Microbiology Exam Review Quiz Dec 2012
About This Quiz
This Microbiology Exam Review Quiz from Dec 2012 focuses on the characteristics and diagnosis of Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. It tests knowledge on microscopy techniques, bacterial motility, and stages of syphilis, essential for students and professionals in medical microbiology.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
T.pallidum has a _________________ motility that can be used for laboratory diagnosis.
Explanation
T.pallidum has a corkscrew-like motility, which means it moves in a twisting or spiral motion. This unique motility pattern can be used for laboratory diagnosis, as it helps differentiate T.pallidum from other bacteria that have different types of motility. By observing the corkscrew-like movement under a microscope, healthcare professionals can identify the presence of T.pallidum and make a diagnosis of syphilis.Rate this question:
- 3.
The laboratory diagnosis of Lyme Disease is most commonly made using _____________.
Explanation
The laboratory diagnosis of Lyme Disease is most commonly made using serology. Serology involves testing for the presence of antibodies against Borrelia burgdorferi, the bacteria that causes Lyme Disease, in a patient's blood. This is done through techniques such as enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and Western blot. These tests can detect the antibodies produced by the immune system in response to the infection. Serology is considered the most reliable method for diagnosing Lyme Disease, although it may not be accurate in the early stages of the infection.Rate this question:
- 4.
Staphylococcus aureus has the ability to ferment ________________ which is used in the identification of this species.
Explanation
Staphylococcus aureus has the ability to ferment mannitol, which is a type of sugar. This fermentation process produces acid, causing a change in the pH of the medium. This change in pH is used as a characteristic test to identify Staphylococcus aureus. If the organism can ferment mannitol, it will produce acid and the medium will turn yellow. If it cannot ferment mannitol, there will be no change in the pH and the medium will remain red.Rate this question:
- 5.
Staphylococcus epidermidis is a member of the normal flora.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Staphylococcus epidermidis is a member of the normal flora because it is commonly found on the skin and mucous membranes of humans. It is a harmless bacterium that coexists with other microorganisms in the body without causing any harm. This bacterium plays a role in maintaining the balance of the microbial community and helps to prevent the colonization of harmful bacteria. Therefore, the statement "Staphylococcus epidermidis is a member of the normal flora" is true.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
The most common clinical presentation of infection with Staphylococcus saprophyticus is a/an:
Correct Answer
UTIExplanation
The most common clinical presentation of infection with Staphylococcus saprophyticus is a urinary tract infection (UTI). Staphylococcus saprophyticus is a bacterium that commonly colonizes the genital and urinary tract of sexually active women. It is a leading cause of UTIs in young, sexually active females. The symptoms of a Staphylococcus saprophyticus UTI typically include frequent urination, a burning sensation during urination, cloudy or bloody urine, and lower abdominal pain. Prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment with antibiotics are necessary to prevent complications and recurrence of the infection.Rate this question:
- 7.
Species of Neisseria are oxidase ____________
Correct Answer
positiveExplanation
Neisseria species are oxidase positive. This means that they produce the enzyme oxidase, which is involved in the oxidation of certain substances. The oxidase test is commonly used to differentiate between different bacterial species. In the case of Neisseria, a positive result indicates the presence of the enzyme and helps in identifying the bacteria as belonging to this genus.Rate this question:
- 8.
N.gonnorhoeae is also known as the "__________________" and N.meningitidis is also known as the "________________"
Correct Answer
gonococcus
meningicoccusExplanation
N.gonnorhoeae is commonly referred to as gonococcus, while N.meningitidis is commonly known as meningococcus.Rate this question:
- 9.
X and V factors are required for the growth of some Haemophilus species X factor is also known as __________ and V factor is also known as ________
Correct Answer
heme
NAD+Explanation
X factor is required for the growth of some Haemophilus species, and it is also known as heme. Heme is an iron-containing molecule that is essential for the function of certain enzymes involved in energy production and metabolism. V factor is also required for the growth of these species and is known as NAD+. NAD+ is a coenzyme that plays a crucial role in various metabolic reactions, including the transfer of electrons during cellular respiration. Both heme and NAD+ are necessary for the proper growth and function of Haemophilus species.Rate this question:
- 10.
Gram stain of organisms from a specimen from sterile body site is ___________________
Correct Answer
presumptiveExplanation
The Gram stain of organisms from a specimen from a sterile body site is presumptive. This means that the results of the Gram stain can provide a preliminary or presumptive identification of the organisms present in the specimen. However, further confirmatory tests or cultures may be needed to definitively identify the organisms. The Gram stain is a commonly used technique in microbiology to classify bacteria into two broad categories: Gram-positive and Gram-negative, based on their cell wall composition.Rate this question:
- 11.
The presence of gram-negative diplococci in the Gram stain of a cerebrospinal fluid would be considered a critical result and should be immediately called to the attention of the clinician.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The presence of gram-negative diplococci in the Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid is considered a critical result because it may indicate the presence of bacteria such as Neisseria meningitidis, which is a common cause of meningitis. Meningitis is a serious infection that can lead to severe complications and even death if not promptly treated. Therefore, it is crucial to immediately inform the clinician about this finding so that appropriate treatment can be initiated as soon as possible.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Staphylococcus species are catalase positive.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Staphylococcus species are catalase positive because they produce the enzyme catalase, which allows them to break down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. This characteristic is used to differentiate Staphylococcus from other bacteria that are catalase negative. By performing a catalase test, one can determine if a bacterium belongs to the Staphylococcus genus.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
H.influenzae isolated from CSF should be serotyped.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
When H.influenzae is isolated from cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), it is important to serotype it. Serotyping helps in identifying the specific serotype or strain of the bacteria. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and prevention strategies, as different serotypes may have varying levels of virulence and may respond differently to antibiotics or vaccines. Therefore, serotyping H.influenzae isolated from CSF is necessary for effective management of the infection.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin is recommended following aerosol exposure to B.anthracis
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin is recommended following aerosol exposure to B.anthracis because ciprofloxacin is an effective antibiotic that can prevent the development of anthrax, which is caused by B.anthracis. By taking ciprofloxacin after exposure, it can help to kill any bacteria that may have entered the body and prevent the onset of the disease. This recommendation is based on scientific evidence and guidelines provided by healthcare authorities.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Bacillus cereus is most noted for causing:
-
Food poisoning
-
Meningitis
-
STD's
-
Urinary tract infections
Correct Answer
A. Food poisoningExplanation
Bacillus cereus is a type of bacteria that is commonly associated with food poisoning. This bacterium produces toxins that can contaminate food, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. It is often found in rice, pasta, and other starchy foods that have been cooked and left at room temperature for too long. While Bacillus cereus can cause other infections such as meningitis and urinary tract infections, it is most well-known for its role in foodborne illnesses.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Borrelia burgdorferi is the etiologic agent of ____________________.
Correct Answer
Lyme diseaseExplanation
Borrelia burgdorferi is the bacterial species responsible for causing Lyme disease. Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness that affects humans and animals. It is characterized by a range of symptoms including fever, fatigue, headache, muscle and joint aches, and a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans. If left untreated, Lyme disease can lead to more severe complications affecting the joints, heart, and nervous system. Therefore, Borrelia burgdorferi is the correct etiologic agent for Lyme disease.Rate this question:
- 17.
Chlorhexidine showers may be used to reduce colonization with S.aureus.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Chlorhexidine showers are commonly used to reduce the colonization of S. aureus, a bacterium that can cause various infections. Chlorhexidine is an antiseptic that has been found to be effective in killing or inhibiting the growth of S. aureus on the skin. By using chlorhexidine showers, individuals can reduce the number of S. aureus bacteria on their skin, which in turn may help decrease the risk of infection. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Which of the following Haemophilus species is the most important human pathogen?
-
H.influenzae
-
H.aphrophilus
-
H.ducreyi
-
H.aegyptius
Correct Answer
A. H.influenzaeExplanation
H.influenzae is the most important human pathogen among the given Haemophilus species. It is known to cause various infections such as meningitis, pneumonia, and septicemia, particularly in children. It is a major cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide, especially in developing countries. H.influenzae is transmitted through respiratory droplets and can lead to severe complications if left untreated. Vaccines have been developed to prevent infections caused by this species, highlighting its significance as a human pathogen.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Nosocomial VRE outbreaks have been associated with hospital thermometers
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Nosocomial VRE outbreaks have been associated with hospital thermometers. This means that there is evidence to support the claim that VRE outbreaks in hospitals have occurred due to the use of thermometers. This could be due to inadequate cleaning and sterilization of the thermometers, allowing the spread of VRE bacteria between patients. Therefore, the statement "True" indicates that there is a link between nosocomial VRE outbreaks and hospital thermometers.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Bronchoscopy specimens should be centrifuged and the sediment used to inoculate culture media.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Bronchoscopy specimens often contain respiratory secretions and cells from the lower respiratory tract. By centrifuging the specimen, the sediment containing potential pathogens can be separated from the liquid portion. This sediment can then be used to inoculate culture media, allowing for the growth and identification of any microorganisms present in the specimen. Therefore, the statement that bronchoscopy specimens should be centrifuged and the sediment used to inoculate culture media is true.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
One way to confirm oxacillin resistance in S.aureus isolates is to test for the presence of PBP 2a.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Testing for the presence of PBP 2a is a reliable method to confirm oxacillin resistance in S. aureus isolates. PBP 2a is a penicillin-binding protein that is encoded by the mecA gene, which is responsible for methicillin resistance. Oxacillin is a type of penicillin antibiotic, so if PBP 2a is present, it indicates that the bacteria are resistant to oxacillin. Therefore, the statement "One way to confirm oxacillin resistance in S. aureus isolates is to test for the presence of PBP 2a" is true.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
S.saprophyticus isolated from a female patient is a recognized cause of:
-
Impetigo
-
Toxic Shock Syndrome
-
Urinary tract infection
-
Folliculitis
Correct Answer
A. Urinary tract infectionExplanation
S. saprophyticus is a recognized cause of urinary tract infection (UTI) in female patients. UTIs occur when bacteria, such as S. saprophyticus, enter the urinary tract and multiply, leading to infection. This bacterium is commonly found in the genital and rectal areas, making it easier for it to enter the urinary tract in females. Symptoms of a UTI include frequent urination, burning sensation during urination, cloudy or bloody urine, and pelvic pain. Therefore, the correct answer is urinary tract infection.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
S.pneumoniae can positively be identified by the optochin test.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
They are susceptibleRate this question:
-
- 24.
No blood culture isolate of a large gram-positive rod should be dismissed as contaminant without first ruling out anthrax
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
This statement is true because anthrax is caused by a large gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium called Bacillus anthracis. Blood cultures are used to identify bacterial infections, and if a large gram-positive rod is isolated from a blood culture, it should not be dismissed as a contaminant without first ruling out anthrax. This is because anthrax is a serious and potentially life-threatening infection that requires immediate treatment. Therefore, any isolate of a large gram-positive rod in a blood culture should be thoroughly investigated to ensure that it is not anthrax.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Gardnerella is inhibited by the SPS added to blood culture bottles
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Gardnerella is a bacterium that causes bacterial vaginosis. SPS (sodium polyanethol sulfonate) is a substance commonly added to blood culture bottles to prevent clotting and promote bacterial growth. The statement suggests that SPS has an inhibitory effect on Gardnerella, meaning it prevents its growth or kills it. Therefore, the correct answer is true.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Spirochetes are differentiated by the number of insertion disks present.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Spirochetes are a group of bacteria that are characterized by their spiral shape. They are also differentiated by the number of insertion disks present. This means that the number of insertion disks can be used to distinguish different species or types of spirochetes. Therefore, the statement that spi rochetes are differentiated by the number of insertion disks present is true.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Extreme water sports are a risk factor for leptospirosis.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection that is commonly transmitted through contact with water contaminated by the urine of infected animals. Extreme water sports, such as swimming or diving in freshwater lakes or rivers, increase the risk of exposure to this bacteria. Therefore, it is true that extreme water sports are a risk factor for leptospirosis.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Haemophilus species require an atmosphere with increased concentrations of CO2 for growth.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Haemophilus species are bacteria that require an atmosphere with increased concentrations of CO2 for optimal growth. This is because they have specific metabolic requirements that are met in a CO2-rich environment. Without sufficient CO2, these bacteria may struggle to survive and reproduce. Therefore, the statement that Haemophilus species require an atmosphere with increased concentrations of CO2 for growth is true.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
All H.influenzae isolates should be tested for beta-lactamase production
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
All H.influenzae isolates should be tested for beta-lactamase production because beta-lactamase is an enzyme that can inactivate beta-lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin. Testing for beta-lactamase production helps determine the antibiotic susceptibility of H.influenzae isolates and guides appropriate treatment decisions. It is important to identify beta-lactamase-producing strains to avoid treatment failure and prevent the spread of antibiotic resistance.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Small colonies that only grow near S.aueus in a sinus culture should be investigatedas possible Haemophilus
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Small colonies that only grow near S. aureus in a sinus culture should be investigated as possible Haemophilus. This statement suggests that if there are small colonies present in a sinus culture that only grow near S. aureus, it is necessary to investigate the possibility that these colonies are Haemophilus bacteria. This implies that Haemophilus bacteria may have a specific relationship with S. aureus and may exhibit a growth pattern that is distinct from other bacteria in the culture. Therefore, the given statement is true.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
B.anthracis has been isolated from the heroin used by intravenous drug users
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because Bacillus anthracis, the bacterium that causes anthrax, has been isolated from the heroin used by intravenous drug users. This suggests that contaminated heroin can serve as a potential source of anthrax infection.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
A positive ELISA test for Lyme disease should be confirmed by Western blot.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
A positive ELISA test for Lyme disease should be confirmed by Western blot because ELISA tests have a higher chance of producing false positives. The Western blot is a more specific test that can accurately confirm the presence of antibodies to the Lyme disease bacteria. Therefore, it is necessary to use the Western blot as a follow-up test to ensure the accuracy of the diagnosis.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Treponemes can infect the umbilical cord and cross the placenta.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Treponemes, which are a type of bacteria, have the ability to infect the umbilical cord and cross the placenta. This means that if a pregnant woman is infected with treponemes, the bacteria can pass from her bloodstream to the umbilical cord and then to the developing fetus. This can lead to serious health complications for the fetus, including congenital syphilis. Therefore, the statement "Treponemes can infect the umbilical cord and cross the placenta" is true.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
On gram stain, spores appear clear because they do not take up the crystal violet
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Spores appear clear on a gram stain because they have a unique structure that prevents them from taking up the crystal violet stain. The crystal violet stain is a primary stain used in the gram staining procedure to differentiate between different types of bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet stain and appear purple, while gram-negative bacteria do not retain the stain and appear pink. However, spores have a tough outer coating called the spore coat that acts as a barrier and prevents the crystal violet from penetrating and staining the spore. Therefore, spores appear clear or colorless on a gram stain.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Lactobacillus spp are usually identified based on Gram stain morphology and catalase reaction
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Lactobacillus spp are commonly identified using Gram stain morphology and catalase reaction. Gram stain morphology involves staining bacterial cells to determine their cell wall structure, which can help differentiate between different bacterial species. Additionally, the catalase reaction test is used to determine if a bacterium produces the enzyme catalase, which can further aid in identifying Lactobacillus spp. Therefore, the statement that Lactobacillus spp are usually identified based on Gram stain morphology and catalase reaction is true.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Identification of the causative agent of syphilis is most commonly achieved using:
-
Culture
-
Biochemical testing
-
Antigen detection
-
Serology
-
PCR
Correct Answer
A. SerologyExplanation
Serology is the most common method used to identify the causative agent of syphilis. Serological tests detect the presence of specific antibodies produced by the body in response to the infection. These tests can detect both current and past infections and are highly sensitive and specific. Culture, biochemical testing, antigen detection, and PCR are not commonly used for the identification of syphilis, as they may have limitations in terms of sensitivity, specificity, or availability. Serology, on the other hand, is a reliable and widely accessible method for diagnosing syphilis.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Neisseria gonnorrhoeae is an exclusively human parasite
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a bacterium that causes the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhea. It is considered an exclusively human parasite because it only infects humans and cannot survive or reproduce in any other species. This bacterium is transmitted through sexual contact and primarily affects the reproductive organs, causing symptoms such as pain and discharge. Due to its specific adaptation to the human body, Neisseria gonorrhoeae cannot infect animals or survive outside of a human host, making it an exclusively human parasite.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
The spirochetes are gram negative microorganisms.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Spirochetes are a group of bacteria known for their unique spiral shape. They are classified as gram-negative microorganisms because they have a thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram staining technique. This characteristic makes them appear pink or red under a microscope. Therefore, the statement that spirochetes are gram-negative microorganisms is true.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Staphylococci will grow on 5% sheep blood agar and chocolate agars, but not mannitol salt agar.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. FalseExplanation
Staphylococci are able to grow on mannitol salt agar.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Haemophilus species are members of the body's normal flora
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Haemophilus species are commonly found as part of the body's normal flora. They are typically present in the respiratory tract and can also be found in the genitourinary and gastrointestinal tracts. These bacteria do not typically cause disease in healthy individuals but can become opportunistic pathogens under certain conditions. Therefore, it is true that Haemophilus species are members of the body's normal flora.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
A characteristic of all Neisseria species is that they
-
Are oxidase-negative
-
Are oxidase-positive
-
Ferment maltose
-
Are not inhibited by SPS
Correct Answer
A. Are oxidase-positiveExplanation
Neisseria species are known for being oxidase-positive, meaning they produce the enzyme oxidase. This enzyme helps to identify the bacteria by causing a color change in a reagent called oxidase reagent. Therefore, the correct answer is that Neisseria species are oxidase-positive.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
A black eschar is indicative of:
-
Cutaneous anthrax
-
Woolsorter`s disease
-
Enterotoxin production
-
Encapsulation
Correct Answer
A. Cutaneous anthraxExplanation
A black eschar is indicative of cutaneous anthrax. Cutaneous anthrax is a bacterial infection caused by Bacillus anthracis. It typically occurs when the bacteria enters the body through a cut or abrasion on the skin. The infection causes a black, necrotic (dead) tissue called an eschar to form at the site of entry. This characteristic black eschar is a key diagnostic feature of cutaneous anthrax. Other symptoms may include swelling, pain, and the formation of fluid-filled blisters. Prompt medical treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent the spread of the infection.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Nitrofurantoin is currently the drug of choice for treating uncomplicated VRE urinary tract infections
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Nitrofurantoin is considered the drug of choice for treating uncomplicated VRE (Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus) urinary tract infections. This is because it has shown good efficacy against VRE strains and is generally well-tolerated by patients. Other antibiotics may be less effective or have higher rates of resistance against VRE. Therefore, nitrofurantoin is the preferred treatment option for this type of infection.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Human relapsing fever is caused by the bite of the human body louse.
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Human relapsing fever is caused by the bite of the human body louse. This means that when a person is bitten by a human body louse, they can contract the disease known as human relapsing fever. The louse acts as a vector, transmitting the disease-causing bacteria to the human host through its bite. Therefore, it is true that human relapsing fever is caused by the bite of the human body louse.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of:
-
Erythema migrans rash
-
Gumma
-
Chancre
-
Gingivitis
Correct Answer
A. ChancreExplanation
Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a chancre. A chancre is a painless ulcer that typically develops at the site of infection, usually the genitals, anus, or mouth. It is the initial and most common symptom of syphilis. The chancre usually appears within 3 weeks after exposure to the bacteria and can last for 3-6 weeks. It is highly contagious and can easily transmit the infection to others. Therefore, the presence of a chancre is a key diagnostic feature of primary syphilis.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Neisseria species are true cocci that do not elongate when exposed to penicillin
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Neisseria species are a type of bacteria that have a spherical shape, which is characteristic of cocci. Unlike other bacteria, when exposed to penicillin, Neisseria species do not elongate or change their shape. Therefore, the statement that Neisseria species are true cocci that do not elongate when exposed to penicillin is true.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
The beta-lactamase test should be performed on all isolates of M.catarrhalis
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The beta-lactamase test should be performed on all isolates of M. catarrhalis because this test helps to determine whether the bacteria produce beta-lactamase enzyme, which can inactivate beta-lactam antibiotics such as penicillins and cephalosporins. This information is crucial for selecting the appropriate antibiotic treatment for infections caused by M. catarrhalis, as beta-lactamase production can confer resistance to these antibiotics. Therefore, performing the beta-lactamase test on all isolates of M. catarrhalis is necessary to guide effective treatment decisions.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
The viridians strep grow best under microaerophilic conditions
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement suggests that the viridians strep, a type of bacteria, thrive in conditions with low levels of oxygen. This means that they prefer environments where there is less oxygen present than what is typically found in the atmosphere. This preference for microaerophilic conditions allows the viridians strep to grow and reproduce more effectively. Therefore, the given answer is true.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
What is the optimal specimen to collect for the diagnosis of gonorrhea by culture in males?
-
Pharyngeal swab
-
Rectal swab
-
Cervical swab
-
Urethral swab
Correct Answer
A. Urethral swabExplanation
The optimal specimen to collect for the diagnosis of gonorrhea by culture in males is a urethral swab. This is because gonorrhea primarily affects the urethra in males, so collecting a swab from this area provides the best chance of detecting the bacteria responsible for the infection. Swabbing other areas such as the pharynx, rectum, or cervix may not yield accurate results as these sites are less likely to be affected by gonorrhea in males.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Dec 05, 2012Quiz Created by
J1_black
Back to top