Microbiology Study Questions

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1. Growth factors X and V are essential in the cultivation of:

Explanation

Growth factors X and V are essential in the cultivation of Haemophilus species. Haemophilus species are fastidious bacteria that require specific growth factors to grow in culture. Growth factor X is also known as heme, which is required for the synthesis of cytochromes and other heme-containing compounds. Growth factor V is also known as nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD), which is required for the synthesis of coenzymes involved in energy metabolism. These growth factors are not produced by Haemophilus species themselves and must be provided in the culture medium for their growth and survival.

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About This Quiz
Microbiology Study Questions - Quiz

The 'Microbiology Study Questions' quiz assesses knowledge on protozoa classification, parasite locomotion, and specimen analysis. It covers practical skills for identifying parasites in feces and urine, crucial for learners in healthcare and laboratory sciences.

2. The scientific name for the organism that causes syphilis is:

Explanation

Treponema pallidum is the correct answer for the scientific name of the organism that causes syphilis. This bacterium is a spirochete and is responsible for causing the sexually transmitted infection known as syphilis. It is a highly contagious and sexually transmitted disease that can have serious consequences if left untreated. Treponema pallidum is a spiral-shaped bacterium that can invade various tissues and organs in the body, leading to a wide range of symptoms and complications.

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3. Pinworm is the common name for:

Explanation

Enterobius vermicularis is the correct answer because it is the scientific name for pinworm, a common parasitic worm that infects the intestines of humans. Toxocara canis is the scientific name for a roundworm that infects dogs, not humans. Fasciola hepatica is the scientific name for a liver fluke that infects sheep and other animals, while Fasciolopsis buski is the scientific name for a large intestinal fluke that infects humans and pigs. Therefore, only Enterobius vermicularis corresponds to the common name "pinworm".

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4. Acid-fast bacteria belong to which of the following genera:

Explanation

Acid-fast bacteria belong to the genus Mycobacterium. This genus includes bacteria such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which causes tuberculosis, and Mycobacterium leprae, which causes leprosy. Acid-fast bacteria have a unique cell wall structure that allows them to retain a stain even when treated with acid alcohol. This property is useful in their identification and is a characteristic feature of Mycobacterium species.

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5. The process by which organisms adhere to a slide is called:

Explanation

Fixation is the correct answer because it refers to the process by which organisms are attached or adhered to a slide, typically through the use of chemicals or heat. This process helps to preserve the structure and integrity of the organisms for further examination and analysis under a microscope. Coagulation, denaturation, and proteinization do not specifically refer to the process of organisms adhering to a slide.

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6. The genus that shows characteristic "swarming" on agar media is:

Explanation

Proteus is the correct answer because it is a genus of bacteria that exhibits a unique characteristic called "swarming" on agar media. Swarming refers to the rapid and coordinated movement of bacteria across a solid surface, such as agar, facilitated by the production of flagella. This allows the bacteria to spread and colonize new areas efficiently. Pseudomonas, Pasteurella, and Klebsiella are not known to exhibit swarming behavior, making Proteus the most suitable choice.

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7. An organism from a burn patient produced a diffusible green pigment on Mueller-Hinton sensitivity test agar; it was oxidase positive and resistant to many antibiotics. Its identity is most likely:

Explanation

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most likely identity of the organism because it exhibits several characteristic features. The production of a diffusible green pigment on Mueller-Hinton sensitivity test agar is a classic trait of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Additionally, being oxidase positive and resistant to many antibiotics are also common characteristics of this bacterium. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia and Acinetobacter calcoaceticus, Var. anitratus may have some similar features but they do not exhibit the specific combination of traits seen in Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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8. Entamoeba histolytica is classified as a/an:

Explanation

Entamoeba histolytica is classified as an amoeba because it belongs to the phylum Amoebozoa, which includes amoebas. Amoebas are single-celled organisms that move and feed by extending pseudopods, which are temporary projections of the cell membrane. Entamoeba histolytica is a parasitic amoeba that can cause amoebic dysentery, a severe intestinal infection. Its classification as an amoeba is based on its morphological characteristics and its mode of movement.

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9. The majority of bacteria will grow within a temperature range of:

Explanation

Bacteria are known to thrive in a variety of environments, and their growth is influenced by temperature. The temperature range of 15-43 degrees Celsius is considered optimal for the majority of bacteria to grow. At temperatures below 15 degrees Celsius, bacterial growth slows down, while temperatures above 43 degrees Celsius can inhibit or kill bacteria. Therefore, the range of 15-43 degrees Celsius provides the most conducive conditions for bacterial growth and reproduction.

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10. The Kinyoun cabolfuchsin method is used to stain:

Explanation

The Kinyoun carbolfuchsin method is specifically used to stain acid-fast bacilli. Acid-fast bacilli are a group of bacteria that have a unique cell wall structure, which makes them resistant to standard staining methods like the Gram stain. The Kinyoun method involves using a strong red dye called carbolfuchsin, along with heat and an acid-alcohol decolorizer, to penetrate the tough cell wall of acid-fast bacilli and stain them red. This staining technique is commonly used in the diagnosis of tuberculosis and other diseases caused by acid-fast bacilli.

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11. Whooping cough is confimed by the isolation of:

Explanation

Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. The isolation of Bordetella pertussis confirms the presence of whooping cough. Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria, Hemophilus influenzae causes various infections including pneumonia, and Beta hemolytic Streptococcus causes strep throat and other infections. However, in the context of whooping cough, the correct answer is Bordetella pertussis.

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12. Of the following body sites, the only one to have a normal flora is the:

Explanation

The vagina is the only body site listed that has a normal flora. Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally reside in and on the human body without causing harm. The vagina has a unique ecosystem, known as the vaginal microbiota, which consists of various bacteria, fungi, and other microorganisms. These microorganisms play a crucial role in maintaining a healthy vaginal environment by preventing the overgrowth of harmful bacteria and maintaining the pH balance. The urinary bladder, kidney, and ureter typically do not have a normal flora as they are considered sterile environments.

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13. Motile bacteria always possess:

Explanation

Motile bacteria are able to move and propel themselves in their environment. One of the main structures responsible for their movement is flagella. Flagella are long, whip-like appendages that extend from the surface of the bacteria and enable them to swim or move in a directed manner. Capsules, metachromatic granules, and spores are not directly related to the motility of bacteria.

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14. Normally, the bloodstream:

Explanation

The bloodstream is normally a sterile environment, meaning it does not contain any microorganisms or organisms circulating. This is because the body has various defense mechanisms, such as the immune system and the physical barriers of blood vessels, to prevent the entry and circulation of organisms in the bloodstream. Any presence of organisms in the bloodstream can indicate an infection or an abnormal condition.

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15. Only one amoeba is considered to be definitely pathogenic to man. It is:

Explanation

Entamoeba histolytica is the only amoeba that is known to be definitely pathogenic to humans. This means that it is capable of causing disease in humans. The other three amoebas listed, Entamoeba coli, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Endolimax nana, are not considered to be pathogenic to humans. They may be present in the human digestive system, but they do not typically cause disease or harm to the host. Therefore, the correct answer is Entamoeba histolytica.

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16. One of the ways antibiotics work against pathogens is to:

Explanation

Antibiotics work by inhibiting protein synthesis in pathogens. This means that they interfere with the ability of the pathogen to produce proteins necessary for its survival and reproduction. By targeting the pathogen's protein synthesis machinery, antibiotics can effectively kill or inhibit the growth of the pathogen, helping to treat infections. This mechanism of action is one of the key ways antibiotics exert their antimicrobial effects.

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17. The family, Enterobacteriaceae:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Is made up of gram-negative bacilli that inhibit the intestinal tract of man." This answer accurately describes the family Enterobacteriaceae. Enterobacteriaceae is a family of bacteria that are gram-negative, meaning they do not retain the purple stain in the Gram staining method. These bacteria are commonly found in the intestinal tract of humans and animals. They can cause various infections, including urinary tract infections, respiratory infections, and gastrointestinal infections. Therefore, the statement that Enterobacteriaceae is made up of gram-negative bacilli that inhibit the intestinal tract of man is correct.

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18. If when doing a urine culture, you find 146 colonies on the agar plate media, how many organisms are present per ml or urine?

Explanation

The correct answer is 146000/ml. This is because the question asks for the number of organisms present per ml of urine, and the given information states that there are 146 colonies on the agar plate media. Therefore, the number of organisms per ml of urine would be 146000.

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19. Microogranisms that are difficult to grow and may require special media are termed:

Explanation

Fastidious microorganisms are those that have specific nutritional requirements and are difficult to grow in standard laboratory media. They may require special media or specific growth conditions to support their growth. This term is used to describe microorganisms that are more demanding in terms of their nutritional needs and are therefore more challenging to cultivate in the laboratory.

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20. The triple sugar iron agar is valuable because it yields information about:

Explanation

The triple sugar iron agar is valuable because it can provide information about multiple aspects such as carbohydrate fermentation, production of gas, and production of hydrogen sulfide. By observing the reactions of bacteria on this agar, we can determine if they are able to ferment different sugars, produce gas, and generate hydrogen sulfide. This information is crucial in identifying and classifying different bacterial species based on their metabolic capabilities.

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21. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is probably test identified by its characteristic:

Explanation

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is probably best identified by its characteristic green pigment. This pigment, called pyocyanin, is produced by the bacterium and gives it a distinct green color. This characteristic can be used to differentiate Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other bacteria that may have different pigments or lack pigmentation altogether.

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22. Biochemically, a stool culture isolate appears to be a Salmonella sp, but it fails to agglutinate with Salmonella antisera. Therefore, one should:

Explanation

The correct answer is to heat a suspension for 15-30 minutes, cool, and re-test with the same antisera. This is because heating the suspension can help to remove any inhibitory substances that may be preventing the agglutination reaction. By re-testing with the same antisera, it allows for a second chance to detect any agglutination that may have been initially missed.

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23. The special media used in the diagnosis of whooping cough is:

Explanation

Bordet-Gengou agar is a special media used in the diagnosis of whooping cough, also known as pertussis. This media is selective for the growth of Bordetella pertussis, the bacteria responsible for causing whooping cough. It contains specific nutrients and inhibitors that promote the growth of Bordetella pertussis while inhibiting the growth of other bacteria. By inoculating patient samples onto Bordet-Gengou agar and observing for characteristic colony morphology, healthcare professionals can confirm the presence of Bordetella pertussis and make a definitive diagnosis of whooping cough.

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24. Sabouraud's agar is used to:

Explanation

Sabouraud's agar is a specialized culture medium used in microbiology to grow fungi. It contains a lower pH and higher sugar concentration, creating an environment that is favorable for fungal growth while inhibiting the growth of bacteria. This selective medium helps to isolate and identify different types of fungi.

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25. Mueller-Hinton agar:

Explanation

Mueller-Hinton agar is used in the agar-disk diffusion method of testing for antibiotic susceptibility of microorganisms. This method involves placing antibiotic disks on the agar surface and measuring the zone of inhibition to determine the effectiveness of the antibiotic against the microorganism. Mueller-Hinton agar provides a standardized and consistent medium for this testing method, allowing for accurate and reliable results.

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26. Bacterial meningitis is accompanied by a cerebrospinal fluid that:

Explanation

Bacterial meningitis is characterized by an inflammatory response in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This inflammation leads to the presence of purulent fluid, which is pus-like and often cloudy or opaque. Additionally, bacterial meningitis causes an increase in the number of white blood cells (WBCs) in the CSF, with a count greater than 1000 WBCs/mm3. The glucose concentration in the CSF is reduced in bacterial meningitis due to increased consumption by the bacteria. Finally, there is a predominance of polymorphonuclear cells, which are a type of white blood cell, in the CSF during bacterial meningitis. Therefore, all of these characteristics are seen in bacterial meningitis.

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27. On MacConkey's agar, Klebsiella is:

Explanation

On MacConkey's agar, Klebsiella appears as pink, mucoid colonies. MacConkey's agar is a selective and differential medium used to isolate and differentiate gram-negative bacteria, particularly members of the Enterobacteriaceae family. It contains lactose and a pH indicator that turns pink when lactose is fermented. Klebsiella is a lactose-fermenting bacterium, so it produces acid during fermentation, causing the colonies to turn pink. Additionally, Klebsiella often produces a sticky, mucoid capsule, which gives the colonies a mucoid appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is pink, mucoid.

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28. The genus of parasites which causes malaria is:

Explanation

Plasmodium is the correct answer because it is the genus of parasites that causes malaria. Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease that affects humans and other animals. Plasmodium parasites are transmitted through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Once inside the human body, the parasites multiply in the liver and then infect red blood cells, causing the symptoms of malaria. Therefore, Plasmodium is the genus responsible for causing this disease.

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29. Darkfield microscopy is commonly used to visualize:

Explanation

Darkfield microscopy is commonly used to visualize Treponema pallidum. Darkfield microscopy is a technique in which the specimen is illuminated with a hollow cone of light, causing the organisms to appear bright against a dark background. Treponema pallidum is the bacterium that causes syphilis, and it is difficult to visualize using other microscopy techniques due to its thin, spiral shape and low contrast against the background. Darkfield microscopy allows for better visualization of Treponema pallidum, making it a valuable tool in diagnosing syphilis.

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30. A yeast has been isolated from a mouth culture. It forms germ tubes in the serum tube test. What is the genus and species of the yeast?

Explanation

The yeast isolated from the mouth culture is identified as Candida albicans because it forms germ tubes in the serum tube test. Candida albicans is a common species of yeast that is often found in the mouth and other mucous membranes of humans. It is known to produce germ tubes as a characteristic feature, which helps in its identification. Other options such as Candida tropicalis, Cryptococcus neoforms, and Torulopsis do not exhibit this specific characteristic, making Candida albicans the correct answer.

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31. Storage of media in a refrigerator reduces:

Explanation

Storing media in a refrigerator reduces both deterioration and dehydration. Refrigeration slows down the chemical reactions that cause deterioration, such as the breakdown of organic compounds or the growth of microorganisms. Additionally, refrigeration helps to maintain the moisture content in the media, preventing dehydration which can lead to shrinkage, cracking, or loss of quality. Therefore, storing media in a refrigerator is an effective way to preserve its integrity and prolong its lifespan.

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32. The cells that are destroyed in AIDS are ____ and their loss leaves the patient vulnerable to _____.

Explanation

T-helper lymphocytes are the cells that are destroyed in AIDS. Their loss leaves the patient vulnerable to opportunistic infections.

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33. A good method of identifying Cryptococcus neoformans is the:

Explanation

The India ink stain is a good method of identifying Cryptococcus neoformans because it allows for the visualization of the characteristic capsule that surrounds the yeast cells. This capsule appears as a clear halo around the stained cells, making it easier to distinguish Cryptococcus neoformans from other microorganisms. The other staining methods listed, such as gram stain, acid-fast stain, and methylene blue stain, are not specific for identifying Cryptococcus neoformans.

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34. Which parasite is sometimes found in the microscopic examination of urine?

Explanation

Trichomonas is a parasite that can be found in the microscopic examination of urine. It is a single-celled organism that infects the urinary tract and can cause symptoms such as itching, burning, and discharge. The presence of Trichomonas in urine can be detected through laboratory testing, where the urine sample is examined under a microscope to identify the parasite's characteristic appearance. This finding can help diagnose a Trichomonas infection and guide appropriate treatment. Plasmodium is a parasite that causes malaria and is not typically found in urine. Tapeworm segments and yeast are also not commonly seen in urine samples.

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35. Listeria monocytogenes has been shown to be the causative agent in:

Explanation

Listeria monocytogenes has been identified as the causative agent in various conditions, including meningitis, spontaneous abortions, and stillbirths. This bacterium is known to invade the central nervous system, leading to meningitis. Additionally, Listeria monocytogenes can cross the placental barrier, causing infections in pregnant women that may result in spontaneous abortions or stillbirths. Therefore, all of these conditions can be attributed to Listeria monocytogenes infection.

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36. Which of the following will not grow on most artificial laboratory media:

Explanation

Treponema pallidum is the correct answer because it is a bacterium that causes syphilis and is highly fastidious, meaning it has very specific and complex nutritional requirements for growth. It cannot grow on most artificial laboratory media due to its specialized needs, making it difficult to cultivate and study in a laboratory setting. In contrast, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Salmonella typhi, and Salmonella flexneri are all bacteria that can grow on most artificial laboratory media.

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37. All of the following are bacilli except:

Explanation

Treponema is the correct answer because it is a spirochete bacteria, not a bacillus. Bacilli are rod-shaped bacteria, whereas spirochetes have a spiral or corkscrew shape. Brucella, Shigella, and Clostridia are all examples of bacilli.

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38. One the distinguishing features of viruses is that they are:

Explanation

Viruses are considered intracellular parasites because they require a host cell to replicate and carry out their life cycle. They cannot reproduce or perform metabolic functions on their own. Instead, they invade host cells, hijack their cellular machinery, and use it to replicate and produce new viral particles. This dependence on host cells is a defining characteristic of viruses and sets them apart from other microorganisms.

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39. Staphylococcus aureus is a:

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is classified as a gram-positive bacterium because it retains the crystal violet stain during the Gram staining process. It is also described as a non-motile coccus because it has a spherical shape and does not possess flagella for movement. Additionally, it occurs in irregular clusters, which is a characteristic arrangement for Staphylococcus aureus.

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40. Which of the following would best enhance the growth of pathogenic Neisseria species?

Explanation

A candle jar would best enhance the growth of pathogenic Neisseria species. This is because Neisseria species are microaerophilic, meaning they require low levels of oxygen to grow. The candle jar creates a low oxygen environment by burning a candle inside a sealed container, depleting the oxygen and creating a favorable condition for the growth of Neisseria species. An incubator, autoclave, and sabouraud agar are not specifically designed to create a low oxygen environment and would not enhance the growth of Neisseria species.

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41. The organisms identified as alpha Streptococcus-Enterococcus group can be identified by which of the following set of biochemical media and/or test:

Explanation

The organisms identified as alpha Streptococcus-Enterococcus group can be identified using the combination of 6.5% NaCl and bile esculin. This specific combination of biochemical media and/or test helps in differentiating and identifying these organisms.

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42. A zone of inhibition of growth on a plate containing a certain antibiotic indicates that:

Explanation

A zone of inhibition of growth on a plate containing a certain antibiotic indicates that the organism is susceptible or sensitive to the antibiotic. This means that the antibiotic is effective in inhibiting the growth of the organism, suggesting that the organism is not resistant to the antibiotic. The presence of a clear zone around the antibiotic disk indicates that the organism is unable to grow in the presence of the antibiotic, indicating susceptibility.

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43. The 100x objective lens with a 10x ocular lens provides an overall magnification of:

Explanation

The overall magnification is determined by multiplying the magnification of the objective lens with the magnification of the ocular lens. In this case, the objective lens has a magnification of 100x and the ocular lens has a magnification of 10x. Multiplying these two values together gives us an overall magnification of 1000x.

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44. In the API system, like many other testing systems, fermentation of sugars is indicated by:

Explanation

The correct answer is yellow because in the API system, fermentation of sugars is indicated by a color change to yellow. This is a common indicator used in testing systems to determine if fermentation has occurred.

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45. An alpha Streptococcus has been isolated from urine, and it hydrolyzes esculin. To which serological group of streptococci does this organism belong?

Explanation

The alpha Streptococcus isolated from urine that hydrolyzes esculin belongs to serological group D.

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46. The reaction on urease agar test medium depends on the hydrolysis of urea, which is in turn dependent on the:

Explanation

The correct answer is the breakdown of urea to ammonia, which renders the medium alkaline. Urease is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide. The presence of urease-positive bacteria will cause the breakdown of urea, resulting in the production of ammonia. This increase in alkalinity can be detected by the change in color of the urease agar medium.

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47. For more accurate stool examinations:

Explanation

To ensure more accurate stool examinations, it is recommended to provide three or more fresh specimens. This is because multiple samples increase the chances of detecting any abnormalities or pathogens that may be present in the stool. Fresh specimens are preferred as they provide a more accurate representation of the current state of the gastrointestinal tract, as compared to older or preserved samples. By providing multiple fresh specimens, healthcare professionals have a better chance of identifying any potential issues or infections.

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48. Which of the following would be the best preparation for rapid detection of Cryptococcus neoformans in a spinal fluid?

Explanation

India ink is the best preparation for rapid detection of Cryptococcus neoformans in a spinal fluid. India ink is commonly used to stain the capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans, which is a key diagnostic feature of this organism. The capsule appears as a clear halo around the yeast cells when viewed under a microscope with India ink staining. This method allows for quick visualization and identification of Cryptococcus neoformans, making it the most suitable option for rapid detection in spinal fluid samples.

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49. If slides made from the genitourinary tract upon staining reveal gram negative cocci occurring in pairs with the adjacent sides markedly flattened within polymorphonuclear leukocyutes, the organisms are probably:

Explanation

The given description of gram-negative cocci occurring in pairs with flattened adjacent sides within polymorphonuclear leukocytes is characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterium is the causative agent of the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea. It is known to infect the genitourinary tract and can be identified through staining techniques. Hemophilus segnis, Gardnerella vaginalis, and Calymmatobacterium granulomatic do not match the given description and are not typically associated with genitourinary tract infections.

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50. Simmons citrate agar is used to demonstrate whether or not a/an:

Explanation

Simmons citrate agar is a selective and differential medium used to determine an organism's ability to utilize citrate as the sole source of carbon. If an organism can utilize citrate, it will produce an enzyme called citrate permease, which will convert citrate into pyruvate. This conversion causes the pH of the medium to increase, turning the media from green to blue. Therefore, the correct answer is that Simmons citrate agar is used to demonstrate whether or not an organism can utilize citrate as the sole source of carbon.

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51. Toxic Shock Syndrome is often attributed to infection with:

Explanation

Toxic Shock Syndrome is often attributed to infection with Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is known to produce toxins that can lead to the development of toxic shock syndrome. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of various infections, including skin infections, pneumonia, and bloodstream infections. In the case of toxic shock syndrome, the bacteria release toxins into the bloodstream, causing a severe and potentially life-threatening condition. It is important to identify and treat Staphylococcus aureus infections promptly to prevent the development of toxic shock syndrome.

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52. Urine cultures are inculated onto colistin-nalidixic acid agar (CNA) and (MAC) MacConkey's. What purpose does the CNA serve?

Explanation

The purpose of using colistin-nalidixic acid agar (CNA) in urine cultures is to inhibit the growth of gram-negative rods while allowing the growth of gram-positive organisms. This selective medium helps in isolating and identifying gram-positive bacteria present in the urine sample by suppressing the growth of gram-negative bacteria. By using CNA, the researcher can focus on studying and identifying gram-positive organisms without interference from gram-negative rods.

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53. The oil used with the oil immersion lens:

Explanation

The oil used with the oil immersion lens reduces the scattering of light rays for clearer observation. When using a high-powered lens, the light rays tend to scatter as they pass through the specimen and the slide. By adding oil with a similar refractive index as the lens and the specimen, the light rays are able to pass through without scattering, resulting in a clearer and more focused image. This allows for better visualization and examination of the specimen, especially for observing small details and structures.

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54. Spreading surface growth with typical fruity odor is characteristic for:

Explanation

Pseudomonas is known to produce a fruity odor as it spreads on surfaces. This odor is a result of the production of certain volatile compounds by the bacteria. This characteristic fruity odor is not commonly associated with other bacteria such as Proteus, Shigella, or Salmonella. Therefore, the presence of spreading surface growth with a typical fruity odor is indicative of Pseudomonas.

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55. Chain like formation is demonstrated by this genus:

Explanation

Streptococcus is the correct answer because it is a genus of bacteria that is known for forming chains or clusters. This characteristic can be observed when the bacteria divide and remain attached to each other, forming a chain-like structure. Staphylococcus, on the other hand, forms clusters or grape-like structures, while Brucella and Corynebacterium do not typically exhibit chain-like formations.

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56. The Voges-proskauer test is used for detecting the production of:

Explanation

The Voges-Proskauer test is a biochemical test used to detect the production of acetyl-methylcarbinol (acetoin). Acetoin is a metabolic byproduct produced by certain bacteria during fermentation. The test involves adding a reagent to the bacterial culture, which reacts with acetoin to produce a red color. This color change indicates a positive result for acetoin production. The test is commonly used in microbiology to differentiate between different species of bacteria based on their ability to produce acetoin.

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57. In the API system, like many other testing systems, H2S is indicated by:

Explanation

In the API system, H2S is indicated by a black deposit. This means that when H2S is present, it reacts with certain materials in the system, causing a black deposit to form. This can be used as a visual indicator to detect the presence of H2S in the system.

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58. Thrush is caused by:

Explanation

Thrush is caused by Candida albicans, a type of yeast that is commonly found in the mouth and other parts of the body. It is a fungal infection that can occur when there is an overgrowth of this yeast. Candida albicans is known to cause various infections, including oral thrush, which is characterized by white patches on the tongue and inner cheeks. Other factors such as a weakened immune system, poor oral hygiene, or the use of certain medications can also contribute to the development of thrush.

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59. Cestodes or tapeworms consist of a series of segments know as:

Explanation

Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are made up of a series of segments called proglottids. These proglottids contain the reproductive organs of the tapeworm and are responsible for producing eggs. Each proglottid is capable of independent movement and can release eggs into the host's digestive system. Therefore, the correct answer is "Proglottids".

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60. IT is the enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus which causes:

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus produces an enterotoxin that leads to food poisoning. This toxin is responsible for causing gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea. It is commonly associated with contaminated food items, especially those that are prepared and stored improperly. The enterotoxin is heat-stable, meaning it can withstand high temperatures, making it difficult to destroy through cooking. Therefore, consuming food contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin can result in food poisoning.

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61. What color would a gram positive organism be before the addition of iodine?

Explanation

Gram positive organisms retain the crystal violet stain during the Gram staining process, which gives them a purple color. This is because the thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall traps the crystal violet-iodine complex. Therefore, before the addition of iodine, a gram positive organism would already be purple.

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62. A coliform that is a normal inhavitant of the large intestine is:

Explanation

E. coli is a correct answer because it is a coliform bacterium that is commonly found in the large intestine of humans and other warm-blooded animals. It is a normal inhabitant of the gut flora and plays a crucial role in digestion. While some strains of E. coli can cause infections and illnesses, the majority of them are harmless and even beneficial. Therefore, E. coli is the correct answer as it fits the description of a coliform that is a normal inhabitant of the large intestine.

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63. Most Escherichia coli will show the following requirement:

Explanation

Most Escherichia coli bacteria will show an acid slant and butt requirement. This means that they will produce acid during glucose fermentation, resulting in a yellow color change in both the slant and butt of the medium. This is a characteristic feature of E. coli and can be used to differentiate it from other bacteria. The alkaline slant and butt, alkaline slant and acid butt, and acid slant and alkaline butt options are not typically observed in E. coli.

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64. Hookworm infections may be caused by:

Explanation

Hookworm infections can be caused by both Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale. These are two different species of hookworms that can infect humans. Necator americanus is commonly found in the Americas, sub-Saharan Africa, and Asia, while Ancylostoma duodenale is more prevalent in the Mediterranean region, northern Africa, and parts of Asia. Both species can enter the human body through the skin and migrate to the intestines, where they attach themselves and feed on blood, causing symptoms such as anemia, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Therefore, both Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale can cause hookworm infections.

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65. _____ produces ______ that causes flaccid paralysis when it is eaten in improperly preserved food.

Explanation

Clostridium botulinum produces a neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis when it is eaten in improperly preserved food.

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66. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites that contain:

Explanation

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites that rely on host cells for their replication. They can contain either RNA or DNA as their genetic material, but never both at the same time. This is because viruses have evolved to specialize in either RNA or DNA-based replication strategies. The presence of both RNA and DNA in a single virus would be redundant and inefficient for their replication process. Therefore, viruses contain either RNA or DNA, depending on their specific genetic makeup and replication strategy.

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67. Pseudomonas species:

Explanation

Pseudomonas species are known for their tendency to develop resistance against commonly used antibiotics. This resistance can make it challenging to treat infections caused by these bacteria. It is important to be aware of this characteristic when selecting appropriate antibiotics for Pseudomonas infections to ensure effective treatment.

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68. Bubonic plague is caused by:

Explanation

The bubonic plague is caused by Yersinia pestis, a gram-negative rod. This bacterium is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected fleas that live on rats. It is not caused by an organism that vanished centuries ago, as the plague is still present in certain parts of the world today.

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69. The proper order of application of materials, exclusive of water, in the acid-fast staining technique is:

Explanation

This is the correct order of application of materials in the acid-fast staining technique. Carbol-fuchsin is the primary stain that is used to stain acid-fast bacteria. Acid-alcohol is then used as a decolorizer to remove the stain from non-acid-fast bacteria. Finally, methylene blue is used as a counterstain to stain the non-acid-fast bacteria. This order of application allows for the differentiation of acid-fast and non-acid-fast bacteria based on their staining properties.

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70. In Taenia saginata, the larval stage developes in:

Explanation

The correct answer is cattle because Taenia saginata is a parasitic tapeworm that primarily infects cattle. The larval stage of the tapeworm develops in the muscles of cattle, where it forms cysts called cysticerci. When humans consume undercooked or raw beef infected with these cysticerci, the larvae can develop into adult tapeworms in the human intestines. Therefore, the larval stage of Taenia saginata specifically develops in cattle.

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71. Humans become infected by Pasteurella multocida organisms most frequently from:

Explanation

Pasteurella multocida is a bacteria commonly found in the oral cavity of many animals, including cats, dogs, and farm animals. When an animal bites or scratches a human, the bacteria can be transmitted through the saliva or wound, leading to infection. Breathing air from an infected environment or coming into contact with the carcasses of slaughtered animals may also pose a risk of infection, but animal bites or scratches are the most frequent mode of transmission for Pasteurella multocida organisms to infect humans.

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72. A common laboratory contaminant is:

Explanation

Bacillus subtilis is a common laboratory contaminant because it is a spore-forming bacterium that can survive and grow in various laboratory conditions. It is often found in soil and dust, making it easily introduced into the laboratory environment. Additionally, its ability to form resistant spores allows it to persist on surfaces and equipment, leading to contamination of experiments and cultures. Therefore, Bacillus subtilis is a known culprit for laboratory contamination.

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73. Morphologically the Streptococcus pneumoniae exhibits:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Lancet-shaped cocci in pairs". This means that Streptococcus pneumoniae appears as elongated oval-shaped bacteria that are arranged in pairs. This morphology is characteristic of this bacterium and can be observed under a microscope.

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74. Thayer-Martin media is used to isolate:

Explanation

Thayer-Martin media is a selective and differential medium used to isolate Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria responsible for gonorrhea. This medium contains antibiotics that inhibit the growth of other bacteria while allowing the growth of N. gonorrhoeae. The medium also contains nutrients and indicators that help differentiate N. gonorrhoeae from other bacteria based on their growth characteristics and appearance. Therefore, Thayer-Martin media is specifically designed to isolate and identify N. gonorrhoeae from clinical samples.

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75. A gram-negative rod has been isolated from feces, and the confirmed biochemical reactions fit those of Shigella. The organism does not agglutinate in Shigella antisera. What should be done next?

Explanation

The correct answer is to boil the organism and retest with the antisera. This is because the organism does not agglutinate in Shigella antisera, which suggests that the antigens responsible for agglutination may be masked or destroyed. Boiling the organism can help to unmask or restore the antigens, allowing for a more accurate test with the antisera.

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76. Hemophilus influenzae:

Explanation

Hemophilus influenzae is a bacterium that is known to grow better on chocolate agar than on blood agar. This means that it thrives and reproduces more effectively in a culture medium that contains chocolate agar rather than blood agar. The preference for chocolate agar is due to its specific nutritional requirements, which are better met by the components present in chocolate agar. This characteristic can be used to differentiate Hemophilus influenzae from other bacteria that may grow better on blood agar.

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77. The temperature of a CO2 incubator is:

Explanation

The correct answer is 35 degrees C. CO2 incubators are commonly used in scientific research and medical laboratories to provide a controlled environment for cell and tissue cultures. The temperature inside the incubator is set to 35 degrees C because it closely mimics the human body temperature and promotes optimal growth and proliferation of cells. This temperature is also suitable for maintaining the stability and viability of various cell types during experiments and culturing processes.

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78. A flat, purple colony with a metallic sheen on EMB is probably:

Explanation

A flat, purple colony with a metallic sheen on EMB is probably Escherichia coli. This is because E. coli is a common bacterium that can produce colonies with a metallic sheen on EMB (Eosin Methylene Blue) agar. EMB agar is selective for Gram-negative bacteria and E. coli is a Gram-negative bacterium. The metallic sheen is due to the production of acid by E. coli, which causes the dyes in the agar to precipitate and create a metallic appearance.

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79. Which of the following flagellates found in the urine has no cyst form:

Explanation

Trichomonas is the correct answer because it is a flagellate that is commonly found in the urine and does not have a cyst form. Unlike other flagellates like Giardia and Balantidium, Trichomonas does not form a protective cyst stage in its life cycle. This means that it is more susceptible to environmental conditions and is less able to survive outside of a host. Chilomastix, on the other hand, is not typically found in the urine and does have a cyst form.

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80. The standard determination of antibiotic sensitivities that involves the diffusion of the drugs from disks placed on agar is called:

Explanation

The correct answer is "The Kirby-Bauer method." The Kirby-Bauer method is a standard determination of antibiotic sensitivities that involves the diffusion of the drugs from disks placed on agar. It is a widely used method in clinical laboratories to determine the susceptibility of bacteria to various antibiotics. It involves measuring the zone of inhibition around the antibiotic disks, which indicates the effectiveness of the antibiotic against the bacteria. This method helps in guiding the selection of appropriate antibiotics for the treatment of bacterial infections.

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81. All species of Proteus react positively in the:

Explanation

Proteus species are known to be urease-positive, meaning they produce the enzyme urease which breaks down urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide. This reaction can be detected in the urease test, where a positive result is indicated by a color change or the formation of bubbles due to the production of ammonia. Therefore, all species of Proteus will react positively in the urease test.

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82. Some strains of this genus are chromogenic and produce pink-red amber color:

Explanation

Serratia is the correct answer because some strains of this genus are chromogenic and produce a pink-red amber color. Proteus, Providencia, and Enterobacter are not known for producing this specific color.

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83. In the gram's stain, iodine is referred to as the:

Explanation

In the gram's stain, iodine is referred to as the mordant. A mordant is a substance that helps to fix or bind a dye to a particular material. In the gram's stain procedure, iodine is used after the application of the primary stain (crystal violet) to form a complex with the dye, making it more resistant to decolorization. This allows for the differentiation of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria based on their ability to retain the crystal violet dye. Therefore, iodine acts as a mordant in the gram's stain procedure.

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84. The reagent used for the indole test is:

Explanation

Kovac's reagent is used for the indole test. This reagent is a mixture of p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde and hydrochloric acid. It is used to detect the presence of indole, a compound produced by certain bacteria during the metabolism of tryptophan. When Kovac's reagent is added to a test tube containing a bacterial culture, a red color will develop if indole is present. This color change is a positive result for the indole test, indicating the presence of indole-producing bacteria.

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85. Slender, pleomorphic organisms arranged parallel to each other or at sharp angles to form a V or Y on a gram stain smear are characteristic of:

Explanation

Slender, pleomorphic organisms arranged parallel to each other or at sharp angles to form a V or Y on a gram stain smear are characteristic of Corynebacterium diptheriae.

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86. The organism that causes syphilis cannot:

Explanation

The organism that causes syphilis cannot grow on laboratory media. This means that it cannot be cultured or grown in a laboratory setting for research or diagnostic purposes. This makes it difficult to study and understand the organism in a controlled environment.

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87. Haemophilus demonstrates satellitism with:

Explanation

Haemophilus demonstrates satellitism with Staphylococcus aureus. Satellitism is a phenomenon in which the growth of one bacterium is enhanced by the presence of another bacterium. In this case, Haemophilus requires factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus for its growth. This interaction can be observed in the lab as Haemophilus colonies growing close to Staphylococcus aureus colonies, while they fail to grow on their own. This phenomenon is often seen in mixed infections where both bacteria are present.

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88. The microbe that causes acute bacterial meningitis is usually aquired:

Explanation

The microbe that causes acute bacterial meningitis is usually acquired through the respiratory tract. This means that the bacteria enter the body through inhalation, typically when an infected person coughs or sneezes. From there, the bacteria can travel to the central nervous system and cause inflammation and infection in the meninges, which are the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

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89. If we wanted to observe organisms in the living state, we would use what technique:

Explanation

Hanging drop preparation is a technique used to observe organisms in the living state. It involves placing a drop of the specimen on a coverslip, which is then inverted and suspended over a depression slide. This allows the organisms to remain alive and mobile, making it easier to study their characteristics and behaviors under a microscope. The other options mentioned, such as Ziehl-Neelsen stain, india ink preparation, and a fixed slide without stain, are not suitable for observing organisms in their living state.

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90. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, an organism that is found in a variety of natural and domestic environments is:

Explanation

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is frequently the cause of infections in burn patients. This is because burn patients have compromised immune systems and are more susceptible to infections. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known to thrive in moist environments, making burn wounds an ideal breeding ground for this organism. It is resistant to many antibiotics, making it difficult to treat. Therefore, it poses a serious threat to burn patients and can lead to severe complications if not properly controlled.

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91. After 48 hours incubation on poured blood-plates, pneumococci produce compact colonies surrounded by a zone of greenish discoloration which is identical in appearance with that formed by colonies of:

Explanation

After 48 hours of incubation on poured blood-plates, pneumococci produce compact colonies surrounded by a zone of greenish discoloration, which is identical in appearance to the colonies formed by alpha hemolytic streptococci. This suggests that both pneumococci and alpha hemolytic streptococci have similar characteristics in terms of colony morphology and the production of a greenish discoloration. This information can be useful in differentiating between different types of bacteria based on their colony appearance on blood-plates.

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92. The organisms that cause typhus fever are:

Explanation

Typhus fever is caused by a group of bacteria called rickettsias. These bacteria are transmitted to humans through the bites of infected fleas, lice, or ticks. They invade and multiply within the cells of the human body, leading to symptoms such as high fever, headache, rash, and muscle pain. Vaccines and antibiotics are available for the prevention and treatment of typhus fever caused by rickettsias.

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93. The genus which causes dysentery is:

Explanation

Shigella is the correct answer because it is the genus that causes dysentery. Dysentery is an infectious disease characterized by inflammation of the intestines, resulting in severe diarrhea with blood or mucus in the feces. Shigella bacteria are responsible for causing this condition, and they are transmitted through contaminated food or water, as well as person-to-person contact. Other options like Escherichia, Klebsiella, and Salmonella are also bacteria, but they are not specifically associated with causing dysentery.

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94. In cultureing sptum for M. tuberculosis, the following digestion and decontamination method is preferred:

Explanation

The N-acetyl-L-cysteine alkali method is preferred for digesting and decontaminating sputum samples for M. tuberculosis. This method involves using N-acetyl-L-cysteine, an alkali solution, to break down the sputum and release any bacteria present. This method is effective in reducing contamination and increasing the yield of M. tuberculosis in the sample. The sodium hypochlorite method and trisodium phosphate method are not as commonly used for this purpose.

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95. Concentration of sputum for T.B. culture is performed in this sequence:

Explanation

The correct sequence for performing concentration of sputum for T.B. culture is to first digest the sputum sample, then centrifuge it, and finally inoculate it. Digestion helps in breaking down the complex substances in the sputum, making it easier to process. Centrifugation is then performed to separate the concentrated bacteria from the other components of the sample. Finally, the concentrated bacteria are inoculated onto a culture medium to allow for their growth and identification.

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96. N. asteroides generally survives the decontamination of sputum for mycobacterial culture; it, therefore, may grow out on:

Explanation

N. asteroides is a type of bacteria that is known to be resistant to decontamination methods used for mycobacterial culture. This means that it can survive the process of removing other bacteria from a sputum sample, allowing it to grow and be detected. Lowenstein-Jensen egg medium is a specific type of culture medium that is commonly used for mycobacterial culture, making it a suitable environment for N. asteroides to grow. Sabouraud agar and sheep blood agar are not typically used for mycobacterial culture, so they would not be as effective in supporting the growth of N. asteroides.

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97. The Plamodia that causes the most severe pathology is:

Explanation

P. falciparum is the correct answer because it is known to cause the most severe pathology among the Plasmodium species. It is responsible for the majority of malaria-related deaths worldwide. P. falciparum infection can lead to severe complications such as cerebral malaria, organ failure, anemia, and other life-threatening conditions. It has a higher propensity to infect red blood cells and can rapidly multiply, leading to more severe symptoms compared to other Plasmodium species.

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98. In Gram stains of sputum from a patient with nocardiosis, the organism will appear as:

Explanation

The correct answer is "thin, gram-positive, branching filamentous organism." Nocardiosis is a bacterial infection caused by Nocardia species, which are filamentous bacteria. Gram staining is a common laboratory technique used to classify bacteria based on their cell wall composition. In the case of Nocardia, they stain gram-positive, meaning they retain the crystal violet dye used in the staining process. The branching filamentous appearance is characteristic of Nocardia species and helps differentiate them from other bacteria.

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99. Which of the following organisms are considered normal flora of the blood or spinal fluid?

Explanation

None of these organisms are considered normal flora of the blood or spinal fluid. Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that are normally found in or on the human body without causing harm or disease. The organisms listed in the options (Diphtheroids, Coagulase negative Staphylococci, and Alpha Streptococci) are not part of the normal flora of the blood or spinal fluid. These organisms may be found in other parts of the body, but their presence in the blood or spinal fluid is usually indicative of infection or disease.

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100. A common name for Dyphyllobothrium latum is the:

Explanation

The correct answer is fish tapeworm because Dyphyllobothrium latum is commonly known as the fish tapeworm. This tapeworm is primarily found in freshwater fish and can cause a condition called diphyllobothriasis in humans who consume raw or undercooked infected fish.

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101. Correct identification of a causative agent requires isolation and growth of a:

Explanation

The correct answer is "pure culture". To identify a causative agent, it is necessary to isolate and grow the organism in a pure culture. This means that the culture contains only a single type of organism, allowing for accurate observation and testing. A pure culture is essential for conducting further analysis, such as determining the organism's characteristics, conducting biochemical tests, and studying its pathogenicity.

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102. An aid in the detection of Neisseria gonorrheae would be the:

Explanation

The oxidase test is used to detect the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, an enzyme that is produced by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This test involves adding a reagent called oxidase to a sample of the bacteria. If the bacteria produce cytochrome c oxidase, the reagent will cause a color change, indicating a positive result. Therefore, the oxidase test is a useful tool in identifying Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

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103. A mass of intertwined and branching hyphae is called:

Explanation

A mass of intertwined and branching hyphae is called mycelium. Hyphae are thread-like structures that make up the body of a fungus. These hyphae grow and branch out, forming a network called mycelium. The mycelium is responsible for absorbing nutrients from the environment and is typically found underground or within the substrate on which the fungus grows. It plays a crucial role in the growth and reproduction of fungi.

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104. A pathogenic spirochete from the genus ______ causes _______.

Explanation

Borrelia is a genus of spirochete bacteria that is known to cause Lyme disease. Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness that can cause a range of symptoms including fever, fatigue, headache, muscle and joint aches, and swollen lymph nodes. It is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. If left untreated, Lyme disease can lead to more severe symptoms such as neurological problems and joint inflammation. Therefore, the correct answer is Borrelia; lyme disease.

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105. All the organisms listed below can be encountered in an infected throat except:

Explanation

Clostridium perfringens is a bacterium that is commonly found in the environment and in the intestines of humans and animals. It is not typically associated with throat infections. On the other hand, Beta Streptococci, Staphylococcus aureus, and Pneumococci are all known to cause infections in the throat. Therefore, Clostridium perfringens is the correct answer as it does not belong to the group of organisms that can be encountered in an infected throat.

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106. Salmonella and Shigella species are always:

Explanation

Salmonella and Shigella species are always lactose negative. This means that they are unable to ferment lactose, a sugar found in milk. This characteristic is used to differentiate these bacteria from other enteric bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, which are lactose positive. Lactose fermentation can be determined using a medium called MacConkey agar, which contains lactose and a pH indicator. Lactose negative bacteria do not produce acid during fermentation, so they do not change the color of the agar.

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107. A broad-spectrum antibiotic will be active against:

Explanation

A broad-spectrum antibiotic is designed to be effective against a wide range of bacteria, including both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls, while gram-negative bacteria have a thinner peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are able to target and kill both types of bacteria, making them versatile in treating a variety of bacterial infections. However, broad-spectrum antibiotics are not effective against viruses, fungi, or protozoa.

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108. The family Enterobacteriaceae are:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Oxidase negative" because the family Enterobacteriaceae is a group of bacteria that do not produce the enzyme oxidase. This enzyme is responsible for catalyzing the oxidation of certain compounds, and its absence in Enterobacteriaceae distinguishes them from other bacterial families. Oxidase-negative bacteria are commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract of humans and animals and can cause various infections, including urinary tract infections and gastrointestinal infections.

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109. On S-S agar, Shigella species are:

Explanation

Shigella species appear colorless on S-S agar. This means that when these bacteria are grown on S-S agar, they do not produce any pigmentation, resulting in a lack of color. This characteristic helps in distinguishing Shigella species from other bacteria that may produce pigments and exhibit different colors on the agar medium.

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110. The ova of one of the following is characterized by the presence of a prominent lateral spine:

Explanation

Schistosoma mansoni is a parasitic flatworm that causes schistosomiasis in humans. The ova (eggs) of Schistosoma mansoni are characterized by the presence of a prominent lateral spine. This spine is a distinguishing feature of the ova and helps in identifying the parasite. Schistosoma hematobium, Dyphyllobothrium latum, and Fasciolopsis buski do not have this prominent lateral spine in their ova, making Schistosoma mansoni the correct answer.

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111. Most fungi that cause systemic infections enter the body:

Explanation

Fungi that cause systemic infections typically enter the body through inhalation of spores. When these spores are inhaled, they can reach the lungs and potentially spread to other organs and tissues, causing systemic infection. This mode of entry is common for many fungal pathogens, as the respiratory system provides an efficient pathway for them to enter the body. Other routes of entry, such as through breaks in the skin, ingestion in food, or through the bite of a vector, may be possible for certain fungi but are less common for systemic infections.

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112. The causative organism of histoplasmosis is:

Explanation

Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by the organism Histoplasma capsulatum. This fungus is commonly found in soil, particularly in areas with bird or bat droppings. When the soil is disturbed, the fungal spores can become airborne and be inhaled into the lungs, causing infection. H. capsulatum is the correct answer because it is the specific causative organism for histoplasmosis. C. neoformans and C. albicans are not associated with histoplasmosis, and C. immitis is the causative organism for a different fungal infection called coccidioidomycosis.

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113. Herpes simplex 2 (HSV-2) infections:

Explanation

Herpes simplex 2 (HSV-2) infections become latent and reactivate periodically. This means that the virus can remain dormant in the body after the initial infection and can reactivate at a later time, causing recurrent outbreaks. This is a characteristic feature of HSV-2 infections and is different from other types of infections that may not become latent or reactivate. Treatment for HSV-2 infections typically involves antiviral medications, not broad-spectrum antibiotics. The infection can also stimulate the production of protective antibodies in the body.

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114. Examination of feces for trophozoites is done by:

Explanation

The correct answer is wet preparation of a liquid stool. This method involves mixing a small amount of liquid stool with a drop of saline on a slide and examining it under a microscope. It allows for the detection of trophozoites, which are the active, motile form of certain parasites such as amoebae. This method is effective in identifying these organisms and is commonly used in the laboratory for diagnosing parasitic infections.

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115. Colonies of M. tuberculosis appear on egg media generally after 2 to 3 weeks incubation at:

Explanation

Colonies of M. tuberculosis appear on egg media generally after 2 to 3 weeks incubation at 35 degrees C. This temperature is optimal for the growth and multiplication of M. tuberculosis bacteria. Lower temperatures like 25 degrees C may result in slower growth and longer incubation periods, while higher temperatures like 45 degrees C may be too hot and inhibit the growth of the bacteria. Therefore, 35 degrees C is the most suitable temperature for the colonies of M. tuberculosis to appear on egg media.

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116. NIH swabs and scotch tape mounts are used to detect the ova of:

Explanation

NIH swabs and scotch tape mounts are commonly used for the detection of pinworm ova. Pinworms are small, white, thread-like worms that infest the human intestines. The female pinworms lay their eggs around the anus, causing intense itching. To diagnose a pinworm infection, healthcare providers often use NIH swabs to collect samples from the perianal region and then apply scotch tape to the swabbed area. The tape is then examined under a microscope to identify any pinworm eggs present. This method is effective in detecting pinworm infections and guiding appropriate treatment.

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117. Microscopic examination of parasites using the wet film method may use:

Explanation

Microscopic examination of parasites using the wet film method may use D'Antoni's solution, iodine solution, and normal saline solution. D'Antoni's solution is commonly used to stain parasites and make them more visible under the microscope. Iodine solution is used to enhance the contrast and visibility of the parasites. Normal saline solution is used to prepare the wet film and provide a suitable environment for the parasites. Therefore, all of these solutions can be used in the microscopic examination of parasites using the wet film method.

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118. The indicator organism for fecal pollution in the US is:

Explanation

Escherichia coli (E. coli) is the correct answer because it is a commonly used indicator organism for fecal pollution in the US. E. coli is a bacterium that is found in the intestines of warm-blooded animals, including humans. Its presence in water or food indicates that fecal contamination has occurred, as it is typically found in the feces of animals. Monitoring E. coli levels in water sources is important for assessing water quality and determining the potential presence of harmful pathogens.

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119. The most often acquired noocomial infection involves the ______ and is caused by _____.

Explanation

The correct answer is urinary tract; E. coli. Noocomial infections are infections that are acquired in a hospital or healthcare setting. The most common type of noocomial infection is a urinary tract infection, which occurs in the urinary system. The infection is caused by the bacterium E. coli, which is commonly found in the digestive system and can enter the urinary tract, leading to an infection.

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120. The most common cause of furuncles and carbuncles is:

Explanation

The most common cause of furuncles and carbuncles is Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is commonly found on the skin and can enter the body through hair follicles or breaks in the skin, leading to the formation of painful and pus-filled boils. Staphylococcus aureus is known for its ability to cause various skin infections and is often resistant to multiple antibiotics, making it a significant concern in healthcare settings.

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121. Ova of one of the follwing parasites are commonly excreted in the urine of man. Which one?

Explanation

Schistosoma hematobium is commonly excreted in the urine of humans. Schistosoma hematobium is a parasitic worm that causes urinary schistosomiasis. The adult worms live in the blood vessels around the bladder and lay eggs, which are then passed out in the urine. This is a common mode of transmission for the parasite, as the eggs can contaminate water sources and infect others who come into contact with the contaminated water. The presence of Schistosoma hematobium eggs in the urine is a key diagnostic feature of urinary schistosomiasis.

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122. A strict anaerobe with "typical" terminal, drumstick spores is:

Explanation

Clostridium tetani is the correct answer because it is a strict anaerobe that forms terminal, drumstick spores. Clostridium perfringens is also a strict anaerobe, but it forms spores that are not drumstick-shaped. Clostridium botulinum is an anaerobe that forms oval spores, and Bacillus anthracis is an aerobic bacterium that forms central spores. Therefore, Clostridium tetani is the only option that fits the description of a strict anaerobe with typical terminal, drumstick spores.

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123. The diagnosis of all tapeworms is made:

Explanation

The diagnosis of all tapeworms is made through both recognition of the ova and finding and identifying gravid proglottids. Tapeworms release eggs in the host's feces, which can be identified under a microscope. Additionally, gravid proglottids, which are segments of the tapeworm filled with eggs, can be found in the host's stool or around the anus. Therefore, both methods are used to diagnose tapeworm infections.

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124. The organism that causes Legionnaire's Disease is:

Explanation

Legionnaire's Disease is caused by a bacterium called Legionella pneumophila, which is a gram-negative rod. Gram-negative rods are a type of bacteria that have a specific cell wall structure, making them stain pink or red when subjected to a Gram stain test. This characteristic helps to identify and classify bacteria. In the case of Legionella pneumophila, it is a gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium that can cause severe pneumonia in humans.

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125. In the test for the enzyme nitrate reductase, the addition of zinc dust is useful because:

Explanation

The addition of zinc dust is useful in the test for the enzyme nitrate reductase because it confirms the presence of unreduced nitrate in a negative test for nitrite. This means that if the test initially shows a negative result for nitrite, the presence of zinc dust will cause the unreduced nitrate to react and form a black precipitate, which can be easily observed. This confirms that nitrate is present, even if it was not initially detected as nitrite.

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126. A 1% aqueous solution of teramethyl-para-phenylene-diamine dihydrochloride is used in testing bacterial colonies for the production of:

Explanation

A 1% aqueous solution of teramethyl-para-phenylene-diamine dihydrochloride is used in testing bacterial colonies for the production of indophenol oxidase. This is because indophenol oxidase is an enzyme that catalyzes the oxidation of indophenol to indophenol blue in the presence of hydrogen peroxide. The teramethyl-para-phenylene-diamine dihydrochloride acts as a substrate for the indophenol oxidase enzyme, and the formation of indophenol blue indicates the presence of the enzyme in the bacterial colonies.

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127. The Widal Serologic test for febrile agglutinins is for:

Explanation

The Widal Serologic test is used to detect the presence of antibodies against Salmonella typhi and paratyphi, which are the causative agents of typhoid fever. This test helps in diagnosing and confirming the infection caused by these bacteria. The test measures the agglutination of specific antibodies in the patient's serum when mixed with antigens derived from Salmonella typhi and paratyphi. If agglutination occurs, it indicates the presence of antibodies against these bacteria, suggesting a current or past infection. This test is not used for diagnosing other bacterial infections like Escherichia coli or Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

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128. After 10 minutes in boiling water, Escherichia coli was killed, but Bacillus subtilis was found to survive. Which of the following provides the most probably explanation?

Explanation

Bacillus subtilis is able to survive boiling water due to its ability to form endospores. Endospores are a dormant, tough, and resistant form of bacteria that can withstand extreme conditions, including high temperatures. When faced with unfavorable conditions, such as boiling water, B. subtilis can convert into an endospore, which protects its genetic material and vital components. This allows B. subtilis to remain viable and survive in harsh environments, while Escherichia coli, which does not form endospores, is unable to withstand the boiling water and is killed.

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129. Which of the following is not a preservative of fecal specimens?

Explanation

Ether is not a preservative of fecal specimens because it is a volatile liquid that evaporates quickly. Preservatives are substances that prevent the decomposition or spoilage of specimens, but ether does not have this property. It is commonly used as a solvent or anesthetic, but it is not suitable for preserving fecal specimens.

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130. Viral specimens may be preserved for long periods of time by:

Explanation

Viral specimens can be preserved for long periods of time by freezing them at -70 degrees C. This extremely low temperature helps to inhibit the growth and activity of microorganisms, including viruses, thereby preserving their integrity and viability. Refrigeration and freezing at higher temperatures (-20 degrees C and -5 degrees C) may slow down the degradation process but are not as effective as freezing at -70 degrees C in maintaining the long-term stability of viral specimens.

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131. Protozoa are classified by their means of:

Explanation

Protozoa are classified by their means of locomotion. This is because different types of protozoa move in different ways, such as using cilia, flagella, or pseudopodia. Locomotion is an important characteristic used to categorize and identify different species of protozoa.

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132. India ink wet mounts are used to demonstrate:

Explanation

India ink wet mounts are used to demonstrate capsules. Capsules are a protective layer that surrounds some bacteria and fungi, providing them with additional defense against the immune system. India ink is a type of dye that is not taken up by the capsule, allowing it to be visualized as a clear halo around the cell when viewed under a microscope. This technique is commonly used to identify and differentiate bacteria that produce capsules, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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133. The biochemical test most useful in an early identification of M. tuberculosis is the:

Explanation

The test for niacin production is the most useful biochemical test in the early identification of M. tuberculosis. This is because M. tuberculosis is one of the few mycobacteria species that can produce niacin. Therefore, if the test for niacin production is positive, it strongly suggests the presence of M. tuberculosis. Other mycobacteria species may not produce niacin or may produce it in very small amounts, making this test specific for M. tuberculosis. The catalase test after heating at 68 degrees C and the nitrate reduction test are not specific for M. tuberculosis and may not provide as accurate results in early identification.

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134. A double zone of hemolysis on blood agar is characteristic of:

Explanation

A double zone of hemolysis on blood agar is characteristic of Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is known for its ability to produce two distinct zones of hemolysis around colonies on blood agar plates. The inner zone is a complete hemolysis, where the red blood cells are completely lysed, while the outer zone is a partial hemolysis, where the red blood cells are partially lysed. This unique pattern of hemolysis is specific to Clostridium perfringens and helps in its identification in the laboratory.

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135. In the TSI determination, Pseudomonas aeruginosa will show an:

Explanation

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a bacterium that produces alkaline products during glucose fermentation. This results in an alkaline slant and butt in the TSI (triple sugar iron) determination. The alkaline slant is due to the production of ammonia, while the alkaline butt is a result of the production of amino acids. Therefore, the correct answer is alkaline slant and butt.

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136. The H (spreading) antigen are this type:

Explanation

The correct answer is flagellar because flagellar antigens are proteins found in the flagella of bacteria. These antigens are responsible for the movement of bacteria. The H antigen, also known as the spreading antigen, is a type of flagellar antigen. It helps bacteria move by propelling them through the environment. The other options, envelope, capsule, and somatic antigens, are not specifically related to flagella or bacterial movement.

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137. A beta-hemolytic stretococcus has been isolated from a throat culture. Which of the following tests would be most valuable to the physician in evaluating the significance of this organism?

Explanation

The bacitracin disc (A disc) test would be most valuable to the physician in evaluating the significance of the beta-hemolytic streptococcus isolated from the throat culture. This test helps differentiate between different species of streptococcus, specifically identifying Group A streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes). Group A streptococcus is known to cause a variety of infections, including strep throat and skin infections. Therefore, knowing whether the isolated organism is Group A streptococcus can help guide appropriate treatment and management decisions.

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138. The most common type of food poisioning in this country is caused by:

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common type of food poisoning in this country because it is a bacterium that produces toxins that can cause illness when ingested. It is commonly found on the skin and in the nose of humans, and can contaminate food when proper hygiene practices are not followed. Symptoms of Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning include nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea, and they typically appear within a few hours after consuming contaminated food. Proper food handling, storage, and hygiene practices are important in preventing the growth and spread of Staphylococcus aureus in food.

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139. What is the positive reaction of urea?

Explanation

Urea is known to produce a positive reaction with phenol and hypochlorite, resulting in a pink color. This reaction is commonly used in laboratory tests to detect the presence of urea in various substances. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is pink.

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140. An abscess specimen shows many colonies of gram positive cocci which were in pairs and clusters on the original gram smear. The colonies appear smooth and white on sheep blood agar, but it is not clear whether these organisms are staphylococci. Which of the following tests would enable you to make this differentiation?

Explanation

Catalase is an enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. Staphylococci are catalase-positive, meaning they produce the enzyme catalase and will produce bubbles when hydrogen peroxide is added to them. Other gram-positive cocci, such as streptococci, are catalase-negative and will not produce bubbles. Therefore, performing a catalase test would enable the differentiation between staphylococci and other gram-positive cocci in this case.

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141. What color would a gram negative organism be immediately after acetone-alcohol decolorization?

Explanation

After acetone-alcohol decolorization, a gram-negative organism would appear colorless. Acetone-alcohol is used in the Gram staining process to remove the crystal violet dye from the gram-negative bacteria, leaving them colorless. This is because the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria is thinner and contains less peptidoglycan, making it more susceptible to decolorization. Therefore, the correct answer is colorless.

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142. Ova of one of the following parasites are usually found in sputum. Which one?

Explanation

Paragonimus westermanni is the correct answer because it is a type of lung fluke that can infect humans. The adult worms of Paragonimus westermanni reside in the lungs and lay their eggs, which are then coughed up and found in the sputum. This parasite is commonly associated with symptoms such as coughing, chest pain, and bloody sputum. Ascaris lumbricoides, Metagonimus yokagawai, and Schistosoma hematobium are not typically found in sputum.

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143. Nickerson's and Cornmeal agar are good media for the growth of:

Explanation

Nickerson's and Cornmeal agar are good media for the growth of Candida because these agars provide the optimal conditions for the growth and development of this particular fungal species. Candida is a yeast-like fungus that requires specific nutrients and environmental factors to thrive. Nickerson's agar is a selective medium that contains inhibitors to suppress the growth of bacteria, allowing Candida to grow without competition. Cornmeal agar is a differential medium that provides essential nutrients for Candida and allows for the observation of specific morphological characteristics of the colonies. Therefore, these agars are commonly used in laboratory settings to cultivate and identify Candida species.

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144. A test used to differentiate Group B-strep from other beta hemolytic strep is:

Explanation

The bacitracin test is used to differentiate Group B-strep from other beta hemolytic streptococci. This test involves placing a bacitracin disk on a blood agar plate that has been inoculated with the bacteria. If the bacteria is sensitive to bacitracin, there will be a zone of inhibition around the disk, indicating that it is not Group B-strep. If there is no zone of inhibition, it suggests that the bacteria is Group B-strep. This test is commonly used in clinical laboratories to identify the specific type of streptococci present in a sample.

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145. The major difficulty in preparing an effective vaccine against the common cold is that:

Explanation

The major difficulty in preparing an effective vaccine against the common cold is that there are so many different causative agents that it is impossible to immunize a person against all of them. The common cold is caused by a variety of different viruses, including rhinoviruses, coronaviruses, and adenoviruses. Each of these viruses has different strains and can mutate rapidly, making it challenging to develop a single vaccine that can effectively target all of them. Additionally, the immune response to one strain of the virus may not provide protection against other strains, further complicating the development of a universal vaccine for the common cold.

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146. The typical infection produced by Staphylococcus aureus is:

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterium that commonly causes skin infections. Boils, or furuncles, are a common type of infection caused by this bacterium. Boils are painful, pus-filled bumps that form on the skin, usually caused by a hair follicle becoming infected. They can occur anywhere on the body and are typically red, swollen, and tender. Staphylococcus aureus produces enzymes and toxins that contribute to the formation and progression of boils. Therefore, the correct answer is boils.

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147. Tapeworms attach to the wall of the intestine by means of a:

Explanation

Tapeworms attach to the wall of the intestine using a structure called the scolex. The scolex is a specialized organ found at the anterior end of the tapeworm, and it contains hooks and suckers that allow the parasite to firmly attach itself to the intestinal lining. The scolex serves as an anchor for the tapeworm, allowing it to absorb nutrients from its host and complete its life cycle.

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148. Which two genera deaminate phenylalanine:

Explanation

Proteus and Providencia are two genera that are capable of deaminating phenylalanine. Deamination is the process of removing an amino group from an amino acid, and in this case, it specifically refers to the removal of the amino group from phenylalanine. Salmonella and Citrobacter are not known for their ability to deaminate phenylalanine.

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149. Microbiology media should be stored at:

Explanation

Microbiology media should be stored at 4-10 degrees C because this temperature range is considered ideal for preserving the integrity and viability of the microorganisms present in the media. Storing the media at lower temperatures slows down the metabolic activity of the microorganisms, preventing their growth and potential degradation of the media. On the other hand, storing at higher temperatures may promote the growth of unwanted contaminants or even kill the microorganisms. Therefore, maintaining a temperature range of 4-10 degrees C ensures the stability and quality of the microbiology media.

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150. Which of the following factors would make an organism appear to be more resistant on a disk diffusion susceptibility test:

Explanation

Having too many organisms in the inoculum would make an organism appear to be more resistant on a disk diffusion susceptibility test. This is because when there are too many organisms present, they can overcrowd the agar plate and compete for nutrients, making it difficult for the antibiotic in the disk to effectively inhibit their growth. As a result, the zone of inhibition around the disk would appear smaller or even non-existent, indicating that the organism is more resistant to the antibiotic.

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151. In culturing stool specimens for enteric pathogens, the following media are recommended:

Explanation

The recommended method for culturing stool specimens for enteric pathogens is to use a combination of differential and selective plating media along with an enrichment broth. This approach allows for the growth and identification of specific pathogens by providing a variety of nutrients and selective agents that inhibit the growth of unwanted bacteria. The enrichment broth helps to enhance the growth of pathogens that may be present in low numbers, increasing the chances of detection. This method is considered more effective than using just a blood plate and differential agar or performing primary enrichment followed by subculturing to differential and selective agar media.

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152. Selenite broth:

Explanation

Selenite broth is a selective medium that inhibits the growth of gram-positive organisms, making it suitable for the isolation of gram-negative bacteria such as Shigella and Salmonella. Additionally, it also inhibits the growth of coliforms, which are a group of gram-negative bacteria commonly found in the intestines of humans and animals. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of these" as Selenite broth can perform all the mentioned functions.

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153. Eosin methylene blue agar is a good differential media because it distringuishes between:

Explanation

Eosin methylene blue agar is a good differential media because it can distinguish between lactose and non-lactose fermenting gram negative organisms. This is possible because the agar contains dyes that inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria and allow the growth of gram negative bacteria. In addition, lactose fermenters produce acid during fermentation, causing the colonies to appear dark purple or black with a metallic sheen, while non-lactose fermenters do not produce acid and appear colorless or pale. This allows for the differentiation and identification of different types of gram negative bacteria based on their ability to ferment lactose.

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154. In the micro-titer well serial dilution method for determining the susceptibility of an organism to antibiotics the:

Explanation

In the micro-titer well serial dilution method for determining the susceptibility of an organism to antibiotics, the antibiotic is prepared in decreasing concentration by serial dilution. This is done to create a range of concentrations of the antibiotic in order to observe the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of the antibiotic against the bacterial culture. The bacterial culture is then inoculated into the appropriate medium containing these different concentrations of the antibiotic. By observing the growth or inhibition of the bacteria in each well, the susceptibility of the organism to the antibiotic can be determined.

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155. Cultures for fungi are grown at:

Explanation

Cultures for fungi are grown at room and body temperature because these temperatures provide the optimal conditions for fungal growth. Fungi are mesophilic organisms, meaning they thrive in moderate temperatures. Room temperature, typically around 20-25°C, is suitable for many fungi to grow and reproduce. Body temperature, around 37°C, is specifically important for cultivating fungi that are pathogenic to humans, as they can only grow and cause infections within this temperature range. Therefore, growing cultures at room and body temperature allows for the cultivation of a wide range of fungi, both for research purposes and for studying fungal infections.

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156. A spinal fluid has been brought to the laboratory; the diagnosis is meningitis. The direct gram stain shows gram-positive cocci in pairs. Which of the following organisms might this be?

Explanation

The direct gram stain showing gram-positive cocci in pairs suggests that the organism causing meningitis in this case is likely Streptococcus pneumoniae. This is because Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-positive bacterium that often appears in pairs or chains. Neisseria meningitidis is a gram-negative diplococcus, Listeria monocytogenes is a gram-positive rod, and Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a gram-positive bacillus, so they are less likely to be the cause of the meningitis in this case.

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157. A genus of parasites that moves about by means of pseudopods is:

Explanation

Entamoeba is the correct answer because it is a genus of parasites that are known to move by extending pseudopods, which are temporary projections of the cell membrane used for locomotion. Giardia is a genus of parasites that move by using flagella, Trichomonas is a genus of parasites that move by using flagella as well, and Taenia is a genus of parasites that are tapeworms and do not move actively. Therefore, Entamoeba is the most appropriate choice for a genus of parasites that move by means of pseudopods.

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158. Ascaris is a:

Explanation

Ascaris is classified as a roundworm because it belongs to the genus Ascaris, which includes several species of parasitic roundworms. These worms are characterized by their cylindrical shape and are commonly found in the intestines of humans and animals. Ascaris lumbricoides is the most common species that infects humans and can cause a condition called ascariasis. The other options mentioned, hookworm, pinworm, and tapeworm, belong to different genera and have distinct characteristics that differentiate them from roundworms.

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159. An enteric gram-negative rod producing colorless colonies on EMB or MacConki's agar and a red sland and yellow butt and no gas on TSI might be a:

Explanation

A gram-negative rod that produces colorless colonies on EMB or MacConkey's agar indicates that the organism does not ferment lactose. The red slant and yellow butt with no gas on TSI suggests that the organism is a non-lactose fermenter and does not produce gas from glucose fermentation. Shigella species fit this description as they are non-lactose fermenters and do not produce gas on TSI. Klebsiella, Citrobacter, and Salmonella species are all lactose fermenters and would produce colonies with color on EMB or MacConkey's agar and gas on TSI.

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160. Triple sugar iron (TSI) agar medium contains the following sugars except:

Explanation

The correct answer is maltose. TSI agar medium is used to differentiate bacteria based on their ability to ferment sugars and produce gas. It contains glucose, lactose, and sucrose, which are all sugars that can be fermented by bacteria. Maltose, on the other hand, is not included in TSI agar medium. Therefore, bacteria that can ferment glucose, lactose, and/or sucrose will produce acid and gas, causing a change in the color of the medium and the presence of gas bubbles.

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161. The iodine stain is used to:

Explanation

Iodine stain is used to make the nuclei prominent by staining the nuclear membrane and the karyosome. This staining technique helps in visualizing and distinguishing the nuclei within cells, making them more easily observable under a microscope. It does not have any effect on observing motility, distinguishing trophozoites from cysts, or showing pseudopodia.

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162. Which of the following will not grow in most artificial laboratory media?

Explanation

Yersinia pestis will not grow in most artificial laboratory media. This bacterium is the causative agent of the plague and has specific growth requirements that are not met by most laboratory media. It requires specialized media and conditions for optimal growth, such as blood agar supplemented with specific nutrients. Therefore, it is unlikely to grow in standard laboratory media used for culturing bacteria.

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163. Candida albicans differs from other Candida species in that it:

Explanation

Candida albicans differs from other Candida species because it produces chlamydoconidia on the corn meal agar. Chlamydoconidia are thick-walled, asexual spores that are characteristic of Candida albicans and are not produced by other Candida species. This is a distinguishing feature of Candida albicans and helps to differentiate it from other species within the Candida genus.

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164. Most of the automated microbiology equipment currently available has been designed to replace:

Explanation

Automated microbiology equipment is designed to replace repetitive manual methods that are performed daily on a large number of specimens. These methods are time-consuming and require a significant amount of labor. By automating these processes, laboratories can increase efficiency, reduce human error, and improve turnaround time for test results. This allows for faster and more accurate diagnosis of microbial infections, leading to better patient care.

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165. A small gram-negative rod has been isolated from the blood. It grows on chocolate agar, but not on sheep blood agar. There is no growth surrounding the X or V disk, but there is growth around the XV disk. The organism is most likely:

Explanation

The small gram-negative rod isolated from the blood is most likely Hemophilus parainfluenzae. This is because it grows on chocolate agar, which is a selective medium for the growth of fastidious organisms like Hemophilus species. It does not grow on sheep blood agar, indicating that it does not require factors present in sheep blood for growth. The absence of growth surrounding the X or V disk suggests that the organism does not require either factor X (hemin) or factor V (NAD) for growth. However, the presence of growth around the XV disk indicates that it requires both factors X and V for optimal growth, which is characteristic of Hemophilus parainfluenzae.

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166. Streptococcus pneumoniae can be identified by its reaction with:

Explanation

Both the bile solubility test and optochin susceptibility can be used to identify Streptococcus pneumoniae. The bile solubility test is based on the ability of S. pneumoniae to lyse in the presence of bile salts, while optochin susceptibility is a test that determines whether the bacteria are sensitive to the antibiotic optochin. Therefore, both of these tests are useful in identifying Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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167. Which of the following is most often used to prepare a slide from a plate culture of a dermatophyte for microscopic observation?

Explanation

Lactophenol cotton blue is most often used to prepare a slide from a plate culture of a dermatophyte for microscopic observation. This staining solution is commonly used in mycology to visualize fungal structures and spores. It helps to enhance the contrast and visibility of the dermatophyte on the slide, making it easier to identify and study under a microscope. Potassium hydroxide is also used for slide preparation, but it is more commonly used for the detection of fungal elements in clinical specimens. Iodine solution and Gram stain are not typically used for preparing slides of dermatophytes.

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168. On a gram stained smear bacteria may be identified to some extent by their:

Explanation

Gram staining is a technique used to differentiate bacteria based on their cell wall structure. This staining method allows for the visualization of the bacteria's morphology, specifically their shape and arrangement. By observing the morphology of the stained bacteria under a microscope, one can make preliminary identifications of different bacterial species. Therefore, the correct answer is morphology.

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169. The best time to draw a blood culture is:

Explanation

Drawing a blood culture before the expected temperature rise is the best time because it allows for the detection of any possible pathogens in the bloodstream at an early stage, before the fever develops. This increases the chances of identifying the causative organism and initiating appropriate treatment promptly. Drawing the blood culture in the morning from a fasting patient or when the fever is at its highest point may not necessarily provide the most accurate results. Similarly, drawing the blood culture after the fever has subsided may not be ideal as it may miss the opportunity to detect the presence of pathogens during the active infection.

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170. Which of the following types of organisms have a fatty or lipid cell membrane?

Explanation

Acid fast bacteria have a fatty or lipid cell membrane. This type of bacteria has a unique cell wall structure that contains a high concentration of mycolic acid, a type of fatty acid. The presence of this lipid layer makes acid fast bacteria resistant to many disinfectants and antibiotics. This characteristic is used to differentiate acid fast bacteria from other types of bacteria, and it is particularly important in the identification of the causative agent of tuberculosis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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171. The number of organisms in a urine sample from infected individuals is of most significance in that most infected urine samples show colony counts of:

Explanation

The number of organisms in a urine sample from infected individuals is of most significance in determining the severity of the infection. Most infected urine samples show colony counts of 100000 or more per milliliter of urine. This high number indicates a significant bacterial load and suggests a more severe infection. Lower colony counts, such as 100 or less, 1000 or less, or 10000 to 100000, may indicate a milder infection or even a contamination in the sample. Therefore, a colony count of 100000 or more is the most significant in diagnosing an infection.

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172. A stool specimen should be examined immediately for:

Explanation

A stool specimen should be examined immediately for trophozoites because trophozoites are the motile, active form of certain parasites, such as Giardia or Entamoeba histolytica. These organisms can cause gastrointestinal infections and can be easily identified and diagnosed through microscopic examination of fresh stool samples. By examining the specimen immediately, the trophozoites can be observed while they are still alive and actively moving, which helps in accurate identification and diagnosis of the infection.

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173. Using the API system, oxidase negative organisms are suspended in:

Explanation

The correct answer is sterile, 0.85% saline. Oxidase negative organisms are suspended in a sterile solution of 0.85% saline. This solution is used to create a suitable environment for the organisms to survive and grow. Tap water may contain impurities that can interfere with the growth of the organisms. Sterile TS broth and 0.85% saline are not specifically mentioned as suitable for suspending oxidase negative organisms.

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174. A gram-negative rod which is an obligate anaerobe is:

Explanation

Bacteroides is a gram-negative rod that is an obligate anaerobe. This means that it cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and requires an oxygen-free environment to grow and thrive. Bacteroides are commonly found in the human gastrointestinal tract and play a role in digestion. They are known for their ability to break down complex carbohydrates and produce short-chain fatty acids. Bacteroides species are also associated with various infections, particularly in the abdominal and pelvic regions.

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175. Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by a:

Explanation

Primary atypical pneumonia, also known as walking pneumonia, is caused by Mycoplasma. Mycoplasma is a type of bacteria that lacks a cell wall, making it different from other bacteria. It is classified as a gram-negative rod, and it is known to cause respiratory infections in humans. Mycoplasma pneumonia typically presents with symptoms such as a persistent cough, fever, and fatigue. Treatment usually involves antibiotics that are effective against Mycoplasma.

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176. Thioglycollate medium supports the growth of:

Explanation

Thioglycollate medium is a type of culture medium that is commonly used in microbiology to support the growth of various types of microorganisms. It contains ingredients that create a range of oxygen concentrations within the medium, allowing for the growth of both anaerobic bacteria (which do not require oxygen) and a majority of aerobes (which require oxygen). This medium is particularly useful for testing the oxygen requirements of different bacteria and for isolating and identifying mixed populations of microorganisms.

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177. Herpes viruses cause all of the following infections except:

Explanation

Herpes viruses are known to cause cold sores, chickenpox, and shingles, but they do not cause warts. Warts are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a different type of virus. While both herpes viruses and HPV are sexually transmitted infections, they are caused by different viruses and result in different types of infections.

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178. Using the LIA tube, a positive decarboxylation of lysine is indicated by:

Explanation

A positive decarboxylation of lysine is indicated by a purple color when using the LIA tube. This is because lysine decarboxylation produces the compound cadaverine, which reacts with the indicator in the LIA tube to produce a purple color. The other options (yellow, brown, and red) are not indicative of lysine decarboxylation.

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179. Which of the following develop yellow to orange pigmentation while incubating in the dark?

Explanation

Scotochromogens develop yellow to orange pigmentation while incubating in the dark. This means that these organisms have the ability to produce pigments when exposed to darkness. The other options, photochromogens, nonphotochromogens, and rapid growers, do not exhibit this characteristic.

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180. Bacteria that produce penicillinase may be killed by:

Explanation

Interference with protein synthesis can kill bacteria that produce penicillinase. Penicillinase is an enzyme that breaks down penicillin, rendering it ineffective. By interfering with protein synthesis, the production of penicillinase can be disrupted, preventing the bacteria from breaking down penicillin and allowing the antibiotic to effectively kill the bacteria.

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181. The optochin, (Ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride), "P" disc sensitivity test consists of placing optochin disks on blood agar plates heavily inoculated with the suspected organism. If there is a zone of inhibition of 15 to 30 mm surrounding the colony following overnight incubation at 37 degrees C, the colony most likely consists of:

Explanation

The optochin, or "P" disc sensitivity test, is used to identify pneumococci. The test involves placing optochin disks on blood agar plates that are heavily inoculated with the suspected organism. If there is a zone of inhibition of 15 to 30 mm surrounding the colony after overnight incubation at 37 degrees C, it indicates sensitivity to optochin and suggests the presence of pneumococci. Staphylococci, streptococci, and intestinal bacilli would not show the same level of sensitivity to optochin.

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182. Using the TSI tube, gas production is indicated by:

Explanation

The correct answer is splitting of the media. This is because when gas is produced in the TSI tube, it creates enough pressure to cause the agar media to split or crack. This splitting is a clear indication of gas production in the tube. The other options, such as lifting of the wax overlay, blackening of the media, and yellow color, are not reliable indicators of gas production in the TSI tube.

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183. What mean of locomotion do malarial parasites have?

Explanation

Malarial parasites do not have any means of locomotion. This means that they are unable to move on their own and rely on other means, such as being carried by mosquitoes, to travel from one host to another.

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184. Mature cyst of Entamoeba coli usually possess a characteristic number of nuclei, which is:

Explanation

Mature cysts of Entamoeba coli typically possess 8 nuclei.

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185. Two critical steps in the gram staining procedure are the actions of:

Explanation

The correct answer is mordant and decolorizer. In the gram staining procedure, a mordant is used to fix the crystal violet dye to the bacterial cell walls, making it more resistant to decolorization. The decolorizer is then applied to remove the crystal violet from some types of bacteria, allowing the differentiation between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. Therefore, both the mordant and decolorizer are critical steps in the gram staining procedure.

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186. A peripheral blood smear from a patient suspected of having malaria will exhibit all but the following characteristics of infected cells:

Explanation

The correct answer is "red cells normal size and shape". In a peripheral blood smear from a patient suspected of having malaria, infected cells may exhibit ring stages, crescent-shaped gametocytes, and Maurer's dots. However, one of the characteristics that would not be seen in infected cells is red cells with normal size and shape. Malaria infection can cause changes in the morphology of red blood cells, such as enlargement and distortion. Therefore, the absence of abnormal red cell morphology would suggest that malaria infection is unlikely.

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187. Which of the following parasites is associated with hydatid cysts in the human?

Explanation

Echinococcus granulosus is associated with hydatid cysts in humans. This parasite is commonly found in dogs and other canids. Humans can become infected by ingesting the eggs of the parasite, usually through contact with contaminated soil, water, or food. Once inside the body, the eggs hatch and the larvae migrate to various organs, particularly the liver and lungs, where they form hydatid cysts. These cysts can cause a range of symptoms and complications, and if left untreated, can be life-threatening. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the cysts and antiparasitic medications.

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188. Mycobacterium tuberculosis:

Explanation

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes tuberculosis, will not grow at room temperature. This is because it is a slow-growing bacterium that requires specific conditions to thrive. It prefers warmer temperatures, such as body temperature, for optimal growth. Room temperature is generally not warm enough to support its growth.

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189. The genus Epidermophyton may infect:

Explanation

The genus Epidermophyton is a type of fungus that commonly infects the skin and nails. It is known to cause infections such as athlete's foot and ringworm. However, it does not typically infect the hair. Therefore, the correct answer is "skin, nails but never hair".

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190. Which of the following materials is most frequently found to be positive on culture:

Explanation

Sputum is the material most frequently found to be positive on culture. Sputum is a mixture of saliva and mucus that is coughed up from the respiratory tract. It is commonly used for diagnosing respiratory infections such as pneumonia, bronchitis, and tuberculosis. These infections often involve the presence of bacteria or other microorganisms in the respiratory system, which can be detected through culture. Throat swabbings, feces, and blood can also be cultured for certain infections, but sputum is generally the material that yields the highest frequency of positive results.

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191. All of the following organisms except one, are normal inhabitants of the upper respiratory tract:

Explanation

Beta hemolytic Streptococci-Group A is the correct answer because it is not a normal inhabitant of the upper respiratory tract. The other three organisms, Moraxella catarrhalis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Hemophilus influenza, are commonly found in the upper respiratory tract. Beta hemolytic Streptococci-Group A is known to cause various infections, such as strep throat, but it is not a normal resident of the upper respiratory tract.

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192. Disk diffusion susceptibility plates should be read:

Explanation

Disk diffusion susceptibility plates should be read 48-72 hours after inoculation. This is because it takes time for the antibiotics in the disks to diffuse into the agar and inhibit the growth of the bacteria. By waiting for 48-72 hours, the zones of inhibition around the disks can be accurately measured and interpreted to determine the susceptibility of the bacteria to the antibiotics. Reading the plates too early may result in false interpretations of susceptibility.

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193. In subacute bacterial endocarditis, the most likely causative agent is:

Explanation

Subacute bacterial endocarditis is commonly caused by Streptococcus viridans. This bacterium is a normal inhabitant of the oral cavity and can enter the bloodstream during dental procedures or even through minor injuries in the mouth. Once in the bloodstream, it can attach to damaged heart valves or other areas of the heart, leading to an infection. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and Streptococcus pneumoniae are less likely to cause subacute bacterial endocarditis compared to Streptococcus viridans.

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194. Which of the following media is not used for the cultivation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Explanation

Loeffler's medium is not used for the cultivation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Loeffler's medium is primarily used for the cultivation of diphtheria bacteria, not Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is commonly cultured on media such as Dubos', Petragnani's, and Lowenstein-Jenson's.

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195. Which one of the following specimen requests is acceptable?

Explanation

The acceptable specimen request is "urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli." This is because acid-fast bacilli are a type of bacteria that can cause infections such as tuberculosis. Urine is a suitable specimen for culturing these bacteria because they can be excreted in the urine of infected individuals. By culturing the urine for acid-fast bacilli, the presence of these bacteria can be detected, allowing for diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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196. "Sulfur granules" are associated with:

Explanation

Sulfur granules are associated with Nocardia asteroides. Nocardia asteroides is a species of bacteria that can cause infections in humans, particularly in the lungs, skin, and brain. These bacteria produce yellowish sulfur granules, which can be seen in the infected tissues or in pus from the abscesses. The presence of sulfur granules is a characteristic feature of Nocardia asteroides infections, helping in its identification and differentiation from other bacterial infections such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium leprae, and Streptomyces.

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197. The genus of anaerobic bacteria that is predominant in the large instestine is:

Explanation

Bacteroides is the correct answer because it is a genus of anaerobic bacteria that is predominantly found in the large intestine. These bacteria play an important role in the digestion of complex carbohydrates and the production of short-chain fatty acids. They are also involved in maintaining the balance of the gut microbiota and have been associated with various health benefits. Vibrio, Lactobacillus, and Escherichia are not predominant in the large intestine and have different habitats and roles in the body.

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198. Using Hektoen-Enteric agar, lactose fermenters are:

Explanation

The correct answer is salmon because Hektoen-Enteric agar is a selective and differential agar used to identify and differentiate enteric bacteria based on their ability to ferment lactose. Lactose fermenters produce acid, which causes the agar to turn salmon or orange in color. Non-lactose fermenters do not produce acid and therefore remain colorless or appear as white colonies on the agar.

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199. The Nematodes are usually found in the feces in the form of:

Explanation

Nematodes are commonly found in the feces in the form of eggs. Eggs are the reproductive stage of nematodes and are typically passed out of the body through feces. These eggs can then contaminate the environment and potentially infect other individuals. The other options mentioned, such as trophozoites, larva, and adult worms, are not typically found in the feces but rather in other stages of the nematode life cycle.

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200. All of the following agar media can be used for isolating enteric pathogens, except:

Explanation

Bile esculin agar is not used for isolating enteric pathogens because it is selective for group D streptococci and enterococci, rather than enteric pathogens. Bismuth sulfite agar, MacConkey agar, and Hektoen Enteric agar are all commonly used for isolating enteric pathogens such as Escherichia coli and Salmonella.

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Growth factors X and V are essential in the cultivation of:
The scientific name for the organism that causes syphilis is:
Pinworm is the common name for:
Acid-fast bacteria belong to which of the following genera:
The process by which organisms adhere to a slide is called:
The genus that shows characteristic "swarming" on agar media...
An organism from a burn patient produced a diffusible green pigment on...
Entamoeba histolytica is classified as a/an:
The majority of bacteria will grow within a temperature range of:
The Kinyoun cabolfuchsin method is used to stain:
Whooping cough is confimed by the isolation of:
Of the following body sites, the only one to have a normal flora is...
Motile bacteria always possess:
Normally, the bloodstream:
Only one amoeba is considered to be definitely pathogenic to man. It...
One of the ways antibiotics work against pathogens is to:
The family, Enterobacteriaceae:
If when doing a urine culture, you find 146 colonies on the agar plate...
Microogranisms that are difficult to grow and may require special...
The triple sugar iron agar is valuable because it yields information...
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is probably test identified by its...
Biochemically, a stool culture isolate appears to be a Salmonella sp,...
The special media used in the diagnosis of whooping cough is:
Sabouraud's agar is used to:
Mueller-Hinton agar:
Bacterial meningitis is accompanied by a cerebrospinal fluid that:
On MacConkey's agar, Klebsiella is:
The genus of parasites which causes malaria is:
Darkfield microscopy is commonly used to visualize:
A yeast has been isolated from a mouth culture. It forms germ tubes in...
Storage of media in a refrigerator reduces:
The cells that are destroyed in AIDS are ____ and their loss leaves...
A good method of identifying Cryptococcus neoformans is the:
Which parasite is sometimes found in the microscopic examination of...
Listeria monocytogenes has been shown to be the causative agent in:
Which of the following will not grow on most artificial laboratory...
All of the following are bacilli except:
One the distinguishing features of viruses is that they are:
Staphylococcus aureus is a:
Which of the following would best enhance the growth of pathogenic...
The organisms identified as alpha Streptococcus-Enterococcus group can...
A zone of inhibition of growth on a plate containing a certain...
The 100x objective lens with a 10x ocular lens provides an overall...
In the API system, like many other testing systems, fermentation of...
An alpha Streptococcus has been isolated from urine, and it hydrolyzes...
The reaction on urease agar test medium depends on the hydrolysis of...
For more accurate stool examinations:
Which of the following would be the best preparation for rapid...
If slides made from the genitourinary tract upon staining reveal gram...
Simmons citrate agar is used to demonstrate whether or not a/an:
Toxic Shock Syndrome is often attributed to infection with:
Urine cultures are inculated onto colistin-nalidixic acid agar (CNA)...
The oil used with the oil immersion lens:
Spreading surface growth with typical fruity odor is characteristic...
Chain like formation is demonstrated by this genus:
The Voges-proskauer test is used for detecting the production of:
In the API system, like many other testing systems, H2S is indicated...
Thrush is caused by:
Cestodes or tapeworms consist of a series of segments know as:
IT is the enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus which causes:
What color would a gram positive organism be before the addition of...
A coliform that is a normal inhavitant of the large intestine is:
Most Escherichia coli will show the following requirement:
Hookworm infections may be caused by:
_____ produces ______ that causes flaccid paralysis when it is eaten...
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites that contain:
Pseudomonas species:
Bubonic plague is caused by:
The proper order of application of materials, exclusive of water, in...
In Taenia saginata, the larval stage developes in:
Humans become infected by Pasteurella multocida organisms most...
A common laboratory contaminant is:
Morphologically the Streptococcus pneumoniae exhibits:
Thayer-Martin media is used to isolate:
A gram-negative rod has been isolated from feces, and the confirmed...
Hemophilus influenzae:
The temperature of a CO2 incubator is:
A flat, purple colony with a metallic sheen on EMB is probably:
Which of the following flagellates found in the urine has no cyst...
The standard determination of antibiotic sensitivities that involves...
All species of Proteus react positively in the:
Some strains of this genus are chromogenic and produce pink-red amber...
In the gram's stain, iodine is referred to as the:
The reagent used for the indole test is:
Slender, pleomorphic organisms arranged parallel to each other or at...
The organism that causes syphilis cannot:
Haemophilus demonstrates satellitism with:
The microbe that causes acute bacterial meningitis is usually aquired:
If we wanted to observe organisms in the living state, we would use...
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, an organism that is found in a variety of...
After 48 hours incubation on poured blood-plates, pneumococci produce...
The organisms that cause typhus fever are:
The genus which causes dysentery is:
In cultureing sptum for M. tuberculosis, the following digestion and...
Concentration of sputum for T.B. culture is performed in this...
N. asteroides generally survives the decontamination of sputum for...
The Plamodia that causes the most severe pathology is:
In Gram stains of sputum from a patient with nocardiosis, the organism...
Which of the following organisms are considered normal flora of the...
A common name for Dyphyllobothrium latum is the:
Correct identification of a causative agent requires isolation and...
An aid in the detection of Neisseria gonorrheae would be the:
A mass of intertwined and branching hyphae is called:
A pathogenic spirochete from the genus ______ causes _______.
All the organisms listed below can be encountered in an infected...
Salmonella and Shigella species are always:
A broad-spectrum antibiotic will be active against:
The family Enterobacteriaceae are:
On S-S agar, Shigella species are:
The ova of one of the following is characterized by the presence of a...
Most fungi that cause systemic infections enter the body:
The causative organism of histoplasmosis is:
Herpes simplex 2 (HSV-2) infections:
Examination of feces for trophozoites is done by:
Colonies of M. tuberculosis appear on egg media generally after 2 to 3...
NIH swabs and scotch tape mounts are used to detect the ova of:
Microscopic examination of parasites using the wet film method may...
The indicator organism for fecal pollution in the US is:
The most often acquired noocomial infection involves the ______ and is...
The most common cause of furuncles and carbuncles is:
Ova of one of the follwing parasites are commonly excreted in the...
A strict anaerobe with "typical" terminal, drumstick spores...
The diagnosis of all tapeworms is made:
The organism that causes Legionnaire's Disease is:
In the test for the enzyme nitrate reductase, the addition of zinc...
A 1% aqueous solution of teramethyl-para-phenylene-diamine...
The Widal Serologic test for febrile agglutinins is for:
After 10 minutes in boiling water, Escherichia coli was killed, but...
Which of the following is not a preservative of fecal specimens?
Viral specimens may be preserved for long periods of time by:
Protozoa are classified by their means of:
India ink wet mounts are used to demonstrate:
The biochemical test most useful in an early identification of M....
A double zone of hemolysis on blood agar is characteristic of:
In the TSI determination, Pseudomonas aeruginosa will show an:
The H (spreading) antigen are this type:
A beta-hemolytic stretococcus has been isolated from a throat culture....
The most common type of food poisioning in this country is caused by:
What is the positive reaction of urea?
An abscess specimen shows many colonies of gram positive cocci which...
What color would a gram negative organism be immediately after...
Ova of one of the following parasites are usually found in sputum....
Nickerson's and Cornmeal agar are good media for the growth of:
A test used to differentiate Group B-strep from other beta hemolytic...
The major difficulty in preparing an effective vaccine against the...
The typical infection produced by Staphylococcus aureus is:
Tapeworms attach to the wall of the intestine by means of a:
Which two genera deaminate phenylalanine:
Microbiology media should be stored at:
Which of the following factors would make an organism appear to be...
In culturing stool specimens for enteric pathogens, the following...
Selenite broth:
Eosin methylene blue agar is a good differential media because it...
In the micro-titer well serial dilution method for determining the...
Cultures for fungi are grown at:
A spinal fluid has been brought to the laboratory; the diagnosis is...
A genus of parasites that moves about by means of pseudopods is:
Ascaris is a:
An enteric gram-negative rod producing colorless colonies on EMB or...
Triple sugar iron (TSI) agar medium contains the following sugars...
The iodine stain is used to:
Which of the following will not grow in most artificial laboratory...
Candida albicans differs from other Candida species in that it:
Most of the automated microbiology equipment currently available has...
A small gram-negative rod has been isolated from the blood. It grows...
Streptococcus pneumoniae can be identified by its reaction with:
Which of the following is most often used to prepare a slide from a...
On a gram stained smear bacteria may be identified to some extent by...
The best time to draw a blood culture is:
Which of the following types of organisms have a fatty or lipid cell...
The number of organisms in a urine sample from infected individuals is...
A stool specimen should be examined immediately for:
Using the API system, oxidase negative organisms are suspended in:
A gram-negative rod which is an obligate anaerobe is:
Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by a:
Thioglycollate medium supports the growth of:
Herpes viruses cause all of the following infections except:
Using the LIA tube, a positive decarboxylation of lysine is indicated...
Which of the following develop yellow to orange pigmentation while...
Bacteria that produce penicillinase may be killed by:
The optochin, (Ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride), "P" disc...
Using the TSI tube, gas production is indicated by:
What mean of locomotion do malarial parasites have?
Mature cyst of Entamoeba coli usually possess a characteristic number...
Two critical steps in the gram staining procedure are the actions of:
A peripheral blood smear from a patient suspected of having malaria...
Which of the following parasites is associated with hydatid cysts in...
Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
The genus Epidermophyton may infect:
Which of the following materials is most frequently found to be...
All of the following organisms except one, are normal inhabitants of...
Disk diffusion susceptibility plates should be read:
In subacute bacterial endocarditis, the most likely causative agent...
Which of the following media is not used for the cultivation of...
Which one of the following specimen requests is acceptable?
"Sulfur granules" are associated with:
The genus of anaerobic bacteria that is predominant in the large...
Using Hektoen-Enteric agar, lactose fermenters are:
The Nematodes are usually found in the feces in the form of:
All of the following agar media can be used for isolating enteric...
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