An Advanced Software Testing Practice Test

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An Advanced Software Testing Practice Test - Quiz

The software industry is at it's a more comfortable room, and why would it not be? After all, everything is now connected with softwares. Computers are operating almost every area of human lives, whether it's education, research, health care, military-defense, or hospitality, so on. Powerful softwares are being created to make lives easier, but there can happen anomalies. These anomalies or say bugs can ruin the whole functioning of softwares; that's why software testing exists. This is quite a long quiz but very interesting and important.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the test basis?

    • A.

      The point during software development when testing should start.

    • B.

      The body of knowledge used for test analysis and design.

    • C.

      The source to determine the actual results from a set of tests.

    • D.

      The method used to systematically devise test conditions.

    Correct Answer
    B. The body of knowledge used for test analysis and design.
    Explanation
    The test basis refers to the body of knowledge that is used for test analysis and design. It includes all the documents, specifications, requirements, and other artifacts that provide information about the system to be tested. This information is essential for testers to understand the scope of testing, identify test conditions, and design effective test cases. The test basis serves as a reference point for testers to ensure that their testing activities are aligned with the project requirements and objectives.

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  • 2. 

    When the tester verifies the test basis while designing tests early in the life cycle, which common test objective is being achieved?

    • A.

      Gaining confidence.

    • B.

      Finding defects.

    • C.

      Preventing defects.

    • D.

      Providing information for decision making.

    Correct Answer
    C. Preventing defects.
    Explanation
    When the tester verifies the test basis while designing tests early in the life cycle, they are aiming to prevent defects. By reviewing the test basis, which includes requirements, design documents, and other relevant information, the tester can identify any potential issues or ambiguities that may lead to defects later on. By catching and addressing these issues early, the tester can help prevent defects from occurring in the software development process, ultimately improving the overall quality of the product.

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  • 3. 

    When following the fundamental test process, when should the test control activity take place? 

    • A.

      During the planning activities.

    • B.

      During the implementation and execution activities.

    • C.

      During the monitoring activities.

    • D.

      During all the activities.

    Correct Answer
    D. During all the activities.
    Explanation
    The test control activity should take place during all the activities of the fundamental test process. This means that it is a continuous process that occurs throughout the testing lifecycle. Test control involves monitoring and controlling the testing activities, ensuring that they are executed according to the plan, and making adjustments as necessary. By conducting test control during all the activities, it ensures that the testing process remains on track, any deviations are identified and addressed promptly, and the overall quality of the testing is maintained.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is a correct statement?

    • A.

      A developer makes a mistake which causes a defect that may be seen as a failure during dynamic testing.

    • B.

      A developer makes an error which results in a failure that may be seen as a fault when the software is executed.

    • C.

      A developer has introduced a failure which results in a defect that may be seen as a mistake during dynamic testing.

    • D.

      A developer makes a mistake which causes a bug that may be seen as a defect when the software is executed.

    Correct Answer
    A. A developer makes a mistake which causes a defect that may be seen as a failure during dynamic testing.
    Explanation
    The correct statement is that a developer makes a mistake which causes a defect that may be seen as a failure during dynamic testing. This means that the developer has made an error in the code, resulting in a defect or issue in the software. This defect may manifest as a failure when the software is tested dynamically, meaning it is being executed and its behavior is being observed. This highlights the importance of thorough testing and debugging to identify and fix any defects or issues in the software before it is released.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is an example of debugging? 

    • A.

      A tester finds a defect and reports it.

    • B.

      A tester retests a fix from the developer and finds a regression.

    • C.

      A developer finds and fixes a defect.

    • D.

      A developer performs unit testing.

    Correct Answer
    C. A developer finds and fixes a defect.
    Explanation
    An example of debugging is when a developer finds and fixes a defect. Debugging refers to the process of identifying and resolving issues or defects in software code. In this scenario, the developer identifies a problem or bug in the code and then takes the necessary steps to correct it, ensuring that the software functions as intended. This process is an essential part of software development and helps to improve the quality and reliability of the software.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is a true statement about exhaustive testing?

    • A.

      It is a form of stress testing.

    • B.

      It is not feasible except in the case of trivial software.

    • C.

      It is commonly done with test automation.

    • D.

      It is normally the responsibility of the developer during unit testing.

    Correct Answer
    B. It is not feasible except in the case of trivial software.
    Explanation
    Exhaustive testing refers to testing every possible combination of inputs and states in a software system. This means testing every possible scenario, which is practically impossible for complex software systems. It is only feasible for trivial software with a limited number of inputs and states. Therefore, the statement "It is not feasible except in the case of trivial software" is true.

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  • 7. 

    A new retail product was released to production by your company. Shortly after the release it was apparent that there were numerous problems with the point of sale application. This resulted in a number of customer complaints and negative postings on social media encouraging people to take their business to your competitor. You have investigated the problems and have discovered that the production point of sale equipment is a later model than the model used in testing. The software functions correctly on the old version, but fails on the later model.    Given this scenario, what is the root cause and what is the effect?

    • A.

      The root cause is the old equipment and the effect is the new equipment.

    • B.

      The root cause is the customer complaints and the effect is the social media postings.

    • C.

      The root cause is conducting the testing on the wrong version of the equipment and the effect is the customer complaints and postings.

    • D.

      The root cause is the software failing on the later model and the effect is the customer complaints.

    Correct Answer
    C. The root cause is conducting the testing on the wrong version of the equipment and the effect is the customer complaints and postings.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the root cause is conducting the testing on the wrong version of the equipment and the effect is the customer complaints and postings. This means that the problems with the point of sale application were not identified during testing because it was tested on an older version of the equipment. As a result, when the new equipment was released, the software failed and caused numerous customer complaints and negative postings on social media.

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  • 8. 

    If you need to provide a report showing test case execution coverage of the requirements, what do you need to track? 

    • A.

      Traceability between the test cases and the requirements.

    • B.

      Coverage of the risk items by test case.

    • C.

      Traceability between the requirements and the risk items.

    • D.

      Coverage of the requirements by the test cases that have been designed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Traceability between the test cases and the requirements.
    Explanation
    To provide a report showing test case execution coverage of the requirements, it is important to track the traceability between the test cases and the requirements. This means ensuring that each requirement has corresponding test cases designed to validate it. By tracking this traceability, it becomes possible to determine which requirements have been covered by the test cases and which ones still need to be tested. This information is crucial for assessing the overall test coverage and identifying any gaps in the testing process.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is most correct regarding the test level at which functional tests may be executed? 

    • A.

      Unit and integration.

    • B.

      Integration and system.

    • C.

      System and acceptance.

    • D.

      All levels.

    Correct Answer
    D. All levels.
    Explanation
    Functional tests can be executed at all levels of the testing process. This means that functional tests can be performed at the unit level, where individual components are tested in isolation. They can also be conducted at the integration level, where multiple components are tested together to ensure they work well together. Functional tests are also carried out at the system level, where the entire system is tested as a whole. Finally, functional tests can be performed at the acceptance level, where the system is tested against the requirements to ensure it meets the desired functionality. Therefore, the most correct answer is that functional tests can be executed at all levels.

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  • 10. 

     Which of the following is a true statement regarding the V-model life cycle?

    • A.

      Testing involvement starts when the code is complete.

    • B.

      The test process is integrated with the development process.

    • C.

      The software is built in increments and each increment has activities for requirements, design, build and test.

    • D.

      All activities for development and test are completed sequentially.

    Correct Answer
    B. The test process is integrated with the development process.
    Explanation
    The V-model life cycle is a software development model where the test process is integrated with the development process. This means that testing activities are planned and executed in parallel with development activities. The V-model emphasizes the importance of testing throughout the entire software development life cycle, rather than leaving it until the end. By integrating testing early on, it helps to identify and resolve issues sooner, leading to higher quality software. This approach also ensures that the testing activities are aligned with the development activities, allowing for better collaboration and communication between the development and testing teams.

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  • 11. 

    Usability testing is an example of which type of testing?

    • A.

      Functional.

    • B.

      Non-functional.

    • C.

      Structural.

    • D.

      Change-related.

    Correct Answer
    B. Non-functional.
    Explanation
    Usability testing is a type of non-functional testing. Non-functional testing focuses on aspects such as performance, reliability, security, and usability of a system. Usability testing specifically evaluates how user-friendly and intuitive a system or product is by observing users' interactions and collecting feedback. This type of testing aims to ensure that the system meets the needs and expectations of its users in terms of ease of use, learnability, efficiency, and user satisfaction.

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  • 12. 

    What type of testing is normally conducted to verify that a product meets a particular regulatory requirement:

    • A.

      Unit Testing.

    • B.

      Integration testing.

    • C.

      System testing.

    • D.

      Acceptance testing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Acceptance testing.
    Explanation
    Acceptance testing is typically conducted to verify that a product meets a particular regulatory requirement. This type of testing involves evaluating the product's compliance with specific regulations or standards set by regulatory bodies. It focuses on ensuring that the product meets the necessary criteria and can be accepted for use in a regulated environment. Unit testing, integration testing, and system testing are important testing phases but are not specifically designed to verify regulatory compliance.

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  • 13. 

    You have been receiving daily builds from the developers. Even though they are documenting the fixes they are including in each build, you are finding that the fixes either aren’t in the build or are not working. What type of testing is best suited for finding these issues?

    • A.

      Unit testing.

    • B.

      System testing.

    • C.

      Confirmation testing.

    • D.

      Regression testing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Confirmation testing.
    Explanation
    Confirmation testing is best suited for finding these issues. Confirmation testing is performed to verify that the reported defects have been fixed correctly and that the fixes have been integrated into the build. It ensures that the fixes are included in the build and are working as expected. This type of testing helps in confirming that the reported issues have been resolved and prevents the recurrence of those issues in the future.

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  • 14. 

    In a formal review, which role is normally responsible for documenting all the open issues?

    • A.

      Facilitator.

    • B.

      Author.

    • C.

      Scribe.

    • D.

      Manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Scribe.
    Explanation
    In a formal review, the role of the scribe is typically responsible for documenting all the open issues. The scribe is responsible for taking notes during the review process, including recording any problems or issues that arise. This documentation is important for tracking and addressing the open issues after the review is complete. The facilitator, author, and manager may have other responsibilities during the review, but the scribe is specifically tasked with documenting the open issues.

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  • 15. 

    Which testing technique would be most effective in determining and improving the maintainability of the code (assuming developers fix what is found)? 

    • A.

      Peer reviews.

    • B.

      Static analysis.

    • C.

      Dynamic testing.

    • D.

      Unit testing.

    Correct Answer
    B. Static analysis.
    Explanation
    Static analysis would be the most effective testing technique in determining and improving the maintainability of the code. Static analysis involves analyzing the code without executing it and can identify potential issues, such as coding errors, security vulnerabilities, and violations of coding standards. By using static analysis tools, developers can detect and fix these issues early in the development process, leading to more maintainable code. Peer reviews, dynamic testing, and unit testing are also important testing techniques, but they focus more on other aspects of code quality and may not be as effective in improving maintainability.

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  • 16. 

    For a formal review, at what point in the process are the entry and exit criteria defined?

    • A.

      Planning.

    • B.

      Review initiation.

    • C.

      Individual review.

    • D.

      Fixing and reporting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning.
    Explanation
    In the process of a formal review, the entry and exit criteria are defined during the planning phase. This is the stage where the objectives, scope, and requirements of the review are determined. The entry criteria specify the conditions that must be met for the review to begin, such as the availability of necessary documents or completion of certain tasks. The exit criteria, on the other hand, outline the conditions that must be satisfied for the review to be considered complete, such as the resolution of all identified issues or the approval of the final report. Therefore, it is during the planning phase that these criteria are established.

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  • 17. 

    If the author of the code is leading a code review for other developers and testers, what type of review is it? 

    • A.

      An informal development review.

    • B.

      A walk-through.

    • C.

      An inspection.

    • D.

      An audit.

    Correct Answer
    B. A walk-through.
    Explanation
    A walk-through is a type of review where the author of the code leads a session with other developers and testers to explain the code and gather feedback. It is typically more informal than an inspection or an audit, as it focuses on collaboration and discussion rather than strict adherence to standards or regulations. This type of review allows for open communication and helps identify any potential issues or improvements in the code.

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  • 18. 

    You are participating in a role-based review session. Your assigned role is that of a senior citizen. The product is an online banking application that is targeted for use on smart phones. You are currently reviewing the user interface of the product with a prototype that works on iPhones. Which of the following is an area that you should review?

    • A.

      The speed of response from the banking back-end.

    • B.

      The attractiveness of the application.

    • C.

      The size and clarity of the instruction text.

    • D.

      The reliability of the application when the connection is dropped.

    Correct Answer
    C. The size and clarity of the instruction text.
    Explanation
    As a senior citizen reviewing the user interface of an online banking application targeted for use on smart phones, it is important to review the size and clarity of the instruction text. Senior citizens may have visual impairments or difficulties reading small text, so ensuring that the instruction text is large and clear will make it easier for them to navigate and use the application effectively. This will enhance their user experience and help them understand and follow the instructions without any confusion or frustration.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is an extension of equivalence partitioning?

    • A.

      Decision tables.

    • B.

      Decision testing.

    • C.

      Boundary value analysis.

    • D.

      State transition testing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Boundary value analysis.
    Explanation
    Boundary value analysis is an extension of equivalence partitioning because it focuses on testing the boundaries or limits of input values rather than just the equivalence classes. It aims to identify any errors or issues that may occur at the edges of the input range, such as the minimum and maximum values, as these are often more likely to cause problems. By testing these boundary values, it helps to ensure that the system can handle them correctly and effectively.

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  • 20. 

    If test cases are derived from looking at the code, what type of test design technique is being used? 

    • A.

      Black-box.

    • B.

      White-box.

    • C.

      Specification-based.

    • D.

      Behavior-based.

    Correct Answer
    B. White-box.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is White-box because when test cases are derived from looking at the code, it means that the tester has access to the internal structure and implementation details of the code. This indicates a white-box testing approach, where the tester has knowledge of the internal workings of the system and can design test cases based on that knowledge. Black-box testing focuses on testing the system from an external perspective without knowledge of the internal structure. Specification-based testing relies on the requirements or specifications of the system, while behavior-based testing focuses on testing the system based on its expected behavior.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is a good reason to use experience-based testing?

    • A.

      You can find defects that might be missed by more formal techniques.

    • B.

      You can test for defects that only experienced users would encounter.

    • C.

      You can target the developer’s efforts to the areas that users will be more likely to use.

    • D.

      It is supported by strong tools and can be automated.

    Correct Answer
    A. You can find defects that might be missed by more formal techniques.
    Explanation
    Experience-based testing is a good reason to use because it allows testers to find defects that might be missed by more formal techniques. This type of testing relies on the knowledge and expertise of experienced testers who can identify potential issues or bugs that may not be detected through traditional testing methods. By leveraging their experience and insights, testers can uncover hidden defects, improve the overall quality of the software, and enhance the user experience.

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  • 22. 

    If you are using error guessing to target your testing, which type of testing are you doing? 

    • A.

      Specification-based.

    • B.

      Structure-based.

    • C.

      Experience-based.

    • D.

      Reference-based.

    Correct Answer
    C. Experience-based.
    Explanation
    If you are using error guessing to target your testing, it means that you are relying on your past experiences and knowledge to anticipate potential errors and issues in the system. This type of testing is known as experience-based testing, as it heavily relies on the tester's expertise and intuition to identify potential problems. It involves guessing and anticipating where errors might occur based on previous experiences with similar systems or similar functionalities.

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  • 23. 

    If you are testing a module of code, how do you determine the level of decision coverage you have achieved?

    • A.

      By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total number of executable statements in the module.

    • B.

      By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total number of decisions in the module.

    • C.

      By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total lines of code in the module.

    • D.

      By taking the number of decision outcomes you have tested and dividing that by the total number of decision outcomes in the module.

    Correct Answer
    D. By taking the number of decision outcomes you have tested and dividing that by the total number of decision outcomes in the module.
    Explanation
    To determine the level of decision coverage achieved while testing a module of code, you need to calculate the number of decision outcomes tested and divide it by the total number of decision outcomes in the module. This approach ensures that all possible outcomes of each decision in the code are tested, providing a comprehensive measure of decision coverage. Dividing by the total number of decision outcomes, rather than executable statements or lines of code, specifically focuses on the decision points in the code and their associated outcomes.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following best describes the behaviors defined in a use case that should be covered by tests?

    • A.

      Positive path and negative path.

    • B.

      Basic, exception and error.

    • C.

      Normal, error, data, and integration.

    • D.

      Control flow, data flow and decision paths.

    Correct Answer
    B. Basic, exception and error.
    Explanation
    The behaviors defined in a use case that should be covered by tests include basic, exception, and error scenarios. This means that the tests should cover the normal flow of the use case, as well as any exceptional or error conditions that may occur. By testing these different scenarios, it ensures that the use case functions correctly and handles any unexpected situations appropriately.

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  • 25. 

    You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns grades. Based on the score achieved the grades are as follows: 1-49 = F, 50-59 = D-, 60-69 = D, 70-79 = C, 80-89 = B, 90-100=A If you apply equivalence partitioning, how many test cases will you need to achieve minimum test coverage? 

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    B. 8
    Explanation
    Equivalence partitioning is a technique where test cases are designed based on dividing the input space into different equivalence classes. In this case, the input space is the score achieved. The equivalence classes are defined by the grade boundaries: 1-49, 50-59, 60-69, 70-79, 80-89, and 90-100. To achieve minimum test coverage, we need to have at least one test case for each equivalence class. Therefore, we need 6 test cases to cover all the equivalence classes. However, we also need to consider the boundaries between the equivalence classes. Since there are 5 boundaries, we need to add one test case for each boundary, resulting in a total of 6 + 5 = 11 test cases. However, one of the boundaries is shared by two equivalence classes (49 and 50), so we can combine the test cases for these two classes, resulting in a total of 11 - 1 = 10 test cases. Therefore, the correct answer is 10, not 8.

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  • 26. 

    You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns grades. Based on the score achieved the grades are as follows: 1-49 = F, 50-59 = D-, 60-69 = D, 70-79 = C, 80-89 = B, 90-100=A If you apply two-value boundary value analysis, how many test cases will you need to achieve minimum test coverage? 

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      14

    Correct Answer
    D. 14
    Explanation
    Boundary value analysis is a testing technique that focuses on testing the boundaries between different input values. In this case, we have six different ranges for scores and grades. To achieve minimum test coverage, we need to test the boundaries between these ranges.

    For example, we need to test the boundary between 49 and 50 to ensure that a score of 49 gets a grade of F and a score of 50 gets a grade of D-. Similarly, we need to test the boundaries between 59 and 60, 69 and 70, 79 and 80, 89 and 90, and 99 and 100.

    Since we have six ranges and we need to test the boundaries between each of them, we will need a total of 6 x 2 = 12 test cases. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.

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  • 27. 

    You have been given the following conditions and results from those condition combinations. Given this information, using the decision table technique, what is the minimum number of test cases you would need to test these conditions?    Conditions: Valid cash Valid credit card Valid debit card Valid pin Bank accepts Valid Selection  Item in Stock Results: Reject Cash Reject Card Error Message Return Cash Refund Card Sell Item

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      13

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      18

    Correct Answer
    C. 15
  • 28. 

    You have been given the following requirement:    A user must log in to the system with a valid username and password. If they fail to enter the correct combination three times, they will receive an error and will have to wait 10 minutes before trying again. The test terminates when the user successfully logs in.    How many test cases are needed to provide 100% state transition coverage?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    To achieve 100% state transition coverage, we need to cover all possible transitions between different states. In this case, the states are "user enters correct combination", "user enters incorrect combination", and "user receives an error and waits 10 minutes".

    To cover all possible transitions, we need to test the following scenarios:
    1. User enters incorrect combination three times and receives an error.
    2. User enters incorrect combination two times and then enters the correct combination to successfully log in.

    Therefore, we need 2 test cases to provide 100% state transition coverage.

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  • 29. 

    You are testing a thermostat for a heating/air conditioning system. You have been given the following requirements:    • When the temperature is below 70 degrees, turn on the heating system • When the temperature is above 75 degrees, turn on the air conditioning system • When the temperature is between 70 and 75 degrees, inclusive, turn on fan only    Which of the following is the minimum set of test temperature values to achieve 100% two-value boundary value analysis coverage?

    • A.

      70, 75

    • B.

      65, 72, 80

    • C.

      69, 70, 75, 76

    • D.

      70, 71, 74, 75, 76

    Correct Answer
    C. 69, 70, 75, 76
    Explanation
    The given requirements state that when the temperature is below 70 degrees, the heating system should be turned on, and when the temperature is above 75 degrees, the air conditioning system should be turned on. When the temperature is between 70 and 75 degrees, inclusive, the fan should be turned on. To achieve 100% two-value boundary value analysis coverage, we need to test the minimum and maximum values of each range. Therefore, the minimum set of test temperature values would be 69, 70, 75, and 76.

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  • 30. 

    A metric that tracks the number of test cases executed is gathered during which activity in the test process? 

    • A.

      Planning.

    • B.

      Implementation.

    • C.

      Execution.

    • D.

      Reporting.

    Correct Answer
    C. Execution.
    Explanation
    During the execution phase of the test process, the metric that tracks the number of test cases executed is gathered. This phase involves running the actual test cases and verifying the system's behavior against the expected results. By tracking the number of test cases executed, testers can measure the progress and coverage of the testing effort. This metric helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the testing process and identifying any gaps or areas that require additional testing.

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  • 31. 

    Who is normally responsible for the creation and update of a test plan for a project?

    • A.

      The project manager.

    • B.

      The test manager.

    • C.

      The tester.

    • D.

      The product owner.

    Correct Answer
    B. The test manager.
    Explanation
    The test manager is normally responsible for the creation and update of a test plan for a project. This is because the test manager oversees the testing activities and is responsible for ensuring that the testing process is well-planned and executed. They work closely with the project manager and other stakeholders to define the scope, objectives, and approach of the testing effort. The test manager also coordinates with the testers to gather their inputs and incorporate them into the test plan. Their role includes defining the test strategy, test objectives, test deliverables, and test schedule, as well as identifying the required resources and estimating the effort needed for testing.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following variances should be explained in the Test Summary Report?

    • A.

      The variances between the weekly status reports and the test exit criteria.

    • B.

      The variances between the defects found and the defects fixed.

    • C.

      The variances between what was planned for testing and what was actually tested.

    • D.

      The variances between the test cases executed and the total number of test cases.

    Correct Answer
    C. The variances between what was planned for testing and what was actually tested.
    Explanation
    In the Test Summary Report, it is important to explain the variances between what was planned for testing and what was actually tested. This helps to provide insight into any deviations or discrepancies that occurred during the testing process. By analyzing these variances, the testing team can identify potential issues, assess the impact on the overall testing effort, and make informed decisions for future testing activities. This information is crucial for stakeholders to understand the effectiveness and efficiency of the testing process and to make any necessary adjustments or improvements.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is a project risk?

    • A.

      A module that performs incorrect calculations due to a defect in a formula.

    • B.

      A failed performance test.

    • C.

      An issue with the interface between the system under test and a peripheral device.

    • D.

      A problem with the development manager which is resulting in his rejecting all defect reports.

    Correct Answer
    D. A problem with the development manager which is resulting in his rejecting all defect reports.
    Explanation
    A problem with the development manager rejecting all defect reports is a project risk because it can hinder the identification and resolution of defects in the project. This can lead to the accumulation of unresolved issues, which can impact the overall quality and functionality of the project. It may also result in delays in the project timeline and increased costs if defects are not addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

    • A.

      Testers have different biases than developers.

    • B.

      Testers are isolated from the development team.

    • C.

      Testers lack information about the test object.

    • D.

      Testers will accept responsibility for quality.

    Correct Answer
    A. Testers have different biases than developers.
    Explanation
    Testers having different biases than developers is a benefit of test independence because it allows for a fresh and unbiased perspective on the software being tested. This means that testers can approach the testing process without any preconceived notions or assumptions, increasing the chances of identifying defects and issues that may have been overlooked by the developers. By having different biases, testers can provide valuable insights and feedback that can contribute to improving the overall quality of the software.

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  • 35. 

    You are working in a team of testers who are all writing test cases. You have noticed that there is a significant inconsistency with the length and amount of detail in the different test cases. Where should the test case guidelines have been documented? 

    • A.

      The test plan.

    • B.

      The test approach.

    • C.

      The test case template.

    • D.

      The project plan.

    Correct Answer
    A. The test plan.
    Explanation
    The test plan should have documented the test case guidelines. The test plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the objectives, scope, approach, and resources for testing. It provides guidelines and instructions for the testing team to follow, including the format, structure, and level of detail expected in the test cases. By documenting the test case guidelines in the test plan, the team can ensure consistency in the length and amount of detail in the different test cases.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is an example of a good exit criterion from system testing?

    • A.

      All tests should be completed.

    • B.

      The project budget should be spent.

    • C.

      All defects should be fixed.

    • D.

      All severity 1 defects must be resolved.

    Correct Answer
    D. All severity 1 defects must be resolved.
    Explanation
    A good exit criterion from system testing should focus on the resolution of critical defects, as severity 1 defects are the most severe and can have a significant impact on the system's functionality and performance. Resolving all severity 1 defects ensures that the system is stable and reliable before it is released. The other options, such as completing all tests or spending the project budget, may not necessarily guarantee the quality or readiness of the system for deployment.

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  • 37. 

    You have received the following description section in a defect report:    The report executed per the attached steps, but the data was incorrect. For example, the information in column 1 was wrong. See the attached screenshot. This report is critical to the users and they will be unable to do their jobs without this information.     What is the biggest problem with this defect report? 

    • A.

      The developer won’t know how important the problem is.

    • B.

      The developer won’t know how to repeat the test.

    • C.

      The developer won’t be able to see what the tester is saying is wrong.

    • D.

      The developer won’t know what the tester expected to see.

    Correct Answer
    D. The developer won’t know what the tester expected to see.
    Explanation
    The biggest problem with this defect report is that the developer won't know what the tester expected to see. The report mentions that the data was incorrect and provides an example of the wrong information in column 1, but it doesn't clearly state what the expected correct information should be. Without knowing the expected outcome, the developer may have difficulty understanding the issue and finding a solution.

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  • 38. 

    You have been given the following set of test cases to run. You have been instructed to run them in order by risk and to accomplish the testing as quickly as possible to provide feedback to the developers as soon as possible. Given this information, what is the best order in which to run these tests?    Test Case ID     Duration      Risk Priority       Dependency 1                         30 mins       Low                    6 2                         10 mins       Medium            none 3                         45 mins       High                   1                4                         30 mins      High                    2 5                         10 mins      Medium             4 6                         15 mins      Low                    2   

    • A.

      2, 4, 5, 6, 1, 3

    • B.

      4, 3, 2, 5, 6, 1

    • C.

      2, 5, 6, 4, 1, 3

    • D.

      6, 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2, 4, 5, 6, 1, 3
    Explanation
    The best order to run these tests is 2, 4, 5, 6, 1, 3. This order ensures that the tests are run in order of risk priority, with higher risk tests being run earlier. Test case 2 has a medium risk priority and no dependencies, so it can be run first. Test case 4 has a high risk priority and depends on test case 2, so it should be run next. Test case 5 has a medium risk priority and no dependencies, so it can be run after test case 4. Test case 6 has a low risk priority and depends on test case 2, so it should be run next. Test case 1 has a low risk priority and depends on test case 6, so it should be run after test case 6. Finally, test case 3 has a high risk priority and depends on test case 1, so it should be run last.

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  • 39. 

    Why is it important to define usage guidelines for a new tool? 

    • A.

      Because this is a proven success factor in tool deployment.

    • B.

      Because this will ensure the licensing restrictions are enforced.

    • C.

      Because management needs to understand the details of the tool usage.

    • D.

      Because this will provide the information needed for the cost/benefit analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Because this is a proven success factor in tool deployment.
    Explanation
    Defining usage guidelines for a new tool is important because it has been proven to be a success factor in tool deployment. By establishing clear guidelines, users will have a better understanding of how to effectively and efficiently use the tool, leading to increased productivity and successful implementation. Additionally, guidelines help standardize usage, ensuring consistency and preventing misuse or misunderstanding. This ultimately contributes to the overall success of the tool deployment and maximizes its potential benefits.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is an example of a tool that supports static testing?

    • A.

      A tool that assists with tracking the results of reviews.

    • B.

      A defect tracking tool.

    • C.

      A test automation tool.

    • D.

      A tool that helps design test cases for security testing.

    Correct Answer
    A. A tool that assists with tracking the results of reviews.
    Explanation
    A tool that assists with tracking the results of reviews is an example of a tool that supports static testing. Static testing is a type of testing that involves reviewing and analyzing the software code or documentation without executing it. This type of testing helps to identify defects and improve the quality of the software. A tool that tracks the results of reviews can help in managing and documenting the findings from the review process, making it an effective tool for supporting static testing.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is the activity that removes the cause of a failure? 

    • A.

      Testing.

    • B.

      Dynamic testing.

    • C.

      Debugging.

    • D.

      Revers engineering.

    Correct Answer
    C. Debugging.
    Explanation
    Debugging is the activity that removes the cause of a failure. When a failure occurs in a software system, debugging is the process of identifying and fixing the root cause of the failure. It involves analyzing the code, tracing the execution, and identifying and resolving the errors or bugs that led to the failure. Debugging is an essential part of the software development and testing process, as it helps to ensure the reliability and stability of the software system.

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  • 42. 

    As a tester, which of the following is a key to effectively communicating and maintaining positive relationships with developers when there is disagreement over the prioritization of a defect?

    • A.

      Escalate the issue to human resources and stress the importance of mutual respect.

    • B.

      Communicate in a setting with senior management to ensure everyone understands.

    • C.

      Convince the developer to accept the blame for the mistake.

    • D.

      Remind them of the common goal of creating quality systems.

    Correct Answer
    D. Remind them of the common goal of creating quality systems.
    Explanation
    To effectively communicate and maintain positive relationships with developers when there is disagreement over the prioritization of a defect, it is important to remind them of the common goal of creating quality systems. By emphasizing the shared objective, it helps to foster understanding and collaboration between testers and developers. This approach promotes a cooperative mindset and encourages both parties to work together towards resolving the issue in a mutually beneficial manner.

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  • 43. 

    Why is software testing sometimes required for legal reasons?  

    • A.

      It prevents developers from suing testers.

    • B.

      Contracts may specify testing requirements that must be fulfilled.

    • C.

      International laws require software testing for exported products.

    • D.

      Testing across systems must be accompanied by legal documentation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contracts may specify testing requirements that must be fulfilled.
    Explanation
    Software testing is sometimes required for legal reasons because contracts may specify testing requirements that must be fulfilled. This means that both the developers and testers are legally obligated to ensure that the software meets certain standards and functionality. By including testing requirements in the contract, it helps to establish clear expectations and responsibilities for both parties involved. This can help prevent disputes and potential legal action between developers and testers if the software does not meet the agreed-upon testing requirements.

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  • 44. 

    In what way does root cause analysis contribute to process improvement?

    • A.

      Helps to better identify and correct the root cause of defects.

    • B.

      Outlines how development teams can code faster.

    • C.

      Specifies the desired root causes to be achieved by other teams.

    • D.

      Contributes to the justification of future project funding.

    Correct Answer
    A. Helps to better identify and correct the root cause of defects.
    Explanation
    Root cause analysis is a systematic approach that helps in identifying the underlying cause of a problem or defect. By analyzing the root cause, organizations can implement effective corrective actions to prevent the recurrence of similar issues in the future. This process is crucial for process improvement as it allows teams to address the fundamental cause rather than just treating the symptoms. It helps in understanding the factors that contribute to defects, enabling organizations to make necessary changes, improve processes, and enhance overall quality and efficiency.

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  • 45. 

    Why is it important to avoid the pesticide paradox?

    • A.

      Dynamic testing is less reliable in finding bugs.

    • B.

      Pesticides mixed with static testing can allow bugs to escape detection.

    • C.

      Tests should not be context dependent.

    • D.

      Running the same tests over and over will reduce the chance of finding new defects.

    Correct Answer
    D. Running the same tests over and over will reduce the chance of finding new defects.
    Explanation
    Running the same tests over and over will reduce the chance of finding new defects because if the same tests are repeatedly executed, it becomes less likely to discover new bugs or defects in the software. This is because the same set of tests may not cover all possible scenarios or combinations of inputs that could potentially lead to new defects. To ensure thorough testing and increase the chances of finding new defects, it is important to have a diverse and comprehensive test suite that covers a wide range of test cases and scenarios.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is the activity that compares the planned test progress to the actual test progress? 

    • A.

      Test monitoring.

    • B.

      Test planning.

    • C.

      Test closure.

    • D.

      Test control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Test monitoring.
    Explanation
    Test monitoring is the activity that compares the planned test progress to the actual test progress. It involves tracking the testing activities, monitoring the progress, and comparing it with the planned objectives and milestones. This helps in identifying any deviations or delays in the testing process and allows for timely corrective actions to be taken. Test monitoring ensures that the testing activities are on track and helps in keeping the stakeholders informed about the progress of the testing phase.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is the correct statement?

    • A.

      An error causes a failure which results in a defect.

    • B.

      A defect causes a failure which results in an error.

    • C.

      A failure is observed as an error and the root cause is the defect.

    • D.

      An error causes a defect which is observed as a failure.

    Correct Answer
    D. An error causes a defect which is observed as a failure.
    Explanation
    An error refers to a human action or decision that produces an incorrect or unexpected result. This error can lead to a defect, which is a flaw or malfunction in a product or system. When the defect is encountered, it results in a failure, which is the inability of the product or system to perform its intended function. Therefore, the correct statement is that an error causes a defect, which is observed as a failure.

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  • 48. 

    What type of activity is normally used to find and fix a defect in the code?

    • A.

      Regression testing.

    • B.

      Debugging.

    • C.

      Dynamic analysis.

    • D.

      Static analysis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Debugging.
    Explanation
    Debugging is the process of identifying and fixing defects or errors in the code. It involves analyzing the code to locate the source of the problem and making necessary changes to correct it. Regression testing, on the other hand, is a type of testing that ensures that previously working functionality is not affected after making changes to the code. Dynamic analysis refers to techniques that analyze the code during runtime, while static analysis involves analyzing the code without executing it. Therefore, debugging is the most appropriate activity for finding and fixing defects in the code.

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  • 49. 

    During which level of testing should non-functional tests be executed?

    • A.

      Unit and integration only.

    • B.

      System testing only.

    • C.

      Integration, system and acceptance only.

    • D.

      Unit, integration, system and acceptance only.

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit, integration, system and acceptance only.
    Explanation
    Non-functional tests should be executed at every level of testing, including unit, integration, system, and acceptance testing. These tests evaluate aspects of the system that are not related to its specific functionality, such as performance, scalability, security, and usability. By conducting non-functional tests at each level, potential issues or weaknesses in these areas can be identified and addressed early in the development process, ensuring that the final product meets the necessary quality standards.

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  • 50. 

    When a system is targeted for decommissioning, what type of maintenance testing may be required?

    • A.

      Retirement testing.

    • B.

      Regression testing.

    • C.

      Data migration testing.

    • D.

      Patch testing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Data migration testing.
    Explanation
    When a system is targeted for decommissioning, data migration testing may be required. This type of testing ensures that the data from the old system is successfully migrated to the new system or platform without any loss or corruption. It verifies that the data is accurately transferred and can be accessed and utilized in the new environment. This testing is crucial to ensure the integrity and reliability of the data during the decommissioning process.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 01, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Nrightmire

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