A Quiz On Vigilance And CDA Rules
The purpose of this Quiz is to test the knowledge of Vigilance functions and CDA Rules amongst the employees.
Kindly read and follow the instructions carefully before proceeding further:
Quiz Start Time : 3.00 P. M
Quiz End Time : 3.20 P. M
Total Time for the quiz: 20 minsMultiple attempts shall result in disqualification from the Competition. Incomplete details of the participants shall be disqualified instantly. Please maintain absolute integrity while taking the Quiz. In case of a tie in marks, rankings shall be decided on the basis of minimum time taken by the participant to complete the quiz.
All the Read moreBest NR-I !
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Misconduct is defined in the CDA Rules in
- A.
Rule 4
- B.
Rule 5
- C.
Rule 3
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Rule 5Explanation
The correct answer is Rule 5 because misconduct is defined in the CDA Rules under this specific rule. The other options, Rule 4 and Rule 3, are not the correct answers as they do not define misconduct. The option "None of the above" is also not correct as Rule 5 does define misconduct.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Employee means a person in the employment of the company including the casual or contingent staff.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The given statement is incorrect. An employee refers to a person who is in a formal employment agreement with a company, receiving regular wages or salary, and entitled to certain benefits and protections. Casual or contingent staff are not considered employees as they typically have temporary or irregular work arrangements and may not receive the same benefits and protections as regular employees. Therefore, the correct answer is false.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A POWERGRID employee is indulged in destroying, cancelling or altering or causing others to destroy, cancel or alter confidential computer programme including computer command, design and layout, computer system and computer network etc. His/her above act of commission/commission is a misconduct under
- A.
Rule 4(e )
- B.
Rule 4 (f )
- C.
Rule 5 (1) ( e)
- D.
Rule 5 (1) ( f)
Correct Answer
D. Rule 5 (1) ( f)Explanation
The correct answer is Rule 5 (1) (f). This rule states that engaging in any act of destroying, cancelling, altering, or causing others to destroy, cancel, or alter confidential computer programs, including computer command, design and layout, computer system, and computer network, is considered misconduct.Rate this question:
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- 4.
An employee may refuse to work on Holiday or on Sundays of beyond working hours when notified/directed to do so in the exigencies of Company’s interest.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because an employee may indeed be required to work on holidays, Sundays, or beyond regular working hours if it is necessary for the company's interests. In certain situations, such as during peak seasons or emergencies, employees may be asked to work outside of their normal schedule to meet the demands of the business. Therefore, the statement that an employee can refuse to work under these circumstances is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 5.
If any employee fails to comply with the terms & conditions associated with the loan/advance granted to him, he commits misconduct under CDA Rule ____
- A.
5(21)
- B.
5(22)
- C.
5(23)
- D.
5 (24)
Correct Answer
C. 5(23)Explanation
If an employee fails to comply with the terms and conditions associated with the loan/advance granted to him, he commits misconduct under CDA Rule 5(23).Rate this question:
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- 6.
An executive have to report to the Competent Authority in case he/she accepts gifts from personal friends or near relatives having no official dealings with him/her on social or religious occasions if the value of such gift exceeds:-
- A.
Rs.10,000/-
- B.
Rs.15,000/-
- C.
Rs.25,000/-
- D.
Rs.50,000/-
Correct Answer
C. Rs.25,000/-Explanation
If an executive accepts gifts from personal friends or near relatives who have no official dealings with them on social or religious occasions, they are required to report to the Competent Authority if the value of the gift exceeds Rs.25,000/-. This reporting is necessary to ensure transparency and prevent any potential conflicts of interest or unethical practices. By reporting such gifts, the executive can maintain accountability and uphold the integrity of their position.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Adopting a dilatory attitude, leading to delay in decision making and/or harassment of the public is misconduct.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Adopting a dilatory attitude, which means intentionally delaying decision-making or causing harassment to the public, is considered misconduct. This behavior goes against the principles of efficiency, fairness, and professionalism expected from individuals in positions of authority. It can lead to negative consequences such as increased frustration, loss of trust in the system, and potential harm to the public. Therefore, the statement "Adopting a dilatory attitude, leading to delay in decision making and/or harassment of the public is misconduct" is true.Rate this question:
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- 8.
An employee can take part in any broadcast or contribute any article if such broadcast or such contribution is of purely literacy, artistic or scientific character.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
This statement is true because it states that an employee can participate in any broadcast or contribute any article as long as it is purely literary, artistic, or scientific in nature. This suggests that the employee has the freedom to engage in creative or educational activities outside of their regular work responsibilities, as long as it aligns with these specific categories.Rate this question:
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- 9.
An employee can without previous sanction give evidence in connection with any enquiry conducted by any person, committee or authority.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
An employee cannot give evidence in connection with any enquiry conducted by any person, committee or authority without previous sanction.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Other than occasions such as weddings, anniversaries, funerals or religious functions, an employee of the company shall not accept or permit any member of his family or any other person acting on his behalf to accept any gifts without the sanction of the competent authority if the value thereof exceeds:
- A.
Rs.20,000/-
- B.
Rs.4,000/-
- C.
Rs.7,000/-
- D.
Rs.1,500/-
Correct Answer
D. Rs.1,500/-Explanation
Employees of the company are not allowed to accept or permit their family members or anyone acting on their behalf to accept any gifts without the approval of the competent authority if the value of the gift exceeds Rs.1,500/-. This policy is in place to prevent any potential conflicts of interest or favoritism that may arise from accepting expensive gifts. By setting a limit on the value of gifts, the company ensures that employees maintain their integrity and impartiality in their work.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The provision of “Prior intimation of purchase of immovable property to the Competent Authority” is stipulated in CDA Rule______
- A.
15 (1)
- B.
16(1)
- C.
15(2)
- D.
16 (2)
Correct Answer
B. 16(1)Explanation
The correct answer is 16(1). This means that the provision of "Prior intimation of purchase of immovable property to the Competent Authority" is stipulated in CDA Rule 16(1).Rate this question:
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- 12.
An employee of POWERGRID is contemplating buying a flat under construction, from a builder. When should he intimate the property as per CDA Rules?
- A.
After paying 1st installment
- B.
After possession
- C.
Before booking of flat
- D.
Before 30 days of registration
Correct Answer
C. Before booking of flatExplanation
The employee of POWERGRID should intimate the property before booking the flat. This means that he should inform the relevant authorities about his intention to purchase the flat before making any formal agreement or payment to the builder. This is in accordance with the CDA Rules, which likely require individuals to provide prior notice and obtain necessary approvals before entering into any property transactions.Rate this question:
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- 13.
No employee shall bring or attempt to bring any outside influence to bear upon any superior authority to further his interests in respect of matters pertaining to his service in the company. This is stipulated in POWERGRID CDA Rule No.
- A.
16
- B.
17
- C.
18
- D.
19
Correct Answer
B. 17Explanation
This rule states that no employee is allowed to bring or try to bring any external influence to persuade a superior authority for personal gain regarding matters related to their service in the company.Rate this question:
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- 14.
As per POWERGRID CDA Rules, an employee is deemed to have been suspended when he is detailed in Police Custody, whether or criminal charges or otherwise for a period ________
- A.
12 hours
- B.
24 hours
- C.
36 hours
- D.
48 hours.
Correct Answer
D. 48 hours.Explanation
As per POWERGRID CDA Rules, an employee is deemed to have been suspended when he is detailed in Police Custody, whether for criminal charges or otherwise, for a period of 48 hours.Rate this question:
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- 15.
As per CDA Rules, Compulsory Retirement is a __________
- A.
Administrative Action
- B.
Minor Penalty
- C.
Major Penalty
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
C. Major PenaltyExplanation
According to CDA Rules, compulsory retirement is considered a major penalty. This means that it is a severe disciplinary action taken against an employee for serious misconduct or failure to perform their duties satisfactorily. Compulsory retirement is a serious consequence and can have significant implications for the employee's career and benefits. It is not considered a minor penalty or an administrative action, as it involves the termination of the employee's service.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which one of the following is true about “ Censure” ?
- It is an administrative Action
- It is a Minor Penalty
- No appeal can be made against it
- It has currency of 2 years.
- A.
Only (i) is correct
- B.
Only (ii) is correct
- C.
(i), (iii) & (iv) are correct
- D.
Both (ii) & (iii) are correct
Correct Answer
D. Both (ii) & (iii) are correctExplanation
Censure is a minor penalty, meaning it is a form of punishment or reprimand for misconduct or wrongdoing. It is not an administrative action, as stated in option (i). Additionally, no appeal can be made against censure, as mentioned in option (iii). However, there is no information provided about the currency of censure, so option (iv) cannot be determined. Therefore, the correct answer is that only option (ii) is correct, as censure is a minor penalty, and option (iii) is incorrect, as there can be no appeal against it.Rate this question:
- 17.
Which among following are correct ?
- After removal, an employee can seek another job in government/public sector.
- Dismissal bars further employment in government/public sector
- A.
Only (i) is correct
- B.
Only (ii) is correct
- C.
Both are correct
- D.
Both are incorrect
Correct Answer
A. Only (i) is correctExplanation
The correct answer is Only (i) is correct. This means that after removal, an employee can seek another job in the government/public sector. This implies that dismissal does not bar further employment in the government/public sector.Rate this question:
- 18.
Which one of the following is not a penalty ?
- A.
Stoppage of an employee at the efficiency bar at a time scale, on the ground of his unfitness to cross the bar.
- B.
Censure
- C.
Dismissal
- D.
All above.
Correct Answer
A. Stoppage of an employee at the efficiency bar at a time scale, on the ground of his unfitness to cross the bar.Explanation
Stoppage of an employee at the efficiency bar at a time scale, on the ground of his unfitness to cross the bar is not considered a penalty because it is a measure taken to assess the employee's performance and determine their suitability for promotion. It is not a punitive action taken against the employee, but rather a decision based on their competence and ability to meet the required standards. Censure and dismissal, on the other hand, are penalties that involve reprimanding or terminating an employee for their actions or performance.Rate this question:
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- 19.
“Recovery from pay or such other amount as may be due to him, of the whole or part of any pecuniary loss, caused to the company by negligence or breach of orders.” Is a _____ as per CDA Rule.
- A.
Major Penalty
- B.
Minor Penalty
- C.
Administrative Action
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
B. Minor PenaltyExplanation
The given statement describes the action of recovering a pecuniary loss caused to the company by negligence or breach of orders. This action is classified as a "Minor Penalty" according to the CDA Rule.Rate this question:
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- 20.
An employee is required to submit his reply to the charge-sheet served on him within
- A.
10 days
- B.
15 days
- C.
30 days
- D.
45 days
Correct Answer
B. 15 daysExplanation
The correct answer is 15 days. This is likely because 15 days provides a reasonable amount of time for the employee to review the charge-sheet, gather any necessary evidence or information, and prepare a well-thought-out response. It strikes a balance between giving the employee enough time to adequately respond and ensuring that the process does not unnecessarily delay.Rate this question:
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- 21.
An employee can engage a legal practitioner for assistance during disciplinary case against him
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
An employee cannot engage a legal practitioner for assistance during a disciplinary case against him. In most cases, the disciplinary process is an internal matter within the company, and employees are not entitled to legal representation. The company may have its own procedures and guidelines for handling disciplinary cases, which may or may not involve legal practitioners. However, in more serious cases that may involve legal implications, such as criminal charges, an employee may have the right to legal representation.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The provision of common departmental proceedings has been stipulated in POWERGRID CDA Rule No. ______
- A.
28
- B.
29
- C.
30
- D.
31
Correct Answer
B. 29Explanation
The correct answer is 29. This is because the provision of common departmental proceedings is stipulated in POWERGRID CDA Rule No. 29.Rate this question:
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- 23.
As per CDA Rule, an appeal to the Disciplinary Authority can be made against :- i) Warning Memo ii) Suspension iii) Minor Penalty iv) Major Penalty
- A.
I), iii) & iv) are correct
- B.
I), iii) & iv) are incorrect
- C.
Iii) & iv) are correct
- D.
All are incorrect
Correct Answer
C. Iii) & iv) are correctExplanation
According to the CDA Rule, an appeal to the Disciplinary Authority can be made against minor penalties and major penalties. This means that options iii) and iv) are correct.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The appellate Authority to whom appeal is made can enhance the penalty imposed on an employee.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The appellate authority has the power to increase the penalty imposed on an employee. This means that if an employee appeals against a penalty, the appellate authority can not only uphold the penalty but also increase its severity. This allows the appellate authority to ensure that appropriate actions are taken against employees who have committed serious offenses, even if the initial penalty was deemed insufficient.Rate this question:
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- 25.
As per Rule 32(2) of CDA Rule, an appeal shall be preferred within _______ from the date of communication of the order appealed against.
- A.
15 days
- B.
20 days
- C.
1 month
- D.
2 months
Correct Answer
C. 1 monthExplanation
As per Rule 32(2) of CDA Rule, an appeal must be filed within 1 month from the date of communication of the order appealed against. This means that individuals who wish to appeal a decision must do so within a period of 30 days from the date they received the order. Failing to file the appeal within this timeframe may result in the appeal being rejected or not considered.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Every notice, order and other process made or issued under the CDA Rules shall be served in person on the employee concerned or communicated to him.
- A.
By registered post to his official address
- B.
By registered post to his residential address
- C.
By registered post to his ancestral address
- D.
By registered post to his last known address
Correct Answer
A. By registered post to his official addressExplanation
According to the given statement, every notice, order, or other process made or issued under the CDA Rules should be served in person on the employee concerned or communicated to him. The correct answer, "By registered post to his official address," aligns with this requirement as it ensures that the communication is sent directly to the employee's official address, which is most likely the address associated with their employment. This method of communication provides an official record of delivery and ensures that the employee receives the notice or process.Rate this question:
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- 27.
As per POWERGRID CDA Rules, an employee against whom disciplinary action / proceeding is pending at the time of resignation / retirement etc will not be paid _____ unless the action / proceedings against him have been finalized.
- A.
Provident Fund
- B.
Leave Encashment
- C.
Gratuity
- D.
Last month salary
Correct Answer
C. GratuityExplanation
As per POWERGRID CDA Rules, an employee who has disciplinary action or proceedings pending at the time of resignation or retirement will not be paid gratuity unless the action or proceedings against them have been finalized. This means that if an employee is facing disciplinary action or proceedings, they will not receive their gratuity payment until the matter has been resolved and a decision has been made.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Oral Inquiry is used in _________
- A.
Minor Penalty proceedings
- B.
Major Penalty proceedings
- C.
Administrative Action
- D.
Suspension
Correct Answer
B. Major Penalty proceedingsExplanation
Oral Inquiry is used in Major Penalty proceedings. In major penalty proceedings, serious offenses are being investigated, and a thorough examination of the evidence and witnesses is required. Conducting an oral inquiry allows for a more comprehensive and detailed examination of the case, providing an opportunity for all parties involved to present their arguments and evidence verbally. This helps in ensuring a fair and just decision-making process in major penalty proceedings.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Who is empowered to amend, modify or add to the POWERGRID CDA Rules from time to time.
- A.
MoP
- B.
Board of Directors
- C.
Appointing Authority
- D.
Committee of EDs.
Correct Answer
B. Board of DirectorsExplanation
The Board of Directors is empowered to amend, modify, or add to the POWERGRID CDA Rules from time to time. They have the authority and responsibility to make changes and updates to the rules as necessary. The Board of Directors is a governing body that has the power to make decisions and set policies for the organization, including the CDA Rules.Rate this question:
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- 30.
If an employee is not satisfied with the final order passed by the Appellate Authority, he may prefer a further petition to the _________
- A.
Disciplinary Authority
- B.
Reviewing Authority
- C.
Appointing Authority
- D.
Inquiring Authority
Correct Answer
B. Reviewing AuthorityExplanation
If an employee is not satisfied with the final order passed by the Appellate Authority, he may prefer a further petition to the Reviewing Authority. The Reviewing Authority is responsible for reviewing the decisions made by the Appellate Authority and determining if they were fair and justified. This allows the employee to seek a higher level of review and potentially have the decision overturned or modified. The Reviewing Authority acts as a check and balance to ensure that the employee's rights are protected and that the disciplinary process is conducted fairly.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Removal, Dismissal and compulsory retirement can be done by :
- A.
Appointing Authority
- B.
Disciplinary Authority
- C.
Reviewing Authority
- D.
Appellate Authority
Correct Answer
B. Disciplinary AuthorityExplanation
The correct answer is Disciplinary Authority. This authority has the power to remove, dismiss, or enforce compulsory retirement of an individual. They are responsible for taking action against employees who have violated rules and regulations or engaged in misconduct. The Appointing Authority is responsible for appointing individuals to certain positions, while the Reviewing Authority reviews decisions made by the Disciplinary Authority. The Appellate Authority handles appeals made by individuals who are dissatisfied with decisions made by the Disciplinary Authority.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The present Director of Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is ___________
- A.
Sh. Alok Kumar Verma
- B.
Sh. Anil Kumar Sinha
- C.
Sh. Ranjeet Sinha
- D.
Sh. Daljeet Singh
Correct Answer
A. Sh. Alok Kumar VermaExplanation
The correct answer is Sh. Alok Kumar Verma.Rate this question:
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- 33.
An employee goes on an official training at Baroda. He avails food, lodging & boarding facility free of cost from the Institute. After his return from the training, the employee clams DA while submitting his TA Bill. Which of the following rate of DA is appropriate as per company rules.
- A.
Full rate of DA
- B.
⅟2 rate of DA
- C.
⅟4 rate of DA
- D.
No DA
Correct Answer
C. ⅟4 rate of DAExplanation
The employee availed food, lodging, and boarding facility free of cost from the Institute during his official training. Since the employee did not incur any expenses for these facilities, it would be appropriate for him to claim ⅟4 rate of DA, which is a lower rate compared to the full rate of DA. This is in accordance with the company rules as the employee did not have any additional expenses for food and accommodation during the training.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Commissioners of Departmental Inquiries (CDI) are the Inquiry Officer (IO) appointed by:-
- A.
Central Vigilance Commission
- B.
High Court of Delhi
- C.
Central Bureau of Investigation
- D.
Supreme Court
Correct Answer
A. Central Vigilance CommissionExplanation
The correct answer is the Central Vigilance Commission. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) appoints the Commissioners of Departmental Inquiries (CDI) as the Inquiry Officer (IO). The CDI is responsible for conducting inquiries into allegations of corruption, misconduct, or any other disciplinary matters within government departments. The CVC, as an apex body for vigilance in India, has the authority to appoint and oversee the functioning of the CDI to ensure transparency and accountability in government organizations.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The integrity Pact Program will cover all tenders of POWERGRID for which estimate is Rs.____ and above, funded by POWERGRID through its own sources and through Supplier’s Credit.
- A.
1 Crore
- B.
10 crore
- C.
50 crore
- D.
100 crore.
Correct Answer
A. 1 CroreExplanation
The integrity Pact Program will cover all tenders of POWERGRID for which estimate is Rs. 1 Crore and above, funded by POWERGRID through its own sources and through Supplier's Credit. This means that any tender with an estimate of Rs. 1 Crore or more, regardless of the funding source, will be subject to the integrity Pact Program.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Who is the present Central Vigilance Commissioner ?
- A.
Shri Rajiv
- B.
Shri T.M.Bhasin
- C.
Shri K. V. Chowdary
- D.
Shri Srikumar
Correct Answer
C. Shri K. V. ChowdaryExplanation
Shri K. V. Chowdary is the correct answer for the present Central Vigilance Commissioner.Rate this question:
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- 37.
PIDPI stands for -
- A.
Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Institutions.
- B.
Public Investigation Department and Public Information
- C.
Person Interest Disclosure and Protection of India
- D.
Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers.
Correct Answer
D. Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers.Explanation
PIDPI stands for Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers. This means that the acronym is used to refer to a system or law that is in place to protect individuals who disclose information in the public interest. It aims to ensure that those who come forward with important information are protected from any harm or retaliation. The term "informers" refers to individuals who provide information or disclose wrongdoing, often with the intention of exposing corruption or illegal activities.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which one of the following is/are correct about Departmental Proceedings?i. It is a Quasi-Judicial activityii. Principals of Natural Justice are followediii. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is followediv. Charges are to be proved by beyond reasonable doubt.
- A.
Only i) is correct
- B.
Only ii) and iii) are correct
- C.
Both i) and ii) are correct
- D.
Only i), ii) & iv) are correct.
Correct Answer
C. Both i) and ii) are correctExplanation
Departmental proceedings are a quasi-judicial activity, meaning they resemble a judicial process but are not conducted by a court. This ensures fairness and adherence to the principles of natural justice, which include the right to be heard and the right to a fair and unbiased decision-maker. However, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not followed in departmental proceedings. Additionally, charges in departmental proceedings are required to be proved on the basis of preponderance of probabilities, rather than beyond reasonable doubt as in criminal cases.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Who is the appointing authority of CVC?
- A.
The Prime Minister of India
- B.
The President of India
- C.
Chief Justice of India
- D.
Vice President of India
Correct Answer
B. The President of IndiaExplanation
The President of India is the appointing authority of CVC. As the head of state, the President has the power to appoint various important positions in the government, including the Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC). The CVC is responsible for preventing corruption and promoting integrity in public administration. Being appointed by the President ensures the independence and impartiality of the CVC, as the President is a constitutional authority and is not influenced by political considerations.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Who is the chairperson of Niti Ayog?
- A.
Prime Minister of India
- B.
Finance Minister
- C.
Home Minister
- D.
Vice President of India
Correct Answer
A. Prime Minister of IndiaExplanation
The chairperson of Niti Ayog is the Prime Minister of India. Niti Ayog is a policy think tank of the Government of India, and the Prime Minister is the head of the government. As the chairperson, the Prime Minister plays a crucial role in guiding and overseeing the activities of Niti Ayog, making decisions, and setting the agenda for the organization.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 27, 2017Quiz Created by
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