Medical Law And Ethics Chapt 5 & 6

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Law Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Dumping of patients is considered to be:

    • A.

      Completely acceptable

    • B.

      Is acceptable when it affects the hospitals profits

    • C.

      Is a federal offense

    • D.

      Can be done if the hospital administrator approves it

    Correct Answer
    C. Is a federal offense
    Explanation
    Dumping of patients refers to the act of transferring or discharging patients from a hospital without their consent or against their will, usually for financial reasons. This practice is considered unethical and illegal. It is a federal offense because it violates the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA), which requires hospitals to provide emergency medical services to all patients regardless of their ability to pay. Dumping patients not only compromises their health and safety but also undermines the trust and integrity of the healthcare system. Therefore, it is a serious violation of federal law.

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  • 2. 

    Physicians have the right to refuse treatment to patients in non-emergency patients.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Physicians have the right to refuse treatment to non-emergency patients. This is because physicians have the autonomy to make decisions about the care they provide, and they may choose not to treat a patient if they believe it is not in the patient's best interest or if they have personal or ethical objections. However, it is important to note that physicians are still bound by certain legal and ethical obligations, such as providing appropriate referrals or ensuring that the patient's health is not put at risk by the refusal of treatment.

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  • 3. 

    Physicians have the right to withdraw from caring for a patient for whatever reason.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Physicians do not have an absolute right to withdraw from caring for a patient for whatever reason. They have ethical and professional obligations to provide care to their patients, and can only withdraw from caring for a patient under certain circumstances. These circumstances may include if the patient requests a transfer of care, if the physician is unable to provide the necessary care due to their expertise or resources, or if there is a breakdown in the physician-patient relationship. However, physicians cannot simply withdraw from caring for a patient without a valid reason.

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  • 4. 

    Physicians have a responsibility to improve health in the community.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Physicians have a responsibility to improve health in the community because they are trained medical professionals who have the knowledge and skills to diagnose and treat illnesses. They play a crucial role in promoting and maintaining the health of individuals and the community as a whole. Physicians not only provide medical care to patients but also educate them about preventive measures and healthy lifestyle choices. They may also participate in community health initiatives, research, and policy-making to address public health issues. Overall, physicians have a moral and professional duty to contribute to the betterment of the community's health.

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  • 5. 

    If a physician withdraws from care of a patient without notice, this action may result in:

    • A.

      Nothing, the physician may withdraw from care as is best fit for he/she

    • B.

      False imprinsoment charges

    • C.

      Abandoment charges

    • D.

      Nothing, it is the patient respinsibility to find care

    Correct Answer
    C. Abandoment charges
    Explanation
    If a physician withdraws from care of a patient without notice, this action may result in abandonment charges. Abandonment refers to the unilateral termination of the physician-patient relationship by the physician without adequate notice or without making arrangements for the patient's continued care. This can be considered a breach of the physician's duty of care towards the patient and may lead to legal consequences, including abandonment charges.

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  • 6. 

    The following disease is considered reportable to the state department of health:

    • A.

      Herpes

    • B.

      Common cold

    • C.

      AIDS

    • D.

      UTI

    Correct Answer
    C. AIDS
    Explanation
    AIDS is considered reportable to the state department of health because it is a highly contagious and potentially life-threatening disease caused by the HIV virus. Reporting cases of AIDS to the state department of health allows for monitoring of the disease's prevalence, tracking its spread, and implementing appropriate public health interventions to prevent further transmission. This helps in controlling the spread of the disease and providing necessary care and support to affected individuals.

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  • 7. 

    A 22 year old patient comes in for lab results. The HIV test is positive. She tells you anxiously not to notify her husband because he will kill her. The patient also tells you that she was on vacation with some friend a few months ago in the Caribbean, and had several sexual partners. What is the next best step?

    • A.

      Honor the patients confidentiality

    • B.

      Call her husband right away

    • C.

      Call the department of health

    • D.

      Persuade the patient to tell her partner

    Correct Answer
    D. Persuade the patient to tell her partner
    Explanation
    The next best step is to persuade the patient to tell her partner about her HIV status. This is important for the partner's well-being and to prevent further transmission of the virus. While it is important to respect patient confidentiality, in cases where there is a risk of harm to others, such as in this scenario where the patient fears her husband's reaction, it is necessary to balance confidentiality with the duty to protect public health. Calling the department of health may be a possible step, but it is not the immediate next best step in this situation.

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  • 8. 

    Confidentiality may be overidden in an life threathening situation.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Confidentiality can be overridden in a life-threatening situation because the primary concern in such cases is the preservation of life. In situations where someone's life is at risk, it may be necessary to disclose confidential information to appropriate authorities or individuals who can intervene and provide assistance. This exception allows for the prioritization of human safety over the preservation of confidentiality.

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  • 9. 

    To properly identify patients you should in a healthcare setting you should:

    • A.

      Ask his or her name

    • B.

      Ask the date of birth

    • C.

      Ask their address

    • D.

      Have patient state their name and date of birth

    Correct Answer
    D. Have patient state their name and date of birth
    Explanation
    In a healthcare setting, it is important to properly identify patients to ensure accurate and safe care. Asking the patient to state their name and date of birth is the most reliable method of identification as it directly involves the patient and allows for verification of their identity. Asking their address may not be necessary for identification purposes and could potentially compromise patient privacy.

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  • 10. 

    An indigent patient is one who is:

    • A.

      Able to pay all medical expenses upfront

    • B.

      Is unable to pay for medical expenses

    • C.

      Has HIV

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Is unable to pay for medical expenses
    Explanation
    An indigent patient is someone who is unable to pay for their medical expenses. This means that they do not have the financial means to cover the costs of their healthcare. It is important to provide support and assistance to indigent patients to ensure they receive the necessary medical treatment and care.

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  • 11. 

    Abandonment may be avoided by

    • A.

      Writing to another doctor about the case

    • B.

      Giving informal notice of withdrawal from a case

    • C.

      Declaring the patient indigent

    • D.

      Giving formal notice of withdrawal from a case

    Correct Answer
    D. Giving formal notice of withdrawal from a case
    Explanation
    Giving formal notice of withdrawal from a case may avoid abandonment because it allows the doctor to properly communicate their intention to no longer provide medical care to the patient. This formal notice ensures that the patient is aware of the doctor's decision and can seek alternative medical care. It also establishes a clear and documented record of the doctor's withdrawal, which helps protect the doctor legally and ethically. Writing to another doctor, giving informal notice, or declaring the patient indigent may not provide the necessary clarity and legal protection in the event of abandonment.

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  • 12. 

     Minor children may receive life-saving treatment

    • A.

      Even though the parents refuse

    • B.

      If they choose to receive it

    • C.

      When grandparents override the wishes of the parents

    • D.

      If it is profitable for the hospital

    Correct Answer
    A. Even though the parents refuse
    Explanation
    In certain cases, minor children may receive life-saving treatment even if their parents refuse it. This can happen when the children themselves choose to receive the treatment, or when their grandparents override the wishes of the parents. The decision to provide treatment is not based on whether it is profitable for the hospital, but rather on the best interest of the child's health and well-being.

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  • 13. 

    The adult patient has a right to  

    • A.

      Expect the appropriate standard of care

    • B.

      Deny any treatment

    • C.

      Have his or her medical information protected

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The adult patient has the right to expect the appropriate standard of care, which means they have the right to receive treatment that meets the accepted medical standards. They also have the right to deny any treatment if they do not wish to undergo it. Additionally, they have the right to have their medical information protected, ensuring that their personal health information is kept confidential and not shared without their consent. Therefore, all of the options mentioned (expecting appropriate standard of care, denying treatment, and having medical information protected) are rights that an adult patient has.

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  • 14. 

     The patient's signature on an informed consent form indicates

    • A.

      Understanding of the limits or risks in the pending treatment

    • B.

      Expressed consent

    • C.

      Understanding of the treatment options

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The patient's signature on an informed consent form indicates that they have understood the limits or risks involved in the pending treatment, have given their expressed consent, and have understood the treatment options. By signing the form, the patient acknowledges that they have been fully informed about the treatment, its potential risks, and alternative options, and they have willingly agreed to proceed with the treatment.

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  • 15. 

    Patients who indicate by their behavior that they will accept a procedure are providing

    • A.

      Implied consent

    • B.

      Expressed consent

    • C.

      Informed consent

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Implied consent
    Explanation
    Implied consent refers to the consent that is inferred from a person's behavior or actions rather than explicitly given verbally or in writing. In the context of the question, patients who indicate through their behavior that they will accept a procedure are providing implied consent. This means that although they may not have explicitly stated their consent, their actions or behavior suggest that they are willing to undergo the procedure.

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  • 16. 

     Failure to perform an action that a reasonable person would have committed in a similar situation is

    • A.

      Malfeacence

    • B.

      Negligence

    • C.

      Assumption of risks

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Negligence
    Explanation
    Negligence refers to the failure to perform an action that a reasonable person would have done in a similar situation. It involves a lack of reasonable care or attention, resulting in harm or damage to others. In this context, malfeasance refers to the intentional wrongdoing or misconduct, assumption of risks refers to voluntarily accepting the potential dangers of a situation, and "none of these" implies that none of the options provided are correct.

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  • 17. 

    Performing a wrong and illegal act is considered (such as practicing without a license)

    • A.

      Nonfeasance

    • B.

      Malfeasance

    • C.

      Misfeasance

    • D.

      This is acceptable if done occasionally

    Correct Answer
    B. Malfeasance
    Explanation
    Malfeasance refers to the intentional performance of an illegal or wrongful act, such as practicing without a license. It implies a deliberate wrongdoing or misconduct. In this context, performing a wrong and illegal act, like practicing without a license, would be categorized as malfeasance. It is important to note that malfeasance is not acceptable, even if done occasionally, as it involves intentional violation of laws or regulations.

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  • 18. 

     The thing speaks for itself applies to the law of negligence and is the doctrine of

    • A.

      Res ipsa loquitur

    • B.

      Compensatory damages

    • C.

      Preponderance of evidence

    • D.

      Respondeat superior

    Correct Answer
    A. Res ipsa loquitur
    Explanation
    The correct answer is res ipsa loquitur. "Res ipsa loquitur" is a Latin phrase that translates to "the thing speaks for itself." It is a legal doctrine that allows a plaintiff to establish a defendant's negligence based on the circumstances of the accident or injury alone, without the need for direct evidence. This doctrine is applicable in cases where the defendant had exclusive control over the instrumentality that caused the harm and the accident would not have occurred without negligence. It shifts the burden of proof to the defendant to prove that they were not negligent.

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  • 19. 

    The most common defense provided by the defendant in a case is called

    • A.

      Denial defense

    • B.

      Assumption of risk

    • C.

      Borrowed servant

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial defense
    Explanation
    The correct answer is denial defense. In a legal case, the defendant commonly provides a denial defense, which means they deny the allegations or charges brought against them. This defense strategy aims to challenge the evidence presented by the prosecution and assert the defendant's innocence. By denying the accusations, the defendant aims to cast doubt on the prosecution's case and persuade the court or jury that they are not guilty. This defense strategy is frequently used in criminal and civil cases.

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  • 20. 

    When an employer lends an employee to someone else, this is called

    • A.

      Comparative negligence

    • B.

      Fraud

    • C.

      Borrowed servant doctrine

    • D.

      This is illegal

    Correct Answer
    C. Borrowed servant doctrine
    Explanation
    The borrowed servant doctrine refers to a situation where an employer lends an employee to someone else. Under this doctrine, the employee becomes the servant of the borrowing employer for the duration of the loan, and the borrowing employer assumes control and responsibility for the employee's actions during that time. This doctrine helps determine who is liable for any injuries or damages caused by the employee while working for the borrowing employer.

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  • 21. 

    The statute of limitations for a case begins to run

    • A.

      When the plaintiff sues the defendant

    • B.

      When the injury is discovered

    • C.

      Two years after the injury

    • D.

      Anytime

    Correct Answer
    B. When the injury is discovered
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "when the injury is discovered." The statute of limitations for a case starts running from the moment the injury is discovered. This means that the plaintiff has a limited amount of time to file a lawsuit after they become aware of the injury. It is important to note that the statute of limitations may vary depending on the jurisdiction and the type of case.

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  • 22. 

    Responsibility for action in employment is ultimately assigned to the

    • A.

      Employer

    • B.

      Employee

    • C.

      Co-workers

    • D.

      Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Employer
    Explanation
    The responsibility for action in employment is ultimately assigned to the employer because they have the authority and control over the work environment and the employees. The employer is responsible for providing a safe and fair workplace, following employment laws and regulations, and ensuring that employees are treated fairly and their rights are protected. They are also responsible for managing and supervising the employees, setting expectations, and providing necessary resources and support for them to perform their job effectively.

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  • 23. 

    Data, such as birth and death dates, are used by the government to

    • A.

      Determine population trends and needs

    • B.

      Encourage planning and zoning in a community

    • C.

      Determine the tax base for a community

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Determine population trends and needs
    Explanation
    Birth and death dates are crucial data points that help the government determine population trends and needs. By analyzing this data, the government can understand the rate at which the population is growing or declining, identify demographic patterns, and make informed decisions regarding resource allocation, infrastructure development, and public services. This information is vital for effective planning and policymaking to meet the evolving needs of the community. Determining the tax base for a community and encouraging planning and zoning are also important functions, but they are not directly related to the given data.

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  • 24. 

    A single 16 year old female patient becomes pregnant with her boyfriend. The patient presents to the clinic for her first prenatal appointment. She lives with her mother. She is unemployed and is a student at the local high school. Which of the following statements is most accurate about this patient?

    • A.

      Is considered a mature minor for this appointment

    • B.

      She is a emancipated minor

    • C.

      Needs consent before her prenatal appointment

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Is considered a mature minor for this appointment
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the patient is a 16-year-old female who is pregnant and seeking prenatal care. The fact that she is seeking prenatal care indicates that she is taking responsibility for her pregnancy and her health. Being a mature minor means that she has the capacity to make medical decisions on her own, without the need for parental consent. Therefore, it can be inferred that she is considered a mature minor for this appointment.

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  • 25. 

    Parental consent is required in this case:

    • A.

      A minor in nonemergency cases

    • B.

      An 18 year old who is single

    • C.

      A 16 year old in the military who is self supporting

    • D.

      A married 18 year old

    Correct Answer
    A. A minor in nonemergency cases
    Explanation
    In nonemergency cases, parental consent is required for a minor. This means that if a person is under the age of 18 and needs to make a decision or undergo a procedure that is not urgent or life-threatening, they would need their parent or guardian's permission. This is because minors are not considered legally capable of making certain decisions on their own, and parental consent is seen as necessary to protect their best interests and ensure their well-being.

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  • 26. 

    This act allow an adult to donate their organs for transplantation

    • A.

      Donation act

    • B.

      Unifrom anatomical gift act

    • C.

      Res ipsa laquitor

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Unifrom anatomical gift act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the "Uniform Anatomical Gift Act." This act allows adults to donate their organs for transplantation. It establishes a legal framework for the donation process, ensuring that the wishes of the donor are respected and that the donation is carried out in a regulated and ethical manner. The act also provides guidelines for the allocation of organs and protects the rights of both the donor and the recipient.

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  • 27. 

    This type of damage is an exemplary damage where a monetary award is required by the court to person that has been harmed in an especially malicious way.

    • A.

      Compensatory damages

    • B.

      Nominal damages

    • C.

      Punitive damages

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Punitive damages
    Explanation
    Punitive damages are awarded by the court in cases where the defendant's actions are particularly malicious or intentional. Unlike compensatory damages, which aim to compensate the victim for their losses, punitive damages are meant to punish the defendant and deter others from engaging in similar behavior. These damages go beyond just compensating the victim and serve as a form of punishment for the wrongdoer. Nominal damages, on the other hand, are awarded when the court recognizes that a legal wrong has been committed but the actual harm suffered by the plaintiff is minimal. Therefore, the correct answer is punitive damages.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is important in malpractice prevention?

    • A.

      Good communication with your patients

    • B.

      Being the patient's friend

    • C.

      Getting on your supervisors good side

    • D.

      Making promises to your patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Good communication with your patients
    Explanation
    Good communication with patients is important in malpractice prevention because it helps establish trust, ensures that patients fully understand their medical condition and treatment options, and allows for effective informed consent. It also helps in building a strong doctor-patient relationship, which can lead to better patient satisfaction and compliance. Effective communication can also help in early detection and resolution of any misunderstandings or potential conflicts, reducing the likelihood of malpractice claims.

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  • 29. 

    A medical examiner is a   

    • A.

      Lawyer

    • B.

      Physician

    • C.

      PA

    • D.

      Nurse

    Correct Answer
    B. Physician
    Explanation
    A medical examiner is a physician who is responsible for conducting autopsies and determining the cause of death in cases where it is unclear or suspicious. They use their medical knowledge and expertise to examine the body, perform tests, and analyze the findings to provide accurate and detailed reports. They play a crucial role in the legal system by providing valuable information in criminal investigations and helping to ensure justice is served.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is not a reportable communicable disease?

    • A.

      HIV

    • B.

      Tuberculosis

    • C.

      Chicken pox

    • D.

      All of these are reportable

    Correct Answer
    C. Chicken pox
    Explanation
    Chicken pox is not a reportable communicable disease. Reportable communicable diseases are those that are required by law to be reported to public health authorities. This is usually because they pose a significant public health risk and require monitoring and control measures. HIV and tuberculosis are both infectious diseases that are reportable due to their potential for transmission and impact on public health. However, chicken pox, while contagious, is generally a mild and self-limiting illness that does not typically require reporting.

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  • 31. 

    Evidence gathered in an abuse case may include

    • A.

      Pictures

    • B.

      Semen

    • C.

      Clothing

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The evidence gathered in an abuse case may include pictures, semen, and clothing. In abuse cases, it is crucial to collect as much evidence as possible to support the claims and establish the guilt of the perpetrator. Pictures can provide visual documentation of injuries or the scene of the abuse. Semen can be collected as biological evidence, linking the perpetrator to the crime. Clothing can also be important evidence, as it may contain DNA or other traces that can help identify the abuser. Therefore, all of the mentioned options are possible pieces of evidence in an abuse case.

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  • 32. 

    The purpose of the DEA is to

    • A.

      Regulate drug dealers

    • B.

      Nsure the safety of food items sold in the United States

    • C.

      Regulated controlled substances

    • D.

      No important role

    Correct Answer
    C. Regulated controlled substances
    Explanation
    The purpose of the DEA is to regulate controlled substances. The DEA, or Drug Enforcement Administration, is a federal law enforcement agency responsible for enforcing controlled substances laws and regulations in the United States. They work to prevent the illegal manufacturing, distribution, and abuse of drugs, ensuring that controlled substances are properly regulated to protect public health and safety.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 22, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Bismarkf
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