3D151 Set 2 Vol 2 Edit Code 02

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (201) In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?

    • A resolution group only.
    • A specific technician only.
    • Remedy automatically assigns tickets.
    • A resolution group or specific technician.
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3D151 Set 2 Vol 2 Edit Code 02 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (201) Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?

    • Weapons.

    • Support.

    • Telephone.

    • Communications.

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Communications. The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used by the Air Force to track and manage their assets. In this context, "assets" refer to the various equipment and resources that the Air Force possesses. Out of the given options, "Communications" is the most appropriate answer as it represents a crucial aspect of the Air Force's operations. AIMS would be used to track and manage communication assets such as radios, satellites, and other communication equipment.

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  • 3. 

    (202) What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?

    • Eliminate all instances of radiation of electrical impulses.

    • Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.

    • Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses.

    • Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. This program aims to prevent the unintentional leaking of electromagnetic signals that could be intercepted and used to gather sensitive information. By implementing TEMPEST standards, organizations can ensure that their electronic equipment and systems are properly shielded and protected from electromagnetic emissions, thus reducing the risk of information leakage and unauthorized access to sensitive data.

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  • 4. 

    (202) What area is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control where unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?

    • Controlled access area (CAA).

    • Restricted access area (RAA).

    • Limited control area (LCA).

    • Uncontrolled access area (UAA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled access area (CAA).
    Explanation
    A controlled access area (CAA) is an area that is under direct physical control, meaning that unauthorized individuals are not allowed unrestricted access. In a CAA, unauthorized persons are either escorted by authorized individuals or are continuously monitored through physical or electronic surveillance. This ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the area, increasing security and preventing unauthorized access.

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  • 5. 

    (203) What are the two different types of current used for power?

    • 100 v (volts) and 210 v.

    • 105 v and 215 v.

    • 110 v and 220 v.

    • 115 v and 225 v.

    Correct Answer
    A. 110 v and 220 v.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 110 v and 220 v. These two values represent the standard voltages used for power in most countries. 110 v is commonly used in North America, while 220 v is used in many other parts of the world. The difference in voltage is due to variations in electrical systems and regulations. It is important to note that the voltage used can vary in different regions and specific applications, but 110 v and 220 v are the most commonly used values for power supply.

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  • 6. 

    (203) Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?

    • Diesel.

    • Gasoline.

    • Fossil fuel.

    • Liquid petroleum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fossil fuel.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is fossil fuel. Fossil fuel is a general term that includes coal, oil, and natural gas. Reciprocating generators typically use diesel or gasoline as fuel sources, while liquid petroleum can also be used. However, fossil fuel is not a specific type of fuel and encompasses all of these options. Therefore, it is not used exclusively for reciprocating generators.

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  • 7. 

    (204) Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?

    • Identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.

    • Record and report change processing and implementation status.

    • Control changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." This is because all three statements pertain to configuration management. The first statement involves identifying and documenting the characteristics of a Configuration Item (CI), which is a fundamental aspect of configuration management. The second statement involves recording and reporting change processing and implementation status, which is essential for tracking and managing changes to CIs. The third statement involves controlling changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI, which is a core responsibility of configuration management. Therefore, all three statements are relevant to configuration management.

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  • 8. 

    (205) What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user’s domain account is deleted?

    • Changed.

    • Deleted.

    • Updated.

    • Reviewed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deleted.
    Explanation
    When a user's domain account is deleted, their email account is also deleted. This means that all the emails, contacts, and other data associated with that account will no longer be accessible. Deleting the domain account effectively removes the user's access to the email account and removes it from the system.

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  • 9. 

    (207) What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?

    • Speed.

    • Storage.

    • Security.

    • Standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Speed.
    Explanation
    Symmetric cryptology offers the advantage of speed. This means that the encryption and decryption processes using symmetric algorithms are faster compared to other types of cryptology. This is because symmetric cryptology uses a single key for both encryption and decryption, eliminating the need for complex mathematical operations. As a result, it is commonly used in scenarios where speed is crucial, such as secure communication systems and real-time data encryption.

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  • 10. 

    (208) Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

    • AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log.

    • AF Form 1119, Monthly Monetary Records.

    • AF Form 1019, Armament Recording Program Mission Data.

    • AF Form 1122, Personal Property and Personal Effects Inventory.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log. This form is used to record visitors into restricted areas. It serves as a register log to keep track of who enters and exits these areas for security purposes.

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  • 11. 

    (210) What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs personal wireless communications system (PWCS) management?

    • 17–100.

    • 21–116.

    • 17–210.

    • 33–118.

    Correct Answer
    A. 17–210.
  • 12. 

    (210) Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

    • Briefs users on the proper use of PWCS equipment.

    • Implements unit-level customer education program.

    • Turns in excess equipment over to the base PWCS manager.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager is responsible for several tasks. They brief users on the proper use of PWCS equipment, ensuring that everyone understands how to use the system effectively. They also implement a unit-level customer education program, which involves educating users on the features and benefits of PWCS. Additionally, the PWCS manager turns in excess equipment over to the base PWCS manager, ensuring that any unnecessary equipment is properly handled. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 13. 

    (214) What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

    • Addresses.

    • Codes.

    • Labels.

    • Packets.

    Correct Answer
    A. Packets.
    Explanation
    When making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), the voice messages are encoded into packets. VoIP technology breaks down the voice data into small packets, which are then transmitted over the internet or an IP network. These packets contain the encoded voice data along with necessary information such as source and destination addresses. This packet-based transmission allows for efficient and reliable voice communication over IP networks.

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  • 14. 

    (216) Which does not fit the “Peaceful Purposes” clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system?

    • Military use, involving armed conflict.

    • Armed forces use, relating to the protection of the wounded.

    • United Nations (UN) peacekeeping use, acting under the auspices of the UN Security Council.

    • Armed forces use, protecting itself against armed attack within the limitations of UN charter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Military use, involving armed conflict.
    Explanation
    The "Peaceful Purposes" clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system implies that the system should be used for non-violent and non-aggressive purposes. Military use involving armed conflict goes against this clause as it involves the use of force and aggression. The other options mentioned, such as armed forces use for protecting the wounded, UN peacekeeping use, and armed forces use for self-defense within the limitations of the UN charter, can all be considered as non-aggressive and non-violent uses in line with the "Peaceful Purposes" clause.

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  • 15. 

    (201) The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?

    • Access database at Randolph Air Force Base (AFB).

    • Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

    • Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

    • Oracle database at Randolph AFB.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB. This means that the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes an Oracle database and is located at Wright-Patterson Air Force Base (AFB).

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  • 16. 

    (202) In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?

    • Encrypted classified or unclassified.

    • Encrypted classified only.

    • Unencrypted classified.

    • Unclassified only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Encrypted classified or unclassified.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Encrypted classified or unclassified." In the RED/BLACK concept, BLACK lines carry traffic that can be either encrypted or unencrypted, and can include both classified and unclassified information. This means that the BLACK lines can handle a wide range of secure communications, regardless of the classification level.

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  • 17. 

    (202) Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?

    • Communications security.

    • Line route or visual.

    • Separation.

    • Electrical.

    Correct Answer
    A. Line route or visual.
    Explanation
    Protected distribution systems (PDS) are designed to secure and protect sensitive communications and information. These systems require scheduled inspections to ensure their integrity and effectiveness. Line route or visual inspections involve physically examining the PDS infrastructure, such as cables, conduits, and pathways, to detect any signs of tampering, damage, or unauthorized access. This type of inspection helps identify potential vulnerabilities and allows for prompt corrective actions to maintain the security of the system. Therefore, line route or visual inspections are essential for the proper functioning and security of protected distribution systems.

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  • 18. 

    (204) The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as

    • Configuration.

    • Configuration item.

    • Configuration control.

    • Configuration identification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration control.
    Explanation
    Configuration control refers to the process of reviewing and approving all approved changes in the configuration. It ensures that any changes made to the configuration are properly evaluated, documented, and authorized. This helps in maintaining the integrity and consistency of the configuration and ensures that all changes are made in a controlled and regulated manner. Configuration control is an essential part of configuration management and helps in effectively managing and controlling changes to the configuration.

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  • 19. 

    (206) (205) How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    In Directory and Resource Administrator (DRA), only one object can be manipulated at a time. This means that any changes or modifications made to an object must be done individually and cannot be applied to multiple objects simultaneously. This ensures that each object is treated and managed separately, allowing for better control and accuracy in the administration process.

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  • 20. 

    (207) What components are used in both encryption and decryption?

    • Algorithm and key.

    • Certificate and key.

    • Telephone and receiver.

    • Algorithm and certificate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Algorithm and key.
    Explanation
    In both encryption and decryption processes, two components are used: algorithm and key. The algorithm is a set of rules and instructions that determine how the encryption or decryption is performed, while the key is a specific value or parameter that is used in conjunction with the algorithm to encrypt or decrypt the data. The algorithm defines the mathematical operations and transformations applied to the data, while the key provides the necessary information to control and modify the algorithm's behavior. Thus, both algorithm and key are essential components in ensuring secure and effective encryption and decryption processes.

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  • 21. 

    (207) Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

    • Symmetric.

    • Asymmetric.

    • Diametric.

    • None of the above, they are all the same.

    Correct Answer
    A. Asymmetric.
    Explanation
    Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because asymmetric encryption involves the use of a pair of keys, one for encryption and another for decryption, which requires more computational resources and time to perform the encryption and decryption processes. On the other hand, symmetric encryption uses a single key for both encryption and decryption, making it faster and more efficient in terms of processing power and time. Diametric is not a relevant term in the context of cryptology systems.

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  • 22. 

    (208) Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information and to ensure

    • Authenticity.

    • Compliance.

    • Integrity.

    • Validity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Authenticity.
    Explanation
    Communications security (COMSEC) refers to the protective measures and controls implemented to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing information and to guarantee the genuineness of the information. It focuses on ensuring that the communication is authentic and has not been tampered with or altered by unauthorized parties. Compliance refers to adhering to rules and regulations, integrity refers to the accuracy and consistency of data, and validity refers to the correctness and legitimacy of information. However, in the context of COMSEC, the primary concern is to establish the authenticity of the communication.

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  • 23. 

    (209) Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

    • Secure telephone unit (STU).

    • Cryptographic telephone (CT).

    • Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).

    • Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone).

    Correct Answer
    A. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). STE is a secure voice telephone that can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN). It provides encryption and authentication features to ensure secure communication. STU and CT are also secure voice telephones, but they are not specifically designed for ISDN. PGPfone is a software-based encryption tool and not a secure voice telephone.

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  • 24. 

    (209) The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro may be equipped to handle all types of networks except

    • Asynchronous transfer mode (ATM).

    • Gigabit Ethernet.

    • Fast Ethernet.

    • Wireless.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wireless.
    Explanation
    The TACLANE-Micro is capable of handling various types of networks, such as asynchronous transfer mode (ATM), gigabit Ethernet, and fast Ethernet. However, it is not equipped to handle wireless networks.

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  • 25. 

    (210) What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets?

    • Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).

    • Tracking and Reporting System.

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System.

    • Core Automated Maintenance System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS). AIMS is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets. This system helps in tracking and managing the inventory of PWCS assets, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and maintained. It provides a centralized platform for inventory control, making it easier for the Air Force to keep track of their PWCS assets and ensure their availability when needed.

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  • 26. 

    (210) What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems Security instructions (AFSSI), and Air Force manuals (AFMAN) do you use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS)?

    • AFI 17–210; AFI 11–101; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–118.

    • AFI 17–210; AFI 33–118; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–219.

    • AFI 17–210; AFI 33–219; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–201.

    • AFI 17–210; AFI 17–220; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 17–1302–O.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 17–210; AFI 17–220; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 17–1302–O.
    Explanation
    The correct combination of Air Force instructions, Air Force Systems Security instructions, and Air Force manuals to use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) is AFI 17–210, AFI 17–220, AFSSI 7702, and AFMAN 17–1302–O.

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  • 27. 

    (212) What mode of operation do cell phones use?

    • Half-Duplex.

    • Simplex.

    • Duplex.

    • Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Duplex.
    Explanation
    Cell phones use duplex mode of operation, which means they can transmit and receive signals simultaneously. This allows for two-way communication, where both parties can talk and listen at the same time. Half-duplex mode only allows for one-way communication at a time, while simplex mode only allows for transmission or reception but not both simultaneously. Hybrid mode refers to a combination of different modes, but it is not the specific mode used by cell phones.

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  • 28. 

    (212) What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency?

    • Time division multiple access (TDMA).

    • Personal communications services (PCS).

    • Frequency division multiple access (FDMA).

    • Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Time division multiple access (TDMA).
    Explanation
    Time division multiple access (TDMA) is a channel access method that assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency. This means that multiple calls can share the same frequency by taking turns using it in different time slots. TDMA is commonly used in cellular networks to increase the efficiency of spectrum utilization and allow for simultaneous communication.

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  • 29. 

    (212) Each cell in a service area has what tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area?

    • Eastern.

    • Western.

    • Central.

    • Northern.

    Correct Answer
    A. Central.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Central. In a service area, each cell has a central tower and transceiver assembly. This tower and assembly are responsible for transmitting signals to and receiving signals from the cell phones in that specific area.

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  • 30. 

    (212) Cell sites are generally thought of as being a

    • Square.

    • Octagon.

    • Hexagon.

    • Pentagon.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hexagon.
    Explanation
    Cell sites are generally thought of as being in the shape of a hexagon. This is because a hexagon provides the best coverage and signal strength for the cell site. The hexagonal shape allows for equal distribution of signals in all directions and minimizes interference between neighboring cell sites. Additionally, the hexagon shape allows for efficient use of resources and maximizes the coverage area of the cell site. Therefore, a hexagon is the most commonly used shape for cell sites.

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  • 31. 

    (213) What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to digital signals?

    • Camera.

    • Coder-decoder (CODEC).

    • Network termination (NT) 1.

    • Central processing unit (CPU).

    Correct Answer
    A. Coder-decoder (CODEC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Coder-decoder (CODEC). In a video teleconferencing (VTC) system, the CODEC is responsible for converting analog signals, such as video and audio, into digital signals that can be transmitted over the network. The CODEC also decodes the digital signals received from the network back into analog signals for display and playback.

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  • 32. 

    (215) Which commercial satellite communication system offers true pole-to-pole global coverage?

    • European Telecommunications Satellite Organization.

    • International Telecommunications Satellite Organization.

    • International Mobile Satellite Organization.

    • Iridium.

    Correct Answer
    A. Iridium.
    Explanation
    Iridium is the correct answer because it is the only commercial satellite communication system that offers true pole-to-pole global coverage. The European Telecommunications Satellite Organization and the International Telecommunications Satellite Organization do not provide this level of coverage. The International Mobile Satellite Organization also does not offer pole-to-pole global coverage. Therefore, Iridium is the only option that fits the criteria.

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  • 33. 

    (217) What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?

    • Percentage of modulation.

    • Signal-to-noise.

    • Selectivity.

    • Distortion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Signal-to-noise.
    Explanation
    The ratio used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise is called signal-to-noise ratio. It quantifies the level of the desired signal compared to the level of unwanted background noise. A higher signal-to-noise ratio indicates a stronger and clearer signal, while a lower ratio indicates a weaker and more distorted signal.

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  • 34. 

    (201) What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?

    • Remedy.

    • Remedy new.

    • Remedy user.

    • Remedy ticket.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy user.
    Explanation
    To create a new ticket, you must use the Remedy user tool. This tool is specifically designed for users to access and utilize the Remedy system for tasks such as creating new tickets. The other options listed, Remedy, Remedy new, and Remedy ticket, do not specify the user tool and may not provide the necessary functionality to create a new ticket.

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  • 35. 

    (201) Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • Automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes.

    • Function as a common interactive interface for other systems.

    • Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.

    • Provide status and inventory data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) performs various functions such as automating equipment history, scheduling, and other processes. It also functions as a common interactive interface for other systems, providing status and inventory data. However, it does not roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level. This means that the IMDS does not aggregate or collect logistics data from lower levels and transmit it to the Air Force level for analysis or decision-making purposes.

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  • 36. 

    (201) The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the

    • Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

    • Telecommunications Management System (TMS).

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

    • Automated Information System (AIS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). This is because the question asks for the online database program that is a part of a specific system, and AFEMS is the only system mentioned in the options. Therefore, it can be inferred that AIMS is a part of AFEMS.

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  • 37. 

    (202) What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?

    • Communications security.

    • Transmission security.

    • Emission security.

    • Computer security.

    Correct Answer
    A. Emission security.
    Explanation
    The Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force is called Emission security. This program focuses on preventing unauthorized access to classified information by analyzing and mitigating the unintentional electromagnetic radiation emitted by electronic equipment. By implementing measures to reduce these emissions, the Air Force ensures that sensitive information is protected from potential eavesdropping or interception.

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  • 38. 

    (203) Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?

    • Storage batteries.

    • Power wheel.

    • Flywheel.

    • Batteries.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flywheel.
    Explanation
    Flywheel UPS systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. Unlike storage batteries, which store electrical energy chemically and can provide power for a limited period of time, flywheels store kinetic energy in a rotating mass and can provide continuous power for a longer duration. Flywheel UPS systems are known for their high energy density, fast response time, and longer lifespan compared to battery-based UPS systems. They are often preferred for applications that require uninterrupted power supply for critical equipment or processes.

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  • 39. 

    (203) Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?

    • The office power requirements.

    • The amount of floor space available.

    • Future subscriber growth and reserve time required.

    • The number of alternating current converters in the office.

    Correct Answer
    A. The number of alternating current converters in the office.
    Explanation
    When selecting storage batteries for the central office, the number of alternating current converters in the office is not a consideration. Storage batteries are chosen based on factors such as the office power requirements, the amount of floor space available, and future subscriber growth and reserve time required. The number of alternating current converters in the office is unrelated to the selection of storage batteries.

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  • 40. 

    (204) Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?

    • Production work center or communication squadron.

    • Production work center or contractor.

    • Communications squadron.

    • Production work center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Production work center or contractor.
    Explanation
    Once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete, the responsibility for life-cycle maintenance falls on the production work center or contractor. This means that either the production work center or the contractor will be in charge of maintaining and managing the equipment throughout its life cycle, ensuring its proper functioning and addressing any issues or repairs that may arise.

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  • 41. 

    (204) What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?

    • T–586 and T–586A.

    • T–586A and T–586B.

    • T–568 and T–568A.

    • T–568A and T–568B.

    Correct Answer
    A. T–568A and T–568B.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T-568A and T-568B. These are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6) cables. These standards define the pin assignments for the eight wires in the Ethernet cable, ensuring that the cables are properly connected and can transmit data effectively. T-568A and T-568B are both widely used in networking and telecommunications industries.

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  • 42. 

    (207) When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?

    • The analog signal.

    • The digital signal.

    • The multiplexed signal.

    • The sender’s private key.

    Correct Answer
    A. The digital signal.
    Explanation
    When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. STE is designed to provide secure communication by encrypting the digital data being transmitted. This encryption ensures that the information remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access or interception. Encrypting the digital signal adds an additional layer of security to prevent any potential breaches or data compromises during transmission.

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  • 43. 

    (207) In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the Web server give to the browser?

    • Its public key.

    • Its private key.

    • Its public certificate.

    • Its private certificate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Its public key.
    Explanation
    In secure socket layer (SSL), the web server gives its public key to the browser before an encrypted transaction takes place. This is because SSL uses public key cryptography, where the server's public key is used to encrypt the data, ensuring secure communication between the server and the browser. The browser then uses the server's public key to encrypt the session key, which is used for symmetric encryption during the transaction.

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  • 44. 

    (209) The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with what device?

    • Secure telephone unit (STU)-III.

    • Satellite telephone.

    • Cellular telephone.

    • Land mobile radio.

    Correct Answer
    A. Land mobile radio.
    Explanation
    The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) is specifically designed for secure communication. It is capable of securely communicating with devices such as the Secure Telephone Unit (STU)-III and satellite telephones. However, it cannot communicate securely with a land mobile radio, as land mobile radios do not have the necessary encryption and security features to ensure secure communication.

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  • 45. 

    (209) Which port on the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine?

    • Universal Serial Bus (USB).

    • EIA 530.

    • RS–232.

    • Firewire.

    Correct Answer
    A. RS–232.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RS-232. RS-232 is a standard communication protocol that is commonly used for serial communication between devices. It is often used to connect devices such as modems, printers, and fax machines to computers. In the context of the question, RS-232 can be used to connect a fax machine to the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).

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  • 46. 

    (209) What is the maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–E100?

    • 165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex.

    • 165 for full-duplex and 44.736 for half-duplex.

    • 44.736 for asynchronous transfer mode and 100 for half-duplex.

    • 100 for full-duplex and 44.736 for asynchronous transfer mode.

    Correct Answer
    A. 165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex.
    Explanation
    The maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–E100 is 165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex. This means that in full-duplex mode, the TACLANE-E100 can transmit and receive data simultaneously at a maximum rate of 165 Mbps, while in half-duplex mode, it can only transmit or receive data at a maximum rate of 100 Mbps.

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  • 47. 

    (209) The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro is a packet encryption device for Internet Protocol (IP)

    • Version 4 and version 6.

    • Version 4 and version 5.

    • Version 5 only.

    • Version 4 only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Version 4 and version 6.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "version 4 and version 6." This means that the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-Micro is capable of encrypting packets for both Internet Protocol (IP) version 4 and version 6. IP version 4 is the most widely used version of IP, while version 6 is the newer and more advanced version that is gradually being adopted. By supporting both versions, the TACLANE-Micro can provide secure encryption for a wide range of network communications.

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  • 48. 

    (209) The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can acquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?

    • Static IP only.

    • Plaintext only.

    • Ciphertext only.

    • Ciphertext or plaintext.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ciphertext or plaintext.
    Explanation
    The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE) - Micro can acquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on either the ciphertext or plaintext side. This means that it can obtain an IP address regardless of whether the data is encrypted (ciphertext) or not (plaintext).

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  • 49. 

    (210) What system serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) assets?

    • Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System.

    • Work Order Management System.

    • Remedy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).
    Explanation
    The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) assets. This system is designed to manage and track assets, including their location, condition, and maintenance history. By utilizing AIMS, organizations can easily identify which assets need upgrades or replacements, ensuring that the PWCS assets are up to date and functioning optimally.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 15, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Joel Pitre
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