Parkinson's Disease Treatment Quiz

55 Questions | Total Attempts: 64

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Parkinson

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following statements is true regarding tension pneumothorax?
    • A. 

      Trachea is shifted toward affected lung and breath sounds are absent on that side as well.

    • B. 

      Trachea is shifted toward normal lung and needle decompression is indicated between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal space anteriorly.

    • C. 

      Trachea is shifted toward normal lung and breath sounds are absent on that side as well.

    • D. 

      Trachea is shifted toward normal lung and needle decompression is indicated between the 4th and 5th intercostal space anteriorly.

  • 2. 
    Which of the following occurs as a result of indirect lung injury?
    • A. 

      Pneumonia, fat emboli, near drowning

    • B. 

      Pulmonary contusion, aspiration of gastric contents

    • C. 

      Sepsis, cardiopulmonary bypass, drug overdose

    • D. 

      Inhalation injury, pneumonia, pulmonary contusion

  • 3. 
    There are three main risk factors for developing PE. This is known as Virchow's triad. The three risk factors are (select all that apply):
    • A. 

      Venous stasis

    • B. 

      Diabetes

    • C. 

      Venous injury

    • D. 

      Hypercoagulation

  • 4. 
    _________________ is the drug of choice for emergency induction of an asthmatic patient due to its brochodilation effects. However, it may increase secretions and can be given with Robinul to conteract this effect. 
    • A. 

      Propofol

    • B. 

      Etomidate

    • C. 

      Desflurane

    • D. 

      Ketamine

  • 5. 
    For a pneumothorax that communicates with the atmospheric air , what is the immediate treatment?
    • A. 

      Occlusive dressing

    • B. 

      Needle decompression

    • C. 

      Chest tube

    • D. 

      Suture

  • 6. 
    Which of the following drugs are NOT ideal to use in patients with asthma? Select 4.
    • A. 

      Non-selective beta blockers

    • B. 

      H2 blockers

    • C. 

      Alpha agonists

    • D. 

      Ketamine

    • E. 

      Morphine

    • F. 

      Desflurane/Isoflurane

  • 7. 
    Which is the correct dosing for mannitol?
    • A. 

      0.25-1 g/kg

    • B. 

      0.25-1g

    • C. 

      0.25-1ml

    • D. 

      0.25-1mg/kg

  • 8. 
    Mannitol can be given when the BBB is disrupted. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 9. 
    Avoid administration of mannitol in these patients (select two).
    • A. 

      CHF

    • B. 

      Renal failure

    • C. 

      Liver failure

    • D. 

      Diabetic

  • 10. 
    Cerebral protection strategies include:
    • A. 

      Benzocaine, desflurane, hypoventilation, hyperthermia

    • B. 

      Hypoventilation, hyperthermia, lidocaine, isoflurane

    • C. 

      Lidocaine, isoflurane, hyperventilation, hypothermia

    • D. 

      Lidocaine, isoflurane, hypothermia, hypoventilation

  • 11. 
    Which of the following anesthetic agents increases CMRO2? Choose 2.
    • A. 

      Ketamine

    • B. 

      Sevoflurane

    • C. 

      N20

    • D. 

      Benzodiazepines

    • E. 

      Propofol

    • F. 

      Dexmedetomide

    • G. 

      Halothane

  • 12. 
    A patient is opening her eyes to pain, verbalizing incomprehensible sounds, and moves to localized pain. What is her GCS score? Is this number considered "comatose"?
    • A. 

      7, yes

    • B. 

      9, no

    • C. 

      7, no

    • D. 

      9, yes

  • 13. 
    Increased doses of anesthetic agents can slow EEG waveforms and may even completely abolish EEG activity. This is known as ____________.
  • 14. 
    How much CSF should be drained in increments with ongoing assessment?
    • A. 

      10-15ml

    • B. 

      5-10ml

    • C. 

      5-10L

    • D. 

      1-5ml

  • 15. 
    It is OK to use NMBAs with SSEP monitoring. Avoid NMBAs with MEP monitoring.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    ___________ is a common occurrence after intracranial bleed due to vasospasm. For this reason, levetiracetam should be given prior to incision in patient with recent TBI or SAH.
    • A. 

      Vomiting

    • B. 

      Apnea

    • C. 

      Loss of consciousness

    • D. 

      Seizure

  • 17. 
    What is the minimum amount of air able to be detected on precordial doppler?
    • A. 

      0.25ml

    • B. 

      1ml

    • C. 

      0.5ml

    • D. 

      1.25ml

  • 18. 
    ________________________ is the most sensitive method of monitoring for VAE.
    • A. 

      TEE

    • B. 

      Precordial

    • C. 

      ETCO2 >0.5%

    • D. 

      CVP

  • 19. 
    Which is the correct order of the fastest to slowest method of reducing ICP?
    • A. 

      Steroids>mannitol>lasix>hyperventilation

    • B. 

      Hyperventilation>lasix>mannitol>steroids

    • C. 

      Lasix>mannitol>hyperventilation>steroids

    • D. 

      Mannitol >lasix>hyperventilation>steroids

  • 20. 
    What should you avoid in patients with elevated ICP?
    • A. 

      Coughing

    • B. 

      Straining

    • C. 

      Vasodilators

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 21. 
    What are the correct symptoms of increased ICP, known as Cushing's triad?
    • A. 

      Decreased SBP, decreased HR, abnormal breathing

    • B. 

      Increased SBP, increased HR, abnormal breathing

    • C. 

      Increased SBP, decreased HR, abnormal breathing

    • D. 

      Decreased SBP, increased HR, abnormal breathing

  • 22. 
    Your patient's MAP is 65.Heart rate is 89. Temperature is 97.9F. ICP is 8. And its Sunday. What is CPP?
  • 23. 
    Place TOF monitor on ____________ side of stroke or spinal injury patient.
    • A. 

      Unaffected

    • B. 

      Affected

  • 24. 
    If a patient is given 1-2mg of edrophonium and muscle weakness gets worse, the patient is having a cholinergic crisis and atropine should be given. If the patient has improvement of symptoms, it is a myasthenic crisis. This test is called the Tensilon test.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
    Mild asthma is associated with which FEV1?
    • A. 

      35-49

    • B. 

      80-100

    • C. 

      65-80

    • D. 

      50-64

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