3D151 Set 2 Vol 2 Edit Code 02
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
(201) What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?
- A.
Remedy.
- B.
Remedy new.
- C.
Remedy user.
- D.
Remedy ticket.
Correct Answer
C. Remedy user.Explanation
To create a new ticket, you must use the Remedy user tool. This tool is specifically designed for users to access and utilize the Remedy system for tasks such as creating new tickets. The other options listed, Remedy, Remedy new, and Remedy ticket, do not specify the user tool and may not provide the necessary functionality to create a new ticket.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?
- A.
Software or hardware.
- B.
Software and equipment.
- C.
Application or hardware.
- D.
Application and equipment.
Correct Answer
A. Software or hardware.Explanation
The correct answer is "Software or hardware." In Remedy, there are two types of forms used depending on the problem type. These forms can be either related to software or hardware. This suggests that Remedy is a system or platform that deals with both software and hardware issues, allowing users to submit and track problem tickets related to these two categories.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(201) In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?
- A.
A resolution group only.
- B.
A specific technician only.
- C.
Remedy automatically assigns tickets.
- D.
A resolution group or specific technician.
Correct Answer
D. A resolution group or specific technician.Explanation
In Remedy, tickets to fix problems can be assigned either to a resolution group or to a specific technician. This means that the responsibility for resolving issues can be shared among a group of individuals or assigned to a particular technician.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(201) The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces what system throughout the maintenance complex?
- A.
Reliability and Maintainability System (REMIS).
- B.
Telephone Management System.
- C.
Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
- D.
Remedy.
Correct Answer
C. Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).Explanation
The correct answer is Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). The question is asking about the system that the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces throughout the maintenance complex. The answer is SBSS, as the IMDS interface with ES-S replaces the SBSS system.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(201) Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?
- A.
Automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes.
- B.
Function as a common interactive interface for other systems.
- C.
Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.
- D.
Provide status and inventory data.
Correct Answer
C. Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.Explanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) performs various functions such as automating equipment history, scheduling, and other processes. It also functions as a common interactive interface for other systems, providing status and inventory data. However, it does not roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level. This means that the IMDS does not aggregate or collect logistics data from lower levels and transmit it to the Air Force level for analysis or decision-making purposes.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(201) The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the
- A.
Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
- B.
Telecommunications Management System (TMS).
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
- D.
Automated Information System (AIS).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). This is because the question asks for the online database program that is a part of a specific system, and AFEMS is the only system mentioned in the options. Therefore, it can be inferred that AIMS is a part of AFEMS.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(201) Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?
- A.
Weapons.
- B.
Support.
- C.
Telephone.
- D.
Communications.
Correct Answer
D. Communications.Explanation
The correct answer is Communications. The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used by the Air Force to track and manage their assets. In this context, "assets" refer to the various equipment and resources that the Air Force possesses. Out of the given options, "Communications" is the most appropriate answer as it represents a crucial aspect of the Air Force's operations. AIMS would be used to track and manage communication assets such as radios, satellites, and other communication equipment.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(201) The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?
- A.
Access database at Randolph Air Force Base (AFB).
- B.
Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
- C.
Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
- D.
Oracle database at Randolph AFB.
Correct Answer
C. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.Explanation
The correct answer is Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB. This means that the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes an Oracle database and is located at Wright-Patterson Air Force Base (AFB).Rate this question:
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- 9.
(202) Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?
- A.
Defense Courier Service.
- B.
Protected distribution system.
- C.
Communications security equipment.
- D.
Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System.
Correct Answer
A. Defense Courier Service.Explanation
The Defense Courier Service is not a means for secure telecommunications. It is a system used for the physical transportation of classified and sensitive materials, rather than for secure communication. The other options, such as the protected distribution system, communications security equipment, and intrusion detection optical communications system, are all methods that provide secure telecommunications by encrypting, protecting, or detecting unauthorized access to communication channels.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(202) In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?
- A.
Encrypted classified.
- B.
Encrypted unclassified.
- C.
Unencrypted classified.
- D.
Unencrypted unclassified.
Correct Answer
C. Unencrypted classified.Explanation
In the RED/BLACK concept, RED lines carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that the information being transmitted over these lines is classified but not encrypted, making it potentially vulnerable to interception or unauthorized access. The RED lines are used to transmit sensitive information that requires a higher level of security and protection.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(202) In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?
- A.
Encrypted classified or unclassified.
- B.
Encrypted classified only.
- C.
Unencrypted classified.
- D.
Unclassified only.
Correct Answer
A. Encrypted classified or unclassified.Explanation
The correct answer is "Encrypted classified or unclassified." In the RED/BLACK concept, BLACK lines carry traffic that can be either encrypted or unencrypted, and can include both classified and unclassified information. This means that the BLACK lines can handle a wide range of secure communications, regardless of the classification level.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(202) Which two parts does the RED/BLACK concept have?
- A.
Physical separation and electromagnetic separation.
- B.
Electromagnetic separation and electrical separation.
- C.
Physical separation and electrical separation.
- D.
Physical separation and emission separation.
Correct Answer
C. Physical separation and electrical separation.Explanation
The RED/BLACK concept involves two parts: physical separation and electrical separation. Physical separation refers to the physical isolation of networks or systems, ensuring that they are physically separated and cannot directly communicate with each other. Electrical separation, on the other hand, involves the use of security measures such as firewalls and access controls to prevent unauthorized communication between networks or systems. This combination of physical and electrical separation helps to enhance the security and integrity of sensitive information and systems.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(202) What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?
- A.
Eliminate all instances of radiation of electrical impulses.
- B.
Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.
- C.
Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses.
- D.
Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses.
Correct Answer
B. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.Explanation
The purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. This program aims to prevent the unintentional leaking of electromagnetic signals that could be intercepted and used to gather sensitive information. By implementing TEMPEST standards, organizations can ensure that their electronic equipment and systems are properly shielded and protected from electromagnetic emissions, thus reducing the risk of information leakage and unauthorized access to sensitive data.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(202) What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?
- A.
Communications security.
- B.
Transmission security.
- C.
Emission security.
- D.
Computer security.
Correct Answer
C. Emission security.Explanation
The Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force is called Emission security. This program focuses on preventing unauthorized access to classified information by analyzing and mitigating the unintentional electromagnetic radiation emitted by electronic equipment. By implementing measures to reduce these emissions, the Air Force ensures that sensitive information is protected from potential eavesdropping or interception.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(202) What area is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control where unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?
- A.
Controlled access area (CAA).
- B.
Restricted access area (RAA).
- C.
Limited control area (LCA).
- D.
Uncontrolled access area (UAA).
Correct Answer
A. Controlled access area (CAA).Explanation
A controlled access area (CAA) is an area that is under direct physical control, meaning that unauthorized individuals are not allowed unrestricted access. In a CAA, unauthorized persons are either escorted by authorized individuals or are continuously monitored through physical or electronic surveillance. This ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the area, increasing security and preventing unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(202) Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?
- A.
Communications security.
- B.
Line route or visual.
- C.
Separation.
- D.
Electrical.
Correct Answer
B. Line route or visual.Explanation
Protected distribution systems (PDS) are designed to secure and protect sensitive communications and information. These systems require scheduled inspections to ensure their integrity and effectiveness. Line route or visual inspections involve physically examining the PDS infrastructure, such as cables, conduits, and pathways, to detect any signs of tampering, damage, or unauthorized access. This type of inspection helps identify potential vulnerabilities and allows for prompt corrective actions to maintain the security of the system. Therefore, line route or visual inspections are essential for the proper functioning and security of protected distribution systems.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(202) Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in which log?
- A.
Emission security (EMSEC).
- B.
Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST).
- C.
Inspection.
- D.
Protected Distribution Systems (PDS).
Correct Answer
D. Protected Distribution Systems (PDS).Explanation
The correct answer is Protected Distribution Systems (PDS). This is because PDS events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in the log of Protected Distribution Systems.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(202) A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the
- A.
Total surface.
- B.
Visible area.
- C.
Concealed area.
- D.
Observable area.
Correct Answer
A. Total surface.Explanation
A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) requires a close visual inspection of the total surface. This means that every part of the surface, whether it is visible or concealed, needs to be thoroughly examined. The inspection should cover all areas that can be seen and those that cannot be easily observed, ensuring that the entire surface is inspected for any potential issues or damages.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(203) What are the two different types of current used for power?
- A.
100 v (volts) and 210 v.
- B.
105 v and 215 v.
- C.
110 v and 220 v.
- D.
115 v and 225 v.
Correct Answer
C. 110 v and 220 v.Explanation
The correct answer is 110 v and 220 v. These two values represent the standard voltages used for power in most countries. 110 v is commonly used in North America, while 220 v is used in many other parts of the world. The difference in voltage is due to variations in electrical systems and regulations. It is important to note that the voltage used can vary in different regions and specific applications, but 110 v and 220 v are the most commonly used values for power supply.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(203) What are the two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)?
- A.
Storage batteries or a power wheel.
- B.
Storage batteries or a flywheel.
- C.
Batteries or a power wheel.
- D.
Batteries or a flywheel.
Correct Answer
D. Batteries or a flywheel.Explanation
The two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) are batteries or a flywheel. Batteries are commonly used in UPS systems as they can store large amounts of energy and provide power for an extended period of time. Flywheels, on the other hand, store energy in a rotating mass and can quickly release that energy when needed. Both options are effective in providing backup power during power outages or fluctuations.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(203) Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?
- A.
Storage batteries.
- B.
Power wheel.
- C.
Flywheel.
- D.
Batteries.
Correct Answer
C. Flywheel.Explanation
Flywheel UPS systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. Unlike storage batteries, which store electrical energy chemically and can provide power for a limited period of time, flywheels store kinetic energy in a rotating mass and can provide continuous power for a longer duration. Flywheel UPS systems are known for their high energy density, fast response time, and longer lifespan compared to battery-based UPS systems. They are often preferred for applications that require uninterrupted power supply for critical equipment or processes.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(203) Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?
- A.
The office power requirements.
- B.
The amount of floor space available.
- C.
Future subscriber growth and reserve time required.
- D.
The number of alternating current converters in the office.
Correct Answer
D. The number of alternating current converters in the office.Explanation
When selecting storage batteries for the central office, the number of alternating current converters in the office is not a consideration. Storage batteries are chosen based on factors such as the office power requirements, the amount of floor space available, and future subscriber growth and reserve time required. The number of alternating current converters in the office is unrelated to the selection of storage batteries.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(203) In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or
- A.
Turbine batteries.
- B.
A turbine engine.
- C.
An engine.
- D.
Batteries.
Correct Answer
B. A turbine engine.Explanation
The correct answer is a turbine engine. In electrical power equipment, the generator can be powered by either a reciprocating engine or a turbine engine. However, the question specifically asks for the type of generator in relation to the power equipment, and since batteries are not typically considered as a type of generator in this context, the correct answer is a turbine engine.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(203) Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?
- A.
Diesel.
- B.
Gasoline.
- C.
Fossil fuel.
- D.
Liquid petroleum.
Correct Answer
C. Fossil fuel.Explanation
The correct answer is fossil fuel. Fossil fuel is a general term that includes coal, oil, and natural gas. Reciprocating generators typically use diesel or gasoline as fuel sources, while liquid petroleum can also be used. However, fossil fuel is not a specific type of fuel and encompasses all of these options. Therefore, it is not used exclusively for reciprocating generators.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(204) Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?
- A.
Production work center or communication squadron.
- B.
Production work center or contractor.
- C.
Communications squadron.
- D.
Production work center.
Correct Answer
B. Production work center or contractor.Explanation
Once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete, the responsibility for life-cycle maintenance falls on the production work center or contractor. This means that either the production work center or the contractor will be in charge of maintaining and managing the equipment throughout its life cycle, ensuring its proper functioning and addressing any issues or repairs that may arise.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(204) The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as
- A.
Configuration.
- B.
Configuration item.
- C.
Configuration control.
- D.
Configuration identification.
Correct Answer
C. Configuration control.Explanation
Configuration control refers to the process of reviewing and approving all approved changes in the configuration. It ensures that any changes made to the configuration are properly evaluated, documented, and authorized. This helps in maintaining the integrity and consistency of the configuration and ensures that all changes are made in a controlled and regulated manner. Configuration control is an essential part of configuration management and helps in effectively managing and controlling changes to the configuration.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(204) Which one of these requires the use of the latest technical order (TO) information listed?
- A.
Configuration.
- B.
Configuration item.
- C.
Configuration control.
- D.
Configuration identification.
Correct Answer
B. Configuration item.Explanation
Configuration item refers to an individual component or element of a system that needs to be managed and controlled. In order to effectively manage and control a configuration item, it is necessary to have the latest technical order (TO) information listed. This information includes updates, revisions, and changes to the configuration item, which are crucial for ensuring its proper functioning and compatibility with other system components. Therefore, the use of the latest TO information is required for managing and maintaining a configuration item effectively.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(204) Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?
- A.
Identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.
- B.
Record and report change processing and implementation status.
- C.
Control changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.
- D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above.Explanation
The correct answer is "All of the above." This is because all three statements pertain to configuration management. The first statement involves identifying and documenting the characteristics of a Configuration Item (CI), which is a fundamental aspect of configuration management. The second statement involves recording and reporting change processing and implementation status, which is essential for tracking and managing changes to CIs. The third statement involves controlling changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI, which is a core responsibility of configuration management. Therefore, all three statements are relevant to configuration management.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(204) What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?
- A.
T–586 and T–586A.
- B.
T–586A and T–586B.
- C.
T–568 and T–568A.
- D.
T–568A and T–568B.
Correct Answer
D. T–568A and T–568B.Explanation
The correct answer is T-568A and T-568B. These are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6) cables. These standards define the pin assignments for the eight wires in the Ethernet cable, ensuring that the cables are properly connected and can transmit data effectively. T-568A and T-568B are both widely used in networking and telecommunications industries.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(204) Permanent markings can be completed by how many different methods?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
Correct Answer
B. 2.Explanation
Permanent markings can be completed by two different methods.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(205) What publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts?
- A.
Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) 8502, Organizational Computer Security.
- B.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management.
- C.
AFI 33–201, Communications Security (COMSEC).
- D.
AFSSI 7700, Emission Security.
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management. This publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(205) What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account?
- A.
Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings.
- B.
Mailbox rights.
- C.
Mailbox security.
- D.
Custom attributes.
Correct Answer
C. Mailbox security.Explanation
Mailbox security is the correct answer because it is the exchange tab used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account. This tab allows administrators to manage the permissions and access rights for user accounts, including the ability to delegate mailbox access and control who can send or receive emails on behalf of another user. By configuring the mailbox security settings, administrators can ensure that only authorized users have the necessary permissions to access and manage specific mailboxes.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(205) What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account?
- A.
Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings.
- B.
Mailbox rights.
- C.
Mailbox security.
- D.
Custom attributes.
Correct Answer
B. Mailbox rights.Explanation
The correct answer is Mailbox rights. In Exchange, mailbox rights are used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account. These permissions include the ability to access and manage the mailbox, as well as perform specific actions such as sending emails on behalf of the mailbox owner or managing mailbox folders. The Exchange administrator can grant or revoke these rights to ensure proper access control and security for the mailbox.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(205) Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account?
- A.
The user’s e-mail will be deleted from the Exchange server.
- B.
Restoring deleted e-mail requires proper justification.
- C.
The wrong account could be deleted.
- D.
Restoring deleted e-mail is difficult.
Correct Answer
C. The wrong account could be deleted.Explanation
Extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account because the wrong account could be deleted. This means that if someone is not careful, they may accidentally delete the wrong e-mail account, resulting in the loss of important emails and data. This highlights the importance of being cautious and double-checking before deleting any e-mail account to avoid any irreversible mistakes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(205) What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user’s domain account is deleted?
- A.
Changed.
- B.
Deleted.
- C.
Updated.
- D.
Reviewed.
Correct Answer
B. Deleted.Explanation
When a user's domain account is deleted, their email account is also deleted. This means that all the emails, contacts, and other data associated with that account will no longer be accessible. Deleting the domain account effectively removes the user's access to the email account and removes it from the system.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(206) (205) How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
Correct Answer
A. 1.Explanation
In Directory and Resource Administrator (DRA), only one object can be manipulated at a time. This means that any changes or modifications made to an object must be done individually and cannot be applied to multiple objects simultaneously. This ensures that each object is treated and managed separately, allowing for better control and accuracy in the administration process.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(207) When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?
- A.
The analog signal.
- B.
The digital signal.
- C.
The multiplexed signal.
- D.
The sender’s private key.
Correct Answer
B. The digital signal.Explanation
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. STE is designed to provide secure communication by encrypting the digital data being transmitted. This encryption ensures that the information remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access or interception. Encrypting the digital signal adds an additional layer of security to prevent any potential breaches or data compromises during transmission.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(207) What components are used in both encryption and decryption?
- A.
Algorithm and key.
- B.
Certificate and key.
- C.
Telephone and receiver.
- D.
Algorithm and certificate.
Correct Answer
A. Algorithm and key.Explanation
In both encryption and decryption processes, two components are used: algorithm and key. The algorithm is a set of rules and instructions that determine how the encryption or decryption is performed, while the key is a specific value or parameter that is used in conjunction with the algorithm to encrypt or decrypt the data. The algorithm defines the mathematical operations and transformations applied to the data, while the key provides the necessary information to control and modify the algorithm's behavior. Thus, both algorithm and key are essential components in ensuring secure and effective encryption and decryption processes.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(207) What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?
- A.
Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-secret key system.
- B.
Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-secret key system.
- C.
Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system.
- D.
Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-public key system.
Correct Answer
C. Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system.Explanation
The correct answer is "Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system." Cryptology refers to the study and practice of techniques used to secure communication and data. In symmetric-key systems, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption. This means that both the sender and receiver need to have the same key. On the other hand, in asymmetric-key systems, a pair of keys is used - a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The public key can be freely distributed, while the private key remains secret. Therefore, the correct answer is symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(207) What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?
- A.
Speed.
- B.
Storage.
- C.
Security.
- D.
Standards.
Correct Answer
A. Speed.Explanation
Symmetric cryptology offers the advantage of speed. This means that the encryption and decryption processes using symmetric algorithms are faster compared to other types of cryptology. This is because symmetric cryptology uses a single key for both encryption and decryption, eliminating the need for complex mathematical operations. As a result, it is commonly used in scenarios where speed is crucial, such as secure communication systems and real-time data encryption.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(207) Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?
- A.
Symmetric.
- B.
Asymmetric.
- C.
Diametric.
- D.
None of the above, they are all the same.
Correct Answer
B. Asymmetric.Explanation
Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because asymmetric encryption involves the use of a pair of keys, one for encryption and another for decryption, which requires more computational resources and time to perform the encryption and decryption processes. On the other hand, symmetric encryption uses a single key for both encryption and decryption, making it faster and more efficient in terms of processing power and time. Diametric is not a relevant term in the context of cryptology systems.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(207) In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the Web server give to the browser?
- A.
Its public key.
- B.
Its private key.
- C.
Its public certificate.
- D.
Its private certificate.
Correct Answer
A. Its public key.Explanation
In secure socket layer (SSL), the web server gives its public key to the browser before an encrypted transaction takes place. This is because SSL uses public key cryptography, where the server's public key is used to encrypt the data, ensuring secure communication between the server and the browser. The browser then uses the server's public key to encrypt the session key, which is used for symmetric encryption during the transaction.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(207) What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time?
- A.
Stream algorithms and block ciphers.
- B.
Secure algorithms and block ciphers.
- C.
Block algorithms and stream ciphers.
- D.
Block algorithms and secure ciphers.
Correct Answer
C. Block algorithms and stream ciphers.Explanation
Block algorithms and stream ciphers are the two major types of encryption algorithms that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time. Block algorithms divide the input data into fixed-sized blocks and process each block independently, while stream ciphers encrypt or decrypt data one bit or one byte at a time. These algorithms are widely used in modern cryptography for securing data transmission and storage.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(207) How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?
- A.
64.
- B.
128.
- C.
192.
- D.
256.
Correct Answer
A. 64.Explanation
The correct answer is 64. The Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses a 64-bit key for encryption. This means that the key used to encrypt and decrypt the data is 64 bits in length. DES is a symmetric encryption algorithm, which means that the same key is used for both encryption and decryption. The use of a 64-bit key provides a relatively high level of security, but it has become less secure over time due to advances in computing power and cryptanalysis techniques.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(207) Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
Correct Answer
C. 3.Explanation
Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption, namely, encryption, decryption, and encryption. Each operation requires an individual key. Therefore, Triple DES incorporates the use of three individual keys.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(207) Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?
- A.
Narrowband.
- B.
Network.
- C.
Bulk.
- D.
Open.
Correct Answer
D. Open.Explanation
Open encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type because it refers to encryption methods that are publicly available and accessible to anyone. It does not involve any specific protocols or algorithms used in telecommunications encryption. Narrowband, network, and bulk encryption, on the other hand, are all types of encryption that are commonly used in telecommunications to secure data transmission over networks.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(207) Which encryption handles data that can come from equipment such as computers?
- A.
Wideband.
- B.
Narrowband.
- C.
Network.
- D.
Bulk.
Correct Answer
A. Wideband.Explanation
Wideband encryption is the correct answer because it is designed to handle data that can come from equipment such as computers. Wideband encryption refers to a type of encryption that can handle a wide range of data frequencies, making it suitable for encrypting data from various sources, including computers and other equipment. This type of encryption is commonly used to protect sensitive information and ensure secure communication between different devices and systems. Narrowband encryption, network encryption, and bulk encryption are not specifically tailored to handle data from computers and equipment, making them incorrect choices.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(207) Which encryption handles multiplexed lines that come from combining multiple single data and voice lines into one?
- A.
Bulk.
- B.
Network.
- C.
Wideband.
- D.
Narrowband.
Correct Answer
A. Bulk.Explanation
Bulk encryption is the correct answer because it is designed to handle multiplexed lines that combine multiple single data and voice lines into one. Bulk encryption is typically used in scenarios where large amounts of data need to be encrypted and transmitted efficiently over a network. It allows for the encryption and decryption of multiple data streams simultaneously, making it suitable for handling multiplexed lines. Network encryption, on the other hand, focuses on securing communication between different networks, while wideband and narrowband refer to the frequency ranges used for communication and are not specifically related to handling multiplexed lines.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(207) Which encryption handles software encryption?
- A.
Narrowband.
- B.
Wideband.
- C.
Network.
- D.
Bulk.
Correct Answer
C. Network.Explanation
The correct answer is "Network" because network encryption refers to the process of encrypting data while it is being transmitted over a network. This type of encryption is typically implemented in software and is used to secure data as it travels between devices or across the internet. Narrowband, wideband, and bulk do not specifically refer to encryption methods used in software encryption.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(208) Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information and to ensure
- A.
Authenticity.
- B.
Compliance.
- C.
Integrity.
- D.
Validity.
Correct Answer
A. Authenticity.Explanation
Communications security (COMSEC) refers to the protective measures and controls implemented to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing information and to guarantee the genuineness of the information. It focuses on ensuring that the communication is authentic and has not been tampered with or altered by unauthorized parties. Compliance refers to adhering to rules and regulations, integrity refers to the accuracy and consistency of data, and validity refers to the correctness and legitimacy of information. However, in the context of COMSEC, the primary concern is to establish the authenticity of the communication.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 15, 2019Quiz Created by
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