Microbiology Exam Review Quiz Dec 2012

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1. Match the terms and abbreviations
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About This Quiz
Microbiology Exam Review Quiz Dec 2012 - Quiz

This Microbiology Exam Review Quiz from Dec 2012 focuses on the characteristics and diagnosis of Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. It tests knowledge on microscopy techniques, bacterial motility, and stages of syphilis, essential for students and professionals in medical microbiology.

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2. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a member of the normal flora.

Explanation

Staphylococcus epidermidis is a member of the normal flora because it is commonly found on the skin and mucous membranes of humans. It is a harmless bacterium that coexists with other microorganisms in the body without causing any harm. This bacterium plays a role in maintaining the balance of the microbial community and helps to prevent the colonization of harmful bacteria. Therefore, the statement "Staphylococcus epidermidis is a member of the normal flora" is true.

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3. The most common clinical presentation of infection with Staphylococcus saprophyticus is a/an:

Explanation

The most common clinical presentation of infection with Staphylococcus saprophyticus is a urinary tract infection (UTI). Staphylococcus saprophyticus is a bacterium that commonly colonizes the genital and urinary tract of sexually active women. It is a leading cause of UTIs in young, sexually active females. The symptoms of a Staphylococcus saprophyticus UTI typically include frequent urination, a burning sensation during urination, cloudy or bloody urine, and lower abdominal pain. Prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment with antibiotics are necessary to prevent complications and recurrence of the infection.

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4. Species of Neisseria are oxidase ____________

Explanation

Neisseria species are oxidase positive. This means that they produce the enzyme oxidase, which is involved in the oxidation of certain substances. The oxidase test is commonly used to differentiate between different bacterial species. In the case of Neisseria, a positive result indicates the presence of the enzyme and helps in identifying the bacteria as belonging to this genus.

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5. N.gonnorhoeae is also known as the "__________________" and N.meningitidis is also known as the "________________"

Explanation

N.gonnorhoeae is commonly referred to as gonococcus, while N.meningitidis is commonly known as meningococcus.

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6. Match em' up - Strep
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7. X and V factors are required for the growth of some Haemophilus species X factor is also known as __________ and V factor is also known as ________

Explanation

X factor is required for the growth of some Haemophilus species, and it is also known as heme. Heme is an iron-containing molecule that is essential for the function of certain enzymes involved in energy production and metabolism. V factor is also required for the growth of these species and is known as NAD+. NAD+ is a coenzyme that plays a crucial role in various metabolic reactions, including the transfer of electrons during cellular respiration. Both heme and NAD+ are necessary for the proper growth and function of Haemophilus species.

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8. Match the following stages of syphilis:
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9. T.pallidum has a _________________ motility that can be used for laboratory diagnosis.

Explanation

T.pallidum has a corkscrew-like motility, which means it moves in a twisting or spiral motion. This unique motility pattern can be used for laboratory diagnosis, as it helps differentiate T.pallidum from other bacteria that have different types of motility. By observing the corkscrew-like movement under a microscope, healthcare professionals can identify the presence of T.pallidum and make a diagnosis of syphilis.

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10. The laboratory diagnosis of Lyme Disease is most commonly made using _____________.

Explanation

The laboratory diagnosis of Lyme Disease is most commonly made using serology. Serology involves testing for the presence of antibodies against Borrelia burgdorferi, the bacteria that causes Lyme Disease, in a patient's blood. This is done through techniques such as enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and Western blot. These tests can detect the antibodies produced by the immune system in response to the infection. Serology is considered the most reliable method for diagnosing Lyme Disease, although it may not be accurate in the early stages of the infection.

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11. Staphylococcus aureus has the ability to ferment ________________ which is used in the identification of this species.

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus has the ability to ferment mannitol, which is a type of sugar. This fermentation process produces acid, causing a change in the pH of the medium. This change in pH is used as a characteristic test to identify Staphylococcus aureus. If the organism can ferment mannitol, it will produce acid and the medium will turn yellow. If it cannot ferment mannitol, there will be no change in the pH and the medium will remain red.

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12. Gram stain of organisms from a specimen from sterile body site is ___________________

Explanation

The Gram stain of organisms from a specimen from a sterile body site is presumptive. This means that the results of the Gram stain can provide a preliminary or presumptive identification of the organisms present in the specimen. However, further confirmatory tests or cultures may be needed to definitively identify the organisms. The Gram stain is a commonly used technique in microbiology to classify bacteria into two broad categories: Gram-positive and Gram-negative, based on their cell wall composition.

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13. Match em' up !
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14. Match the terms and definitions:
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15. Listeria and Corynebacterium matching
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16. Bacillus cereus is most noted for causing:

Explanation

Bacillus cereus is a type of bacteria that is commonly associated with food poisoning. This bacterium produces toxins that can contaminate food, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. It is often found in rice, pasta, and other starchy foods that have been cooked and left at room temperature for too long. While Bacillus cereus can cause other infections such as meningitis and urinary tract infections, it is most well-known for its role in foodborne illnesses.

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17. Prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin is recommended following aerosol exposure to B.anthracis

Explanation

Prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin is recommended following aerosol exposure to B.anthracis because ciprofloxacin is an effective antibiotic that can prevent the development of anthrax, which is caused by B.anthracis. By taking ciprofloxacin after exposure, it can help to kill any bacteria that may have entered the body and prevent the onset of the disease. This recommendation is based on scientific evidence and guidelines provided by healthcare authorities.

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18. The presence of gram-negative diplococci in the Gram stain of a cerebrospinal fluid would be considered a critical result and should be immediately called to the attention of the clinician.

Explanation

The presence of gram-negative diplococci in the Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid is considered a critical result because it may indicate the presence of bacteria such as Neisseria meningitidis, which is a common cause of meningitis. Meningitis is a serious infection that can lead to severe complications and even death if not promptly treated. Therefore, it is crucial to immediately inform the clinician about this finding so that appropriate treatment can be initiated as soon as possible.

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19. Staphylococcus species are catalase positive.

Explanation

Staphylococcus species are catalase positive because they produce the enzyme catalase, which allows them to break down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. This characteristic is used to differentiate Staphylococcus from other bacteria that are catalase negative. By performing a catalase test, one can determine if a bacterium belongs to the Staphylococcus genus.

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20. H.influenzae isolated from CSF should be serotyped.

Explanation

When H.influenzae is isolated from cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), it is important to serotype it. Serotyping helps in identifying the specific serotype or strain of the bacteria. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and prevention strategies, as different serotypes may have varying levels of virulence and may respond differently to antibiotics or vaccines. Therefore, serotyping H.influenzae isolated from CSF is necessary for effective management of the infection.

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21. Which of the following Haemophilus species is the most important human pathogen?

Explanation

H.influenzae is the most important human pathogen among the given Haemophilus species. It is known to cause various infections such as meningitis, pneumonia, and septicemia, particularly in children. It is a major cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide, especially in developing countries. H.influenzae is transmitted through respiratory droplets and can lead to severe complications if left untreated. Vaccines have been developed to prevent infections caused by this species, highlighting its significance as a human pathogen.

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22. Nosocomial VRE outbreaks have been associated with hospital thermometers

Explanation

Nosocomial VRE outbreaks have been associated with hospital thermometers. This means that there is evidence to support the claim that VRE outbreaks in hospitals have occurred due to the use of thermometers. This could be due to inadequate cleaning and sterilization of the thermometers, allowing the spread of VRE bacteria between patients. Therefore, the statement "True" indicates that there is a link between nosocomial VRE outbreaks and hospital thermometers.

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23. Borrelia burgdorferi is the etiologic agent of ____________________.

Explanation

Borrelia burgdorferi is the bacterial species responsible for causing Lyme disease. Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness that affects humans and animals. It is characterized by a range of symptoms including fever, fatigue, headache, muscle and joint aches, and a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans. If left untreated, Lyme disease can lead to more severe complications affecting the joints, heart, and nervous system. Therefore, Borrelia burgdorferi is the correct etiologic agent for Lyme disease.

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24. Chlorhexidine showers may be used to reduce colonization with S.aureus.

Explanation

Chlorhexidine showers are commonly used to reduce the colonization of S. aureus, a bacterium that can cause various infections. Chlorhexidine is an antiseptic that has been found to be effective in killing or inhibiting the growth of S. aureus on the skin. By using chlorhexidine showers, individuals can reduce the number of S. aureus bacteria on their skin, which in turn may help decrease the risk of infection. Therefore, the statement is true.

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25. S.saprophyticus isolated from a female patient is a recognized cause of:

Explanation

S. saprophyticus is a recognized cause of urinary tract infection (UTI) in female patients. UTIs occur when bacteria, such as S. saprophyticus, enter the urinary tract and multiply, leading to infection. This bacterium is commonly found in the genital and rectal areas, making it easier for it to enter the urinary tract in females. Symptoms of a UTI include frequent urination, burning sensation during urination, cloudy or bloody urine, and pelvic pain. Therefore, the correct answer is urinary tract infection.

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26. No blood culture isolate of a large gram-positive rod should be dismissed as contaminant without first ruling out anthrax 

Explanation

This statement is true because anthrax is caused by a large gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium called Bacillus anthracis. Blood cultures are used to identify bacterial infections, and if a large gram-positive rod is isolated from a blood culture, it should not be dismissed as a contaminant without first ruling out anthrax. This is because anthrax is a serious and potentially life-threatening infection that requires immediate treatment. Therefore, any isolate of a large gram-positive rod in a blood culture should be thoroughly investigated to ensure that it is not anthrax.

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27. S.pneumoniae can positively be identified by the optochin test.

Explanation

They are susceptible

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28. Bronchoscopy specimens should be centrifuged and the sediment used to inoculate culture media.

Explanation

Bronchoscopy specimens often contain respiratory secretions and cells from the lower respiratory tract. By centrifuging the specimen, the sediment containing potential pathogens can be separated from the liquid portion. This sediment can then be used to inoculate culture media, allowing for the growth and identification of any microorganisms present in the specimen. Therefore, the statement that bronchoscopy specimens should be centrifuged and the sediment used to inoculate culture media is true.

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29. Gardnerella is inhibited by the SPS added to blood culture bottles

Explanation

Gardnerella is a bacterium that causes bacterial vaginosis. SPS (sodium polyanethol sulfonate) is a substance commonly added to blood culture bottles to prevent clotting and promote bacterial growth. The statement suggests that SPS has an inhibitory effect on Gardnerella, meaning it prevents its growth or kills it. Therefore, the correct answer is true.

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30. One way to confirm oxacillin resistance in S.aureus isolates is to test for the presence of PBP 2a.

Explanation

Testing for the presence of PBP 2a is a reliable method to confirm oxacillin resistance in S. aureus isolates. PBP 2a is a penicillin-binding protein that is encoded by the mecA gene, which is responsible for methicillin resistance. Oxacillin is a type of penicillin antibiotic, so if PBP 2a is present, it indicates that the bacteria are resistant to oxacillin. Therefore, the statement "One way to confirm oxacillin resistance in S. aureus isolates is to test for the presence of PBP 2a" is true.

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31. Extreme water sports are a risk factor for leptospirosis.

Explanation

Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection that is commonly transmitted through contact with water contaminated by the urine of infected animals. Extreme water sports, such as swimming or diving in freshwater lakes or rivers, increase the risk of exposure to this bacteria. Therefore, it is true that extreme water sports are a risk factor for leptospirosis.

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32. B.anthracis has been isolated from the heroin used by intravenous drug users

Explanation

The statement is true because Bacillus anthracis, the bacterium that causes anthrax, has been isolated from the heroin used by intravenous drug users. This suggests that contaminated heroin can serve as a potential source of anthrax infection.

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33. Haemophilus species require an atmosphere with increased concentrations of CO2 for growth.

Explanation

Haemophilus species are bacteria that require an atmosphere with increased concentrations of CO2 for optimal growth. This is because they have specific metabolic requirements that are met in a CO2-rich environment. Without sufficient CO2, these bacteria may struggle to survive and reproduce. Therefore, the statement that Haemophilus species require an atmosphere with increased concentrations of CO2 for growth is true.

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34. All H.influenzae isolates should be tested for beta-lactamase production

Explanation

All H.influenzae isolates should be tested for beta-lactamase production because beta-lactamase is an enzyme that can inactivate beta-lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin. Testing for beta-lactamase production helps determine the antibiotic susceptibility of H.influenzae isolates and guides appropriate treatment decisions. It is important to identify beta-lactamase-producing strains to avoid treatment failure and prevent the spread of antibiotic resistance.

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35. Small colonies that only grow near S.aueus in a sinus culture should be investigatedas possible Haemophilus

Explanation

Small colonies that only grow near S. aureus in a sinus culture should be investigated as possible Haemophilus. This statement suggests that if there are small colonies present in a sinus culture that only grow near S. aureus, it is necessary to investigate the possibility that these colonies are Haemophilus bacteria. This implies that Haemophilus bacteria may have a specific relationship with S. aureus and may exhibit a growth pattern that is distinct from other bacteria in the culture. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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36. Spirochetes are differentiated by the number of insertion disks present.

Explanation

Spirochetes are a group of bacteria that are characterized by their spiral shape. They are also differentiated by the number of insertion disks present. This means that the number of insertion disks can be used to distinguish different species or types of spirochetes. Therefore, the statement that spi rochetes are differentiated by the number of insertion disks present is true.

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37. A positive ELISA test for Lyme disease should be confirmed by Western blot.

Explanation

A positive ELISA test for Lyme disease should be confirmed by Western blot because ELISA tests have a higher chance of producing false positives. The Western blot is a more specific test that can accurately confirm the presence of antibodies to the Lyme disease bacteria. Therefore, it is necessary to use the Western blot as a follow-up test to ensure the accuracy of the diagnosis.

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38. Treponemes can infect the umbilical cord and cross the placenta.

Explanation

Treponemes, which are a type of bacteria, have the ability to infect the umbilical cord and cross the placenta. This means that if a pregnant woman is infected with treponemes, the bacteria can pass from her bloodstream to the umbilical cord and then to the developing fetus. This can lead to serious health complications for the fetus, including congenital syphilis. Therefore, the statement "Treponemes can infect the umbilical cord and cross the placenta" is true.

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39. On gram stain, spores appear clear because they do not take up the crystal violet

Explanation

Spores appear clear on a gram stain because they have a unique structure that prevents them from taking up the crystal violet stain. The crystal violet stain is a primary stain used in the gram staining procedure to differentiate between different types of bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet stain and appear purple, while gram-negative bacteria do not retain the stain and appear pink. However, spores have a tough outer coating called the spore coat that acts as a barrier and prevents the crystal violet from penetrating and staining the spore. Therefore, spores appear clear or colorless on a gram stain.

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40. Lactobacillus spp are usually identified based on Gram stain morphology and catalase reaction

Explanation

Lactobacillus spp are commonly identified using Gram stain morphology and catalase reaction. Gram stain morphology involves staining bacterial cells to determine their cell wall structure, which can help differentiate between different bacterial species. Additionally, the catalase reaction test is used to determine if a bacterium produces the enzyme catalase, which can further aid in identifying Lactobacillus spp. Therefore, the statement that Lactobacillus spp are usually identified based on Gram stain morphology and catalase reaction is true.

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41. Identification of the causative agent of syphilis is most commonly achieved using:

Explanation

Serology is the most common method used to identify the causative agent of syphilis. Serological tests detect the presence of specific antibodies produced by the body in response to the infection. These tests can detect both current and past infections and are highly sensitive and specific. Culture, biochemical testing, antigen detection, and PCR are not commonly used for the identification of syphilis, as they may have limitations in terms of sensitivity, specificity, or availability. Serology, on the other hand, is a reliable and widely accessible method for diagnosing syphilis.

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42. Neisseria gonnorrhoeae is an exclusively human parasite

Explanation

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a bacterium that causes the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhea. It is considered an exclusively human parasite because it only infects humans and cannot survive or reproduce in any other species. This bacterium is transmitted through sexual contact and primarily affects the reproductive organs, causing symptoms such as pain and discharge. Due to its specific adaptation to the human body, Neisseria gonorrhoeae cannot infect animals or survive outside of a human host, making it an exclusively human parasite.

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43. A characteristic of all Neisseria species is that they

Explanation

Neisseria species are known for being oxidase-positive, meaning they produce the enzyme oxidase. This enzyme helps to identify the bacteria by causing a color change in a reagent called oxidase reagent. Therefore, the correct answer is that Neisseria species are oxidase-positive.

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44. The spirochetes are gram negative microorganisms.

Explanation

Spirochetes are a group of bacteria known for their unique spiral shape. They are classified as gram-negative microorganisms because they have a thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram staining technique. This characteristic makes them appear pink or red under a microscope. Therefore, the statement that spirochetes are gram-negative microorganisms is true.

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45. Haemophilus species are members of the body's normal flora

Explanation

Haemophilus species are commonly found as part of the body's normal flora. They are typically present in the respiratory tract and can also be found in the genitourinary and gastrointestinal tracts. These bacteria do not typically cause disease in healthy individuals but can become opportunistic pathogens under certain conditions. Therefore, it is true that Haemophilus species are members of the body's normal flora.

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46. A black eschar is indicative of:

Explanation

A black eschar is indicative of cutaneous anthrax. Cutaneous anthrax is a bacterial infection caused by Bacillus anthracis. It typically occurs when the bacteria enters the body through a cut or abrasion on the skin. The infection causes a black, necrotic (dead) tissue called an eschar to form at the site of entry. This characteristic black eschar is a key diagnostic feature of cutaneous anthrax. Other symptoms may include swelling, pain, and the formation of fluid-filled blisters. Prompt medical treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent the spread of the infection.

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47. Nitrofurantoin is currently the drug of choice for treating uncomplicated VRE urinary tract infections

Explanation

Nitrofurantoin is considered the drug of choice for treating uncomplicated VRE (Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus) urinary tract infections. This is because it has shown good efficacy against VRE strains and is generally well-tolerated by patients. Other antibiotics may be less effective or have higher rates of resistance against VRE. Therefore, nitrofurantoin is the preferred treatment option for this type of infection.

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48. Staphylococci will grow on 5% sheep blood agar and chocolate agars, but not mannitol salt agar.

Explanation

Staphylococci are able to grow on mannitol salt agar.

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49. Human relapsing fever is caused by the bite of the human body louse.

Explanation

Human relapsing fever is caused by the bite of the human body louse. This means that when a person is bitten by a human body louse, they can contract the disease known as human relapsing fever. The louse acts as a vector, transmitting the disease-causing bacteria to the human host through its bite. Therefore, it is true that human relapsing fever is caused by the bite of the human body louse.

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50. Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of:

Explanation

Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a chancre. A chancre is a painless ulcer that typically develops at the site of infection, usually the genitals, anus, or mouth. It is the initial and most common symptom of syphilis. The chancre usually appears within 3 weeks after exposure to the bacteria and can last for 3-6 weeks. It is highly contagious and can easily transmit the infection to others. Therefore, the presence of a chancre is a key diagnostic feature of primary syphilis.

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51. What is the optimal specimen to collect for the diagnosis of gonorrhea by culture in males?

Explanation

The optimal specimen to collect for the diagnosis of gonorrhea by culture in males is a urethral swab. This is because gonorrhea primarily affects the urethra in males, so collecting a swab from this area provides the best chance of detecting the bacteria responsible for the infection. Swabbing other areas such as the pharynx, rectum, or cervix may not yield accurate results as these sites are less likely to be affected by gonorrhea in males.

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52. The viridians strep grow best under microaerophilic conditions

Explanation

The statement suggests that the viridians strep, a type of bacteria, thrive in conditions with low levels of oxygen. This means that they prefer environments where there is less oxygen present than what is typically found in the atmosphere. This preference for microaerophilic conditions allows the viridians strep to grow and reproduce more effectively. Therefore, the given answer is true.

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53. Neisseria species are true cocci that do not elongate when exposed to penicillin

Explanation

Neisseria species are a type of bacteria that have a spherical shape, which is characteristic of cocci. Unlike other bacteria, when exposed to penicillin, Neisseria species do not elongate or change their shape. Therefore, the statement that Neisseria species are true cocci that do not elongate when exposed to penicillin is true.

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54. The beta-lactamase test should be performed on all isolates of M.catarrhalis

Explanation

The beta-lactamase test should be performed on all isolates of M. catarrhalis because this test helps to determine whether the bacteria produce beta-lactamase enzyme, which can inactivate beta-lactam antibiotics such as penicillins and cephalosporins. This information is crucial for selecting the appropriate antibiotic treatment for infections caused by M. catarrhalis, as beta-lactamase production can confer resistance to these antibiotics. Therefore, performing the beta-lactamase test on all isolates of M. catarrhalis is necessary to guide effective treatment decisions.

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55. For all treponemal infections, the drug of choice is:

Explanation

Penicillin G is the drug of choice for all treponemal infections. Treponemal infections are caused by bacteria of the genus Treponema, including syphilis and yaws. Penicillin G is highly effective against these bacteria and is the recommended treatment due to its ability to effectively kill the bacteria and prevent further complications. Doxycycline and tetracycline are antibiotics commonly used for other types of infections, but they are not the preferred treatment for treponemal infections. Ceftriaxone is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is effective against many types of bacteria, but it is not the first-line treatment for treponemal infections.

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56. What can cause false positive results in the RPR test?

Explanation

All of the above options can cause false positive results in the RPR test. Rheumatoid disease, old age, and tuberculosis can all lead to the presence of antibodies in the blood that can be detected by the RPR test, even if the person does not have syphilis. Therefore, if any of these conditions are present, it can result in a false positive result in the RPR test.

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57. The most common form of gonococcal infection in neonates is

Explanation

The most common form of gonococcal infection in neonates is conjunctivitis. This is because during childbirth, if the mother has a gonococcal infection, the bacteria can be transmitted to the baby's eyes as it passes through the birth canal. This can lead to inflammation and infection of the conjunctiva, which is the thin membrane that covers the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. Conjunctivitis in neonates is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention to prevent complications and long-term damage to the eyes.

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58. An aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus was isolated from raw vegetables that were associated with an outbreak of gastroenteritis. The organism produced B-hemolysis, was catalase positive, and was motile. The most likely organism is:

Explanation

Based on the given information, the most likely organism is Bacillus cereus. This is because Bacillus cereus is a gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus that is commonly associated with food poisoning and gastroenteritis outbreaks. It produces B-hemolysis, is catalase positive, and is motile. Bacillus anthracis is not typically associated with gastroenteritis outbreaks, while Nocardia asteroides and Tsukamurella spp are not known to produce B-hemolysis.

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59. C. diphtheriae is only found in humans

Explanation

C. diphtheriae is only found in humans because it is a bacterium that causes the infectious disease diphtheria. It is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets from infected individuals. The bacterium colonizes in the respiratory tract of humans, particularly in the throat and nose, where it produces toxins that can cause severe damage to the respiratory system and other organs. It does not naturally occur in other animals or the environment. Therefore, the statement that C. diphtheriae is only found in humans is true.

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60. Diagnosis of leptospirosis is usually made by detection of IgM antibodies in acute and convalescent sera.

Explanation

The statement is true because the diagnosis of leptospirosis is typically done by detecting IgM antibodies in both acute and convalescent sera. IgM antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to an infection, so their presence indicates a recent or ongoing infection with the bacteria that causes leptospirosis. By testing for these antibodies in blood samples taken during the acute phase of the illness and again during the recovery phase, healthcare professionals can confirm a diagnosis of leptospirosis.

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61. When gram-positive aerotolerant rods are encountered in a clinical specimen, several genera need to be considered. Which statement is true?

Explanation

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62. N.meningitidis isolates should be serogrouped

Explanation

N.meningitidis isolates should be serogrouped because this bacterium can cause meningococcal meningitis, a potentially life-threatening infection. Serogrouping is necessary to determine the specific serogroup of the bacteria, as different serogroups can cause different disease patterns and may require different preventive measures. Serogrouping also helps in tracking the spread of the disease and in developing vaccines targeted against specific serogroups. Therefore, serogrouping is important for effective management and control of meningococcal meningitis.

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63. Selective media that can be used to isolate staphylococci includes:

Explanation

Mannitol salt agar is a selective medium that can be used to isolate staphylococci. This medium contains a high concentration of salt, which inhibits the growth of many other bacteria, allowing staphylococci to grow. In addition, mannitol, a type of sugar, is included in the agar. Staphylococci that can ferment mannitol will produce acid, causing the medium to turn yellow. This helps differentiate staphylococci from other bacteria that do not ferment mannitol. Therefore, Mannitol salt agar is an effective selective medium for isolating staphylococci.

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64. B. anthracis can be quickly differentiated from the other Bacillus species by

Explanation

B. anthracis can be quickly differentiated from the other Bacillus species by its lack of motility. While most Bacillus species are motile, B. anthracis is non-motile, meaning it does not have the ability to move on its own. This characteristic can be used as a distinguishing factor when trying to identify B. anthracis among other Bacillus species.

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65. Bacterial vaginosis

Explanation

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition characterized by an imbalance in the vaginal bacteria, with a decrease in beneficial lactobacilli and an increase in harmful bacteria such as Gardnerella vaginalis. Therefore, the correct answer is that bacterial vaginosis is associated with a predominance of G. vaginalis. Serology testing is not used for diagnosing bacterial vaginosis, and the growth of Gardnerella on MacConkey agar is not a specific diagnostic criterion.

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66. Relapsing fever is caused by:

Explanation

Relapsing fever is caused by B.recurrentis. This bacterium is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected lice or ticks. It is responsible for causing recurrent episodes of fever, along with other symptoms such as headache, muscle aches, and joint pain. B.recurrentis is primarily found in Africa, Asia, and South America, and it infects the bloodstream of its host, leading to the characteristic relapses of fever.

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67. Several treponeme species are considered to be normal oral and genital flora.

Explanation

Some species of treponeme are considered to be part of the normal flora in the oral and genital regions. This means that they naturally exist in these areas without causing any harm or disease. Therefore, the statement is true.

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68. Why is an oil overlay used when testing carbohydrate utilization?

Explanation

An oil overlay is used when testing carbohydrate utilization because it creates an anaerobic environment. This is important because some bacteria or microorganisms that are being tested for their ability to utilize carbohydrates may require an oxygen-free environment to carry out their metabolic processes effectively. The oil overlay forms a barrier that prevents the entry of oxygen into the test system, creating the necessary anaerobic conditions for these organisms to thrive and metabolize the carbohydrates being tested.

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69. The tube coagulase test should be read at 2 hours.

Explanation

It should be read every half hour for 4 hours.

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70. All streptococci are negative for this test:

Explanation

Streptococci are a group of bacteria that are known to be negative for the catalase test. This means that they do not produce the enzyme catalase, which is responsible for breaking down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. Other bacteria, such as staphylococci, are positive for the catalase test because they produce catalase. Therefore, if a bacterium is negative for the catalase test, it is likely to be a streptococcus.

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71. Acute gastroenteritis is caused by

Explanation

Acute gastroenteritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the stomach and intestines, leading to symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea. B. cereus is a bacterium that can cause food poisoning and is a known cause of acute gastroenteritis. It produces toxins that can contaminate food and cause illness when ingested. Therefore, B. cereus is a likely cause of acute gastroenteritis.

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72. The organisms that colonize 30% of american women and frequently cause meningitis in neonates are

Explanation

S. agalactiae spp, also known as Group B Streptococcus (GBS), is the correct answer. GBS is known to colonize approximately 30% of American women and is a common cause of meningitis in neonates. It is important to identify and treat GBS colonization in pregnant women to prevent transmission to their newborns, as GBS infection in neonates can be severe and life-threatening.

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73. Which of the following tests detects the production of mixed acids as a result of subsequent metabolism of pyruvate?

Explanation

The Methyl red test is used to detect the production of mixed acids as a result of subsequent metabolism of pyruvate. This test determines if an organism produces stable acids from glucose fermentation. If the pH of the medium drops below 4.4, it indicates the production of mixed acids, which is detected by a positive methyl red test. The other tests listed (VP test, Citrate test, Indole test) do not specifically detect the production of mixed acids from pyruvate metabolism.

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74. Staphylococcus species are considered:

Explanation

Staphylococcus species are considered facultative anaerobes because they can survive and grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. They have the ability to switch their metabolic pathways depending on the availability of oxygen. In the presence of oxygen, they can perform aerobic respiration, utilizing oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor. In the absence of oxygen, they can switch to fermentation or anaerobic respiration, using alternative electron acceptors. This flexibility allows Staphylococcus species to adapt to various environments, making them facultative anaerobes.

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75. H.parainfluenzae requires both X and V factors for growth.

Explanation

Only requires V factor - "para"

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76. Which statement about erysipeloid is false?

Explanation

Erysipeloid is a bacterial infection caused by E.rhusiopathiae. It is commonly found in fish handlers. The diagnosis of erysipeloid is not made by skin culture, but rather by clinical presentation and history of exposure. The drug of choice for treating erysipeloid is penicillin, not metronidazole. Therefore, the statement "Drug of choice is metronidazole" is false.

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77. A beta-hemolytic, catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus is found to be resistant to bacitracin and sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following is a presumptive identification?

Explanation

The given information states that the coccus is resistant to bacitracin and sulfamethoxazole. Group B streptococci is known to be resistant to bacitracin and sulfamethoxazole, making it the presumptive identification in this case.

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78. Martin Lewis media is used to isolate:

Explanation

Martin Lewis media is a selective and differential medium used to isolate Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It contains antimicrobial agents that inhibit the growth of other bacteria, allowing for the isolation of N. gonorrhoeae. Additionally, the medium contains specific nutrients and indicators that help differentiate N. gonorrhoeae based on its ability to ferment certain carbohydrates. Therefore, Martin Lewis media is specifically designed to support the growth and identification of N. gonorrhoeae.

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79. Dry white colonies that can be nudged along the chocolate agar in a sinus culture could be

Explanation

Moraxella is the correct answer because it is known to produce dry white colonies on chocolate agar. Additionally, Moraxella can be nudged along the agar in a sinus culture, indicating its motility. Haemophilus, E.coli, and Staphylococci do not typically exhibit these characteristics, making Moraxella the most likely option.

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80. The test for syphilis that should be performed on CSF is:

Explanation

The VDRL test is the correct test for syphilis that should be performed on CSF (Cerebrospinal Fluid). VDRL stands for Venereal Disease Research Laboratory, and it is a screening test used to detect the presence of antibodies against the bacteria that causes syphilis. CSF is the fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, and testing it for syphilis can help diagnose neurosyphilis, which is the infection of the central nervous system. Therefore, performing the VDRL test on CSF is essential for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of syphilis.

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81. Corynebacterium form spores

Explanation

Corynebacterium do not form spores. Spore formation is a characteristic feature of certain bacteria, such as Bacillus and Clostridium, but not Corynebacterium.

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82. A nonhemolytic, catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus is PYR-positive. You should also expect the isolate to be:

Explanation

A nonhemolytic, catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus that is PYR-positive indicates that the isolate is likely a Streptococcus species. Streptococcus species are known to be bile esculin positive, meaning they can hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile. Additionally, Streptococcus species are salt tolerant, meaning they can grow in the presence of high salt concentrations. Therefore, it is expected that the isolate would be both bile esculin positive and salt tolerant.

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83. The transmission of B.Burgdorferi is mediated by:

Explanation

B.Burgdorferi is transmitted through vectors, which are organisms that can transmit the infection from one host to another. In the case of B.Burgdorferi, the primary vector is the black-legged tick (Ixodes scapularis or Ixodes pacificus), which acquires the bacteria by feeding on infected animals and then transmits it to humans or other animals during subsequent feedings. This transmission occurs through the tick's saliva, which contains the bacteria. Therefore, vectors play a crucial role in the transmission of B.Burgdorferi.

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84. Which type of microscopy is most commonly used in the direct microscopic examination of T.pallidum?

Explanation

Darkfield microscopy is the most commonly used type of microscopy in the direct microscopic examination of T.pallidum. Darkfield microscopy is a technique that uses a special condenser to illuminate the specimen with oblique light, making the specimen appear bright against a dark background. This technique is particularly useful for visualizing transparent or unstained specimens, such as T.pallidum, which can be difficult to see using other types of microscopy. By using darkfield microscopy, the T.pallidum bacteria can be easily observed and identified.

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85. S.agalactiae is the only species of beta-hemolytic streptococci that will give a positive PYR reaction

Explanation

S. pyogenes will as well

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86. Tryptophan broth is inoculated and incubated 24 hours. After incubation, Kovacs reagent is added. A red color develops at the surface of the broth. What product of metabolism was formed?

Explanation

After incubation, the addition of Kovacs reagent to the tryptophan broth results in the development of a red color at the surface. This indicates the presence of indole, which is a product of tryptophan metabolism. Indole is produced by certain bacteria through the breakdown of tryptophan, and the red color is a result of the reaction between indole and Kovacs reagent. Therefore, the correct answer is indole.

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87. These organisms will not grow on sheep blood agar without the addition of vitamin B6

Explanation

S.mutans is a bacteria that requires the addition of vitamin B6 in order to grow on sheep blood agar. Without the presence of vitamin B6, S.mutans will not be able to thrive on this medium. This indicates that S.mutans is dependent on the presence of vitamin B6 for its growth and survival.

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88. A patient tested positive for anti-DNase B and negative for antistreptolysin O. These results would be consistent with the disease process of

Explanation

A patient testing positive for anti-DNase B and negative for antistreptolysin O suggests a strep throat infection. DNase B is an enzyme produced by Streptococcus pyogenes, the bacteria responsible for strep throat. The presence of anti-DNase B antibodies indicates an immune response to the bacteria. Antistreptolysin O is an antibody produced in response to streptolysin O, a toxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes. The negative result for antistreptolysin O suggests that the patient has not been exposed to streptolysin O, which is consistent with an early or recent strep throat infection.

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89. A.haemolyticum can be missed in throat cultures if it is not specifically sought. Which statement about A.haemolyticum is true?

Explanation

A.haemolyticum is a bacterium that can be missed in throat cultures if it is not specifically sought. One characteristic of A.haemolyticum is that it pits the agar under colonies growing on sheep blood agar. This means that when the bacteria grow on this type of agar, they produce substances that cause the agar to appear indented or pitted beneath the colonies. This characteristic can help in identifying A.haemolyticum in the laboratory.

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90. Which statement is false?

Explanation

Older they get - stain gram variable

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91. A gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive, coagulase negative, and resistant to novobiocin is:

Explanation

S.saprophyticus is the correct answer because it is the only option that meets all the given criteria. It is a gram-positive coccus, catalase positive, coagulase negative, and resistant to novobiocin. S.aureus is catalase positive and coagulase positive, S.epidermidis is catalase positive and coagulase negative, and S.lugdunensis is catalase positive and coagulase negative but not resistant to novobiocin. Therefore, S.saprophyticus is the only choice that fits all the given characteristics.

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92. Anthrax cannot be acquired through direct contact with an infected person

Explanation

Anthrax cannot be acquired through direct contact with an infected person because it is primarily a disease that affects animals, particularly livestock. The bacteria that causes anthrax, Bacillus anthracis, forms spores that can survive in the environment for long periods of time. These spores are typically found in soil and can be ingested by animals grazing on contaminated land. Humans can become infected with anthrax by coming into contact with contaminated animal products, such as meat or hides, but direct person-to-person transmission is extremely rare.

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93. A cause of serious eye infections is

Explanation

B.subtilis is the correct answer because it is a known cause of serious eye infections. This bacterium can enter the eye through various means such as contaminated contact lenses or eye makeup. Once inside the eye, it can cause infections such as keratitis, which can lead to serious complications and even vision loss if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to maintain good hygiene practices and properly clean and handle any items that come into contact with the eyes to prevent B.subtilis infections.

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94. Neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause of meningitis in the general population

Explanation

The statement "Neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause of meningitis in the general population" is false. While Neisseria meningitidis is indeed a common cause of meningitis, it is not the most common cause. Other bacteria and viruses, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae, can also cause meningitis. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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95. L.monocytogenes can be presumptively identified by its

Explanation

Motility is the correct answer because L.monocytogenes is a motile bacterium. Motility refers to the ability of a bacterium to move or exhibit self-propulsion. L.monocytogenes displays a characteristic tumbling or darting motility under a microscope. Gram reaction, catalase reaction, and esculin reaction are not specific tests for identifying L.monocytogenes.

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96. The most common clinical presentation of infection with H.influenzae type b previous to immunization programs was:

Explanation

Infection with H.influenzae type b prior to immunization programs commonly presented as meningitis. This is a serious infection that affects the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. It can cause symptoms such as fever, headache, stiff neck, and sensitivity to light. Meningitis caused by H.influenzae type b was a major concern before immunization programs were implemented, but the incidence of this infection has significantly decreased with the introduction of the Hib vaccine.

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97. The only catalase-negative, non-spore forming bacillus that produces H2S is

Explanation

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is the correct answer because it is the only catalase-negative, non-spore forming bacillus that produces H2S. Gardnerella vaginalis and Lactobacillus spp are not bacilli, and Arcanobacterium haemolyticum does not produce H2S.

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98. The recommended treatment for close family contacts of a patient with meningococcal meningitis is

Explanation

The recommended treatment for close family contacts of a patient with meningococcal meningitis is Rifampin. Rifampin is a bactericidal antibiotic that is effective against the bacteria Neisseria meningitidis, which causes meningococcal meningitis. It is commonly used as prophylaxis to prevent the spread of the infection to close contacts of an infected individual. Rifampin is preferred over other antibiotics like penicillin, ampicillin, and erythromycin due to its effectiveness against the specific bacteria causing meningococcal meningitis.

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99. Specimens for anaerobic culture should be refrigerated if processing cannot be done immediately.

Explanation

Specimens for anaerobic culture should never be refrigerated.

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100. The Haemophilus species are all susceptible to ampicillin

Explanation

Some strains produce B-lactamase

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101. The anticoagulant of choice for blood cultures is EDTA

Explanation

It is SPS - Sodium polyethanol sulfonate

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102. The transmission of leptospires is most commonly via _________________________

Explanation

Leptospires are bacteria that cause leptospirosis, a disease that can affect humans and animals. The most common mode of transmission of leptospires is through contaminated urine. Infected animals, such as rats or livestock, excrete the bacteria in their urine, which can contaminate water sources or soil. Humans can then become infected by coming into contact with the contaminated urine, either directly or indirectly. This can occur through activities like swimming in contaminated water, handling infected animals, or consuming food or water that has been contaminated with urine.

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103. H.influenzae is serotype ____________ and most infections are caused by _________ strains.

Explanation

H.influenzae is a bacterium that can be classified into different serotypes based on the presence or absence of a polysaccharide capsule. The correct answer, "F, non-encapsulated," indicates that H.influenzae does not have a capsule and therefore belongs to serotype F. It is important to note that most infections caused by H.influenzae are indeed caused by non-encapsulated strains, as the capsule helps the bacteria evade the immune system and cause more severe disease.

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104. Name two species of Borrelia that are most commonly implicated in cases of relapsing fever. What are the vectors involved in the transmission of these species of Borrelia?

Explanation

Borrelia recurrentis and Borrelia hermsi are the two species of Borrelia commonly implicated in cases of relapsing fever. The transmission of these species of Borrelia is through vectors, specifically lice for Borrelia recurrentis and ticks for Borrelia hermsi.

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105. Match Key Terms and Abbreviations:
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106. The optochin test is most valuable in the identification of:

Explanation

The optochin test is most valuable in the identification of a-streptococci. This test is used to differentiate between different species of streptococci, specifically Streptococcus pneumoniae. Optochin is a chemical compound that inhibits the growth of S. pneumoniae, but has no effect on other streptococci. Therefore, if a sample of bacteria is sensitive to optochin, it is likely to be S. pneumoniae, which falls under the category of a-streptococci.

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107. Neisseria species are facultative anaerobes

Explanation

They are obligate aerobes

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108. Which organism is a relatively common cause of otitis media in children?

Explanation

M.catarrhalis is a relatively common cause of otitis media in children. Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear, and M.catarrhalis is one of the bacteria that can cause this infection. It is particularly common in children due to their immature immune systems and smaller Eustachian tubes, which makes it easier for the bacteria to enter the middle ear. Therefore, M.catarrhalis is the correct answer as it is a known organism that frequently causes otitis media in children.

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109. In the citrate utilization test, a positive result is determined by:

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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110. Which organism is a well-documented cause of alkaline-encrusted cystitis?

Explanation

C.urealyticum is a well-documented cause of alkaline-encrusted cystitis. This organism is known to infect the urinary tract and can lead to the formation of encrusted bladder stones. It is often found in patients with underlying urinary tract abnormalities or those with compromised immune systems. The presence of C.urealyticum in the urine can be confirmed through laboratory testing, and treatment typically involves antibiotics to eliminate the infection and prevent recurrence.

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111. Yellow colonies on chocolate agar in a throat culture are potential pathogens and they should be identified.

Explanation

They are normal flora

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112. At what temperature should specimens for Neisseria species be transported and held in the laboratory until plated?

Explanation

Specimens for Neisseria species should be transported and held at a temperature of 37°C in the laboratory until plated. This is because Neisseria species, such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitidis, are fastidious bacteria that require specific growth conditions, including a temperature of 37°C, to grow and survive. Keeping the specimens at this temperature ensures optimal growth and accurate laboratory results.

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113. Clue cells are squamous epithelial cells that are covered with streptococci

Explanation

Clue cells are not covered with streptococci. In fact, clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells that are covered with bacteria called Gardnerella vaginalis. These cells are used as a diagnostic feature for bacterial vaginosis, a common vaginal infection. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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114. Ticks transmit the spirochetes that cause Lyme disease within the first hour after attaching to their human host.

Explanation

It takes more than one hour, you can prevent Lyme disease by removing the ticks in the first hour.

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115. One test used to differentiate S.aureus from S.lugdunensis is:

Explanation

The PYR test is used to differentiate between Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus lugdunensis. This test detects the presence of the enzyme pyrrolidonyl arylamidase, which is produced by S. aureus but not by S. lugdunensis. By observing the reaction of the test medium to the enzyme, it is possible to determine whether the bacteria being tested is S. aureus or S. lugdunensis.

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116. A hand wound culture produced a creamy white growth that is catalase and coagulase positive. The physician reported that the wound was caused by a dog bite. To prevent misidentification of the staph species, what additional tests should be performed?

Explanation

To prevent misidentification of the staph species, additional tests should be performed to confirm the identification. The PYR (pyrrolidonyl arylamidase) test is used to differentiate between Staphylococcus aureus and other staphylococci species. Staphylococcus aureus is PYR positive, while other staphylococci species are PYR negative. The VP (Voges-Proskauer) test is used to differentiate between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Staphylococcus epidermidis is VP positive, while Staphylococcus saprophyticus is VP negative. These additional tests will help in accurately identifying the staph species causing the wound infection.

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117. Urine cultures represent a semi-quantitative technique.

Explanation

They represent a quantitative culture because a known amount of material is put onto the plate.

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118. One way to differentiate Listeria from Bacillus is

Explanation

Spore formation is a characteristic feature that can help differentiate Listeria from Bacillus. Listeria does not form spores, whereas some species of Bacillus do. Spore formation is a survival mechanism used by certain bacteria to withstand harsh conditions, such as heat, desiccation, and disinfectants. Therefore, the absence of spore formation in Listeria can be used as a distinguishing factor between the two bacteria.

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119. Which statement about corynebacteria is false?

Explanation

This statement is false because C.jeikeium is not associated with stone formation in the bladder. The other statements are true. Corynebacteria are gram-positive, lipophilic species of corynebacteria grow well on blood agar with Tween 80, and C.diphtheriae colonies appear black on Tinsdale agar.

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120. Identification of the causative agent of leptospirosis is most commonly achieved using:

Explanation

Culture is the most common method used to identify the causative agent of leptospirosis. Culture involves growing the bacteria in a laboratory setting, which allows for further testing and identification. This method is reliable and can provide a pure culture of the bacteria for further analysis. PCR, biochemical testing, serology, and antigen detection can also be used to diagnose leptospirosis, but culture is considered the gold standard for identification.

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121. A rapid strep test was done using a throat swab collected from a 10 year old boy. The result was negative. The best laboratory practice would be to:

Explanation

The best laboratory practice would be to use the swab to inoculate a SBA plate because a negative rapid strep test does not completely rule out the possibility of a strep infection. By inoculating a SBA plate, the bacteria can be cultured and further tested to confirm the presence or absence of strep bacteria. This allows for a more accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment if necessary. Using a second swab may not be necessary as the first swab can still provide valid results. Placing a bacitracin disk is not necessary in this case as it is used for differentiating between different types of strep bacteria.

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122. Reaginic antibodies are produced against antigens of T.pallidum.

Explanation

Antibodies are produced due to the disease process, not just the organism.

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123. Susceptibility testing of Borrelia spp. to doxycycline should always be done because of the incidence of treatment failure.

Explanation

Susceptibility testing of Borrelia spp. to doxycycline should not always be done because the incidence of treatment failure is low. Doxycycline is an effective antibiotic for treating Borrelia spp. infections, and resistance to this antibiotic is rare. Therefore, routine susceptibility testing is not necessary in most cases.

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124. A HBT plate should be included in the battery of media for routine genital cultures

Explanation

A HBT plate should not be included in the battery of media for routine genital cultures. This is because HBT (Hektoen Enteric Agar) is a selective and differential medium primarily used for the isolation and differentiation of enteric pathogens from clinical specimens, such as stool samples, to identify Salmonella and Shigella species. Routine genital cultures typically focus on the isolation and identification of organisms causing sexually transmitted infections, which are not typically enteric pathogens. Therefore, HBT plates are not necessary for routine genital cultures.

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125. What organs are most commonly affected during severe cases of Leptospirosis?

Explanation

During severe cases of Leptospirosis, the bacteria can spread throughout the body via the bloodstream, leading to multiple organ involvement. The kidneys are commonly affected as the bacteria can cause acute kidney injury. The liver can also be affected, resulting in liver dysfunction. Additionally, the bacteria can invade the central nervous system, leading to meningitis, encephalitis, or other neurological complications. Therefore, the most commonly affected organs during severe cases of Leptospirosis are the kidneys, liver, and central nervous system.

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126. What organs are most commonly affected during the progression of Lyme Disease?

Explanation

During the progression of Lyme Disease, multiple organs can be affected. The bacteria that causes Lyme Disease can spread through the bloodstream and affect various parts of the body. The skin is commonly affected, leading to rashes and skin lesions. The bacteria can also invade the blood vessels, causing inflammation and damage. The brain can be affected, leading to neurological symptoms such as memory problems and difficulty concentrating. The heart can also be affected, leading to heart rhythm abnormalities. Additionally, the joints can be affected, causing pain and swelling.

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127. List all the Haemophilus species of clinical importance

Explanation

The given answer is correct. It lists all the Haemophilus species of clinical importance, including H.influenzae, H.ducreyi, H.aegyptius, and H.aphrophilus. These species are known to cause various clinical conditions in humans, such as respiratory tract infections, sexually transmitted infections, and other systemic diseases.

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128. The screening test used in the diagnosis of secondary and tertiary syphilis attempts to detect antibodies to ________________ whereas the specific test attempts to detect antibodies to ___________________.

Explanation

The screening test for secondary and tertiary syphilis aims to detect antibodies to cardiolipin, a type of phospholipid found in the cell membranes of T-pallidum bacteria. This test helps identify individuals who may have been exposed to the bacteria. On the other hand, the specific test for syphilis attempts to detect antibodies specifically targeting T-pallidum antigens. This test confirms the presence of syphilis infection and is more specific than the screening test.

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129. Match the following species of Haemophilus with their corresponding clinical presentations.
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Match the terms and abbreviations
Staphylococcus epidermidis is a member of the normal flora.
The most common clinical presentation of infection with Staphylococcus...
Species of Neisseria are oxidase ____________
N.gonnorhoeae is also known as the "__________________" and...
Match em' up - Strep
X and V factors are required for the growth of some Haemophilus...
Match the following stages of syphilis:
T.pallidum has a _________________ motility that can be used for...
The laboratory diagnosis of Lyme Disease is most commonly made using...
Staphylococcus aureus has the ability to ferment ________________...
Gram stain of organisms from a specimen from sterile body site is...
Match em' up !
Match the terms and definitions:
Listeria and Corynebacterium matching
Bacillus cereus is most noted for causing:
Prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin is recommended following aerosol...
The presence of gram-negative diplococci in the Gram stain of a...
Staphylococcus species are catalase positive.
H.influenzae isolated from CSF should be serotyped.
Which of the following Haemophilus species is the most important human...
Nosocomial VRE outbreaks have been associated with hospital...
Borrelia burgdorferi is the etiologic agent of ____________________.
Chlorhexidine showers may be used to reduce colonization with...
S.saprophyticus isolated from a female patient is a recognized cause...
No blood culture isolate of a large gram-positive rod should be...
S.pneumoniae can positively be identified by the optochin test.
Bronchoscopy specimens should be centrifuged and the sediment used to...
Gardnerella is inhibited by the SPS added to blood culture bottles
One way to confirm oxacillin resistance in S.aureus isolates is to...
Extreme water sports are a risk factor for leptospirosis.
B.anthracis has been isolated from the heroin used by intravenous drug...
Haemophilus species require an atmosphere with increased...
All H.influenzae isolates should be tested for beta-lactamase...
Small colonies that only grow near S.aueus in a sinus culture should...
Spirochetes are differentiated by the number of insertion disks...
A positive ELISA test for Lyme disease should be confirmed by Western...
Treponemes can infect the umbilical cord and cross the placenta.
On gram stain, spores appear clear because they do not take up the...
Lactobacillus spp are usually identified based on Gram stain...
Identification of the causative agent of syphilis is most commonly...
Neisseria gonnorrhoeae is an exclusively human parasite
A characteristic of all Neisseria species is that they
The spirochetes are gram negative microorganisms.
Haemophilus species are members of the body's normal flora
A black eschar is indicative of:
Nitrofurantoin is currently the drug of choice for treating...
Staphylococci will grow on 5% sheep blood agar and chocolate agars,...
Human relapsing fever is caused by the bite of the human body louse.
Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of:
What is the optimal specimen to collect for the diagnosis of gonorrhea...
The viridians strep grow best under microaerophilic conditions
Neisseria species are true cocci that do not elongate when exposed to...
The beta-lactamase test should be performed on all isolates of...
For all treponemal infections, the drug of choice is:
What can cause false positive results in the RPR test?
The most common form of gonococcal infection in neonates is
An aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus was isolated from...
C. diphtheriae is only found in humans
Diagnosis of leptospirosis is usually made by detection of IgM...
When gram-positive aerotolerant rods are encountered in a clinical...
N.meningitidis isolates should be serogrouped
Selective media that can be used to isolate staphylococci includes:
B. anthracis can be quickly differentiated from the other Bacillus...
Bacterial vaginosis
Relapsing fever is caused by:
Several treponeme species are considered to be normal oral and genital...
Why is an oil overlay used when testing carbohydrate utilization?
The tube coagulase test should be read at 2 hours.
All streptococci are negative for this test:
Acute gastroenteritis is caused by
The organisms that colonize 30% of american women and frequently cause...
Which of the following tests detects the production of mixed acids as...
Staphylococcus species are considered:
H.parainfluenzae requires both X and V factors for growth.
Which statement about erysipeloid is false?
A beta-hemolytic, catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus is found to...
Martin Lewis media is used to isolate:
Dry white colonies that can be nudged along the chocolate agar in a...
The test for syphilis that should be performed on CSF is:
Corynebacterium form spores
A nonhemolytic, catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus is...
The transmission of B.Burgdorferi is mediated by:
Which type of microscopy is most commonly used in the direct...
S.agalactiae is the only species of beta-hemolytic streptococci that...
Tryptophan broth is inoculated and incubated 24 hours. After...
These organisms will not grow on sheep blood agar without the addition...
A patient tested positive for anti-DNase B and negative for...
A.haemolyticum can be missed in throat cultures if it is not...
Which statement is false?
A gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive, coagulase negative,...
Anthrax cannot be acquired through direct contact with an infected...
A cause of serious eye infections is
Neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause of meningitis in the...
L.monocytogenes can be presumptively identified by its
The most common clinical presentation of infection with H.influenzae...
The only catalase-negative, non-spore forming bacillus that produces...
The recommended treatment for close family contacts of a patient with...
Specimens for anaerobic culture should be refrigerated if processing...
The Haemophilus species are all susceptible to ampicillin
The anticoagulant of choice for blood cultures is EDTA
The transmission of leptospires is most commonly via...
H.influenzae is serotype ____________ and most infections are caused...
Name two species of Borrelia that are most commonly implicated in...
Match Key Terms and Abbreviations:
The optochin test is most valuable in the identification of:
Neisseria species are facultative anaerobes
Which organism is a relatively common cause of otitis media in...
In the citrate utilization test, a positive result is determined by:
Which organism is a well-documented cause of alkaline-encrusted...
Yellow colonies on chocolate agar in a throat culture are potential...
At what temperature should specimens for Neisseria species be...
Clue cells are squamous epithelial cells that are covered with...
Ticks transmit the spirochetes that cause Lyme disease within the...
One test used to differentiate S.aureus from S.lugdunensis is:
A hand wound culture produced a creamy white growth that is catalase...
Urine cultures represent a semi-quantitative technique.
One way to differentiate Listeria from Bacillus is
Which statement about corynebacteria is false?
Identification of the causative agent of leptospirosis is most...
A rapid strep test was done using a throat swab collected from a 10...
Reaginic antibodies are produced against antigens of T.pallidum.
Susceptibility testing of Borrelia spp. to doxycycline should always...
A HBT plate should be included in the battery of media for routine...
What organs are most commonly affected during severe cases of...
What organs are most commonly affected during the progression of Lyme...
List all the Haemophilus species of clinical importance
The screening test used in the diagnosis of secondary and tertiary...
Match the following species of Haemophilus with their corresponding...
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