Windows Routing Tables Trivia Quiz

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  • How do you secure DFS Namespaces?

    • NTFS and shared folder permissions
    • NFS and shared folder permissions
    • Shared folder permissions
    • NTFS permissions
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About This Quiz

Dive into the Windows routing tables Trivia Quiz to enhance your knowledge on securing DFS Namespaces, VPN encryption, and using Windows Server as a router. This quiz is ideal for those preparing for IT certifications or managing network configurations.

Windows Routing Tables Trivia Quiz - Quiz
Questions and Answers
  • 2. 

    Which VPN feature prevents readable access to data without possession of the appropriate key?

    • Encryption

    • Authentication

    • Data integrity

    • Non-repudation

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryption
    Explanation
    Encryption is the correct answer because it is a VPN feature that ensures that data cannot be accessed or read without the appropriate key. Encryption involves encoding the data in such a way that it can only be decoded or decrypted with the correct key. This ensures that even if someone intercepts the data, they will not be able to understand or access it without the encryption key, providing a high level of security and privacy for the data being transmitted over the VPN.

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  • 3. 

    Which Windows tool is used to provide routing?

    • Internet Security and Acceleration Server

    • DirectAccess

    • Routing and Remote Access

    • Server Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Routing and Remote Access
    Explanation
    Routing and Remote Access is the correct answer because it is a Windows tool that is used to provide routing functionality. It allows a computer to act as a router, enabling it to forward network traffic between different networks or subnets. This tool is commonly used in scenarios where multiple networks need to be connected and data needs to be routed between them. It provides features such as Network Address Translation (NAT), DHCP relay, and VPN server capabilities, making it a versatile tool for managing network routing in Windows environments.

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  • 4. 

    In which of the following situations is it appropriate to use Windows Server 2016 as a router between two networks?

    • For heavy traffic on small networks

    • For light traffic on small networks

    • For light traffic on large networks

    • For heavy traffic on large networks

    Correct Answer
    A. For light traffic on small networks
    Explanation
    Windows Server 2016 can be used as a router between two networks for light traffic on small networks. This means that if the networks have low data transfer requirements and a limited number of devices, Windows Server 2016 can efficiently handle the routing tasks. However, for heavy traffic or large networks, it may not be suitable as it may not have the necessary capacity and performance capabilities to handle the increased load.

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  • 5. 

    RRAS has multiple options available to select one or more services to provide users. Which of the following is the correct description for the Network Address Translation (NAT) option?

    • Sets up the server to support incoming VPN connections and to provide NAT services

    • Sets up a demand-dial or persistent connection between two private networks

    • Sets up the server to provide NAT services to clients on a private network that need to access the internet

    • Sets up the server to accept incoming remote access connections (dial-up or VPN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Sets up the server to provide NAT services to clients on a private network that need to access the internet
    Explanation
    The correct description for the Network Address Translation (NAT) option is that it sets up the server to provide NAT services to clients on a private network that need to access the internet. This means that the server will translate the private IP addresses of the clients to a public IP address when accessing the internet, allowing them to communicate with external networks while maintaining their privacy.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following terms is defined as "an ordered list of servers or targets that a client computer receives from a domain controller or name space server when the user with targets"?

    • Reference

    • Target list

    • Namespace

    • Referral

    Correct Answer
    A. Referral
    Explanation
    Referral is the correct answer because it refers to an ordered list of servers or targets that a client computer receives from a domain controller or name space server when the user with targets. This list helps the client computer determine which server or target to connect to for a specific task or request.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following do you use to simplify the management of file screens?

    • File screen template

    • Active screen template

    • Passive screen template

    • Quota template

    Correct Answer
    A. File screen template
    Explanation
    A file screen template is used to simplify the management of file screens. It provides a predefined set of rules and settings that can be applied to multiple file screens, making it easier to enforce consistent file screening policies across an organization. This template allows administrators to quickly create and apply file screens without having to manually configure each screen individually. By using a file screen template, administrators can streamline the process of managing file screens and ensure that the desired restrictions and notifications are consistently applied to files.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of DFS Replication?

    • Additional memory required

    • Additional network bandwidth required

    • Additional storage space required

    • Additional CPU power required

    Correct Answer
    A. Additional storage space required
    Explanation
    DFS Replication is a feature in Windows Server that allows files to be replicated between servers for redundancy and availability. The primary disadvantage of DFS Replication is that it requires additional storage space. This is because the replicated files are stored on multiple servers, which increases the overall storage requirements. The more servers involved in the replication, the more storage space is needed. However, this disadvantage is offset by the benefits of redundancy and availability provided by DFS Replication.

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  • 9. 

    Which type of quota used with FSRM prevents users from saving files when the quota is exceeded?

    • Disk quota

    • Soft quota

    • File quota

    • Hard quota

    Correct Answer
    A. Hard quota
    Explanation
    A hard quota is a type of quota used with FSRM (File Server Resource Manager) that prevents users from saving files when the quota is exceeded. This means that once the allocated storage limit is reached, users will no longer be able to save any additional files until they either delete existing files or request additional storage space. Unlike soft quotas, which only generate warnings when the limit is exceeded, hard quotas enforce strict limitations on file storage and help maintain disk space management. Therefore, the correct answer is hard quota.

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  • 10. 

    Which type of screening prevents users from saving the defined unauthorized files?

    • Passive screening

    • Hard screening

    • Active screening

    • Soft screening

    Correct Answer
    A. Active screening
    Explanation
    Active screening is a type of screening that actively monitors and restricts user actions to prevent the saving of unauthorized files. It involves implementing security measures such as access controls, data loss prevention systems, and content filtering to detect and block any attempts to save files that are not permitted or violate organizational policies. By actively monitoring user activities and enforcing restrictions, active screening helps to ensure that only authorized files are saved, enhancing data security and preventing unauthorized access or leakage of sensitive information.

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  • 11. 

    On Windows, which command is used to view and define static routes?

    • Router

    • Route

    • Staticr

    • IPConfig

    Correct Answer
    A. Route
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Route." On Windows, the "Route" command is used to view and define static routes. This command allows users to manually configure the routing table, specifying the destination network, subnet mask, gateway, and metric. By using the "Route" command, users can control the flow of network traffic and determine the most efficient path for data packets to reach their destination.

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  • 12. 

    How are routing tables created dynamically?

    • By using the MAC address protocol

    • By using a routing protocol

    • By using a Layer 2 switch

    • With static routes

    Correct Answer
    A. By using a routing protocol
    Explanation
    Routing tables are created dynamically by using a routing protocol. A routing protocol is a set of rules and algorithms that enable routers to exchange information and dynamically update their routing tables. These protocols allow routers to communicate with each other, share information about network topology, and determine the most efficient paths for forwarding data packets. By continuously exchanging and updating routing information, routers can adapt to changes in network conditions, such as link failures or new network connections, and dynamically update their routing tables to ensure efficient and reliable packet forwarding.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following can use to show a list of duplicate files on a volume?

    • Reports

    • Disk quotas

    • File screens

    • Folder quotas

    Correct Answer
    A. Reports
    Explanation
    Reports can be used to show a list of duplicate files on a volume. Reports provide a comprehensive overview of the files and their attributes on a volume, allowing users to identify duplicate files by comparing their names, sizes, or other characteristics. By generating a report, users can easily identify and manage duplicate files, freeing up storage space and improving file organization. Disk quotas, file screens, and folder quotas do not specifically focus on identifying duplicate files, making them less suitable for this purpose.

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  • 14. 

    Which mode of BranchCache conifguration uses one or more dedicated servers to provide the cached copy in the branch office?

    • Dedicated cache mode

    • Hosted cache mode

    • Local copy mode

    • Central cache mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Hosted cache mode
    Explanation
    Hosted cache mode is the correct answer because it involves using one or more dedicated servers to provide the cached copy in the branch office. In this mode, the cache is hosted on a server located in the branch office, allowing clients in the same office to access the cached content locally. This mode is suitable for branch offices that have a reliable server infrastructure and can provide efficient caching services to the clients.

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  • 15. 

    What must be configured for a Windows desktop client to support BranchCache

    • Install the BranchCache

    • Download the BranchCache add-on from http://technet.microsoft.com

    • BranchCache is only supported by servers not desktop clients

    • Turn-on via Active Directory

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn-on via Active Directory
    Explanation
    To enable BranchCache on a Windows desktop client, it must be configured to turn on via Active Directory. This means that the Group Policy settings in Active Directory need to be configured to enable BranchCache on the client. By turning on BranchCache via Active Directory, the client will be able to utilize the caching technology to improve network performance by caching content from remote servers and sharing it with other clients on the same network.

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  • 16. 

    DFS Namespace shared folders are reffered to as which of the following in relation to the virtual folders?

    • Redirects

    • Links

    • Folder Spaces

    • Targets

    Correct Answer
    A. Targets
    Explanation
    DFS Namespace shared folders are referred to as "Targets" in relation to the virtual folders. This term is used to indicate that these shared folders are the destinations or endpoints that the DFS Namespace points to. When a client accesses a DFS Namespace, it is redirected to one of the available targets, which are the shared folders, to access the files or resources within them. Therefore, the correct answer is "Targets".

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  • 17. 

    Which VPN feature guarantees that a transferred message was sent and received by the two parties claiming to have sent and received the message?

    • Data integrity

    • Encryption

    • Authentication

    • Non-repudation

    Correct Answer
    A. Data integrity
    Explanation
    Data integrity is the VPN feature that ensures that a transferred message was sent and received by the two parties claiming to have sent and received the message. Data integrity ensures that the data remains intact and unaltered during transmission, preventing any unauthorized modifications or tampering. This feature verifies the integrity of the data, providing assurance that it has not been modified or corrupted during transit.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is the primary difference between domain-based namespace and stand-alone namespace?

    • The requirement for at least one Windows Server 2008 system

    • Where the namespaces are stored

    • The names given to namespaces

    • The number of servers participating in the namespace

    Correct Answer
    A. Where the namespaces are stored
    Explanation
    The primary difference between domain-based namespace and stand-alone namespace is where the namespaces are stored. In a domain-based namespace, the namespace information is stored in Active Directory, allowing for centralized management and access control. On the other hand, in a stand-alone namespace, the namespace information is stored on individual servers, making it more decentralized and potentially less scalable.

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  • 19. 

    Your company has two a server called FS1. FS1 has a folder named Folder1 that contains MS Excel financial files. After several days, you discover that random Word and PowerPoint files are showing up. You need to ensure that all of the files in Folder1 are MS Excel file format, how can you do this?

    • Create a file screen using FSRM to restrict file types save on the shared folder

    • Implement disk quotas to restrict users from saving unrelated data on the shared folder

    • Implement DFS and have it replicate with a second server to guarantee that at least one server has the files you want

    • Modify the size of the partition hosting folder to prevent running out of space

    Correct Answer
    A. Create a file screen using FSRM to restrict file types save on the shared folder
    Explanation
    By creating a file screen using FSRM (File Server Resource Manager), you can restrict the file types that can be saved in the shared folder. This means that only MS Excel file formats will be allowed, preventing any random Word or PowerPoint files from being saved. FSRM helps in enforcing file management policies and ensures that the desired file types are maintained in the folder.

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  • 20. 

    Which VPN tunneling protocol uses IPsec with 3DES for data confidentiality?

    • PPTP

    • IKEv2

    • SSTP

    • L2TP

    Correct Answer
    A. L2TP
    Explanation
    L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) is the correct answer. L2TP uses IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) with 3DES (Triple Data Encryption Standard) for data confidentiality. IPsec provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting the data packets. 3DES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that applies the Data Encryption Standard (DES) algorithm three times to each data block, making it more secure. Therefore, L2TP with IPsec and 3DES ensures the confidentiality of data transmitted through the VPN tunnel.

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  • 21. 

    Of the four VPN tunneling protocols, which has the weakest encryption?

    • PPTP

    • L2TP

    • SSTP

    • IKEv2

    Correct Answer
    A. SSTP
    Explanation
    SSTP stands for Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol, which is a VPN tunneling protocol that uses SSL/TLS encryption. While it is generally considered secure, it is considered to have weaker encryption compared to the other options listed. Therefore, SSTP is the VPN tunneling protocol with the weakest encryption among PPTP, L2TP, SSTP, and IKEv2.

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  • 22. 

    Which authentication method is the weakest (least secure)?

    • CHAP

    • MS-CHAPv2

    • EAP

    • PAP

    Correct Answer
    A. PAP
    Explanation
    PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) is the weakest authentication method among the options provided. PAP sends the password in clear text, without any encryption or protection, making it vulnerable to interception and unauthorized access. In contrast, CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) and MS-CHAPv2 (Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2) use stronger encryption and mutual authentication mechanisms. EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) is a framework that supports multiple authentication methods, some of which can provide stronger security than PAP.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following DON'T you perform when you change a quota template?

    • Warning level

    • Hard vs Soft

    • File type

    • Size limit

    Correct Answer
    A. File type
    Explanation
    When changing a quota template, you do not perform any actions related to the "File type." Changing a quota template typically involves modifying settings such as the warning level, hard vs soft limits, and size limits. However, file type is not a parameter that is typically adjusted when changing a quota template.

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  • 24. 

    Your network consists of an Active Directory domain. You have 1 domain controller and 2 file servers at the main site, all locations are connected to the main one via a high-speed and reliable connection. You have a shared folder accessed by numerous users across an enterprise with multiple locations. You need to suggest a solution to make the access to the shared documents more efficient for users on outside locations in the most-cost effective way.

    • Create an FSRM file screen filter to prevent users from saving unnecessary files within the shared folders

    • Install BranchCache in hosted mode

    • Install servers at all other locations, create a DFS namespace and add the shared folder as a target

    • Install BranchCache in distributed mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Install servers at all other locations, create a DFS namespace and add the shared folder as a target
    Explanation
    Installing servers at all other locations, creating a DFS namespace, and adding the shared folder as a target would be the most cost-effective solution to make access to the shared documents more efficient for users on outside locations. This solution would allow the users to access the shared folder locally from their respective locations, reducing the latency and improving the overall performance. Additionally, DFS provides fault tolerance and load balancing, ensuring that the shared folder remains accessible even if one of the servers goes down.

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  • 25. 

    A company's administrator has installed the FSRM role service to manage stored data on a file server. The administrator would like to configure quotas limits for users when they create new folders. Which of the following should the administrator configure to enforce quota limits for users when they create new folders?

    • File quota

    • File screen

    • File quota template

    • File group

    Correct Answer
    A. File quota template
    Explanation
    To enforce quota limits for users when they create new folders, the administrator should configure the "File quota template." A file quota template allows the administrator to define specific quota limits that will be applied to new folders created by users. By configuring the file quota template, the administrator can ensure that users do not exceed a certain amount of storage space when creating new folders. This helps in managing and controlling the amount of stored data on the file server.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following allows central configuration and management of physical and virtual network devices, including routers, switches, and gateways in a data center?

    • RRAS Multi-tenant Gateway

    • Software-Defined Networking

    • Hyper-V Network Virtualization

    • Network Controller

    Correct Answer
    A. Software-Defined Networking
    Explanation
    Software-Defined Networking (SDN) allows central configuration and management of physical and virtual network devices, including routers, switches, and gateways in a data center. With SDN, the control plane is decoupled from the data plane, enabling administrators to programmatically manage and control the network infrastructure through a centralized controller. This provides flexibility, scalability, and automation, making it easier to configure and manage the network devices in a data center environment.

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  • 27. 

    Which additional role should be installed in Windows Server 2016 hosts running Hyper-V?

    • RemoteApp

    • File Services

    • ISCSI

    • None

    • DNS Server

    Correct Answer
    A. None
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is "None" because when running Hyper-V on Windows Server 2016 hosts, there is no additional role that needs to be installed. Hyper-V is a built-in feature of Windows Server 2016 and does not require any additional roles to be installed for its functionality. Therefore, the correct answer is "None" as no additional roles are needed.

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  • 28. 

    Which NLB control command would be the correct one to use to gracefully prepare a node for a planned maintenance activity?

    • Stand by

    • Pause

    • Drainstop

    • Stop

    Correct Answer
    A. Drainstop
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Drainstop". When preparing a node for planned maintenance activity, using the "Drainstop" command in NLB control helps to gracefully remove the node from the load balancing pool. This command allows the node to finish processing any existing connections before stopping new connections, ensuring a smooth transition without causing disruptions to the overall system performance.

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  • 29. 

    Which type of quorum configuration can sustain the loss of one-half of the cluster nodes (rounded up), minus one?

    • Failover Witness

    • Node Majority with Witness Disk

    • No Majority (disk witness only)

    • Node Majority (no witness)

    Correct Answer
    A. Node Majority (no witness)
    Explanation
    Node Majority (no witness) is the correct answer because in this quorum configuration, a majority of the cluster nodes is required for the cluster to remain online. In case of a loss of one-half of the cluster nodes (rounded up), the remaining nodes will still form a majority and the cluster will continue to function. The other quorum configurations mentioned either require a witness disk or do not have enough nodes to sustain the loss of one-half of the cluster nodes.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following statements about Network Load Balancing is NOT true?

    • Windows Server 2016 NLB clusters have between 2 and 32 nodes

    • NLB detects the failure of a cluster node using a hearbeat

    • All hosts in the NLB cluster receive the incoming traffic

    • Network adapters in the NLB cluster can use both multicast and unicast simultaneously

    Correct Answer
    A. Network adapters in the NLB cluster can use both multicast and unicast simultaneously
    Explanation
    Network adapters in the NLB cluster cannot use both multicast and unicast simultaneously. NLB clusters can use either multicast or unicast mode, but not both at the same time. In multicast mode, all hosts in the cluster share a single multicast IP address, while in unicast mode, each host in the cluster has its own unique IP address.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following names is given to the Fibre Channel network used by failover clusters to connect to a shared storage device?

    • A fiber

    • A stretched network

    • The APIPA network

    • A fabric

    Correct Answer
    A. A fabric
    Explanation
    A fabric is the correct answer because in the context of failover clusters connecting to a shared storage device, a fabric refers to the Fibre Channel network. A fabric is a high-speed network infrastructure that allows multiple devices to communicate with each other, providing a reliable and scalable connection for failover clusters to access shared storage.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following enables centralized management of virtualized workloads?

    • SCOM

    • SCCM

    • SCVMM

    • SCDPM

    Correct Answer
    A. SCVMM
    Explanation
    SCVMM (System Center Virtual Machine Manager) enables centralized management of virtualized workloads. It is a Microsoft software solution that allows administrators to create, deploy, and manage virtual machines (VMs) on a virtualized infrastructure. With SCVMM, administrators can easily provision and configure VMs, monitor their performance, and automate tasks such as load balancing and live migration. It provides a single interface for managing multiple virtualization platforms, such as Hyper-V, VMware, and Citrix. SCVMM simplifies the management of virtualized workloads by providing a centralized and comprehensive solution.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is the function of port rules in an NLB cluster?

    • They define which ports are balanced among the hosts of the cluster

    • They define the ports for which the cluster will not listen

    • They define which ports are allowed to pass through the cluster

    • They define the ports for which the cluster will listen

    Correct Answer
    A. They define which ports are balanced among the hosts of the cluster
    Explanation
    Port rules in an NLB cluster are used to define which ports are balanced among the hosts of the cluster. This means that the traffic coming through those ports will be distributed evenly among the hosts, allowing for load balancing. By specifying the ports that should be balanced, the cluster ensures that no single host is overwhelmed with traffic, improving performance and availability.

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  • 34. 

    How many virtual adapters are included by default, after creating a VM?

    • 4

    • 0

    • 1

    • 16

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    After creating a VM, only one virtual adapter is included by default. This virtual adapter allows the VM to connect to the network and communicate with other devices. Additional virtual adapters can be added if needed, but the default configuration includes only one.

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  • 35. 

    Server virtualization in Windows Server 2016 is based on a module called:

    • Hyper Sphere

    • Citrix

    • Hyper-V

    • VSphere

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyper-V
    Explanation
    Server virtualization in Windows Server 2016 is based on a module called Hyper-V. Hyper-V is a hypervisor-based virtualization technology that allows multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical server. It provides the ability to create, manage, and run virtual machines, allowing for better utilization of hardware resources and increased flexibility in managing server workloads. Hyper-V is a key component of Microsoft's virtualization strategy and is widely used in enterprise environments for consolidating servers and optimizing resource allocation.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is the primary graphical tool for creating and managing virtual machines?

    • Hyper-V Manager

    • Server Manager

    • Add Roles and Features Wizard

    • PowerShell

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyper-V Manager
    Explanation
    Hyper-V Manager is the primary graphical tool for creating and managing virtual machines. It allows users to create, configure, and manage virtual machines and their resources. With Hyper-V Manager, users can easily create new virtual machines, modify their settings, start or stop them, and monitor their performance. It provides a user-friendly interface for managing virtual machines, making it the preferred tool for virtualization management.

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  • 37. 

    When the Hyper-V role is added to a Windows Server 2016 server, the hypervisor creates the individual environments, each of which has its own operating system installed and accesses the computer's hardware via the hypervisor. Which term refers to those individual environments?

    • Partitions

    • Servers

    • Processors

    • Machines

    Correct Answer
    A. Partitions
    Explanation
    When the Hyper-V role is added to a Windows Server 2016 server, the hypervisor creates individual environments called "partitions". These partitions have their own operating system installed and access the computer's hardware through the hypervisor. Each partition operates independently, allowing multiple virtual machines to run on the same physical server.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is used to communicate with the network?

    • Westbound API

    • Northbound API

    • Southbound A

    • Eastbound API

    Correct Answer
    A. Southbound A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Southbound API." A Southbound API is used to communicate with the network. Southbound APIs are responsible for communication between the network controller and the network devices. They allow the controller to send instructions and commands to the network devices, enabling control and management of the network infrastructure.

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  • 39. 

    In some cases, certain Hyper-V guest operating system features do not function properly using the operating system's own device drivers. Which Hyper-V software package can help remedy compatibility issues?

    • Guest integration services

    • Smart paging

    • Resource Metering

    • Hyper-V server

    Correct Answer
    A. Guest integration services
    Explanation
    Guest integration services is the correct answer because it is a Hyper-V software package that helps remedy compatibility issues with certain Hyper-V guest operating system features. These services provide drivers and services that enhance the performance and functionality of the guest operating system running on a Hyper-V virtual machine. They enable features such as time synchronization, heartbeat, backup integration, and improved network and storage capabilities, ensuring that the guest operating system functions properly within the Hyper-V environment.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is required to use the Client Hyper-V feature in Windows Server 2016?

    • The computer must be using two or more SAS disk drives on separate storage buses

    • Which of the following requirements must be met to use the Client Hyper-V feature in Windows Server 2016

    • The computer must have a 64-bit processor that incorporates second level address translation (SLAT) technology

    • The computer must have a minimum of 32 GB of memory

    Correct Answer
    A. The computer must have a 64-bit processor that incorporates second level address translation (SLAT) technology
    Explanation
    To use the Client Hyper-V feature in Windows Server 2016, the computer must have a 64-bit processor that incorporates second level address translation (SLAT) technology. This technology allows for efficient virtualization and improves performance by providing hardware-assisted memory virtualization. It is a requirement because Hyper-V relies on SLAT technology to efficiently manage and allocate memory resources for virtual machines. The other requirements mentioned in the question, such as the number of SAS disk drives or the amount of memory, are not relevant to the use of Client Hyper-V in Windows Server 2016.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is the minimum number of nodes that a production-ready failover cluster requires?

    • 3

    • 7

    • 2

    • 5

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A production-ready failover cluster requires a minimum of 2 nodes. This is because a failover cluster is designed to provide high availability and redundancy. With only 1 node, there would be no redundancy as there would be no other node to failover to in case of a failure. Therefore, a minimum of 2 nodes is required to ensure that there is at least one backup node available to take over in case of a failure.

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  • 42. 

    Which cluster operation mode is designed to prevent the network switch from flooding with traffic?

    • IGMP Multicast

    • Single

    • Unicast

    • Multicast

    Correct Answer
    A. IGMP Multicast
    Explanation
    IGMP Multicast is the correct answer because it is a cluster operation mode specifically designed to prevent the network switch from becoming flooded with traffic. IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is a communication protocol used by hosts and adjacent routers on an Internet Protocol (IP) network to establish multicast group memberships. By using IGMP Multicast, the network switch can efficiently handle multicast traffic by only forwarding it to the devices that have explicitly requested to join the multicast group, thus preventing unnecessary flooding of traffic.

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  • 43. 

    In which NLB cluster operation mode is the MAC address of every node's network adapter replaced with a single shared MAC address?

    • Multicast

    • Unicast

    • Telecast

    • Singlecast

    Correct Answer
    A. Unicast
    Explanation
    In Unicast mode, the MAC address of every node's network adapter is replaced with a single shared MAC address. This allows the NLB cluster to appear as a single server to the clients, improving load balancing and fault tolerance. In this mode, the cluster nodes receive and process all incoming requests, and the load is distributed among them.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following options is NOT used when configuring port rules for NLB clusters?

    • The node IP address to which the rule should apply

    • The filtering mode

    • The node IP address to which the rule should apply

    • The filtering mode

    Correct Answer
    A. The node IP address to which the rule should apply
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the option that is NOT used when configuring port rules for NLB clusters. The correct answer is "The node IP address to which the rule should apply." When configuring port rules for NLB clusters, the node IP address to which the rule should apply is a necessary parameter that needs to be specified. Therefore, this option is not correct. The filtering mode, on the other hand, is used when configuring port rules for NLB clusters, as it determines how network traffic is filtered and distributed among the nodes in the cluster.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following technologies transparently distributes traffic across multiple servers by using virtual IP addresses and a shared name?

    • Rendundant network cards

    • RAID array

    • Network Load Balancing

    • Failover cluster

    Correct Answer
    A. Network Load Balancing
    Explanation
    Network Load Balancing is a technology that transparently distributes traffic across multiple servers by using virtual IP addresses and a shared name. This allows for efficient utilization of server resources and ensures high availability and scalability of the network. By evenly distributing incoming requests, Network Load Balancing prevents any single server from being overwhelmed and ensures that the workload is evenly distributed across the servers in the cluster.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following operating systems can NOT be used in Hyper V virtual machines for Windows Server 2016?

    • Windows 10

    • Windows 10 Home

    • Windows Server 2012

    • Windows Server 2003

    • SuSE Linux

    Correct Answer
    A. Windows Server 2003
    Explanation
    Windows Server 2003 cannot be used in Hyper V virtual machines for Windows Server 2016 because Windows Server 2003 is an older operating system that is not compatible with the newer version of Hyper V. Hyper V requires a minimum version of Windows Server 2008 as the guest operating system.

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  • 47. 

    According to Microsoft, Windows Server 2016 can run many virtual machines on each failover cluster; how many?

    • 4000

    • 8000

    • 16

    • 1000

    • 2

    Correct Answer
    A. 8000
    Explanation
    Windows Server 2016 can run up to 8,000 virtual machines on each failover cluster. This means that the failover cluster has the capacity to support a large number of virtual machines, allowing for efficient and scalable virtualization capabilities.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following can be used to add Network Load Balancing (NLB) to a Windows Server 2016 computer?

    • Add/Remove Programs

    • Programs and Features

    • Server Manager

    • Computer Management

    Correct Answer
    A. Server Manager
    Explanation
    Server Manager can be used to add Network Load Balancing (NLB) to a Windows Server 2016 computer. Server Manager is a management console that allows administrators to manage and configure various server roles and features, including NLB. It provides a centralized interface to install, configure, and manage server roles and features on remote and local servers. Therefore, using Server Manager, administrators can easily add NLB to a Windows Server 2016 computer.

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  • 49. 

    Which Windows Server 2016 feature can be used to run a virtual machine inside another virtual machine?

    • Nested virtualization

    • Virtual Machine Monitor Engine

    • VNode

    • Hyper-V-in-Hyper-V

    Correct Answer
    A. Nested virtualization
    Explanation
    Nested virtualization is a feature in Windows Server 2016 that allows a virtual machine to run inside another virtual machine. This feature enables the creation of a virtualization environment within an existing virtual machine, providing the ability to run multiple layers of virtual machines. Nested virtualization is useful in scenarios where virtual machines need to be isolated or when testing and development environments require multiple levels of virtualization.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 5, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 05, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 10, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Ryanbecker24

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