Check Out This Medical And Health care Quiz!
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Medical emergencies can come up anywhere at anytime. Are you always ready to be a superhero and save lives? This quiz consists of physical training, medical-emergencies, and health-care related questions.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Soft catheters are useful for suctioning the oropharynx.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
B. False.Explanation
Soft catheters are not typically used for suctioning the oropharynx. Instead, rigid or semi-rigid catheters are commonly used for this purpose. Soft catheters are usually used for procedures that require a more flexible and gentle approach, such as urinary catheterization. Therefore, the statement that soft catheters are useful for suctioning the oropharynx is false.Rate this question:
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- 2.
All of the following are features of the bag-mask except:
- A.
One way valve that prevents rebreathing of exhaled air.
- B.
Constructed of materials that work in all environments.
- C.
Available in infant, child, adult’s sizes.
- D.
Valve allow flow rate up to 15 L/m.
Correct Answer
D. Valve allow flow rate up to 15 L/m.Explanation
The bag-mask is a device used for delivering positive pressure ventilation to patients who are not breathing adequately. It consists of a bag attached to a mask, which is placed over the patient's face. The bag is squeezed manually to deliver air into the patient's lungs.
The features listed in the question are all characteristics of a bag-mask, except for the statement "Valve allow flow rate up to 15 L/m." This statement is incorrect because bag-masks do not have a valve that allows for a specific flow rate of 15 L/m. The flow rate of air delivered by a bag-mask depends on the rate at which the bag is squeezed by the healthcare provider.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Unresponsive medical patient are treated as are unresponsive trauma patient.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
A. True.Explanation
Unresponsive medical patients are treated similarly to unresponsive trauma patients. This means that both types of patients would receive immediate medical attention and care, regardless of the cause of their unresponsiveness. The priority is to stabilize their condition and provide necessary interventions to ensure their well-being. Therefore, the statement "Unresponsive medical patients are treated as are unresponsive trauma patients" is true.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Physical exam is required for all patient?
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
A. True.Explanation
A physical exam is required for all patients because it allows healthcare professionals to assess the overall health and well-being of the patient. It helps in diagnosing any underlying medical conditions, monitoring the progress of existing conditions, and identifying any potential health risks. Through a physical exam, doctors can gather important information about a patient's vital signs, physical appearance, and overall physical functioning. This information is crucial for making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate medical care. Therefore, a physical exam is necessary for all patients to ensure their health and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Every patient receives an ongoing assessment.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
A. True.Explanation
The statement implies that every patient is regularly evaluated or examined. This suggests that there is a continuous monitoring process in place to assess the condition and progress of each patient. Therefore, the answer is true.Rate this question:
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- 6.
If the patient has a life-threatening injury or illness, the reassessment is almost constant.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
A. True.Explanation
The statement is true because in cases where a patient has a life-threatening injury or illness, continuous reassessment is necessary to monitor their condition and make any necessary interventions. This is done to ensure that any changes or deterioration in their condition are promptly identified and addressed. Constant reassessment allows healthcare providers to provide timely and appropriate care, potentially saving the patient's life. Therefore, the statement is correct.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Medication is carried on the EMS unit: Oxygen, oral glucose and activated charcoal.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
A. True.Explanation
The statement is true because medication carried on the EMS unit includes oxygen, oral glucose, and activated charcoal. These medications are commonly used in emergency situations to provide oxygen to patients, raise blood sugar levels in cases of hypoglycemia, and absorb toxins in cases of poisoning. Therefore, the statement accurately reflects the medications carried on the EMS unit.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The trade name of Albuterol is Ventolin.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
A. True.Explanation
The trade name of Albuterol is Ventolin. This statement is true. Albuterol is a medication used to treat bronchospasms in conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Ventolin is one of the brand names under which Albuterol is marketed. Other brand names for Albuterol include Proventil and ProAir. Therefore, the statement is correct as Ventolin is indeed a trade name for Albuterol.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The medication form of oral glucose is gel.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
A. True.Explanation
The statement is true because the medication form of oral glucose is indeed in the form of a gel. Oral glucose gel is commonly used to treat low blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. It is a concentrated form of glucose that is quickly absorbed into the bloodstream, providing a rapid source of energy. The gel form allows for easy administration and is often preferred over tablets or liquids in emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Indication is a situation in which a medication should not be used.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
B. False.Explanation
The statement is true because indication refers to a situation in which a medication should be used, not a situation in which it should not be used. Indication is a term used in medicine to describe the specific circumstances or conditions under which a particular medication is recommended or appropriate for use.Rate this question:
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- 11.
One choice from the below choices is true regarding to opening airway (manual position), choose it:
- A.
Head-tilt and chin-lift when EMT-basic suspect spinal injury.
- B.
Jaw thrust when no neck injury suspected.
- C.
Jaw thrust for unresponsive and unconscious pt.
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
D. None of the above.Explanation
The correct answer is "None of the above" because the question presents incorrect information. The correct method for opening the airway manually is the head-tilt and chin-lift technique, regardless of whether a spinal injury is suspected or not. The jaw thrust technique is used when there is a suspected neck injury. Therefore, none of the choices provided are true regarding opening the airway manually.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The size of an oropharyngeal airways is determined by calculating the distance from angle of maxilla to midpoint of incisors.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
B. False.Explanation
The size of an oropharyngeal airway is not determined by calculating the distance from the angle of the maxilla to the midpoint of the incisors. The size of an oropharyngeal airway is determined by measuring the distance from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw. Therefore, the correct answer is false.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The oropharyngeal airways are more likely to stimulate the vomit than nasopharyngeal.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
A. True.Explanation
The oropharyngeal airways are more likely to stimulate the vomit than nasopharyngeal airways because they are inserted into the mouth and can come into contact with the back of the throat, which can trigger the gag reflex and lead to vomiting. On the other hand, nasopharyngeal airways are inserted through the nose and do not come into contact with the throat, reducing the likelihood of stimulating the vomit reflex. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The purpose of the suctioning is removing blood, liquid, and food particles from oral cavity only.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
B. False.Explanation
The correct answer is False. The purpose of suctioning is not only to remove blood, liquid, and food particles from the oral cavity, but also to clear the airway of any obstructions or secretions. Suctioning is commonly used in medical procedures and emergency situations to maintain a clear and open airway for proper breathing. It is not limited to just the oral cavity but can also be used in other areas such as the nose, throat, or trachea.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Alveolar respiration is the gas exchange in the tissues of the body.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
B. False.Explanation
The given statement is incorrect. Alveolar respiration refers to the gas exchange that occurs in the alveoli of the lungs, not in the tissues of the body.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The amount of air exchanged in one breath, refers to:
- A.
Alveolar respiration.
- B.
Ventilation.
- C.
Tidal volume.
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
C. Tidal volume.Explanation
Tidal volume refers to the amount of air exchanged in one breath. It represents the volume of air inspired or expired during normal breathing, without any extra effort. Alveolar respiration refers to the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood. Ventilation refers to the overall movement of air in and out of the lungs, including both tidal volume and any additional air moved during forced breathing. Therefore, the correct answer is tidal volume.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The detailed physical examination should be performed in the scene after initial assessment.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
B. False.Explanation
The explanation for the false answer is that the detailed physical examination should not be performed at the scene after the initial assessment. The initial assessment is meant to quickly evaluate and stabilize the patient's condition, while the detailed physical examination is typically conducted in a controlled environment, such as a hospital or clinic, where proper equipment and facilities are available. Performing a detailed physical examination at the scene could delay necessary interventions and potentially compromise the patient's care.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Infants and children take up proportionately less space in the mouth than adults:
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
B. False.Explanation
Infants and children do not take up proportionately less space in the mouth than adults. In fact, infants and children have smaller mouths and jaws compared to adults, which means they take up relatively more space in their mouths. Therefore, the statement is false.Rate this question:
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- 19.
All of these statements are correct except
- A.
Infants and children take up proportionately more space in the mouth than adults.
- B.
Chest wall in children and infants is softer.
- C.
Infants and children have wider tracheas and obstructed more hardly.
Correct Answer
C. Infants and children have wider tracheas and obstructed more hardly.Explanation
Infants and children have wider tracheas and obstructed more hardly. This statement is incorrect because infants and children actually have narrower tracheas compared to adults. This can make them more susceptible to airway obstruction and respiratory distress.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The detailed physical examination should be tailored to fit the needs of each individual patient.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
A. True.Explanation
The statement is true because each patient is unique and may have different medical history, symptoms, and needs. Therefore, a detailed physical examination should be customized to address the specific concerns and conditions of the individual patient. This approach ensures that all relevant aspects are thoroughly assessed and appropriate medical interventions or treatments can be recommended.Rate this question:
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- 21.
If JVD (Jugular vein distention) was so obvious, it could be because:
- A.
Asthma.
- B.
Heart Failure .
- C.
Respiratory Failure.
- D.
Exhausted.
Correct Answer
B. Heart Failure .Explanation
Jugular vein distention (JVD) refers to the swelling of the jugular veins in the neck, which can be a sign of increased pressure in the heart. This is commonly seen in conditions like heart failure, where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively. In heart failure, the weakened heart struggles to adequately circulate blood, leading to fluid buildup and increased pressure in the veins. Therefore, if JVD is visibly apparent, it is likely due to heart failure rather than asthma, respiratory failure, or exhaustion.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The letter p in DCAP-BTLS refers to what?
- A.
Palliation.
- B.
Perform.
- C.
Provocation.
- D.
Punctures.
Correct Answer
D. Punctures.Explanation
In the DCAP-BTLS acronym, the letter "p" refers to punctures. DCAP-BTLS is a mnemonic used in emergency medicine to assess and document injuries during a physical examination. Each letter represents a different category of injury or condition. "Punctures" refers to any penetrating wounds or injuries that break the skin, such as stab wounds or needle punctures.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When we assess the eyes in detailed physical examination procedure, we assess all of the following except:
- A.
Unequal pupils.
- B.
Foreign bodies.
- C.
Odors.
- D.
Discoloration.
Correct Answer
C. Odors.Explanation
In a detailed physical examination procedure for the eyes, all aspects related to the visual health are typically assessed. This includes checking for unequal pupils, foreign bodies, and any discoloration that may indicate an underlying issue. However, odors are not typically assessed as a part of eye examination since they are not directly related to visual health. Therefore, the correct answer is odors.Rate this question:
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- 24.
If the patient does not complain of pain or is unresponsive in assess the pelvis detailed physical examination procedure we:
- A.
Put the c-collar for this patient.
- B.
Roll the body on the stretcher.
- C.
Gently flex and compress the pelvis to determine stability.
Correct Answer
C. Gently flex and compress the pelvis to determine stability.Explanation
In order to assess the stability of the pelvis, it is important to gently flex and compress it. This procedure helps to determine if there are any fractures or instability in the pelvic area. The other options mentioned, such as putting a c-collar on the patient or rolling the body on the stretcher, are not relevant to assessing the stability of the pelvis.Rate this question:
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- 25.
O-P-Q-R-S-T is used to evaluate pain only.
- A.
True.
- B.
False.
Correct Answer
B. False.Explanation
This statement is false because the O-P-Q-R-S-T acronym is not used solely to evaluate pain. It is actually used as a mnemonic device to remember the components of a pain assessment, specifically for patients who are unable to communicate their pain verbally. The letters stand for Onset, Provocation/Palliation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, and Timing. These components help healthcare professionals gather information about the patient's pain and make an accurate assessment. Therefore, the statement that O-P-Q-R-S-T is used only to evaluate pain is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following level of education maintains pt stability until the paramedics arrive?
- A.
Intermediate.
- B.
Emt-basic.
- C.
First responder.
- D.
Paramedic.
- E.
Emt-basic + first responder.
Correct Answer
E. Emt-basic + first responder.Explanation
The combination of EMT-Basic and First Responder education maintains patient stability until the paramedics arrive. EMT-Basics are trained to provide basic life support and emergency medical care, while First Responders are trained to provide immediate care until more advanced medical personnel arrive. Together, their skills and knowledge ensure that the patient's condition is stabilized and managed effectively until the arrival of paramedics who can provide more advanced medical interventions.Rate this question:
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- 27.
All of the following are forms of nitroglycerin except:
- A.
Suspension.
- B.
Tablet.
- C.
Solution.
- D.
Compressed powder.
Correct Answer
A. Suspension.Explanation
Suspension is not a form of nitroglycerin because it refers to a mixture of solid particles in a liquid medium, where the solid particles do not dissolve but remain suspended. Nitroglycerin is typically available in the form of tablets, solutions, and compressed powders, where the active compound is dissolved or compressed into a solid form.Rate this question:
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- 28.
All of the following are tradenames of activated charcoal except:
- A.
Liqui-char.
- B.
Antidose.
- C.
Instachar.
- D.
Superchar.
Correct Answer
B. Antidose.Explanation
Activated charcoal is commonly used as a treatment for poisoning or overdose due to its ability to bind to toxins and prevent their absorption in the body. Liqui-char, Instachar, and Superchar are all tradenames of activated charcoal products used for this purpose. However, Antidose is not a tradename of activated charcoal. Therefore, the correct answer is Antidose.Rate this question:
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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 29, 2018Quiz Created by
Ahmad
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