4dd MCQs 204 Oral Surgery Assi-prof. Prak Srun 2019

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Uhsdental
U
Uhsdental
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 7 | Total Attempts: 17,566
| Attempts: 1,002 | Questions: 200
Please wait...
Question 1 / 200
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. All are true about the preparation of surgeon before the surgical procedure, except

Explanation

The preparation of a surgeon before a surgical procedure involves various important steps to ensure a safe and sterile environment. Disinfection of hands is crucial to minimize the risk of infection, appropriate clothing helps maintain hygiene standards, and the use of a surgical mask prevents the spread of bacteria. However, freestyle of hair is not a relevant factor in the preparation process as it does not directly impact the surgical procedure or patient safety.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
4dd MCQs 204 Oral Surgery Assi-prof. Prak Srun 2019 - Quiz

This quiz, titled '4DD MCQs 204 Oral Surgery Assi-Prof. Prak Srun 2019', assesses knowledge on managing oral surgery patients with cardiac conditions like congestive heart failure and angina... see morepectoris. It focuses on identifying non-symptomatic conditions and preventive measures, enhancing skills crucial for safe patient care. see less

2. Longer the root the extraction is:

Explanation

The longer the root of extraction is, the more difficult it becomes. This is because a longer root means more resistance and a larger area to extract from, making the extraction process more challenging.

Submit
3. Dry socket:

Explanation

Dry socket occurs when the blood clot that forms after a tooth extraction is dislodged or dissolves, leaving the socket exposed. This can happen due to various reasons such as smoking, rinsing vigorously, or poor oral hygiene. When the blood clot is lost, the underlying bone and nerve endings are exposed, causing severe pain and discomfort. The treatment for dry socket involves reinducing bleeding in the socket to promote the formation of a new blood clot and alleviate symptoms.

Submit
4. Elective dental extraction on a patient who has had a MI, 2 months prior are best:

Explanation

Elective dental extraction should be postponed until at least 6 months have passed after a myocardial infarction (MI) to ensure proper healing and minimize the risk of complications. It is important to allow sufficient time for the patient to recover and stabilize before undergoing any non-essential dental procedures.

Submit
5. Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except

Explanation

Diabetic hypoglycemia is a condition that occurs when blood sugar levels drop too low in individuals with diabetes. Symptoms of diabetic hypoglycemia can include fatigue, coma, and even death. However, diarrhea is not typically associated with diabetic hypoglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is diarrhea.

Submit
6. The low-risk group of having an infectious disease is

Explanation

The correct answer is "The educated" because individuals who are educated are more likely to have access to accurate information about infectious diseases, understand the importance of preventive measures, and have the knowledge and resources to practice good hygiene and follow recommended guidelines. Education can also lead to better understanding of the risks associated with certain behaviors and help individuals make informed choices to reduce their risk of contracting infectious diseases.

Submit
7. Anaphylaxis may present with all, except

Explanation

Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can cause a range of symptoms, including difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, hives, and swelling. Hair falling is not a typical symptom of anaphylaxis. However, hoarseness of voice, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), and anxiety are commonly associated with anaphylaxis due to the swelling and constriction of the airways.

Submit
8. Frequent site for occurrence of ameloblastoma is:

Explanation

Ameloblastoma is a benign tumor that arises from the cells that form tooth enamel. It most commonly occurs in the mandibular molar and ramus area, which refers to the lower back part of the jaw. This is because the cells that give rise to ameloblastoma are derived from the dental lamina, which is present in this area during tooth development. Ameloblastoma can also occur in other areas such as the maxillary molar area, but the mandibular molar and ramus area is the most frequent site of occurrence.

Submit
9. When a forcep is to be utilized for removal of tooth, the 1st direction for tooth to be applied is:

Explanation

When a forcep is used for the removal of a tooth, the first direction in which the forcep should be applied is apically. This means that the forcep should be positioned towards the apex or root of the tooth. Applying force apically helps to loosen the tooth from its socket and allows for easier extraction.

Submit
10. Contributory factor to pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular 3rd molar is:

Explanation

The presence of Streptococci and bacterial infection is a contributing factor to pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular 3rd molar. Pericoronitis is an inflammatory condition that occurs when the gum tissue around a partially erupted tooth becomes infected. Streptococci and other bacteria can enter the area and cause an infection, leading to symptoms such as pain, swelling, and difficulty in opening the mouth. Therefore, the presence of these bacteria is a significant factor in the development of pericoronitis.

Submit
11. While extracting maxillary 1st molar root is displaced into maxillary sinus, management is:

Explanation

When a maxillary 1st molar root is displaced into the maxillary sinus, the most appropriate management is to raise a flap and create a window in the canine fossa to remove the root. This approach allows direct access to the root, ensuring its complete removal and minimizing the risk of complications such as infection or sinusitis. Leaving the root in the sinus or attempting to retrieve it through the socket may not be effective or safe. Asking the patient to blow their nose is unlikely to dislodge the root and is not a recommended management strategy in this situation.

Submit
12. Symptoms of Hypertensive encephalopathy consist of all, except

Explanation

Hypertensive encephalopathy is a condition caused by high blood pressure that affects the brain. Symptoms typically include headache, nausea, and coma. However, diarrhea is not a commonly associated symptom of hypertensive encephalopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is diarrhea.

Submit
13. The incorrect sentence about asthma is

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
14. All are infectious diseases, except

Explanation

Diabetes is not an infectious disease, but a metabolic disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels. It is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, and it is not transmitted from person to person like infectious diseases such as Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and AIDS. Diabetes is primarily a result of the body's inability to produce or effectively use insulin, a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels.

Submit
15. The precipitating factors of epilepsy are all, except

Explanation

Hyperglycemia is not a precipitating factor of epilepsy. Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, which are caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. While severe pain, alcoholic drinks, and severe stress can trigger seizures in individuals with epilepsy, hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar levels, is not known to be a precipitating factor. Hyperglycemia is more commonly associated with diabetes and can lead to various complications, but it is not directly linked to the onset of epilepsy.

Submit
16. The third phase of epileptic seizure consists of all, except

Explanation

Eye bleeding is not a symptom or characteristic of the third phase of an epileptic seizure. The third phase typically includes symptoms such as weakness, pallor, and disturbances of the consciousness state. Eye bleeding is not associated with epileptic seizures and is therefore not a part of the third phase.

Submit
17. Anaphylaxis may present with all, except

Explanation

Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can cause a range of symptoms, including rash, burning, and a painful sensation. However, blindness is not typically associated with anaphylaxis. While anaphylaxis can affect various organs and systems in the body, it primarily manifests as respiratory distress, low blood pressure, and swelling. Blindness is not a common symptom of anaphylaxis and is more likely to be caused by other conditions or factors.

Submit
18. The basic requirements for a successful outcome of simple tooth extraction are all, except

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
19. What is the time to administer analgesic for controlling postoperative pain?

Explanation

Administering analgesic before the anesthetic effect wears off is the correct answer because it ensures that the patient does not experience pain as the anesthesia wears off. By giving the analgesic before the anesthetic effect wears off, the patient's pain can be effectively controlled and managed. Waiting until the pain becomes moderate to severe or after the regain of sensation may result in the patient experiencing unnecessary pain and discomfort. Similarly, administering analgesic during the procedure may not provide adequate pain relief postoperatively.

Submit
20. Among the following which is strongest stimulator to increase the respiration:

Explanation

Increase in arterial CO2 is the strongest stimulator to increase respiration because it acts as a respiratory drive. When CO2 levels in the blood increase, it triggers the respiratory centers in the brain to increase the rate and depth of breathing. This is known as the hypercapnic drive and is a powerful mechanism to ensure that excess CO2 is eliminated from the body. In contrast, a decrease in arterial oxygen or an increase in blood pH do not directly stimulate respiration as strongly as an increase in arterial CO2.

Submit
21. Hypoglycemia may occur in patient taking insulin and undergoing extraction when?

Explanation

Hypoglycemia may occur in a patient taking insulin and undergoing extraction when the extraction is done on an empty stomach. When a patient takes insulin and does not eat, their blood sugar levels can drop too low, leading to hypoglycemia. Therefore, if extraction is performed on an empty stomach, there is a higher risk of hypoglycemia occurring in these patients.

Submit
22. In extraction of mandibular 3rd molars the main reason why the posterior incision should be placed more buccally is:

Explanation

The main reason why the posterior incision should be placed more buccally in the extraction of mandibular 3rd molars is to prevent damage to the lingual nerve, to ensure the incision is on sound bone, and to prevent damage to the retromolar artery. Placing the incision more buccally helps to avoid injuring these important structures during the extraction procedure.

Submit
23. The bone cysts that are less than 2 cm in diameter can be treated by:

Explanation

Bone cysts that are less than 2 cm in diameter can be treated by enucleation. Enucleation is a surgical procedure where the cyst is removed from the bone. This treatment option is suitable for smaller cysts as it helps to prevent further growth and potential complications. Marsupialization, on the other hand, involves creating a small opening in the cyst to drain and decompress it, but it is not recommended for cysts smaller than 2 cm. No-treatment is not a suitable option as it can lead to further growth and potential complications. Therefore, enucleation is the correct answer.

Submit
24. All are basic methods for sterilization of instruments, except

Explanation

Boiling water is not a basic method for sterilization of instruments. While boiling water can kill some bacteria and viruses, it is not as effective as the other methods listed. Dry heat, autoclave, and chemical means are all commonly used in healthcare settings to ensure complete sterilization of instruments. Dry heat involves using high temperatures to kill microorganisms, while an autoclave uses steam and pressure to achieve sterilization. Chemical means involve using disinfectants or sterilizing agents to kill microorganisms. Boiling water may be used for certain items in a home setting, but it is not considered a reliable method for sterilization in a healthcare setting.

Submit
25. All are the instruments for removing bone, except

Explanation

Hemostat is not an instrument used for removing bone. It is a surgical tool used for clamping blood vessels to control bleeding during surgeries. Chisel and Mallet, Bone file, and Bur and Handpiece are all instruments commonly used in orthopedic and dental procedures to remove or shape bone.

Submit
26. Indications of surgical tooth extraction are all, except

Explanation

Surgical tooth extraction is typically required for teeth that cannot be easily removed using simple extraction techniques. Teeth with very deep caries, semi-impacted teeth, teeth with ankylosed roots, and teeth with dilaceration of root tips are all indications for surgical extraction. However, teeth with very deep caries can often be treated with other dental procedures such as root canal therapy or dental crowns, making them an exception to the need for surgical extraction.

Submit
27. One step that does not belong to the steps of surgical extraction of tooth is

Explanation

Controlling the patient's anxiety is not a step in the surgical extraction of a tooth. While it is important to ensure that the patient is calm and comfortable during the procedure, it is not a specific step in the extraction process itself. The steps involved in surgical extraction typically include creating a flap to access the tooth, removing any surrounding bone if necessary, and then extracting the tooth from its socket.

Submit
28. Extraction of a tooth during acute infection:

Explanation

Extraction of a tooth during acute infection helps drainage and relieves pain if proper antibiotic (AB) is given and its adequate blood level is reached. This is because the extraction removes the source of infection, allowing for better drainage and reducing pain. Additionally, the use of antibiotics helps to control the infection and prevent further spread. However, it is important to ensure that the proper antibiotic is given and that it reaches an adequate blood level to effectively treat the infection.

Submit
29. Most important principle during extraction:

Explanation

The most important principle during extraction is to minimize trauma to both the bone and the mucosa while removing the entire tooth. This ensures that the surrounding tissues are preserved and the healing process is facilitated. By minimizing trauma to both the bone and the mucosa, the extraction procedure can be performed more efficiently and with less post-operative complications.

Submit
30. Best time of extraction in pregnancy is:

Explanation

The 2nd trimester is considered the best time for extraction in pregnancy because it is a period of relative stability and lower risk compared to the 1st and 3rd trimesters. During the 1st trimester, there is a higher risk of miscarriage and complications, while the 3rd trimester is associated with increased risks of preterm labor and delivery. The 2nd trimester is a time when the fetus has developed sufficiently and the risk of complications is relatively lower, making it the optimal time for extraction procedures.

Submit
31. Impacted canine:

Explanation

The impacted canine may damage the root of other teeth because when a canine tooth fails to erupt and remains trapped beneath the gum line, it can put pressure on the adjacent teeth. This pressure can cause the roots of these teeth to become damaged or resorbed, leading to potential oral health problems. It is important to address impacted canines promptly to prevent damage to the surrounding teeth and maintain overall oral function.

Submit
32. After surgery of 3rd molar, patches of anesthesia on chin is due to damage of:

Explanation

The patches of anesthesia on the chin after surgery of the 3rd molar are due to damage of the inferior alveolar nerve. The inferior alveolar nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the lower teeth, chin, and lower lip. Damage to this nerve can result in numbness or loss of sensation in these areas.

Submit
33. All are common about pain of angina pectoris, except

Explanation

Angina pectoris is chest pain that occurs when there is reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. The pain is typically felt in the cardiac area and may radiate to the neck and left arm. However, it is uncommon for the pain to radiate to the right arm. Therefore, the correct answer is that pain may not be radiating to the right arm.

Submit
34. Angina Pectoris

Explanation

Angina Pectoris is characterized by the temporary ischemia in part of or all of the myocardium. This means that during an episode of angina, there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to chest pain or discomfort. The reduced blood flow is usually caused by the narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries, which supply oxygen-rich blood to the heart. This temporary ischemia can result in symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and a feeling of tightness or pressure in the chest.

Submit
35. All are true about hypertension, except

Explanation

The given statement is incorrect. Patients with hypertension can undergo surgical procedures, but it is important for their blood pressure to be well controlled before the surgery to minimize the risks. Surgery itself does not cause hypertension, but certain factors during the procedure such as stress, anesthesia, and fluid shifts can temporarily increase blood pressure. Therefore, it is crucial for patients with hypertension to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their blood pressure before and after surgery.

Submit
36. All are the preventive measures of the patients with hypertension before dental procedure, except

Explanation

Monitoring blood pressure after surgery is not a preventive measure for patients with hypertension before a dental procedure. It is important to monitor blood pressure before the surgery to ensure that it is within a safe range for the patient. This helps to identify any potential risks or complications that may arise during the procedure. The other options mentioned - premedication, short appointments, and avoidance of noradrenaline in patients receiving anti-hypertensive agents - are all valid preventive measures to manage hypertension during dental procedures.

Submit
37. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patient presenting with an odontogenic infection causing significant facial swelling and difficulty breathing?

Explanation



A. Incision and drainage under local anesthesia: While important, this may not be the immediate first step if the patient is experiencing difficulty breathing.

B. Prescribing oral antibiotics and scheduling follow-up: This approach is insufficient for a severe infection causing significant swelling and airway compromise.

C. Immediate administration of intravenous antibiotics and securing the airway: This is the correct answer. In cases of severe odontogenic infection with facial swelling and difficulty breathing, prompt intravenous antibiotics are essential, and securing the airway takes priority to prevent respiratory failure.

D. Extraction of the affected tooth under general anesthesia: While extraction might be necessary eventually, immediate treatment should focus on managing the infection and airway.
Submit
38. The first phase of epileptic seizure lasts

Explanation

During the first phase of an epileptic seizure, the duration typically lasts only a few seconds. This is because the initial phase, known as the aura, is characterized by a brief alteration in sensation or perception. It is a warning sign that the seizure is about to occur and is usually very short-lived. The subsequent phases of the seizure may last longer, but the first phase itself is typically brief.

Submit
39. The second phase of epileptic seizure presents with all, except

Explanation

During the second phase of an epileptic seizure, various symptoms can occur. These can include forcible jaw closing, rolling the eyes upward or to the side, and convulsions. However, nose bleeding is not typically associated with this phase of a seizure. Therefore, nose bleeding is the exception among the given options.

Submit
40. Allergy that is caused by the use of local anesthetics is usually due to

Explanation

An allergy caused by the use of local anesthetics is usually due to the presence of preservatives in the ampoule. These preservatives can trigger an allergic reaction in some individuals. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are not typically the cause of the allergy, and expired anesthetics may lose their effectiveness but are not necessarily the cause of an allergic reaction. Therefore, the presence of preservatives in the ampoule is the most likely explanation for the allergy.

Submit
41. The incorrect fundamental rule concerning incision and flap is

Explanation

The incorrect fundamental rule concerning incision and flap is firm, interrupted strokes for incision. This is incorrect because when making an incision, it is important to have smooth, continuous strokes to ensure a clean and precise cut. Firm, interrupted strokes can lead to uneven incisions and potential complications during the healing process.

Submit
42. What can you do after tooth extraction by surgery?

Explanation

After tooth extraction by surgery, it is important to rinse your mouth gently to keep the area clean and prevent infection. This helps to remove any food particles or debris that may be present. However, it is advised to avoid spitting for about 2 weeks to prevent dislodging the blood clot that forms in the extraction site. Excessive brushing of the teeth adjacent to the extraction site should be avoided as it may cause irritation or damage to the healing area. It is acceptable to touch the extraction site with the tongue, but not with fingers, to assess the healing progress.

Submit
43. Indications of surgical tooth extraction are all, except

Explanation

The indications for surgical tooth extraction include teeth with unusual roots, teeth with hypercementosis of roots, and impacted teeth. However, the age of the patient is not a factor in determining whether a surgical tooth extraction is necessary. Therefore, teeth of old patients are not an indication for surgical tooth extraction.

Submit
44. Drains are used for:

Explanation

Drains are used for multiple purposes, including providing an exit for pus and infection outside the body, preventing the formation of haematomas, and preventing the formation of seromas in hard and soft tissues. By allowing the drainage of fluids, drains help in reducing the risk of complications such as infections and fluid accumulation, promoting faster healing and recovery.

Submit
45. Diagnosis of dry socket is done by:

Explanation

The diagnosis of dry socket is primarily done through history taking. This involves gathering information about the patient's symptoms, such as severe pain in the socket area after tooth extraction, along with the timing and progression of the pain. The patient's medical and dental history may also provide valuable insights. Clinical examination, which includes assessing the socket for signs of dry socket, can further support the diagnosis. Radiographs may not be necessary for diagnosing dry socket as it is primarily a clinical diagnosis based on symptoms and signs.

Submit
46. Which contact of tooth and forceps is not permissible?

Explanation

A 1 point contact between a tooth and forceps means that only one small area of the tooth is being gripped by the forceps. This can lead to excessive pressure being applied to that specific area, potentially causing damage to the tooth or surrounding tissues. In contrast, an ideal fit would ensure that the forceps grip the tooth evenly and securely, while a 2 point contact would distribute the force more evenly across two areas of the tooth. Therefore, a 1 point contact is not permissible as it can increase the risk of complications during dental procedures.

Submit
47. A 25-year-old female patient complains of decreased mouth opening since 4 days. This could be due to:

Explanation

The most likely cause of the patient's decreased mouth opening is an impacted 3rd molar. Third molars, also known as wisdom teeth, often cause issues when they do not fully erupt and become impacted. This can lead to pain, swelling, and difficulty in opening the mouth fully. In this case, since the patient is young and experiencing a recent onset of symptoms, an impacted 3rd molar is the most plausible explanation.

Submit
48. Contributory factor to pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular 3rd molar is:

Explanation

Low hygiene is a contributory factor to pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular 3rd molar. Pericoronitis occurs when the tissue surrounding a partially erupted tooth becomes inflamed and infected. Poor oral hygiene, such as inadequate brushing and flossing, can lead to the accumulation of bacteria and food debris around the impacted tooth. This creates an ideal environment for infection and inflammation to occur. Therefore, low hygiene increases the risk of developing pericoronitis in individuals with impacted mandibular 3rd molars.

Submit
49. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:

Explanation

Congestive heart failure is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the body. Symptoms commonly associated with congestive heart failure include cough, hemoptysis (coughing up blood), and difficulty in breathing. However, teary eyes are not typically associated with congestive heart failure. This symptom is more commonly seen in conditions such as allergies or eye infections.

Submit
50. The preferred position for the patients with congestive heart failure is

Explanation

The preferred position for patients with congestive heart failure is the sitting position. This is because sitting upright helps to reduce the workload on the heart by promoting better blood flow and reducing fluid buildup in the lungs. It also helps to alleviate symptoms such as shortness of breath and swelling in the lower extremities. Additionally, sitting allows for better monitoring of vital signs and easier access for medical interventions if needed.

Submit
51. Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except

Explanation

Diabetic hypoglycemia is a condition where blood sugar levels drop too low in individuals with diabetes. Symptoms of diabetic hypoglycemia include coma, vertigo, and sweating. Xerostomia, also known as dry mouth, is not typically associated with diabetic hypoglycemia. Therefore, xerostomia is the correct answer as it is the only symptom that is not characteristic of diabetic hypoglycemia.

Submit
52. Chronic renal failure is

Explanation

Chronic renal failure is a clinical syndrome characterized by permanent damage of the kidney. This means that the kidneys have sustained irreversible damage, leading to a decrease in their ability to function properly. This can result in a variety of symptoms and complications, such as fluid retention, electrolyte imbalances, and the buildup of waste products in the body. Treatment options for chronic renal failure may include dialysis or a kidney transplant.

Submit
53. Incorrect sign or symptom of patients with tuberculosis is

Explanation

Patients with tuberculosis typically do not experience abdominal pain as a sign or symptom. Tuberculosis primarily affects the lungs, causing symptoms such as cough, fever, and weight loss. Abdominal pain is more commonly associated with other conditions such as gastrointestinal issues or appendicitis. Therefore, abdominal pain would be an incorrect sign or symptom of tuberculosis.

Submit
54. The second phase of epileptic seizure is

Explanation

The second phase of an epileptic seizure is the convulsion phase. During this phase, the individual experiences involuntary muscle contractions, resulting in jerking movements of the body. These convulsions are caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain and can vary in intensity and duration. It is important to note that not all individuals with epilepsy experience convulsions during a seizure, as seizures can manifest in different ways depending on the individual and the type of epilepsy they have.

Submit
55. The third phase of epileptic seizure is

Explanation

The third phase of an epileptic seizure is the post-convulsion phase. This phase occurs after the convulsion phase and is characterized by a period of recovery and relaxation. During this phase, the individual may experience symptoms such as confusion, fatigue, headache, muscle soreness, and memory loss. It is important for individuals experiencing this phase to rest and take care of themselves, as it can be physically and mentally exhausting.

Submit
56. The analgesics that is considered to be responsible for most allergic reaction is

Explanation

Aspirin is considered to be responsible for most allergic reactions among analgesics. This is because aspirin belongs to a class of medications called nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which can trigger allergic reactions in some individuals. These reactions can range from mild symptoms like rash and itching to severe reactions such as difficulty breathing or anaphylaxis. It is important for individuals with known allergies to aspirin or other NSAIDs to avoid taking these medications and consult with a healthcare professional for alternative pain relief options.

Submit
57. The incorrect fundamental rule concerning incision and flap is

Explanation

The incorrect fundamental rule concerning incision and flap is that the base of the flap must be narrower than the free gingival margin. This is not true because the base of the flap should actually be wider than the free gingival margin in order to provide adequate blood supply to the flap and promote proper healing. A narrower base would restrict blood flow and hinder the healing process.

Submit
58. Which one is not the basic principle of suturing technique?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Tie the sutures very tightly to avoid ischemia of the wound edge." This is not a basic principle of suturing technique because tying the sutures too tightly can lead to ischemia, which is the restriction of blood supply to the wound edge. It is important to tie the sutures with appropriate tension to ensure proper healing and blood flow to the wound.

Submit
59. Which number scalpel blade is universally useful for oral surgical procedure?

Explanation

Number 15 scalpel blade is universally useful for oral surgical procedures because it has a medium size and a curved shape, allowing for precise and controlled incisions in oral tissues. It is commonly used for procedures such as incisions, excisions, and tissue dissection in oral surgery.

Submit
60. Which of the following is the primary indication for performing a coronectomy instead of a full extraction of a mandibular third molar?

Explanation

The primary indication for performing a coronectomy instead of a full extraction of a mandibular third molar is the close proximity of the tooth roots to the inferior alveolar nerve. This procedure is chosen to reduce the risk of nerve damage, which can result in permanent numbness or other sensory deficits. By removing only the crown and leaving the roots in place, the risk to the nerve is minimized while still addressing the problem with the tooth.

Submit
61. Displacement of root in maxillary sinus is most likely to happen during extraction of maxillary:

Explanation

During the extraction of the maxillary 1st molar, there is a higher chance of displacement of the root into the maxillary sinus. This is because the roots of the maxillary 1st molar are often close to the floor of the sinus, making it more likely for them to be accidentally pushed into the sinus during the extraction process.

Submit
62. A patient who is on aspirin therapy required a tooth extraction. Which laboratory test is most valuable in evaluating the surgical risk?

Explanation

The laboratory test most valuable in evaluating the surgical risk for a patient on aspirin therapy, especially before a tooth extraction, is "Bleeding time." Aspirin affects platelet function, which plays a crucial role in blood clotting. Assessing bleeding time helps determine the patient's potential for excessive bleeding during and after the surgical procedure. INR (International Normalized Ratio), clotting time, and complete blood cell count are important but may not specifically reflect the impact of aspirin on platelet function.

Submit
63. Which of the following elevators fit well in operators hand and can be rotated quickly by between thumb and finger?

Explanation

The Warwick James elevator fits well in the operator's hand and can be rotated quickly between the thumb and finger.

Submit
64. An absolute contraindication for extraction of teeth is:

Explanation

Extraction of teeth is contraindicated in patients who have experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) within the past 4 months. This is because the healing process after an MI takes time, and any stress or trauma to the body, such as tooth extraction, can potentially worsen the condition or cause complications. It is important to ensure that the patient's cardiovascular health is stable before performing any invasive procedures like tooth extraction.

Submit
65. In extraction best time to administer analgesic is:

Explanation

The best time to administer an analgesic is before anesthesia wears off because it allows the medication to take effect while the patient is still under the influence of anesthesia, ensuring that they do not experience any pain or discomfort during the extraction procedure. Administering the analgesic prior to extraction or when pain is moderate to severe may not provide adequate pain relief, while administering it after anesthesia wears off may result in the patient experiencing pain before the medication takes effect. Therefore, administering the analgesic before anesthesia wears off is the most appropriate timing.

Submit
66. Elevator can be used to advantage when?

Explanation

When multiple adjacent teeth need to be extracted, an elevator can be used to advantage. This is because an elevator is a dental instrument that is specifically designed to loosen and lift teeth from the socket. By using an elevator, the dentist can apply controlled force to the teeth, gradually loosening them and making the extraction process easier and less traumatic. This is particularly beneficial when multiple teeth need to be extracted in close proximity, as the elevator allows for precise and efficient removal of the teeth.

Submit
67. Radiographs are useful in following cases, except:

Explanation

Radiographs are useful in diagnosing various dental conditions, such as impacted teeth, abnormal shape of roots, and ankylosis. However, a tooth with a deep periodontal (PD) pocket does not require radiographs for diagnosis. PD pockets can be assessed through clinical examination and probing depth measurements. Radiographs are typically used to visualize structures that cannot be seen clinically, such as impacted teeth or abnormalities in root shape. Therefore, the correct answer is Tooth with deep PD pocket.

Submit
68. Thyrotoxic patients present with all, except

Explanation

Thyrotoxic patients commonly experience symptoms such as anxiety, hyperactivity, and irritability due to the excessive production of thyroid hormones. However, extreme headache is not typically associated with thyroid dysfunction. This could be because headaches are more commonly linked to other conditions or factors, and are not directly caused by the overactive thyroid gland.

Submit
69. For good wound healing in diabetic patients, the thing to avoid is

Explanation

Diabetic patients should avoid using aspirin for good wound healing. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can inhibit blood clotting. Diabetics often have impaired blood circulation, and blood clotting is crucial for proper wound healing. By inhibiting clotting, aspirin can delay the formation of a stable blood clot, leading to prolonged bleeding and slower wound healing. Therefore, avoiding the use of aspirin can help diabetic patients promote better wound healing.

Submit
70. The incorrect preventive measure for patients with asthma is

Explanation

Long appointments with little pain is an incorrect preventive measure for patients with asthma because it does not address the specific needs and challenges of asthma management. Asthma requires regular monitoring, medication adherence, and proper education on triggers and self-management techniques. Long appointments with little pain may not provide enough time for thorough assessment, education, and personalized treatment plans. It is important to focus on taking a detailed medical history, controlling pain, and administering appropriate medication to effectively manage asthma symptoms and prevent exacerbations.

Submit
71. The most common suturing technique is

Explanation

The most common suturing technique is the interrupted suture. This technique involves individually placing and tying separate sutures, which provides good wound edge approximation and allows for better control of tension. It is commonly used in various surgical procedures and wound closures. Vertical and horizontal mattress sutures involve placing sutures in a specific pattern to provide additional support and tension control. Continuous sutures involve a continuous loop of suture material, which is less commonly used compared to interrupted sutures.

Submit
72. The most common blade for small incisions, such as incising abscess is

Explanation

Blade no. 11 is the most common blade for small incisions, such as incising abscesses. This blade is specifically designed for making precise and controlled incisions. It has a pointed tip and a small curved cutting edge, which allows for easy penetration and maneuverability in tight spaces. Blade no. 11 is commonly used in various medical procedures, including dermatology, plastic surgery, and general surgery, making it the correct choice for small incisions like incising abscesses.

Submit
73. Instructions for postoperative surgical procedures are all, except

Explanation

The correct answer is "Rinsing of mouth do not allow for the first 72 hours." This means that after a postoperative surgical procedure, it is not recommended to rinse the mouth for the first 72 hours. This is likely because rinsing the mouth can disrupt the healing process and increase the risk of infection. It is important to follow this instruction to ensure proper healing and minimize complications.

Submit
74. Which of the following material is not used for packing of wounds?

Explanation

Gauze soaked in hydrogen peroxide is not used for packing wounds because hydrogen peroxide can damage healthy tissues and delay the wound healing process. It is no longer recommended as a wound cleanser or antiseptic due to its cytotoxic effects. Instead, sterile saline or other wound cleansers are preferred for wound irrigation.

Submit
75. A male is taking 60 mg of hydrocortisone daily on day of extraction the dose should be:

Explanation

When a patient is taking hydrocortisone, it is important to consider the stress of a dental extraction. During times of stress, the body's demand for cortisol increases. Hydrocortisone is a synthetic form of cortisol, so increasing the dose during times of stress is necessary to meet the body's demand. Therefore, the correct answer is to double the dose of hydrocortisone on the day of extraction.

Submit
76. Root tip elevator utilizes which principle:

Explanation

The root tip elevator utilizes the principle of a wedge. A wedge is a simple machine that is used to separate or lift objects apart. In the case of a root tip elevator, it is used to separate the root tip from the surrounding tissues during dental procedures. The shape of the elevator resembles a wedge, with a sharp edge that can be inserted between the root and the surrounding tissue, allowing for easy extraction.

Submit
77. Diagnosis of infection socket is done by:

Explanation

The diagnosis of an infection socket is primarily done through a thorough history of the patient. This includes gathering information about any previous dental procedures, symptoms experienced, and any recent trauma or injury to the area. The history helps in identifying potential risk factors and determining the likelihood of an infection. Clinical examination, radiographs, and blood tests may also be used to confirm the diagnosis and assess the severity of the infection, but the initial diagnosis is primarily based on the patient's history.

Submit
78. During extraction of lower impacted right molar bone is removed:

Explanation

The correct answer is "To expose maximum dimension of tooth." When extracting a lower impacted right molar, removing the bone allows for better access and visibility of the tooth. This ensures that the tooth can be fully exposed, allowing the dentist to assess its condition and plan for its extraction more effectively. By removing the bone, the dentist can also determine the size and shape of the tooth, which can be helpful in planning the extraction procedure.

Submit
79. A dentist planning to remove an impacted tooth will need which of the best radiographs?

Explanation

When a dentist plans to remove an impacted tooth, a CBCT (Cone Beam Computed Tomography) view is the best radiograph to use. CBCT provides a three-dimensional image of the tooth and its surrounding structures, allowing the dentist to accurately assess the position, size, and relationship of the impacted tooth to adjacent structures such as nerves and sinuses. This information is crucial for planning a safe and effective tooth extraction procedure. Other radiographs mentioned, such as periapical film, bite wing, and lateral view, may not provide the same level of detail and information as CBCT.

Submit
80. Contributory factor to pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular 3rd molar is:

Explanation

The correct answer is trauma by opposing tooth. Pericoronitis is inflammation of the tissue surrounding a partially erupted tooth, typically the third molar. Trauma caused by an opposing tooth can lead to irritation and inflammation of the surrounding tissue, increasing the risk of pericoronitis. This trauma can occur during chewing or biting, causing repeated injury to the area. Other factors such as previous radiation therapy, systemic disease, or an infected follicular cyst may contribute to the development of pericoronitis, but trauma by an opposing tooth is the most significant contributory factor.

Submit
81. Creamy white suspension of keratin that appears like pus without an offensive smell is found in:

Explanation

The correct answer is OKC (Odontogenic Keratocyst). OKC is a cyst that originates from the dental lamina and is lined by keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. It appears as a creamy white suspension of keratin, resembling pus without an offensive smell. Dentigerous cysts, primordial cysts, and periapical cysts do not typically exhibit this characteristic appearance.

Submit
82. Expected surgical procedure most frequently indicated for odontogenic cyst is:

Explanation

The expected surgical procedure most frequently indicated for an odontogenic cyst is enucleation. Enucleation involves the complete removal of the cystic lesion, including the cystic lining, to prevent recurrence. This procedure is commonly performed for odontogenic cysts as it ensures the removal of the entire cyst and reduces the risk of complications. Incision drainage is not typically indicated for odontogenic cysts as it may not completely remove the cystic lining. Sclerosing solution and marsupialization are alternative treatments for certain types of cysts but are not the most frequently indicated procedure for odontogenic cysts.

Submit
83. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:

Explanation

Congestive heart failure is a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. This can lead to symptoms such as dyspnea (shortness of breath), hyperventilation (rapid breathing), and cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin). However, extreme headache is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. Headaches may occur due to other factors such as high blood pressure, but they are not a direct symptom of congestive heart failure.

Submit
84. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with congestive heart failure is

Explanation

Long painless appointments can be detrimental for a patient with congestive heart failure because they can cause prolonged stress and anxiety, which can worsen the condition. Patients with congestive heart failure may have difficulty sitting or lying down for extended periods of time, and long appointments can lead to fluid buildup in the lungs and increased strain on the heart. Therefore, it is important to minimize the duration of appointments and provide breaks if needed to ensure the patient's comfort and safety.

Submit
85. The incorrect preventive measure for the patients with hemorrhagic diathesis is

Explanation

Scheduling a surgical procedure for evening hours is an incorrect preventive measure for patients with hemorrhagic diathesis. This is because patients with this condition are prone to excessive bleeding and scheduling a surgery in the evening may lead to complications. It is important to schedule surgeries during daytime hours when medical staff and resources are readily available.

Submit
86. Thyrotoxic patients present with all, except

Explanation

Thyrotoxic patients may experience various symptoms due to the excessive production of thyroid hormones. Blurred vision is not typically associated with hyperthyroidism. However, patients with hyperthyroidism commonly present with symptoms such as exophthalmos (bulging eyes), weakness, and increased blood pressure.

Submit
87. When asthma attacks, all are correct about the patient, except

Explanation

During an asthma attack, the airways become inflamed and narrowed, making it difficult for the patient to breathe. Symptoms of an asthma attack include wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Nausea or the desire to vomit is not typically associated with asthma attacks. Therefore, the statement "The patient wants to vomit" is incorrect in relation to the symptoms of an asthma attack.

Submit
88. The first phase of epileptic seizure is

Explanation

The correct answer is Aura. The first phase of an epileptic seizure is called the aura. It is a warning sign or sensation that occurs before the seizure begins. Auras can vary from person to person and may include feelings of déjà vu, tingling, dizziness, or a strange taste or smell. These sensations can give the person experiencing them time to prepare or seek a safe environment before the seizure progresses to the convulsion phase.

Submit
89. One type that does not belong to allergic reactions is

Explanation

Delayed-type hypersensitivity is a type of immune response that occurs several hours to days after exposure to an antigen. It is characterized by the activation of T cells and the release of cytokines, leading to inflammation at the site of antigen exposure. Unlike allergic reactions, which involve the production of IgE antibodies and immediate hypersensitivity reactions, delayed-type hypersensitivity does not involve the release of histamine or other mediators from mast cells. Therefore, delayed-type hypersensitivity does not belong to allergic reactions.

Submit
90. Packages of instruments which are opened repeatedly must be sterilized at least

Explanation

Instruments that are repeatedly opened are more likely to come into contact with bacteria and other pathogens. Sterilizing them at least once a week helps to eliminate any potential contamination and maintain a clean and safe environment. This frequency ensures that the instruments are consistently sterilized and ready for use, reducing the risk of infections and promoting patient safety.

Submit
91. Requirements of flap are:

Explanation

The given answer states that all of the requirements for a flap are correct. This means that the flap must be designed in a way that allows for sufficient visibility of the surgical site. Additionally, it should have a broad base and a good vascular supply to ensure its viability. When the flap is placed back, it should rest on healthy bone to promote proper healing and integration. Overall, all of these requirements are necessary for a successful flap procedure.

Submit
92. Poor accessibility is main disadvantage of:

Explanation

The main disadvantage of an envelope flap is poor accessibility. This means that it is difficult to access or reach the contents of the envelope when using this type of flap. Unlike the other options listed, the envelope flap does not provide easy access to the contents inside, making it less convenient to use.

Submit
93. The soft tissue incision used to remove mandibular Tori should be placed:

Explanation

The soft tissue incision used to remove mandibular Tori should be placed over the edentulous crest or gingival crevice around the dentition. This is because the torus is a bony growth that occurs on the lingual surface of the mandible, and placing the incision over the edentulous crest or gingival crevice allows for better access and visibility during the removal procedure. Placing the incision directly over the torus or inferior to it in the floor of the mouth may not provide adequate access and may increase the risk of complications.

Submit
94. The following is one of the advantage of catgut over plain suture:

Explanation

Catgut is a type of suture material made from the intestines of sheep or cows. It is known for its strength and durability, making it an advantageous choice over plain sutures. The greater strength of catgut allows for better wound closure and reduces the risk of the suture breaking or tearing. This is particularly important in areas of the body that experience tension or stress, where a stronger suture is needed for optimal healing. Additionally, the strength of catgut allows for a more secure closure, minimizing the risk of wound dehiscence or reopening.

Submit
95. For a patient undergoing anticoagulant therapy who requires unavoidable dental surgical treatment the dental surgeon should:

Explanation

When a patient undergoing anticoagulant therapy requires dental surgical treatment, it is important for the dental surgeon to consult the patient's physician for a joint decision. Anticoagulant therapy can increase the risk of bleeding during dental procedures, so it is crucial to have the input and guidance of the physician who is managing the patient's anticoagulant therapy. By consulting the physician, both the dental surgeon and the physician can work together to determine the best course of action for the patient, ensuring their safety and well-being.

Submit
96. The complication of using air-motor at 30,000 rpm for impacted molar is:

Explanation

Using an air-motor at 30,000 rpm for an impacted molar can lead to emphysema. Emphysema is a condition where air gets trapped in the tissues, causing them to expand and become damaged. The high speed of the air-motor can create excessive air pressure, which can force air into the surrounding tissues. This can result in the development of emphysema, causing discomfort and potentially leading to complications if not treated promptly.

Submit
97. Which of the following is most difficult impaction of 3rd molar?

Explanation

The most difficult impaction of the 3rd molar is distoangular. This refers to a situation where the 3rd molar is angled towards the back of the mouth. It is considered difficult because it can cause complications such as damage to the adjacent tooth, increased risk of infection, and difficulty in extraction due to limited access and visibility.

Submit
98. Congestive heart failure

Explanation

Congestive heart failure is a condition where the myocardium, which is the heart muscle, is unable to pump an adequate amount of blood to meet the needs of the body. This means that the heart is not able to effectively circulate blood, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention. It is a chronic and progressive condition that can be caused by various factors, including damage to the heart muscle from conditions like coronary artery disease or high blood pressure. Treatment for congestive heart failure aims to improve heart function and manage symptoms.

Submit
99. Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except

Explanation

Diabetic hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include pallor, convulsions, and loss of consciousness. Dyspnea, which refers to difficulty breathing or shortness of breath, is not typically associated with diabetic hypoglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is dyspnea.

Submit
100. The precipitating factors of epilepsy are all, except

Explanation

Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures. Certain factors can trigger or precipitate seizures in individuals with epilepsy. Rich meals are not typically considered a precipitating factor for seizures. However, surgical procedures, alcoholic drinks, and administration of large doses of local anesthesia can potentially trigger seizures in some individuals with epilepsy.

Submit
101. The first phase of epileptic seizure presents with the following symptoms, except

Explanation

During the first phase of an epileptic seizure, various symptoms may manifest. These symptoms can include anxiety, characteristic smells, and yawning. However, feeling hungry is not typically associated with the initial phase of an epileptic seizure. It is important to note that epilepsy can present differently in individuals, and while feeling hungry may not be a common symptom, it is not entirely impossible.

Submit
102. The phase that does not exist in epileptic seizure is

Explanation

The anxiety phase does not exist in epileptic seizures. Epileptic seizures are characterized by abnormal electrical activity in the brain, which can cause a variety of symptoms including convulsions, auras, and post-convulsion phases. However, anxiety is not a specific phase associated with epileptic seizures.

Submit
103. All are true about continuous suture, except

Explanation

The statement "It is a risk of ischemia of the area" is not true about continuous sutures. Continuous sutures are known for their ability to evenly distribute tension along the wound, reducing the risk of ischemia (lack of blood flow) to the area. This is because the continuous suture technique involves a single, uninterrupted thread that is woven through the tissue, creating a secure closure. Therefore, continuous sutures do not pose a risk of ischemia to the area being sutured.

Submit
104. Indications of surgical tooth extraction are all, except

Explanation

Teeth with very small roots do not typically require surgical tooth extraction. Surgical extraction is usually necessary for teeth with large bulbous roots, broken root tips that have remained in the alveolar bone, and teeth with roots in the maxillary sinus. However, teeth with very small roots can often be extracted using a simple extraction technique, which does not require surgical intervention.

Submit
105. Best way to palpate submandibular gland is:

Explanation

The best way to palpate the submandibular gland is by using a bimanual simultaneous intra and extraoral technique. This involves using both hands, with one hand placed inside the mouth to apply pressure from the inside, and the other hand placed on the outside of the jaw to feel for any abnormalities or changes in the submandibular gland. This technique allows for a thorough examination of the gland and provides a more accurate assessment of its condition.

Submit
106. Rotatory movement is used for the extraction of:

Explanation

Rotatory movement is used for the extraction of Maxillary central incisors. This means that when extracting the Maxillary central incisors, a rotary motion is applied to remove the teeth from the socket. This technique is commonly used in dental procedures to efficiently and effectively extract teeth.

Submit
107. Which of the following is relatively difficult tooth to extract?

Explanation

The maxillary canine is a relatively difficult tooth to extract because it has a long root and is located in the upper jaw, which can make access and visibility challenging. Additionally, the maxillary canine is often close to the maxillary sinus, which increases the risk of complications during extraction.

Submit
108. Trismus following a lower molar extraction after 4 weeks will be due to:

Explanation

Trismus refers to difficulty in opening the mouth fully. In this case, the most likely cause of trismus following a lower molar extraction after 4 weeks is the breakage of a needle in the pterygomandibular space. The pterygomandibular space is located near the lower molars and is a potential space where instruments may accidentally break during dental procedures. The breakage of a needle in this space can lead to inflammation and scarring, resulting in limited mouth opening. The other options, such as hematoma of TMJ, submasseteric space abscess, or root stump in socket, are less likely to cause trismus in this scenario.

Submit
109. Reactionary hemorrhage is hemorrhage after surgery that occurs:

Explanation

Reactionary hemorrhage refers to bleeding that occurs within 24 hours after surgery. This type of hemorrhage is often caused by the body's reaction to the surgical procedure, such as the release of clotting factors or changes in blood pressure. It is important for medical professionals to monitor patients closely during this time period to identify and address any signs of bleeding.

Submit
110. One day after complete mouth extraction blue black spots are seen on neck of patient. These spots indicate:

Explanation

Postoperative ecchymosis refers to the formation of blue-black spots on the skin after a surgical procedure. This occurs due to bleeding under the skin, resulting in the pooling of blood and discoloration. In this case, the extraction of the teeth may have caused some trauma and bleeding in the mouth, leading to the development of these spots on the patient's neck. Therefore, the presence of blue-black spots on the neck indicates postoperative ecchymosis.

Submit
111. Bleeding caused in extraction socket due to wound sepsis after few days is called as:

Explanation

Secondary haemorrhage refers to bleeding that occurs after a few days following a tooth extraction due to wound sepsis. This can be caused by an infection in the extraction site, which leads to the breakdown of blood clots and subsequent bleeding. It is important to manage and treat the infection to prevent further complications and promote proper healing.

Submit
112. Principle action of ammonia in syncope is as:

Explanation

Ammonia acts as a respiratory stimulant in syncope. When a person faints or experiences syncope, their breathing may become shallow or stop temporarily. Ammonia inhalants are commonly used to stimulate the respiratory system and help the person regain consciousness. The strong smell of ammonia triggers a reflex in the brain that stimulates the respiratory center, leading to increased breathing and oxygen intake. This helps to restore normal breathing patterns and consciousness in individuals who have fainted.

Submit
113. Chair position during extraction of maxillary teeth should be:

Explanation

The chair position during extraction of maxillary teeth should be 16 cm below the shoulder level of the operator. This is important for maintaining proper ergonomics and reducing strain on the operator's back and shoulders. By positioning the chair at this level, the operator can have better visibility and access to the patient's mouth, allowing for more precise and comfortable extraction procedures.

Submit
114. During extraction priorities should be given to all, except:

Explanation

During the process of extraction, it is important to prioritize certain factors. This includes considering the location of the teeth, whether they are anterior (front) or posterior (back). The correct answer states that anterior teeth should not be given priority over posterior teeth. This means that when extracting teeth, the posterior teeth should be given priority over the anterior teeth.

Submit
115. Cyst commonly found between lateral upper incisor and canine is:

Explanation

A globulomaxillary cyst is commonly found between the lateral upper incisor and canine. This cyst is derived from the epithelial remnants of the nasopalatine duct and typically presents as a unilocular radiolucency. It is often asymptomatic and may cause displacement of adjacent teeth. Treatment usually involves surgical enucleation of the cyst.

Submit
116. Cyst formed ever an erupting tooth:

Explanation

A cyst that forms around an erupting tooth is called a dentigerous or eruption cyst. This type of cyst occurs when the tooth is unable to fully emerge from the gum tissue, causing fluid to accumulate and form a cystic sac. Dentigerous cysts are usually painless and can be identified through dental X-rays. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the cyst and extraction or exposure of the impacted tooth.

Submit
117. Painful symptoms of angina pectoris can accompany with all, except

Explanation

Angina pectoris is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough blood flow. The painful symptoms of angina pectoris are typically triggered by physical exertion or emotional stress. Coughing is not typically associated with angina pectoris, as it is not a direct symptom of reduced blood flow to the heart. On the other hand, perspiration, extreme anxiety, and a feeling of imminent death are commonly reported symptoms of angina pectoris.

Submit
118. All are characteristics of myocardial infarction, except

Explanation

Myocardial infarction, also known as a heart attack, is characterized by symptoms such as burning sensation, extreme tightness, and pressure in the chest. These symptoms typically last for a longer duration, usually more than 10 minutes. Therefore, the exception in this case is pain lasting from 5 to 10 minutes, as it is not a typical characteristic of a myocardial infarction.

Submit
119. Cardiac arrhythmia

Explanation

The correct answer is "Is any periodic variation in the normal rhythm of the heart." This is because cardiac arrhythmia refers to any abnormality or irregularity in the heart's normal rhythm. It can manifest as a fast or slow heartbeat, skipped beats, or irregular patterns. This variation in rhythm can disrupt the heart's ability to pump blood effectively and may require medical intervention.

Submit
120. All are true about continuous suture, except

Explanation

Continuous suturing is a technique used in wound closure that involves using a single, uninterrupted thread to stitch the wound. It is known for its efficiency and speed, as it allows for quick and continuous suturing without the need to individually tie each stitch. Therefore, the statement "It takes a lot of time to complete the suturing" is not true, as continuous suturing actually saves time compared to other suturing techniques.

Submit
121. The most common blade for incisions in the gingival sulcus and incisions posterior to the teeth, especially in the tuberosity area is

Explanation

Blade no. 12 is the most common blade for incisions in the gingival sulcus and incisions posterior to the teeth, especially in the tuberosity area. This blade is specifically designed for making precise and controlled incisions in these areas. It has a curved shape that allows for easy access and maneuverability in tight spaces. Additionally, blade no. 12 has a medium size and sharp tip, making it suitable for making incisions in the gingival sulcus and posterior areas.

Submit
122. Difficulties of extracting maxillary canines are all, except

Explanation

The difficulties of extracting maxillary canines include firm anchorage in the alveolar bone, long root, and curvature at the root tip. However, the presence of thick alveolar bone covering the labial surface of the tooth's root does not pose a difficulty in extraction.

Submit
123. Instructions for postoperative surgical procedures are all, except

Explanation

The correct answer is "Diet should not consist of cold, liquid food". This is because after a postoperative surgical procedure, it is generally recommended to have a soft or liquid diet to avoid putting strain on the surgical site. Cold, liquid food may also cause discomfort and sensitivity in the area. The other options, such as resting at home, biting on gauze, and taking painkillers, are commonly advised after surgery to promote healing and manage pain.

Submit
124. Which of the following lesion has no epithelial lining?

Explanation

Aneurysmal bone cyst is the correct answer because it is a non-neoplastic, blood-filled cystic lesion that occurs in the bone and does not have an epithelial lining. Unlike the other options listed, which are all cysts that do have an epithelial lining, aneurysmal bone cyst is characterized by the presence of blood-filled spaces within the bone, without any lining of epithelial cells.

Submit
125. Reactionary haemorrhage occurs after extraction because of:

Explanation

Reactionary hemorrhage occurs after extraction because of high blood pressure. High blood pressure can cause the blood vessels to become more fragile and prone to bleeding. This can lead to bleeding after a tooth extraction.

Submit
126. Use of medical history in extraction patient is:

Explanation

The use of medical history in extracting a patient is to determine bleeding disorders. This information is crucial in order to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient during the extraction process. By understanding the patient's medical history, the dentist or healthcare professional can identify any potential risks or complications that may arise due to bleeding disorders. This allows them to take appropriate precautions and provide necessary treatments or interventions to minimize the risk of excessive bleeding during the extraction procedure.

Submit
127. The ideal treatment of alveolar osteitis after dental extraction is:

Explanation

The ideal treatment for alveolar osteitis, also known as dry socket, after dental extraction is debridement of the socket and application of a sedative dressing. Alveolar osteitis occurs when the blood clot in the socket is dislodged or dissolves, leading to severe pain and delayed healing. Debridement involves removing any debris or infected tissue from the socket, while the sedative dressing helps to alleviate pain and promote healing. Topical and systemic antibiotics are not typically recommended for the treatment of alveolar osteitis, and curettage to induce fresh bleeding is not necessary in this case.

Submit
128. Beaks of mandibular tooth forceps are at an angle of _________ to handle:

Explanation

The beaks of mandibular tooth forceps are at a 90-degree angle to the handle. This angle allows for better access and grip on the tooth during extraction. It provides a secure and stable position for the forceps, making it easier to apply the necessary force to remove the tooth effectively.

Submit
129. A dentist planning to remove an impacted tooth will need which of the following radiographs?

Explanation

When planning to remove an impacted tooth, a periapical film will be all that is required. This type of radiograph provides a detailed view of the entire tooth, including the root and surrounding structures. It allows the dentist to assess the position, orientation, and proximity of the impacted tooth to adjacent teeth and vital structures such as nerves and sinuses. A bite wing is used to detect cavities between the teeth and is not necessary for assessing an impacted tooth. A lateral view or anteroposterior view may be useful in certain cases, but a periapical film is typically sufficient for planning the removal of an impacted tooth.

Submit
130. The direction of bevel of the chisel during bone cutting is:

Explanation

During bone cutting, the direction of bevel of the chisel is away from the bone to be sacrificed. This is because the bevel helps to create a wedge-shaped cut, allowing for easier removal of the bone. By directing the bevel away from the bone to be sacrificed, the chisel can effectively penetrate and cut through the bone, minimizing the risk of damaging surrounding tissues or causing unnecessary trauma.

Submit
131. The most common impacted teeth is:

Explanation

The most common impacted teeth are mandibular third molars. Impacted teeth occur when there is not enough space in the mouth for them to fully emerge or when they are blocked by other teeth. Mandibular third molars, also known as wisdom teeth, are the most commonly impacted because they are the last teeth to erupt and often there is not enough space for them to come in properly. This can lead to various problems such as pain, infection, and damage to adjacent teeth, which often requires their removal.

Submit
132. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with angina pectoris is

Explanation

The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with angina pectoris is oral premedication, usually 20-50mg diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine medication that is commonly used as a sedative or muscle relaxant. However, it is not recommended for patients with angina pectoris because it can cause respiratory depression and may interact with other medications that the patient is taking for their heart condition. Therefore, it is important to avoid using diazepam as a premedication for these patients to prevent any potential complications during the surgical procedure.

Submit
133. False information about myocardial infarction is

Explanation

Myocardial infarction typically has a sudden onset with severe pain anterior to the sternum. This is because myocardial infarction refers to the ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart, which occurs when blood flow to the heart muscle is blocked. The pain experienced during a myocardial infarction is usually more severe than that of angina pectoris, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. Additionally, the pain of a myocardial infarction typically lasts longer than 15 minutes, as it is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition.

Submit
134. Pain of myocardial infarction can radiate to all region, except

Explanation

The pain of myocardial infarction can radiate to various regions of the body due to the shared nerve pathways. However, the lip is not innervated by the same nerves that transmit pain signals from the heart. Therefore, pain from a myocardial infarction would not typically be felt in the lip.

Submit
135. Patients with controlled diabetes require

Explanation

Patients with controlled diabetes require diet change because maintaining a healthy diet is crucial for managing blood sugar levels. By making dietary adjustments, such as reducing the intake of sugary and high-carbohydrate foods, patients can better control their diabetes and prevent complications. Diet change is an essential aspect of diabetes management and can help improve overall health and wellbeing.

Submit
136. All are true about epilepsy, except

Explanation

Epilepsy is indeed a clinical manifestation of abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Epileptic patients may present with epileptic seizures under certain circumstances, and certain patients may also experience status epilepticus, which is a prolonged seizure or a series of seizures without full recovery in between. However, epilepsy does not necessarily lead to sensory activity and altered states of consciousness. While seizures can cause changes in consciousness, not all individuals with epilepsy experience this symptom.

Submit
137. The incorrect fundamental rule concerning incision and flap is

Explanation

Reflecting mucosa before periosteum is the incorrect fundamental rule concerning incision and flap. This is because the correct order is to reflect the periosteum first, followed by the mucosa. The periosteum is the connective tissue that covers the bone, and it needs to be reflected first in order to expose the underlying bone for surgical procedures. Reflecting the mucosa before the periosteum can lead to complications and difficulty in properly accessing and manipulating the underlying bone.

Submit
138. All of the following are absorbable suture material except:

Explanation

Silk is the only non-absorbable suture material among the options given. Absorbable sutures are designed to break down and be absorbed by the body over time, eliminating the need for suture removal. Catgut, polyglycolic, and polyglactin are all examples of absorbable suture materials commonly used in medical procedures. Silk, on the other hand, is a non-absorbable material that requires removal after the appropriate healing period.

Submit
139. In patient of liver disease, possible complication during extraction is:

Explanation

In patients with liver disease, bleeding is a possible complication during extraction. The liver plays a crucial role in blood clotting, and liver disease can impair this function, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is important to be cautious during extractions in these patients to minimize the risk of excessive bleeding.

Submit
140. Cowhorn forcep are specially designed to extract:

Explanation

Cowhorn forceps are specifically designed to extract mandibular molars. These forceps have curved, rounded tips that resemble the shape of a cow's horn, hence the name. The curved shape allows for better access and grip on the molar teeth, making it easier to extract them from the jaw. Cowhorn forceps are not commonly used for extracting other types of teeth, such as premolars or incisors, as they are not as effective in gripping and applying the necessary force for extraction.

Submit
141. While extracting mandibular third molar, it is noted that distal root is missing. The root tip is most likely in the:

Explanation

The mandibular third molar is located in the lower jaw, and its roots extend into the surrounding spaces. In this case, since the distal root is missing, it is likely that the root tip has migrated into the submandibular space. The submandibular space is located beneath the mandible and contains important structures such as the submandibular gland, lymph nodes, and blood vessels. Therefore, it is a plausible location for the root tip to be found.

Submit
142. Which is the best treatment for pericoronitis involving impacted mandibular 3rd molar?

Explanation

The best treatment for pericoronitis involving an impacted mandibular third molar is the extraction of the involved third molar. Pericoronitis is inflammation of the gum tissue surrounding a partially erupted tooth, and it commonly occurs around impacted third molars. Extraction of the impacted tooth eliminates the source of infection and inflammation, providing long-term relief and preventing future episodes of pericoronitis. Antibiotic and analgesic therapy may be used as adjunctive treatment, but the definitive treatment is the extraction of the third molar. Operculectomy, which involves removing the flap of gum tissue covering the tooth, may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Gentle application of heat and cold simultaneously may help alleviate symptoms temporarily but does not treat the underlying cause of pericoronitis.

Submit
143. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for a patient presenting with Ludwig's angina?

Explanation

Administering intravenous corticosteroids: While corticosteroids may help reduce inflammation, they are not the first line of treatment for an infection like Ludwig's angina.

Immediate incision and drainage under local anesthesia: This may be necessary but is not the first step. It is usually performed after the infection is controlled.

Initiating broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics: This is the most appropriate initial step to control the severe bacterial infection and prevent the spread of the infection.

Performing a tracheostomy: This is reserved for cases where airway obstruction is imminent or already present, but it is not the initial management step.

Submit
144. Which of the following is not an advantage of marsupilization?

Explanation

Marsupialization is a surgical technique used to treat certain types of cysts or abscesses. It involves creating a small incision and then suturing the edges of the incision to form a pouch or "marsupium." This allows the cyst or abscess to drain continuously, promoting healing from the inside out. The advantages of marsupialization include exposure of very little bone, preservation of vital structures, and conservation of surgical structures. However, rapid healing is not an advantage of marsupialization, as the process is intended to promote gradual healing by allowing the wound to drain and heal from the inside.

Submit
145. According to the pathogenic mechanism, the one that is not the group of bleeding disorders is

Explanation

Hemoglobin disorders are not considered a group of bleeding disorders because they do not directly affect the clotting process or the ability of blood to form clots. Hemoglobin disorders, such as sickle cell disease or thalassemia, involve abnormalities in the structure or production of hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in red blood cells. While these disorders can lead to complications and health issues, they do not typically cause bleeding or affect the clotting mechanism.

Submit
146. The safest vasoconstrictor for patients with hyperthyroidism is considered to be

Explanation

Felypressin is considered the safest vasoconstrictor for patients with hyperthyroidism. This is because it has minimal effects on the cardiovascular system and does not stimulate the release of thyroid hormones. Adrenaline and noradrenaline can potentially worsen the symptoms of hyperthyroidism by increasing heart rate and blood pressure. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic and does not have vasoconstrictive properties. Therefore, Felypressin is the best choice for vasoconstriction in patients with hyperthyroidism.

Submit
147. All are various surgical techniques for root removal, except

Explanation

The given answer is the correct answer because it describes a surgical technique that involves removing part of the lingual bone to facilitate the luxation (dislocation) of the root in a lingual direction. The other options describe different surgical techniques for root removal, such as opening a window on the buccal bone, creating a groove on the root surface after removing buccal bone, and creating a groove between the root and bone for elevator access.

Submit
148. Vicryl is an:

Explanation

Vicryl is classified as an absorbable synthetic suture. This means that it is made from synthetic materials that are designed to break down and be absorbed by the body over time. This type of suture is commonly used in surgeries where the sutures do not need to be removed because they will naturally dissolve on their own. Vicryl is a popular choice for absorbable sutures due to its strength and ability to hold tissue together during the healing process.

Submit
149. Which of the following is early sign of need of oxygen?

Explanation

Tachycardia, or a rapid heart rate, is an early sign of the need for oxygen. When the body is not receiving enough oxygen, the heart beats faster in an attempt to compensate and deliver more oxygen to the organs and tissues. This increased heart rate is a physiological response to the low oxygen levels and serves as an indicator that the body is in need of more oxygen. Cyanosis, sternal relaxation, and constricted pupils are not specific early signs of oxygen need, making tachycardia the correct answer.

Submit
150. Surgical needle and sutures are usually sterilized in manufacturing units by:

Explanation

Surgical needles and sutures are usually sterilized in manufacturing units using gamma radiation. Gamma radiation is a high-energy form of electromagnetic radiation that can penetrate materials and kill microorganisms. It is commonly used for sterilization because it is effective in destroying bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens without leaving any residue on the sterilized items. Gamma radiation can penetrate packaging materials and reach all areas of the surgical needles and sutures, ensuring complete sterilization. X-rays are not typically used for sterilization as they have lower energy and cannot penetrate materials as effectively as gamma radiation. Boiling and dry heat sterilization may be suitable for some medical instruments, but they may not be suitable for surgical needles and sutures due to their delicate nature.

Submit
151. Basic principles of extraction are all except:

Explanation

The basic principles of extraction involve the expansion of the bony socket, the application of lever and fulcrum, and the insertion of a wedge. These techniques are used to effectively remove a tooth without causing trauma to the surrounding bone and mucosa. Therefore, the correct answer is "No trauma to bone and mucosa" because it is not one of the basic principles of extraction.

Submit
152. While using elevators, fulcrum is taken from:

Explanation

The fulcrum is taken from the interdental bone while using elevators. The interdental bone refers to the bone that lies between two adjacent teeth. In dental procedures, elevators are used to loosen and lift the tooth from its socket. The interdental bone provides a stable support for the elevator, allowing controlled and efficient extraction of the tooth. By placing the fulcrum on the interdental bone, the dentist can apply the necessary force to dislodge the tooth without causing excessive trauma to the surrounding tissues.

Submit
153. Which is the best treatment for pericoronitis involving impacted mandibular 3rd molar with thin periosteum?

Explanation

Operculectomy is the best treatment for pericoronitis involving impacted mandibular 3rd molar with thin periosteum because it involves the removal of the operculum, which is the flap of gum tissue that partially covers the impacted tooth. By removing the operculum, the area becomes easier to clean, reducing the chances of infection and inflammation. Antibiotics and analgesics may be used to manage the symptoms, but they do not address the underlying issue of the impacted tooth and thin periosteum. Extraction of the opposite 3rd molar is not necessary for treating pericoronitis involving the impacted mandibular 3rd molar with thin periosteum.

Submit
154. Most desirable incision while designing of a flap is:

Explanation

When designing a flap, the most desirable incision is vertical. This is because a vertical incision allows for better blood supply to the flap, as it follows the natural orientation of the blood vessels. Additionally, a vertical incision provides better access to the surgical site and allows for easier closure of the incision after the procedure. Horizontal, curved, and elliptical incisions may not provide the same level of blood supply or access, making them less desirable options.

Submit
155. All are correct about diabetes mellitus, except

Explanation

The given statement about not eating much after dental surgery is not related to diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus is a condition characterized by the alteration of metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids, and it is caused by abnormalities in the secretion mechanism and effect of insulin. Performing dental surgery in the morning is suggested to avoid insulin shock, but it is not directly related to diabetes mellitus itself.

Submit
156. Stenosis of ducts of small bronchi and bronchioles in the patient of asthma is due to all, except

Explanation

The correct answer is vascular hemorrhage. Stenosis of ducts of small bronchi and bronchioles in asthma patients is caused by edema of the mucosa, viscous mucosa production, and bronchoconstriction. Vascular hemorrhage is not a contributing factor to the narrowing of the airways in asthma.

Submit
157. All are correct about what to do with active tuberculosis patients, except

Explanation

The appointment should not be set in early morning at the dental office because active tuberculosis patients are more likely to cough in the morning and potentially spread the disease to others. Therefore, it is important to schedule their appointments later in the day when the risk of transmission is lower.

Submit
158. The most dangerous type of allergic reactions is

Explanation

Anaphylaxis is the most dangerous type of allergic reaction because it is a severe and potentially life-threatening response that can affect multiple systems in the body. It typically occurs rapidly after exposure to an allergen and can lead to symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat or tongue, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. Anaphylaxis requires immediate medical attention and treatment with epinephrine to prevent further complications or death. Urticaria, angioneurotic edema, and allergic asthma can also be serious allergic reactions, but they are not typically as severe or life-threatening as anaphylaxis.

Submit
159. All are true about extraction technique using tooth forceps, except

Explanation

The final extraction movement does not necessarily have to be lingual or palatal.

Submit
160. Among the following which one elicits more tissue reaction?

Explanation

Catgut elicits more tissue reaction compared to silk, nylon, and linen. Catgut is a type of surgical suture made from the intestines of sheep or cows. It is a natural material that is not as inert as synthetic materials like silk, nylon, or linen. When catgut is used as a suture material, it can provoke a stronger immune response from the body, leading to increased tissue reaction. This can result in inflammation and delayed wound healing compared to the other options.

Submit
161. Which teeth is extracted standing in-front the patient?

Explanation

The correct answer is Mandibular left side. This means that the tooth being extracted is located on the lower left side of the patient's mouth.

Submit
162. The only tooth to be extracted by primary rotatory movements is:

Explanation

Primary rotatory movements refer to the rotational movement of the tooth during extraction. The correct answer, "Maxillary central incisors and mandibular 2nd premolar," suggests that these two teeth can be extracted using primary rotatory movements. This means that these teeth can be loosened and removed by rotating them in their sockets, rather than using other extraction techniques such as elevation or luxation.

Submit
163. Commonest complication after removal of mandibular third molar:

Explanation

After the removal of a mandibular third molar, the most common complication is dry socket. Dry socket, also known as alveolar osteitis, occurs when the blood clot that forms in the extraction site is dislodged or dissolves, leaving the underlying bone exposed. This can result in severe pain, bad breath, and delayed healing. Lingual nerve damage, fracture mandible, and bleeding are also possible complications, but they are not as common as dry socket.

Submit
164. During extraction of a maxillary molar a root tip is displaced inside the maxillary sinus, treatment is:

Explanation

The Caldwell Luc Operation is the appropriate treatment in this scenario because it involves creating a communication between the maxillary sinus and the oral cavity, allowing for the retrieval of the displaced root tip. This procedure is commonly used for the removal of foreign bodies or impacted teeth from the maxillary sinus.

Submit
165. In oro-antral communication most communication occurs during extraction of:

Explanation

During the extraction of the maxillary 1st molar, there is a higher chance of oro-antral communication occurring. This is because the roots of the maxillary 1st molar are often in close proximity to the maxillary sinus, and the extraction process can cause a perforation in the sinus floor. This can lead to communication between the oral cavity and the sinus, which can result in complications such as infection or the passage of air and fluid between the two spaces.

Submit
166. All are true about the reflection of mucoperiosteum, except

Explanation

The reflection of mucoperiosteum typically requires the use of scissors in case symphysis occurs. This is because symphysis refers to the fusion of two bones, and it can be difficult to separate the mucoperiosteum from the bone without the use of scissors. Therefore, the statement that no scissors are needed even if symphysis occurs is not true.

Submit
167. When there is a fractured root of a tooth, it is not good to

Explanation

When there is a fractured root of a tooth, simply abandoning the procedure is the correct answer because attempting to perform root canal treatment (RCT) or complete the extraction may cause further damage or complications. It is important to assess the situation and consult with a dental professional for the best course of action.

Submit
168. In periodontal surgeries needle used is:

Explanation

The correct needle used in periodontal surgeries is 3/8th, reverse cutting. This type of needle has a cutting edge on the inside curve, allowing for easier penetration and suturing of the tissues. The 3/8th size refers to the length of the needle, which is suitable for the specific needs of periodontal surgeries.

Submit
169. A patient who is on anticoagulant therapy required a tooth extraction. Which laboratory test is most valuable in evaluating the surgical risk?

Explanation

Prothrombin time is the most valuable laboratory test in evaluating the surgical risk for a patient on anticoagulant therapy who requires a tooth extraction. Prothrombin time measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and it is particularly important in assessing the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. By measuring the prothrombin time, healthcare professionals can determine if the patient's blood is clotting properly and if their anticoagulant medication needs to be adjusted or temporarily stopped before the surgery to minimize the risk of excessive bleeding.

Submit
170. Which teeth are extracted standing behind the patient?

Explanation

The correct answer is Mandibular right side. When standing behind the patient, the mandibular right side refers to the lower right side of the mouth. This means that the teeth on the lower right side of the mouth would be extracted.

Submit
171. Chair position during extraction of mandibular teeth should be following, except:

Explanation

The correct answer is that the occlusal plane is 30 degrees to the floor. During the extraction of mandibular teeth, the chair should be positioned in a more upright position, the occlusal plane should be parallel to the floor, and the chair should be lower than for extraction of maxillary teeth. The occlusal plane being 30 degrees to the floor is not a recommended position for the extraction of mandibular teeth.

Submit
172. Which of the following is most difficult impaction of 3rd molar?

Explanation

An inverted impacted 3rd molar refers to a situation where the tooth is positioned upside down, with the crown facing towards the root of the adjacent tooth. This is considered the most difficult impaction because it can cause complications during extraction. The inverted position makes it challenging for the dentist to access and remove the tooth, often requiring more complex surgical techniques. Additionally, the proximity to the adjacent tooth increases the risk of damage to the neighboring structures, such as the roots of the adjacent tooth or the nerve in the lower jaw.

Submit
173. 5 days after extraction of an impacted mandibular 3rd molar, your patient presents with hard, painful swelling after 12 hrs deviation near angle of mandible. This is most likely due to:

Explanation

The patient's presentation of hard, painful swelling after a deviation near the angle of the mandible, 5 days after extraction of an impacted mandibular 3rd molar, is most likely due to infection. Infection can occur after dental extractions, especially if proper post-operative care and hygiene are not maintained. The symptoms of swelling, pain, and deviation suggest an inflammatory response to bacterial infection in the area. The other options, angioneurotic edema, hematoma, and surgical trauma, do not fit the given clinical scenario as well as infection does.

Submit
174. Chair position during extraction of maxillary teeth should be following, except:

Explanation

The correct answer is "The chair should be lower than for extraction of mandibular teeth." This is because during the extraction of maxillary teeth, the chair should be raised higher than for extraction of mandibular teeth. This allows for better access and visibility during the procedure. Additionally, raising the chair helps to align the maxillary occlusal plane at a 60-degree angle to the floor, which is important for proper positioning. The height of the chair should also be adjusted so that the patient's mouth is at or below the operator's elbow level, ensuring ergonomic efficiency.

Submit
175. During multiple extractions, it should be done in sequence of:

Explanation

During multiple extractions, the recommended sequence is maxillary before mandibular, posterior before anterior.

This approach helps to:

Reduce the risk of debris falling into lower extraction sites.

Allow for better anesthetic distribution and effectiveness.

Ensure that posterior extractions, which are generally more complex and may require more force, are completed first to minimize patient discomfort and fatigue.

Submit
176. An oro-antral communication during extraction:

Explanation

An oro-antral communication during extraction refers to a communication or connection between the oral cavity and the maxillary sinus. It is important to close this communication surgically immediately to prevent complications such as infection, sinusitis, or the formation of an oroantral fistula. If left untreated, the communication may lead to the prolapse of the antral lining into the mouth or the reflux of fluids into the nasal cavity while drinking. Therefore, immediate surgical closure is necessary to prevent further complications.

Submit
177. Thyrotoxic patients present with all, except

Explanation

Thyrotoxic patients typically experience symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate), insomnia, and arrhythmia (abnormal heart rhythm). However, frequent urination is not commonly associated with thyroid dysfunction. Therefore, it is the exception among the given options.

Submit
178. Anaphylaxis may present with all, except

Explanation

Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can cause a range of symptoms. These symptoms typically include pruritus (itching), dyspnea (difficulty breathing), and cyanosis of limbs (bluish discoloration of the skin). However, urinary blockage is not a typical symptom of anaphylaxis. Therefore, the correct answer is urinary blockage.

Submit
179. For pregnant patients, the most risks for dental procedure are noted in

Explanation

During the first trimester of pregnancy, the baby's organs and systems are rapidly developing. This is the most critical period for the baby's development, and any external factors, such as medications or procedures, can potentially cause harm. Dental procedures often involve the use of medications and anesthesia, which may pose a risk to the developing fetus. Therefore, it is important to avoid dental procedures during the first trimester to minimize any potential risks to both the mother and the baby.

Submit
180. All are necessary preventive measures for the surgical procedure on patients with chronic renal failure, except

Explanation

Dental procedure on the day of hemodialysis is not a necessary preventive measure for surgical procedures on patients with chronic renal failure. Hemodialysis is a procedure that removes waste and excess fluid from the blood, and it is important to avoid any additional procedures on the same day to minimize stress on the patient's body. Therefore, it is not recommended to perform dental procedures on the day of hemodialysis.

Submit
181. Elevators should be forced down the PDL at an angle of ___________ to long axis of tooth:

Explanation

Elevators should be forced down the PDL at an angle of 30 degrees to the long axis of the tooth. This angle helps in effectively applying force to dislodge the tooth without causing excessive trauma to the surrounding tissues. A 30-degree angle allows for controlled and precise extraction, minimizing the risk of damage to adjacent teeth and structures.

Submit
182. The pain of myocardial infarction may be associated with all, except

Explanation

During a myocardial infarction (heart attack), the heart muscle is deprived of oxygen-rich blood, leading to severe chest pain. This pain is typically associated with symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and perspiration due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. However, dilation of pupils is not a common symptom of myocardial infarction. Pupil dilation is more commonly associated with other conditions like drug use, neurological disorders, or eye injuries.

Submit
183. The sign that does not exist in second phase of epilepsy is

Explanation

In the second phase of epilepsy, extreme dizziness is not a sign that exists. Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, and during the second phase of a seizure, various symptoms may occur such as loss of consciousness, convulsions, and abnormal movements. However, extreme dizziness is not typically associated with this phase of epilepsy.

Submit
184. All of the following are non-absorbable suture except:

Explanation

Chromic catgut is a type of absorbable suture, meaning it is broken down and absorbed by the body over time. Silk, stainless steel, and nylon are all non-absorbable sutures, which means they do not break down and are not absorbed by the body.

Submit
185. The extraction of which of the following is most difficult in maxillary arch?

Explanation

The extraction of the first premolar is most difficult in the maxillary arch because it has a long root with multiple roots and can be located close to the sinuses. Additionally, the first premolar is often positioned in a more posterior location in the mouth, making it harder to access and extract.

Submit
186. The most appropriate method to differentiate between a dentigerous cyst and an ameloblastoma is through:

Explanation

Microscopic examination is the most appropriate method to differentiate between a dentigerous cyst and an ameloblastoma. This is because microscopic examination allows for a detailed analysis of the cellular and histological features of the lesion, which can provide specific diagnostic information. Radiographic examination can provide information about the size and location of the lesion, but it may not be able to definitively differentiate between these two entities. Aspiration cytology may provide some information about the cellular composition of the lesion, but it may not be as reliable or specific as microscopic examination. Clinical features alone may not be sufficient to differentiate between these two entities, as they can overlap and be nonspecific.

Submit
187. The first phase of epileptic seizure presents with the following symptoms, except

Explanation

During the first phase of an epileptic seizure, symptoms such as tinnitus (ringing in the ears), yawning, and dizziness may occur. However, vomiting is not typically associated with the initial phase of an epileptic seizure.

Submit
188. All are preventive measures for the epileptic patients to avoid seizures during dental procedures, except

Explanation

Administration of large amounts of local anesthetic to prolong the pain control is not a preventive measure for epileptic patients to avoid seizures during dental procedures. While reducing stress, keeping appointments short and painless, and administering additional anticonvulsant drugs can help prevent seizures in epileptic patients, administering large amounts of local anesthetic is not directly related to preventing seizures.

Submit
189. The most common blade used for flap and incision on edentulous alveolar ridges is

Explanation

Blade no. 15 is the most common blade used for flap and incision on edentulous alveolar ridges. This blade is commonly used in oral surgery for making incisions, creating flaps, and removing soft tissue. It has a curved shape which allows for precise and controlled cutting, making it suitable for delicate procedures in the oral cavity. Blade no. 10, 11, and 12 are also commonly used in oral surgery, but blade no. 15 is specifically designed for edentulous alveolar ridges.

Submit
190. All are true about extraction technique using tooth forceps, except

Explanation

The correct answer is "Traction is recommended in the final extraction phase." This means that traction is not recommended in the final extraction phase. Traction refers to the act of applying a pulling force to remove the tooth. In the extraction technique using tooth forceps, traction is typically applied earlier in the extraction process, rather than in the final phase. The other statements are true: the initial extraction movements are gentle, the dentist applies slow steady pressure to move the tooth buccally first, and buccal pressure is greater than palatal or lingual pressure.

Submit
191. Precipitating factors of angina pectoris are all, except

Explanation

The precipitating factors of angina pectoris are all the options listed except for dizziness. Angina pectoris is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Common precipitating factors include physical exertion, emotional stress, exposure to cold temperatures, and a large or rich meal. Dizziness, on the other hand, is not typically associated with angina pectoris. It may be a symptom of other conditions such as low blood pressure or inner ear problems.

Submit
192. Myocardial infarction

Explanation

Myocardial infarction refers to the ischemic necrosis of an area of the heart. This means that there is a lack of blood supply to a specific part of the heart, leading to tissue death. This condition is commonly known as a heart attack and is caused by a blockage in the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle. The lack of blood flow results in oxygen deprivation, leading to cell death in the affected area of the heart. Prompt medical intervention is crucial to prevent further damage and improve the chances of survival.

Submit
193. Diabetic hyperglycemia is characterized by all, except

Explanation

Diabetic hyperglycemia is a condition in which there is high blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. It is characterized by symptoms such as coma, dyspnea, and weakness. However, blurred vision is not a characteristic symptom of diabetic hyperglycemia. Blurred vision is more commonly associated with diabetic retinopathy, a complication of long-term diabetes that affects the blood vessels in the retina. Therefore, blurred vision is the correct answer as it is not a characteristic symptom of diabetic hyperglycemia.

Submit
194. The recommended time for dental surgery for a patient who used to receive radiotherapy

Explanation

Patients who have undergone radiotherapy are at a higher risk of developing complications during dental surgery. Radiotherapy can cause damage to the blood vessels, bone, and soft tissues, leading to delayed healing and increased risk of infection. Therefore, it is recommended to wait for at least 12 months after radiotherapy before performing dental surgery. This waiting period allows for proper healing and reduces the chances of complications.

Submit
195. The most common allergic reaction is

Explanation

Urticaria is the correct answer because it is the most common allergic reaction. Urticaria, also known as hives, is characterized by the appearance of itchy, raised, and red welts on the skin. It can occur due to various triggers such as medications, insect bites, food allergies, or exposure to certain chemicals. Urticaria is typically a result of the release of histamine and other chemicals in response to an allergen, leading to the characteristic skin rash. While anaphylaxis, angioneurotic edema, and asthma are also allergic reactions, urticaria is the most common presentation.

Submit
196. In oral surgeries needle used is:

Explanation

In oral surgeries, different types of needles may be used depending on the specific procedure and requirements. The 1/2, round needle is often used for tasks such as suturing soft tissues, while the 3/8th, reverse cutting needle is preferred for procedures where precise tissue penetration and closure are necessary, such as gum surgeries. Both types of needles offer distinct advantages and are chosen based on the surgeon's preference and the nature of the surgical intervention.

Submit
197. 48 hrs after extraction of impacted mandibular 3rd molar patient returns to your office complaining of moderate pain radiating to the ear. His temperature is 39 degree C. Swelling is minimal. The most probable diagnosis is:

Explanation

The most probable diagnosis in this case is postextraction alveolitis. This is indicated by the patient's complaint of moderate pain radiating to the ear, along with a temperature of 39 degrees Celsius. Postextraction alveolitis, also known as dry socket, is a common complication following the extraction of a tooth, particularly impacted third molars. It occurs when the blood clot that forms in the socket after extraction becomes dislodged or dissolves, exposing the underlying bone and nerves. This can result in severe pain and discomfort. The minimal swelling suggests that the infection has not spread to surrounding spaces, ruling out the other options.

Submit
198. All are the preventive measures of the patients with hypertension before dental procedure, except

Explanation

Sublingual administration of nifedipine is not a preventive measure for patients with hypertension before a dental procedure. Nifedipine is a medication used to treat high blood pressure, but sublingual administration is not recommended as a preventive measure in this context. The other options listed are all valid preventive measures for patients with hypertension before a dental procedure. Postponing the procedure if the blood pressure is too high is important to ensure the patient's safety. Premedication to control stress helps manage anxiety and reduce the risk of blood pressure spikes. Treating in the hospital for acute dental problems ensures that any complications can be addressed promptly.

Submit
199. The most serious complications of hypertension are all, except

Explanation

Hemorrhagic diathesis is not a serious complication of hypertension. Hypertensive encephalopathy, convulsions, and coma are all potential serious complications of hypertension. Hemorrhagic diathesis refers to a condition where there is a tendency to bleed excessively, which is not directly related to hypertension.

Submit
200. The people who are usually affected by allergic reactions from anxiolytic drugs are those who report the history of

Explanation

People who have a history of epilepsy are more likely to be affected by allergic reactions from anxiolytic drugs. Anxiolytic drugs are used to treat anxiety disorders, but they can have side effects that can trigger allergic reactions in some individuals. People with epilepsy may have a higher risk of experiencing these allergic reactions due to their underlying neurological condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of a patient's medical history, including epilepsy, when prescribing anxiolytic drugs to minimize the risk of adverse reactions.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 21, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 21, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 05, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Uhsdental
Cancel
  • All
    All (200)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
All are true about the preparation of surgeon before the surgical...
Longer the root the extraction is:
Dry socket:
Elective dental extraction on a patient who has had a MI, 2 months...
Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except
The low-risk group of having an infectious disease is
Anaphylaxis may present with all, except
Frequent site for occurrence of ameloblastoma is:
When a forcep is to be utilized for removal of tooth, the 1st...
Contributory factor to pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular 3rd...
While extracting maxillary 1st molar root is displaced into maxillary...
Symptoms of Hypertensive encephalopathy consist of all, except
The incorrect sentence about asthma is
All are infectious diseases, except
The precipitating factors of epilepsy are all, except
The third phase of epileptic seizure consists of all, except
Anaphylaxis may present with all, except
The basic requirements for a successful outcome of simple tooth...
What is the time to administer analgesic for controlling postoperative...
Among the following which is strongest stimulator to increase the...
Hypoglycemia may occur in patient taking insulin and undergoing...
In extraction of mandibular 3rd molars the main reason why the...
The bone cysts that are less than 2 cm in diameter can be treated by:
All are basic methods for sterilization of instruments, except
All are the instruments for removing bone, except
Indications of surgical tooth extraction are all, except
One step that does not belong to the steps of surgical extraction of...
Extraction of a tooth during acute infection:
Most important principle during extraction:
Best time of extraction in pregnancy is:
Impacted canine:
After surgery of 3rd molar, patches of anesthesia on chin is due to...
All are common about pain of angina pectoris, except
Angina Pectoris
All are true about hypertension, except
All are the preventive measures of the patients with hypertension...
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a...
The first phase of epileptic seizure lasts
The second phase of epileptic seizure presents with all, except
Allergy that is caused by the use of local anesthetics is usually due...
The incorrect fundamental rule concerning incision and flap is
What can you do after tooth extraction by surgery?
Indications of surgical tooth extraction are all, except
Drains are used for:
Diagnosis of dry socket is done by:
Which contact of tooth and forceps is not permissible?
A 25-year-old female patient complains of decreased mouth opening...
Contributory factor to pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular 3rd...
The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these...
The preferred position for the patients with congestive heart failure...
Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except
Chronic renal failure is
Incorrect sign or symptom of patients with tuberculosis is
The second phase of epileptic seizure is
The third phase of epileptic seizure is
The analgesics that is considered to be responsible for most allergic...
The incorrect fundamental rule concerning incision and flap is
Which one is not the basic principle of suturing technique?
Which number scalpel blade is universally useful for oral surgical...
Which of the following is the primary indication for performing a...
Displacement of root in maxillary sinus is most likely to happen...
A patient who is on aspirin therapy required a tooth extraction. Which...
Which of the following elevators fit well in operators hand and can be...
An absolute contraindication for extraction of teeth is:
In extraction best time to administer analgesic is:
Elevator can be used to advantage when?
Radiographs are useful in following cases, except:
Thyrotoxic patients present with all, except
For good wound healing in diabetic patients, the thing to avoid is
The incorrect preventive measure for patients with asthma is
The most common suturing technique is
The most common blade for small incisions, such as incising abscess is
Instructions for postoperative surgical procedures are all, except
Which of the following material is not used for packing of wounds?
A male is taking 60 mg of hydrocortisone daily on day of extraction...
Root tip elevator utilizes which principle:
Diagnosis of infection socket is done by:
During extraction of lower impacted right molar bone is removed:
A dentist planning to remove an impacted tooth will need which of the...
Contributory factor to pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular 3rd...
Creamy white suspension of keratin that appears like pus without an...
Expected surgical procedure most frequently indicated for odontogenic...
The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these...
The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a...
The incorrect preventive measure for the patients with hemorrhagic...
Thyrotoxic patients present with all, except
When asthma attacks, all are correct about the patient, except
The first phase of epileptic seizure is
One type that does not belong to allergic reactions is
Packages of instruments which are opened repeatedly must be sterilized...
Requirements of flap are:
Poor accessibility is main disadvantage of:
The soft tissue incision used to remove mandibular Tori should be...
The following is one of the advantage of catgut over plain suture:
For a patient undergoing anticoagulant therapy who requires...
The complication of using air-motor at 30,000 rpm for impacted molar...
Which of the following is most difficult impaction of 3rd molar?
Congestive heart failure
Diabetic hypoglycemia is characterized by all, except
The precipitating factors of epilepsy are all, except
The first phase of epileptic seizure presents with the following...
The phase that does not exist in epileptic seizure is
All are true about continuous suture, except
Indications of surgical tooth extraction are all, except
Best way to palpate submandibular gland is:
Rotatory movement is used for the extraction of:
Which of the following is relatively difficult tooth to extract?
Trismus following a lower molar extraction after 4 weeks will be due...
Reactionary hemorrhage is hemorrhage after surgery that occurs:
One day after complete mouth extraction blue black spots are seen on...
Bleeding caused in extraction socket due to wound sepsis after few...
Principle action of ammonia in syncope is as:
Chair position during extraction of maxillary teeth should be:
During extraction priorities should be given to all, except:
Cyst commonly found between lateral upper incisor and canine is:
Cyst formed ever an erupting tooth:
Painful symptoms of angina pectoris can accompany with all, except
All are characteristics of myocardial infarction, except
Cardiac arrhythmia
All are true about continuous suture, except
The most common blade for incisions in the gingival sulcus and...
Difficulties of extracting maxillary canines are all, except
Instructions for postoperative surgical procedures are all, except
Which of the following lesion has no epithelial lining?
Reactionary haemorrhage occurs after extraction because of:
Use of medical history in extraction patient is:
The ideal treatment of alveolar osteitis after dental extraction is:
Beaks of mandibular tooth forceps are at an angle of _________ to...
A dentist planning to remove an impacted tooth will need which of the...
The direction of bevel of the chisel during bone cutting is:
The most common impacted teeth is:
The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a...
False information about myocardial infarction is
Pain of myocardial infarction can radiate to all region, except
Patients with controlled diabetes require
All are true about epilepsy, except
The incorrect fundamental rule concerning incision and flap is
All of the following are absorbable suture material except:
In patient of liver disease, possible complication during extraction...
Cowhorn forcep are specially designed to extract:
While extracting mandibular third molar, it is noted that distal root...
Which is the best treatment for pericoronitis involving impacted...
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step...
Which of the following is not an advantage of marsupilization?
According to the pathogenic mechanism, the one that is not the group...
The safest vasoconstrictor for patients with hyperthyroidism is...
All are various surgical techniques for root removal, except
Vicryl is an:
Which of the following is early sign of need of oxygen?
Surgical needle and sutures are usually sterilized in manufacturing...
Basic principles of extraction are all except:
While using elevators, fulcrum is taken from:
Which is the best treatment for pericoronitis involving impacted...
Most desirable incision while designing of a flap is:
All are correct about diabetes mellitus, except
Stenosis of ducts of small bronchi and bronchioles in the patient of...
All are correct about what to do with active tuberculosis patients,...
The most dangerous type of allergic reactions is
All are true about extraction technique using tooth forceps, except
Among the following which one elicits more tissue reaction?
Which teeth is extracted standing in-front the patient?
The only tooth to be extracted by primary rotatory movements is:
Commonest complication after removal of mandibular third molar:
During extraction of a maxillary molar a root tip is displaced inside...
In oro-antral communication most communication occurs during...
All are true about the reflection of mucoperiosteum, except
When there is a fractured root of a tooth, it is not good to
In periodontal surgeries needle used is:
A patient who is on anticoagulant therapy required a tooth extraction....
Which teeth are extracted standing behind the patient?
Chair position during extraction of mandibular teeth should be...
Which of the following is most difficult impaction of 3rd molar?
5 days after extraction of an impacted mandibular 3rd molar, your...
Chair position during extraction of maxillary teeth should be...
During multiple extractions, it should be done in sequence of:
An oro-antral communication during extraction:
Thyrotoxic patients present with all, except
Anaphylaxis may present with all, except
For pregnant patients, the most risks for dental procedure are noted...
All are necessary preventive measures for the surgical procedure on...
Elevators should be forced down the PDL at an angle of ___________ to...
The pain of myocardial infarction may be associated with all, except
The sign that does not exist in second phase of epilepsy is
All of the following are non-absorbable suture except:
The extraction of which of the following is most difficult in...
The most appropriate method to differentiate between a dentigerous...
The first phase of epileptic seizure presents with the following...
All are preventive measures for the epileptic patients to avoid...
The most common blade used for flap and incision on edentulous...
All are true about extraction technique using tooth forceps, except
Precipitating factors of angina pectoris are all, except
Myocardial infarction
Diabetic hyperglycemia is characterized by all, except
The recommended time for dental surgery for a patient who used to...
The most common allergic reaction is
In oral surgeries needle used is:
48 hrs after extraction of impacted mandibular 3rd molar patient...
All are the preventive measures of the patients with hypertension...
The most serious complications of hypertension are all, except
The people who are usually affected by allergic reactions from...
Alert!

Advertisement