MAN) is hub-spoke. In this architecture, there is a central hub that connects to multiple spoke sites. The hub acts as a central point of control and communication, while the spokes are connected to the hub and communicate through it. This architecture allows for efficient and centralized management of the network, with the hub serving as the main point of coordination and distribution of data and resources to the spoke sites.

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175. In Secure Socket Layer (SSL), before encrypted transaction takes place, what does the web server give to the browser?

Explanation

In Secure Socket Layer (SSL), the web server gives the browser its public key before an encrypted transaction takes place. The public key is used by the browser to encrypt the data that will be sent to the server. This ensures that only the server, which holds the corresponding private key, can decrypt and access the data. The public key is a crucial component in establishing a secure and encrypted connection between the web server and the browser.

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176. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)–Micro can acquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address via Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro can acquire an IP address via DHCP on either the ciphertext or plaintext side. This means that it can obtain an IP address regardless of whether the data is encrypted (ciphertext) or unencrypted (plaintext). This flexibility allows the TACLANE-Micro to function in different network environments and adapt to different security requirements.

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177. Which is not a way in which round trip delay can be determined?

Explanation

Round trip delay refers to the time it takes for a signal or data to travel from a source to a destination and back. It is typically measured by calculating the time difference between when a signal is sent and when the corresponding response is received. The maximum delay refers to the longest time it takes for a round trip to occur, while the minimum delay refers to the shortest time. The average delay is the average of all the round trip delays, and the total delay is the sum of all the round trip delays. Therefore, the maximum delay is not a way to determine round trip delay, as it only represents the longest time observed.

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178. In respose to disaster relief ofperations, the Department of Defense (DOD) Policy on Procurement of Mobile Satellite services (MSS) was amended in 2006 to allow DOD to use additional MSS providers for

Explanation

The correct answer is "unclassified purpose within the CONUS." This means that the Department of Defense (DOD) is allowed to use additional Mobile Satellite services (MSS) providers for unclassified purposes within the continental United States (CONUS). This amendment to the DOD policy was made in 2006 specifically for disaster relief operations, indicating that the DOD can utilize these services for communication and coordination during such operations within the CONUS.

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179. Which Communications Security (COMSEC) application provides us with guidance to deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources?

Explanation

Physical security is the correct answer because it provides guidance to deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources. Physical security measures include access controls, perimeter security, surveillance systems, and security personnel, all of which help protect physical assets and prevent unauthorized access or damage. Cryptosecurity, emission security, and transmission security are all related to the protection of communication systems and data, but they do not specifically address the deterrence, detection, and defeat of hostile acts against priority resources.

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180. How many bits long are the addresses that computer instructions work with?

Explanation

Computer instructions typically work with addresses that are represented using a certain number of bits. In this case, the correct answer is 16 because it implies that the computer instructions work with addresses that are 16 bits long. This means that the computer can address up to 2^16 (65536) different memory locations.

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181. In addition to fiber-optic and copper cables, what do we use to interconnect intergrated communications access package access nodes on a deployed base within the same theater area?

Explanation

Microwave and laser are used to interconnect integrated communications access package access nodes on a deployed base within the same theater area. These technologies provide wireless connectivity and can transmit data over long distances without the need for physical cables. Microwave technology uses high-frequency radio waves to transmit signals, while laser technology uses beams of light. Both microwave and laser offer fast and reliable communication links, making them suitable for interconnecting access nodes in a theater area.

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182. What componets are used in both encrypton and decryption?

Explanation

In both encryption and decryption processes, the two essential components used are the algorithm and the key. The algorithm determines the specific mathematical operations and processes that are applied to the data to transform it into a coded form during encryption and decode it back to its original form during decryption. The key, on the other hand, is a piece of information that is used by the algorithm to perform the encryption and decryption operations. It is crucial for ensuring the security and confidentiality of the data. Therefore, both the algorithm and key are necessary for both encryption and decryption processes.

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183. How many channels of data does each digital signal (DS)-30 speech link carry?

Explanation

Each digital signal (DS)-30 speech link carries 32 channels of data.

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184. In the pulse code modulation (PCM) process, changing the quantized samples into a binary work is called

Explanation

In pulse code modulation (PCM), the process of converting quantized samples into a binary form is called encoding. This involves representing the amplitude of the analog signal at each sample point with a binary code. Encoding allows for the efficient transmission and storage of the signal, as it reduces the amount of data required compared to the original analog signal. Sampling refers to the process of measuring the amplitude of the analog signal at regular intervals. Quantization is the process of approximating the continuous amplitude of the analog signal into discrete levels. Band limiting refers to the restriction of the frequency range of the analog signal.

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185. What publication governs the format of Alias names for email accounts?

Explanation

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–119 is the correct answer because it governs the format of Alias names for email accounts. This publication provides the guidelines and regulations for how alias names should be structured and used within the Air Force. It ensures consistency and standardization in email account naming conventions, which is important for maintaining security and organization within the Air Force's email system.

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186. What are the two major established Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) transmission rates?

Explanation

The two major established Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) transmission rates are the Basic Rate Interface (BRI) and the Primary Rate Interface (PRI). The BRI provides two 64 Kbps B channels for voice or data transmission and one 16 Kbps D channel for signaling, making a total of 144 Kbps. The PRI, on the other hand, provides 23 B channels and one 64 Kbps D channel, resulting in a total transmission rate of 1.544 Mbps. These two interfaces are widely used for different applications and network requirements.

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187. What Integrated Communication Access Package (ICAP) node module provides the radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight (LOS) link function for internodal connectivity?

Explanation

The correct answer is Microwave. Microwave technology is commonly used for radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight (LOS) link function for internodal connectivity. Microwave signals are transmitted through the air and can provide high-speed and reliable communication over long distances. This technology is often used in telecommunications networks to connect different nodes and enable seamless communication between them. Multiplexer, Crypto, and Laser are not specifically designed for RF LOS link function, making Microwave the most suitable choice for this purpose.

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188. In hertz (Hz), what is the actual voice freuency band?

Explanation

The actual voice frequency band is the range of frequencies at which the human voice can be heard. This range is typically between 300 Hz and 3,400 Hz.

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189. What type modulation produces a constant amplitude transmission?

Explanation

Frequency modulation (FM) produces a constant amplitude transmission. In FM, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied in proportion to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal. This means that the amplitude of the carrier signal remains constant, while the frequency changes. As a result, FM allows for a more efficient use of the available bandwidth and provides better resistance to noise compared to other modulation techniques.

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190. What transmission line is very common in both fixed an tatical application?

Explanation

Flexible coax is the correct answer because it is a transmission line that is commonly used in both fixed and tactical applications. It is a type of coaxial cable that consists of a central conductor surrounded by an insulating layer, a metallic shield, and an outer insulating layer. The flexibility of the coaxial cable allows for easy installation and maneuverability, making it suitable for various applications. Additionally, the coaxial design provides good signal transmission and protection against interference, making it a popular choice in both fixed and tactical settings.

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191. How many channels of data does each digital signal (DS)-30 links are used to connect a line group controller (LGC) to the network module (NM)?

Explanation

Each digital signal (DS)-30 link is used to connect a line group controller (LGC) to the network module (NM) using 16 channels of data.

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192. By default, the first domain controller in active direcotry services is a

Explanation

The first domain controller in active directory services is a global catalog. A global catalog is a distributed data repository that contains a searchable, partial representation of every object in every domain in a multi-domain active directory forest. It stores a subset of attributes for each object, allowing for faster searches and authentication across domains. The global catalog is created automatically when the first domain controller in a forest is installed.

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193. In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?

Explanation

The RED lines in the RED/BLACK concept carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that the information being transmitted through these lines is classified but not encrypted, making it potentially vulnerable to interception or unauthorized access.

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194. The RED/BLACK conept has which two parts?

Explanation

The RED/BLACK concept involves two parts, physical separation and electrical separation. Physical separation refers to the physical segregation of classified information from unclassified information, while electrical separation involves the use of physical and technical means to prevent the transfer of data between different security domains. These two parts work together to ensure the protection and control of sensitive information.

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195. Which International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system has a land mobile terminal, typically has a one meter flat array antenna, and weights 30 to 40 pounds?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. M. The M system of Inmarsat is a mobile satellite communication system that is used for land mobile applications. It typically includes a land mobile terminal with a one meter flat array antenna and weighs between 30 to 40 pounds.

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196. The Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model provides the 

Explanation

The Network Layer of the OSI model is responsible for the actual routing of the signal. It determines the best path for data packets to travel from the source to the destination across different networks. This layer uses routing protocols to make decisions on how to forward the packets based on factors such as network congestion, reliability, and cost. By performing this routing function, the Network Layer ensures that data reaches its intended destination efficiently and reliably.

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197. What type of shelf contains the DC552A channel service unit (CSU)?

Explanation

The DC552A channel service unit (CSU) is typically found in a modem shelf. A CSU is a device used in telecommunications to connect digital equipment to digital lines. Since a modem is a device that modulates and demodulates signals to transmit data over communication lines, it is the most appropriate type of shelf to contain a CSU.

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198. What is another name for a stuffing or S-bit in relationship to a channel service unit (CSU)?

Explanation

A stuffing or S-bit in relation to a channel service unit (CSU) is commonly referred to as framing. Framing refers to the process of organizing data into a specific format for transmission over a communication channel. The S-bit, also known as the stuffing bit, is used in framing to maintain synchronization between the transmitting and receiving devices. It is inserted into the data stream to indicate the beginning and end of each frame, ensuring that the data is properly interpreted by the receiving device.

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199. What component is installed to provide a dataset protection against accidental shorts to -52 volts direct current (VDC) analog lines?

Explanation

The Line T-1 interface (LT1) is installed to provide dataset protection against accidental shorts to -52 volts direct current (VDC) analog lines. This component is specifically designed to handle the voltage and protect the dataset from any potential damage that could be caused by accidental shorts. It ensures the integrity and safety of the dataset by preventing any harmful voltage from reaching it.

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200. How much power does a NAND drive requrie?

Explanation

The correct answer is "less than 2 watts." This indicates that a NAND drive requires a power consumption of less than 2 watts. This implies that the drive operates efficiently and consumes a relatively low amount of power compared to other options.

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If the security feature is enabled on a wireless network, access...
What drives faster processing speed and increases the power of may...
Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services...
Which type of memory is used to duplicate frequently used information...
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)–Micro may be...
What should be done before anything else, once the operating system...
Which voicemail system was one of the earliest digital voicemail...
What piece of test equiptment can help verify connectivity and...
Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget...
Cell sites are generally thought of as beign a 
Which is not a transmission medium for a wireless local area network?
Which term describes that data is whole or complete?
The most common hardware diagnostic tool is the
Which model of Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 family switches is...
For best communications, the transmitting antenna
When the gain of an anisotropic radiator is compared to the isotropic...
User accounts are uniquely identified by the
Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device's...
What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time...
What is a method of putting many users on a single cable pair?
What cabling is the most commonly used?
Which category (Cat) of cable can support data rates up to 100Mbps?
What conventional land mobile radio (LMR) devise serves as the hub of...
Top secret keying material must be handled, stored, transported and...
Which models of end offices in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)...
The process of mixing or combining two frequencies in a nonlinear...
The Asset Inventory Management (AIM) system includes what type of...
Which information is not required when configuring Transmission...
The transfer of eight bits of data simultaneously through eight...
Which port on the office version Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) can...
What technology involves the capture and storage of a distinctive,...
Reading and storing a document on a hard disk or some other storage...
What is the long-haul transmission componet of Theather Deployable...
The loudness of a sound is closely related to what part of the sine...
Who may close tickets in Remedy?
What field provides the basis of radio frequency (RF) communication by...
Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?
What is the TEMPEST program in the Air Force called?
The Communications Security (COMSEC) program is designed to
In trunked land mobile radio (LMR) systems, different user groups are...
In a network environment, what may be responsible for all or some of...
Which TIA/EIA parameter test is a measure of the unwanted signal...
Which type of memory stores configuration information, and is used by...
The KIV–7 cryptographic device provides protection up to what...
How many channels are used when a voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)...
A spooled print job be several times larger than the printed document...
Noise may be introduced into speech signal by thermal agitation...
What standard antenna is used for antenna gain comparison?
A formatted disk partition that  is used for a particular file...
What is the purpose of the TEMPEST program?
What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to...
Which is not a use for local user accounts?
What area is described as the complete building or facility area under...
This operating system tool allows the viewing of the number of sent...
What type of memory is nonvolatile, considered permanent, and is also...
This type of memory is blank and instructions can be placed on...
A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS)...
What equiptment is included in a customer access node (CAN) to provide...
Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing...
What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System...
TEMPEST is
Groups in active directory are directory
Which alarm category in the network management system indicates a...
What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?
Members of this group have full control of the server or individual...
What stores print jobs in a print queue until a printer becomes...
What is the transmission rate, in megabits per second (Mbps), of Mode...
Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restriced...
Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms an...
What major equipment in a theater deployable communications (TDC)...
What's the difference between the basic acces module (BAM) and the...
Which of these is not a prominent characteristic of an operating...
The process of condensation occurs when air particles are
What is the shortest wavelength an antenna can be made resonant?
Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compund...
What tool can launch individual troubleshooting/configuration programs...
Each 125us time period in the digital signal (DS)-30 signaling format...
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) can combine voice and data...
What type areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization...
Protected distribution system (PDS) require which scheduled...
Which principle is not  addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA-569-B...
What access control uses segregation of duties and security screening...
The Public Key Infrastructure component that would be necessary if the...
What device receives information from the internet and translates it...
What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed...
Which logical troubleshooting step would include classifying the...
Which encryption is not a telecommunication encryption type?
Which principle is not addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA-568-B standard?
Which patch will prevent exploitation and remove or mitigate a...
The KG–175D is what type of Tactical Local Area Network...
In network troubleshooting, any event that has a negative effect on...
The Asset Inventory Management (AIM) is part of what?
Which type of network is oftem call the GigE network?
What is an electronic credit card-like device the established you...
What Meridan application provides local area network (LAN)...
What data integrity method is used in high-end personal computers and...
Which is not a basic function of antivirus programs?
TACLANE–Classic and TACLANE–E100 are high-speed encryption...
The total resistive properties of a circuit when resistance,...
What software activates the actual transmission and receipt of data...
Which backup type does not clear archive flags once the backup job is...
Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to...
A static internet protocol address on a network printer during...
What must customers do to connect telephones and computer...
In hertz (Hz), what range of sound can the human ear detect?
What characteristics enables a receiver to reproduce a desired signal...
Only after what, are tickets allowed to be placed in the "Closed"...
What function enables the higher layer protocol data units to fit into...
What is used to organize different types of accounts into manageable...
What is the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) R interface?
Which is not a use for local accounts?
Which of the following is not one of the three types of interfaces?
What program sets up the divisions of memory that hold the operating...
The Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with...
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?
What cabling system subsystem provides any or all of the functions of...
What communication mode(s) of operation allows two or more stations to...
What component of a frequency modulated (FM) reciever removes the...
Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS) component uses 16-bit Motorola...
What enhanced features of the trunking land mobile radio (LMR) allows...
Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a...
What is the design architecture of theater deployable communications...
In Secure Socket Layer (SSL), before encrypted transaction takes...
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)–Micro can...
Which is not a way in which round trip delay can be determined?
In respose to disaster relief ofperations, the Department of Defense...
Which Communications Security (COMSEC) application provides us with...
How many bits long are the addresses that computer instructions work...
In addition to fiber-optic and copper cables, what do we use to...
What componets are used in both encrypton and decryption?
How many channels of data does each digital signal (DS)-30 speech link...
In the pulse code modulation (PCM) process, changing the quantized...
What publication governs the format of Alias names for email accounts?
What are the two major established Integrated Services Digital Network...
What Integrated Communication Access Package (ICAP) node module...
In hertz (Hz), what is the actual voice freuency band?
What type modulation produces a constant amplitude transmission?
What transmission line is very common in both fixed an tatical...
How many channels of data does each digital signal (DS)-30 links are...
By default, the first domain controller in active direcotry services...
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?
The RED/BLACK conept has which two parts?
Which International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system...
The Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model...
What type of shelf contains the DC552A channel service unit (CSU)?
What is another name for a stuffing or S-bit in relationship to a...
What component is installed to provide a dataset protection against...
How much power does a NAND drive requrie?
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