Medical Laboratory Scientist Position

60 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Medical Quizzes & Trivia

This test is facilitated by Kimberly Ryan for Central Bank Nigeria (CBN) for the recruitment of Medical Laboratory Scientists with specified years of experience. INSTRUCTIONSPlease complete the bio data before proceeding. Please tick ONLY ONE BOX in the spaces provided. Multiple answers in one question WILL NOT be recognised. Please do not refresh the page as you will loose all your already imputed data. You have 60 minutes to answer 60 questions. The test is scheduled to terminate in 60 minutes.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Ova of parasite Trichuris trichiura has which of type characteristic appearance under the microscope?
    • A. 

      A) Round shape

    • B. 

      B) Oval shape

    • C. 

      C) Spherical shape

    • D. 

      D) Barrel shape

    • E. 

      E) Cylindrical shape

  • 2. 
    The following classes of lymphocytes are not infected and destroyed by HIV except
    • A. 

      Monocytes

    • B. 

      Macrophages

    • C. 

      CD 8

    • D. 

      CD 4

    • E. 

      T- Lymphocytes

  • 3. 
    Coombs test is the most important laboratory aid for the diagnosis of which of the following diseases? 
    • A. 

      Myasthenia gravis

    • B. 

      Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

    • C. 

      Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia

    • D. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • E. 

      Systemic lupus erythematosus

  • 4. 
     The lipoprotein sub-fraction associated with the term "good" cholesterol is:   
    • A. 

      Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL)

    • B. 

      Low density lipoprotein (LDL)

    • C. 

      High density lipoprotein (HDL)

    • D. 

      Pre beta lipoprotein (PBL)

  • 5. 
    The following markers are usually present in a hepatitis B carrier with chronic active hepatitis except  
    • A. 

      HbeAg

    • B. 

      Anti-HBc IgG

    • C. 

      Anti-HBc IgM

    • D. 

      HBV-DNA

    • E. 

      HbsAg

  • 6. 
    Which statement is true? 
    • A. 

      S. haematobium is associated with pus in the urine

    • B. 

      Ova of S. haematobium has lateral spine

    • C. 

      Ova of S. hamatobium has terminal spine

    • D. 

      Tadpoles are the intermediate host of S. haematobium

    • E. 

      schistosoma japonicum infest the bladder more often

  • 7. 
    Specific organisms that are considered strict anaerobes include: 
    • A. 

      E. coli and Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • B. 

      Bacteroides and Klebsiella

    • C. 

      Peptostreptococcus and Nocardia

    • D. 

      None of the above

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Tissue biopsy

    • B. 

      Venipuncture

    • C. 

      Cellophane tape method

    • D. 

      PVA-preserved stool

  • 9. 
    The blood level of total cholesterol concentration recommended by the World Health Organization is:      
    • A. 

      Above 250mg/dl in Africans

    • B. 

      Less than 225 mg/dl in Caucasians

    • C. 

      Less than 150 mg/dl in Chinese

    • D. 

      More than 200mg/dl in Asians

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 10. 
    Diphyllobothrium latum causes which of the following diseases?      
    • A. 

      Cysticercosis

    • B. 

      Echinococcosis

    • C. 

      Hydatididossis

    • D. 

      Diphyllobothriasis

  • 11. 
     The accole form of plasmodium parasite is seen on blood film on:   
    • A. 

      The Centre of the red blood cell

    • B. 

      The periphery of the red blood cell

    • C. 

      The nucleus of the red bold cell

    • D. 

      Cytoplasm of the red blood cell

  • 12. 
    All are trematodes except
    • A. 

      Fasciolopsis buski

    • B. 

      Enterobius vermicularis

    • C. 

      Diphyllobotrium latum

    • D. 

      Hymenolepsis diminuta

    • E. 

      Schistosoma heamatobium

  • 13. 
    Spherocytes in the blood film are not a feature of which of the following excep
    • A. 

      Recticulocytosis

    • B. 

      Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

    • C. 

      Thallasaemia

    • D. 

      Auto-immune heamolytic anaemia

    • E. 

      Megaloblastic anaemia

  • 14. 
    A feature of extravascular haemolysis is
    • A. 

      Haemosiderin in urine

    • B. 

      Jaundice

    • C. 

      Albuminuria

    • D. 

      Haemoglobin in urine

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      They are all short –lived

    • B. 

      They secrete surface immunoglobulin

    • C. 

      They are both helper and killer cells

    • D. 

      They are similar to lymphocytes in infectious mononucleosis

  • 16. 
    In peripheral blood film examination, band form is associated with
    • A. 

      P. falciparum

    • B. 

      P.malariae

    • C. 

      P. vivax

    • D. 

      P.ovale

  • 17. 
    The best method to diagnose malarial parasite in the laboratory is examination of
    • A. 

      Thin film only

    • B. 

      Thick film only

    • C. 

      Both thick and thin films

    • D. 

      Rapid Diagnostic Test

  • 18. 
    Urinalysis result that confirms the presence of Nitrites and leucocytes is indicative of
    • A. 

      Leukocytosis

    • B. 

      UTI

    • C. 

      Viral infection

    • D. 

      Parasitic infection

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 19. 
    Complete haemogram aims at screening for various disease states which include
    • A. 

      Anemia

    • B. 

      Leukemia

    • C. 

      Inflammatory processes

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 20. 
     Ebola Virus Disease (EVD), was first discovered in
    • A. 

      1934

    • B. 

      1976

    • C. 

      1988

    • D. 

      1914

  • 21. 
    The following tests are useful in monitoring an HIV patient except
    • A. 

      HIV Quantiferon

    • B. 

      CD4 count, Viral Load

    • C. 

      Urea, FBC creatinine

    • D. 

      LFT

  • 22. 
    The following are activities that take place at the pre-analytical stage of a test procedure, except
    • A. 

      Bringing reagents to room temperature

    • B. 

      Bringing samples to room temperature

    • C. 

      Recording test results

    • D. 

      Identify samples with their manifests

  • 23. 
    The Ebola virus disease can be transmitted through contamination  from which of the following? 
    • A. 

      Urine

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Semen

    • D. 

      Sweat

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 24. 
    In gram’s stain, the steps involved are 
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      13

    • D. 

      8

  • 25. 
     Which of these is a colour code for entry of laboratory reagent /commodity on tally cards in the store?    
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Blue

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Purple

  • 26. 
    The minimum volume of whole blood required for testing of Ebola virus disease is: 
    • A. 

      10 ml

    • B. 

      20 ml

    • C. 

      4ml

    • D. 

      5ml

    • E. 

      3ml

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      Plastic tubes

    • B. 

      Heparinized glass tubes

    • C. 

      Un-heparinized glass tubes

    • D. 

      Heparinized plastic tubes

    • E. 

      Sterile 10cc glass syringes

  • 28. 
    The specimen collected for testing Ebola Virus disease should be stored at: 
    • A. 

      10- 15 degrees

    • B. 

      2- 8 degrees

    • C. 

      -4 degrees

    • D. 

      36 degrees

    • E. 

      22 degrees

  • 29. 
     Which of the following tests is not important in the diagnosis of Ebola virus disease? 
    • A. 

      ELISA

    • B. 

      RT-PCR

    • C. 

      RS- PCR

    • D. 

      Serology- IgG/IgM

    • E. 

      virus isolation

  • 30. 
    Ebola virus is: 
    • A. 

      RNA virus

    • B. 

      DNA virus

    • C. 

      Mixture of 50-50 DNA/RNA virus

    • D. 

      Mixture of 70-30 DNA/RNA

    • E. 

      Mixture of 40-60 spirochetes/atypical virus

  • 31. 
    Which of these is not correct? 
    • A. 

      Catalase test differentiates staphylococci from streptococci

    • B. 

      Coagulase identifies Staphylococcus aureus

    • C. 

      DNAse identifies Staphylococcus aureus

    • D. 

      Oxidase differentiates enterobacteria

  • 32. 
    All of these:  hand gloves, eye goggles, hand sanitizers, Laboratory coat, face mask are referred to as: 
    • A. 

      Personal Protective Agents

    • B. 

      Personal Protective Barriers

    • C. 

      Personal protective Covers

    • D. 

      Personal protective Devices

    • E. 

      Personal Protective Equipment

  • 33. 
    Ebola can be diagnosed retrospectively in deceased by at least one of these tests 
    • A. 

      RG-PCR

    • B. 

      Immunohistochemistry

    • C. 

      Serology

    • D. 

      Electrophoresis

  • 34. 
    Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for 
    • A. 

      Beta-hemolytic streptococci

    • B. 

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • D. 

      Staphylococcus albus

  • 35. 
    In testing for tuberculosis (tuberculin test), which of the following statement is false: 
    • A. 

      Testing for cutaneous reactivity (Mantoux/Heaf tests) is of limited value in diagnosis of active disease.

    • B. 

      A strongly positive test suggests active disease or recent infection

    • C. 

      Weakly positive/Completely non-reactive test exclude active TB

    • D. 

      Many HIV positive patients will have false-negative tuberculin test

  • 36. 
    The following statements are true except 
    • A. 

      Ebola is a zoonotic disease

    • B. 

      Lassa fever can present with haemorrhagic symptoms

    • C. 

      Marburg virus disease can present with haemorrhagic symptoms

    • D. 

      Lassa fever was discovered in Nigeria

    • E. 

      Incubation period for Ebola virus disease 21 days.

  • 37. 
    In the diagnosis of malaria, the following statements are true, except: 
    • A. 

      Thin film is helpful in specie identification

    • B. 

      Thin film has low sensitivity

    • C. 

      Thick film is the best method to answer the question, "does the patient has malaria"

    • D. 

      A positive blood film always proved the patient has malaria

    • E. 

      A single negative film does not always exclude the patient is suffering from malaria

  • 38. 
    In the diagnosis of typhoid and paratyphoid fever, which of the following statement would you not agree with? 
    • A. 

      Widal test is widely used

    • B. 

      The antigens "O" and "H" are referred to as somatic and flagellar respectively

    • C. 

      As with most bacterial infections, WBC count is usually high

    • D. 

      Culture of the organism is the mainstay of the diagnosis

  • 39. 
    In performing a difficult venepuncture which involves a femoral tap, which of the follwing statement is true: 
    • A. 

      The femoral vein is medial to the femoral artery

    • B. 

      The femoral vein is lateral to the femoral artery

    • C. 

      The femoral nerve is medial to the femoral vein

    • D. 

      The femoral artery is lateral to femoral nerve

    • E. 

      The femoral vein is lying above the femoral artery

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      28

    • B. 

      23

    • C. 

      21

    • D. 

      18

    • E. 

      16

  • 41. 
    Choose the definition ofEDUCATE:
    • A. 

      A. enlighten

    • B. 

      B) lazy

    • C. 

      C) communicate

    • D. 

      D) unpolished

  • 42. 
    Choose the definition ofBATTON:
    • A. 

      A) hood

    • B. 

      B) strip of wood

    • C. 

      C) want

    • D. 

      D) boat

  • 43. 
    Choose the definition ofTENSE:
    • A. 

      A) relaxed

    • B. 

      B) stiff

    • C. 

      C) slender

    • D. 

      D) shinny

  • 44. 
    Fill in the blanks with the best fit pair.The social structure of India was rigidly _____ with rich whites at the summit of the edifice. Hidebound notions of ‘castle’ ______ ‘coloured’ from moving freely within the system
    • A. 

      A) Pragmatic … polarized

    • B. 

      B) Hierarchical …deterred

    • C. 

      C) Therapeutic .. cozened

    • D. 

      D) Chimerical… obfuscated

  • 45. 
    Fill in the blanks with the best fit pair.Famous for his daring _____ deep behind Eastern enemy lines, Black Scorpion, one of the most celebrated soldiers, led his men on one dangerous mission after another with all the ____ and style of a legendary knight.
    • A. 

      A) Obsequies … persona

    • B. 

      B) Emoluments … prescience

    • C. 

      C) Philippics .. derring-do

    • D. 

      D) Forays .. panache

  • 46. 
    Fill in the blanks with the best fit pair.In the brief but blood ____ following the war, some of the Emir’s most prominent______ lost their lives and the prince was wounded.
    • A. 

      A) Schism…proselyte

    • B. 

      B) Purview…mountebanks

    • C. 

      C) Melee…vassals

    • D. 

      D) Vignette…bellwethers

  • 47. 
    Choose the opposite of SEDENTARY:
    • A. 

      A) Composure

    • B. 

      B) Migratory

    • C. 

      C) Inactive

    • D. 

      D) Stationary

  • 48. 
    Choose the opposite of DILATE:
    • A. 

      A) Stall

    • B. 

      B) Expand

    • C. 

      (c) Shrink

    • D. 

      D) Expedite

  • 49. 
    Select the option that best expresses a relationship similar to FUNNY : CLOWN
    • A. 

      A) Zealot : patrician

    • B. 

      B) Flamboyant : show off

    • C. 

      C) Effusive : gush

    • D. 

      (d) Paint : canvas

  • 50. 
    Select the option that best expresses a relationship similar to JUDGE : ADJUDICATE
    • A. 

      (a)Lawyer : propitiate

    • B. 

      (b) Bodyguard : guide

    • C. 

      (c) Doctor : surgery

    • D. 

      (e) Suburb : neighborhood

  • 51. 
    If 3x – 2 = 7, then 4x =
    • A. 

      (a) 3

    • B. 

      (b) 20/3

    • C. 

      (c) 9

    • D. 

      (d) 12

  • 52. 
    A jar contains between 50 and 60 marbles. If the marbles are counted out 3 at a time, 1 is left over; if they are counted out 4 at a time, 3 are left over. How many marbles are in the jar?
    • A. 

      (a) 52

    • B. 

      (b) 54

    • C. 

      (c) 55

    • D. 

      (d) 58

  • 53. 
    A taxi charges ₦100 for the first one-fifth kilometres of a trip and ₦20 for each following one-fifth kilometre or part thereof. If a trip is 2.5km long, what is the fare?
    • A. 

      (a) ₦260

    • B. 

      (b) ₦310

    • C. 

      (c) ₦320

    • D. 

      (d) ₦340

  • 54. 
    Said has an average of 88 on his first three tests. What grade must he get on his fourth to have an overall average of 90?
    • A. 

      (a) 92

    • B. 

      (b) 93

    • C. 

      (c) 94

    • D. 

      (d) 96

  • 55. 
    A book is on sale for ₦48, which is a 20% discount off the list price. How much would you pay if you got a 30% discount off the list price?
    • A. 

      (a) ₦40

    • B. 

      (b) ₦40.32

    • C. 

      (c) ₦42

    • D. 

      (d) ₦44

  • 56. 
    (k – 6) (5 – k) (k – 5) (6 – k) =
    • A. 

      (a) (k2 – 25) (k2 – 36)

    • B. 

      (b) –(k2 – 25) (k2 – 36)

    • C. 

      (c) 0

    • D. 

      (d) –(k – 6)2 )k – 5)2

  • 57. 
    (2 + √3) (2 – √3) =
    • A. 

      (a) -5

    • B. 

      (b) -1

    • C. 

      (c) 1

    • D. 

      (d) 1 – 2√3

  • 58. 
    2,3,5,8,12,17,23…. What number comes next?
    • A. 

      (a) 35

    • B. 

      (b) 30

    • C. 

      (c) 33

    • D. 

      (d) 31

  • 59. 
    IF qx – py = 26, then 3qx – 3py =
    • A. 

      (a) 13

    • B. 

      (b) 23

    • C. 

      (c) 78

    • D. 

      (d) 75

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      (a) -13

    • B. 

      (b) 19

    • C. 

      (c) 27

    • D. 

      (d) 35