Med Surg GI Disorders

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| By Chimene02
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Chimene02
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 602
Questions: 43 | Attempts: 612

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Disease Quizzes & Trivia

This is a basic N250 quiz pertaining the various diseases of the GI system. . . Enjoy.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is not an education tool required prior to an endoscopic procedure?

    • A.

      The purpose of the procedure

    • B.

      What to expect during the procedure

    • C.

      How long the procedure will take

    • D.

      Preparation required prior to the surgery

    Correct Answer
    C. How long the procedure will take
    Explanation
    The length of endoscopies varies and it is also the least important education tool for the patient.

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  • 2. 

    All are complications of endoscopic procedures EXCEPT?

    • A.

      Perforation

    • B.

      Aspiration

    • C.

      Hemorrhage

    • D.

      Paracentesis

    Correct Answer
    D. Paracentesis
    Explanation
    Paracentesis is a diagnostic tool, not a complication.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Which patient is most susceptible for acquiring secondary stomatitis?

    • A.

      An AIDs patient suffering from pneumonia

    • B.

      An 65 y/o obese female

    • C.

      A 45 y/o male suffering from colon cancer

    • D.

      A 50 y/o male with CHF

    Correct Answer
    A. An AIDs patient suffering from pneumonia
    Explanation
    Secondary stomatitis results from infection by oppourtunistic viruses or bacteria. In this case, the patient with AIDs is, likely, the most immunosuppressed.

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  • 4. 

    When assessing a client during a routine checkup, the nurse reviews the history and notes that the client had aphthous stomatitis at the time of the last visit. Aphthous stomatitis is best described as:

    • A.

      A canker sore of the oral soft tissues

    • B.

      An acute stomach infection

    • C.

      Acid indigestion

    • D.

      An early sign of peptic ulcer disease

    Correct Answer
    A. A canker sore of the oral soft tissues
    Explanation
    Aphthous stomatitis refers to a canker sore of the oral soft tissues, including the lips, tongue, and inside of the cheeks.

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  • 5. 

    Which item is unneccessary when examing the oral cavity of a patient with candidiasis?

    • A.

      Gloves

    • B.

      Penlight

    • C.

      Gown

    • D.

      Tongue blade

    Correct Answer
    C. Gown
    Explanation
    When examining the oral cavity of a patient with candidiasis, a gown is unnecessary. Candidiasis is a fungal infection that affects the mouth, and it does not pose a risk of transmission through contact with clothing. However, gloves are essential to prevent the spread of infection, as candidiasis can be contagious. A penlight is necessary to provide proper illumination for the examination, and a tongue blade is used to hold the patient's tongue down for better visibility.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is an inappropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with malignant tumors of the oral cavity?

    • A.

      Impaired oral mucous membranes

    • B.

      Defieceint fluid volume

    • C.

      Acute pain

    • D.

      Risk for ineffective airway clearance

    Correct Answer
    B. Defieceint fluid volume
    Explanation
    The nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume is inappropriate for a client with malignant tumors of the oral cavity because it does not directly relate to the condition. Malignant tumors of the oral cavity primarily affect the oral mucous membranes and can cause impaired oral mucous membranes, acute pain, and risk for ineffective airway clearance. However, deficient fluid volume is not directly associated with this condition and may not be a priority concern for the client.

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  • 7. 

    The graduate nurse and her preceptor are establishing priorities for their morning assessments. Which client should they assess first?

    • A.

      The newly admitted client with acute abdominal pain

    • B.

      The client who needs an abdominal dressing changed (POD 3)

    • C.

      The client receiving continuous tube feedings who needs the tube-feeding residual checked

    • D.

      The sleeping client who received pain medication 1 hour ago

    Correct Answer
    A. The newly admitted client with acute abdominal pain
    Explanation
    The graduate nurse and her preceptor should assess the new admission with acute abdominal pain first because he just arrived on the floor and might be unstable. Next, they should change the abdominal dressing for the postoperative client or measure feeding tube residual in the client with continuous tube feedings.

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  • 8. 

    Gastroesophageal reflux disease is the abnormal _____ of the lower esophageal sphincter.

    • A.

      Relaxation

    • B.

      Constriction

    • C.

      Abscence

    • D.

      Reduction

    Correct Answer
    A. Relaxation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is relaxation because gastroesophageal reflux disease is caused by the abnormal relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter. This relaxation allows stomach acid and partially digested food to flow back into the esophagus, causing symptoms such as heartburn and acid reflux.

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  • 9. 

    Which foods should a patient with GERD stay away from (multiple answers)?

    • A.

      Burger King double cheeseburger

    • B.

      Lettuce

    • C.

      Candy canes

    • D.

      Chocolate espresso

    • E.

      White bread

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Burger King double cheeseburger
    C. Candy canes
    D. Chocolate espresso
    Explanation
    Patients with GERD should avoid peppermint, alcohol, caffeinated beverages, chocolate, tea, and coffee

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction?

    • A.

      Lie down after meals to promote digestion

    • B.

      Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages

    • C.

      Take antacids with meals

    • D.

      Limit fluid intake with meals

    Correct Answer
    B. Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages
    Explanation
    To prevent reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, the nurse should advise the client to avoid foods and beverages that increase stomach acid, such as coffee and alcohol.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not a common symptom of GERD?

    • A.

      Dyspepsia

    • B.

      Regurgitation

    • C.

      Dysphagia

    • D.

      Hyposalivation

    Correct Answer
    D. Hyposalivation
    Explanation
    Hypersalivation, aka water brash, occurs in response to reflux, not hyposalivation.

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  • 12. 

    Which drug class isn't used to treat GERD?

    • A.

      Antacids

    • B.

      Histamine receptor antagonists

    • C.

      Beta blockers

    • D.

      Proton pump inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    C. Beta blockers
    Explanation
    Beta blockers are not used to treat GERD because they primarily work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels, reducing heart rate and blood pressure. They do not directly affect the production of stomach acid or the function of the esophagus, which are the main targets for treating GERD. Antacids, histamine receptor antagonists, and proton pump inhibitors, on the other hand, are commonly used to treat GERD as they help reduce stomach acid production or neutralize existing acid in the stomach.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following has the least important role in terms of peptic ulcer formation?

    • A.

      Acid

    • B.

      NSAID use

    • C.

      Prescence of H. pylori

    • D.

      Hypertension

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypertension
    Explanation
    Hypertension has the least important role in terms of peptic ulcer formation. Peptic ulcers are primarily caused by the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria, acid secretion in the stomach, and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Hypertension, or high blood pressure, does not directly contribute to the development of peptic ulcers. While it may indirectly affect the healing process of ulcers by increasing the risk of complications and delaying recovery, it is not a significant factor in their formation.

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  • 14. 

    A client is admitted to the health care facility with a diagnosis of a bleeding gastric ulcer. The nurse expects this client's stools to be:

    • A.

      Coffee-ground-like

    • B.

      Clay-colored

    • C.

      Black and tarry

    • D.

      Bright red

    Correct Answer
    C. Black and tarry
    Explanation
    Black, tarry stools are a sign of bleeding high in the GI tract, as from a gastric ulcer, and result from the action of digestive enzymes on the blood.

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  • 15. 

    Which diagnostic test would be used first to evaluate a client with upper GI bleeding?

    • A.

      Endoscopy

    • B.

      Upper GI series

    • C.

      Hemoglobin (Hb) levels and hematocrit (HCT

    • D.

      Arteriography

    Correct Answer
    C. Hemoglobin (Hb) levels and hematocrit (HCT
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin and hematocrit are typically performed first in clients with upper GI bleeding to evaluate the extent of blood loss. Endoscopy is then performed to directly visualize the upper GI tract and locate the source of bleeding.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following isn't a complication of peptic ulcer disease?

    • A.

      Perforation

    • B.

      GI bleeding

    • C.

      Pyloric obstruction

    • D.

      Pain

    Correct Answer
    D. Pain
    Explanation
    Pain is a symptom of PUD, not a complication

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    Which of the following are goals of drug therapy in the treatment of PUD (multiple answers)?

    • A.

      Provide pain relief

    • B.

      Prevent recurrence

    • C.

      Heal ulcerations

    • D.

      Eradicate H. pylori infection

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Provide pain relief
    B. Prevent recurrence
    C. Heal ulcerations
    D. Eradicate H. pylori infection
    Explanation
    All are goals

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    An elderly client with Alzheimer's disease begins supplemental tube feedings through a gastrostomy tube to provide adequate calorie intake. The nurse should be concerned most with the potential for:

    • A.

      Hyperglycemia

    • B.

      Fluid volume excess

    • C.

      Aspiration

    • D.

      Constipation

    Correct Answer
    C. Aspiration
    Explanation
    Of the choices listed, aspiration is the most serious potential complication of tube feedings. Dehydration — not fluid volume excess — is a concern because of decreased free water intake.

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  • 19. 

    A client who underwent abdominal surgery who has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place begins to complain of abdominal pain that he describes as "feeling full and uncomfortable." Which assessment should the nurse perform first?

    • A.

      Measure abdominal girth

    • B.

      Auscultate bowel sounds

    • C.

      Assess patency of the NG tube

    • D.

      Assess vital signs

    Correct Answer
    C. Assess patency of the NG tube
    Explanation
    When an NG tube is no longer patent, stomach contents collect in the stomach giving the client a sensation of fullness

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    To verify the placement of a gastric feeding tube, the nurse should perform at least two tests. One test requires instilling air into the tube with a syringe and listening with a stethoscope for air passing into the stomach. Which is another test method?

    • A.

      Aspiration of gastric contents and testing for a pH less than 6

    • B.

      Instillation of 30 ml of water while listening with a stethoscope

    • C.

      Cessation of reflex gagging

    • D.

      Ensuring proper measurement of the tube before insertion

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspiration of gastric contents and testing for a pH less than 6
    Explanation
    Aspiration of gastric secretions with a pH less than 6 indicates placement in the stomach.

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  • 21. 

    The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has developed a paralytic ileus. The client's bowel sounds will be:

    • A.

      Hyperactive

    • B.

      Hypoactive

    • C.

      High-pitched

    • D.

      Blowing

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypoactive
    Explanation
    If a paralytic ileus occurs, bowel sounds will be hypoactive or absent. Hyperactive bowel sounds may signify hunger, intestinal obstruction, or diarrhea.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following would you NOT teach a patient recently diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome?

    • A.

      Identifying food intolerances and needed dietary modifications

    • B.

      Decreasing fiber intake

    • C.

      Avoiding coffee and and limiting alcohol intake

    • D.

      Stress management

    Correct Answer
    B. Decreasing fiber intake
    Explanation
    Fiber supplements are usually recommended

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    Which of the following are appropriate nursing diagnoses for patients with colorectal cancer (multiple answers)?

    • A.

      Altered level of consciousness

    • B.

      Disturbed body image

    • C.

      Deficient fluid volume

    • D.

      Acute/ chronic pain

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Disturbed body image
    C. Deficient fluid volume
    D. Acute/ chronic pain
    Explanation
    The appropriate nursing diagnoses for patients with colorectal cancer include disturbed body image, deficient fluid volume, and acute/chronic pain. Colorectal cancer and its treatments can have a significant impact on a patient's body image, causing distress and a need for emotional support. Additionally, the disease and its treatments can lead to fluid imbalances, requiring careful monitoring and intervention to maintain adequate hydration. Finally, patients with colorectal cancer often experience pain, both acute and chronic, which requires assessment and management to improve their comfort and quality of life.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not a complication of colorectal cancer?

    • A.

      Metastases

    • B.

      Bleeding

    • C.

      Seizures

    • D.

      Infection

    Correct Answer
    C. Seizures
    Explanation
    Seizures are not a complication of colorectal cancer. Colorectal cancer is a type of cancer that affects the colon or rectum, and it can lead to various complications such as metastases (spreading of cancer to other parts of the body), bleeding, and infection. However, seizures are not directly associated with colorectal cancer. Seizures are more commonly seen in conditions such as epilepsy, brain tumors, or certain neurological disorders.

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  • 25. 

    Which foods should patients with colorectal cancer avoid (multiple answers)?

    • A.

      Fish and chips

    • B.

      Boiled carrots and broccoli

    • C.

      Beef and cabbage

    • D.

      Concentrated sweets

    • E.

      Whole-grain products

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Fish and chips
    C. Beef and cabbage
    D. Concentrated sweets
    Explanation
    Patients should avoid red meat, animal fat, fatty foods, fried meats/ fish, and concentrated sweets.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    A client has undergone a colon resection. While turning him, wound dehiscence with evisceration occurs. The nurse's first response is to:

    • A.

      Call the physician

    • B.

      Place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the wound

    • C.

      Take a blood pressure and pulse

    • D.

      Take a blood pressure and pulse

    Correct Answer
    B. Place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the wound
    Explanation
    The nurse should first place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the open wound to prevent tissue drying and possible infection. Then the nurse should call the physician and take the client's vital signs.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    For a client who must undergo colon surgery, the physician orders preoperative cleansing enemas and neomycin sulfate (Mycifradin). The rationale for neomycin use in this client is to:

    • A.

      Control postoperative nausea and vomiting

    • B.

      Decrease the intestinal bacteria count

    • C.

      Increase the intestinal bacteria count

    • D.

      Prevent the development of megacolon

    Correct Answer
    B. Decrease the intestinal bacteria count
    Explanation
    The antibiotic neomycin sulfate (Mycifradin) is prescribed to decrease the bacterial count and reduce the risk of fecal contamination during surgery.

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  • 28. 

    Which is the least likely to cause constipation?

    • A.

      High fiber intake

    • B.

      Being over 75

    • C.

      Overuse of laxatives

    • D.

      Immobilization

    Correct Answer
    A. High fiber intake
    Explanation
    High fiber intake is least likely to cause constipation because fiber adds bulk to the stool and helps to move it through the digestive system. It promotes regular bowel movements and prevents constipation. On the other hand, being over 75, overuse of laxatives, and immobilization can all contribute to constipation. Being older can lead to slower digestion and decreased muscle tone in the intestines, while overuse of laxatives can cause the body to become reliant on them for bowel movements. Immobilization, such as being bedridden or sedentary, can also slow down digestion and lead to constipation.

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  • 29. 

    A 72-year-old client seeks help for chronic constipation. This is a common problem for elderly clients due to several factors related to aging. Which is one such factor?  

    • A.

      Increased intestinal motility

    • B.

      Decreased abdominal strength

    • C.

      Increased gastric aid production

    • D.

      Hyperactive bowel sounds

    Correct Answer
    B. Decreased abdominal strength
    Explanation
    Decreased abdominal strength, muscle tone of the intestinal wall, and motility all contribute to chronic constipation in the elderly.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    Which medication should the nurse expect to administer to a client with constipation?

    • A.

      Lorazepam (Ativan)

    • B.

      Loperamide (Imodium)

    • C.

      Flurbiprofen (Ansaid)

    • D.

      Docusate sodium (Colace)

    Correct Answer
    D. Docusate sodium (Colace)
    Explanation
    Docusate sodium, a laxative, is used to treat constipation. It softens the stool by stimulating the secretion of intestinal fluid into the stool.

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  • 31. 

    Which outcome indicates effective client teaching to prevent constipation?

    • A.

      The client verbalizes consumption of low-fiber foods

    • B.

      The client maintains a sedentary lifestyle

    • C.

      The client limits water intake to three glasses per day

    • D.

      The client reports engaging in a regular exercise regimen

    Correct Answer
    D. The client reports engaging in a regular exercise regimen
    Explanation
    A regular exercise regimen promotes peristalsis and contributes to regular bowel elimination patterns. A low-fiber diet, a sedentary lifestyle, and limited water intake would predispose the client to constipation.

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  • 32. 

    In regards to appendicitis, the location of pain in the lower, right abdominal quadrant is called:

    • A.

      Kernig's sign

    • B.

      Mc Burney's point

    • C.

      Brudzinski's point

    • D.

      Schrute's point

    Correct Answer
    B. Mc Burney's point
    Explanation
    Mc Burney's point is the correct answer because it refers to the location of pain in the lower, right abdominal quadrant in cases of appendicitis. This point is located between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine, approximately one-third of the distance. It is a significant clinical finding used to diagnose appendicitis and is named after the American surgeon Charles McBurney.

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  • 33. 

    When preparing a client, age 50, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?

    • A.

      The appendectomy surgery is very invasive and it puts the client at a risk for infection

    • B.

      Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix.

    • C.

      Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage

    • D.

      The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client

    Correct Answer
    B. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix.
    Explanation
    A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following assessment findings suggests early appendicitis?

    • A.

      Nausea and vomiting

    • B.

      Periumbilical pain

    • C.

      Tense positioning

    • D.

      Abdominal rigdity

    Correct Answer
    B. Periumbilical pain
    Explanation
    Periumbilical pain is the initial symptom, followed by nausea and vomiting.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is not an appropriate nursing diagnosis related to appendicitis?

    • A.

      Disturbed body image

    • B.

      Acute pain

    • C.

      Risk for infection r/t rupture

    • D.

      Deficient knowledge

    Correct Answer
    A. Disturbed body image
    Explanation
    Disturbed body image is not an appropriate nursing diagnosis related to appendicitis because it is not directly associated with the physical condition of the appendix. Appendicitis primarily involves symptoms such as acute pain, risk for infection due to rupture, and potential lack of knowledge about the condition and its management. Disturbed body image is more commonly associated with conditions that affect one's physical appearance or bodily functions, rather than a specific organ inflammation like appendicitis.

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  • 36. 

    While preparing a client for cholecystectomy, the nurse explains that incentive spirometry will be used after surgery primarily to:

    • A.

      Increase respiratory effectiveness.

    • B.

      Eliminate the need for nasogastric intubation.

    • C.

      Improve nutritional status during recovery.

    • D.

      Decrease the amount of postoperative analgesia needed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase respiratory effectiveness.
    Explanation
    The high abdominal incision used in a cholecystectomy interferes with respirations postoperatively, increasing the risk of atelectasis.

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  • 37. 

    Which task can the nurse delegate to a nursing assistant?

    • A.

      Irrigating a nasogastric (NG) tube

    • B.

      Assisting a client who had surgery three days ago walk down the hallway

    • C.

      Helping a client who just returned from surgery to the bathroom

    • D.

      Administering an antacid to a client complaining of heartburn

    Correct Answer
    B. Assisting a client who had surgery three days ago walk down the hallway
    Explanation
    Because the client had surgery three days ago, the nurse can safely delegate the task of helping the client walk down the hallway.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    How are ulcerative colitis and Chron's disease definitively diagnosed?

    • A.

      EGD

    • B.

      CBC

    • C.

      Stool sample

    • D.

      Colonoscopy

    Correct Answer
    D. Colonoscopy
    Explanation
    Colonoscopy is the correct answer because it is the most definitive diagnostic test for both ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. It allows direct visualization of the colon and rectum, enabling the detection of characteristic signs such as inflammation, ulcers, and strictures. EGD (esophagogastroduodenoscopy) is used to examine the upper gastrointestinal tract and is not specific for these conditions. CBC (complete blood count) can show signs of inflammation but is not specific enough for a definitive diagnosis. Stool samples can help identify infections or other causes of gastrointestinal symptoms but are not definitive for ulcerative colitis or Crohn's disease.

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  • 39. 

    What is toxic megacolon (mulitple answers)?

    • A.

      A complication of ulcerative colitis

    • B.

      Dilation and paralysis of the colon

    • C.

      A fistula

    • D.

      A risk factor for pancreatitis

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A complication of ulcerative colitis
    B. Dilation and paralysis of the colon
    Explanation
    Toxic megacolon is a condition characterized by the dilation and paralysis of the colon, which is a complication of ulcerative colitis. It is not a fistula or a risk factor for pancreatitis. Ulcerative colitis causes inflammation and ulcers in the colon, and in severe cases, it can lead to the colon becoming enlarged and losing its ability to contract and move stool. This can result in life-threatening complications such as perforation or rupture of the colon.

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  • 40. 

    A 28-year-old client is admitted with inflammatory bowel syndrome (Crohn's disease). Which therapies should the nurse expect to be part of the care plan? Check all that apply 

    • A.

      Lactulose therapy

    • B.

      High-fiber diet

    • C.

      High-protein milkshakes

    • D.

      Corticosteroid therapy

    • E.

      Antidiarrheal medications

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. Corticosteroid therapy
    E. Antidiarrheal medications
    Explanation
    Corticosteroids, such as prednisone, reduce the signs and symptoms of diarrhea, pain, and bleeding by decreasing inflammation. Antidiarrheals, such as diphenoxylate (Lomotil), combat diarrhea by decreasing peristalsis.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    A client is diagnosed with Crohn's disease after undergoing two weeks of testing. The client's boss calls the medical-surgical floor requesting to speak with the nurse manager. He expresses concern over the client and explains that he must know the client's diagnosis for insurance purposes. Which response by the nurse is best?

    • A.

      "Sure, I understand how demanding insurance companies can be."

    • B.

      "I appreciate your concern, but I can't give out any information."

    • C.

      "Why don't you come in, and we can further discuss this issue."

    • D.

      "He has been diagnosed with Crohn's Disease."

    Correct Answer
    B. "I appreciate your concern, but I can't give out any information."
    Explanation
    The nurse may not release any confidential information to unauthorized individuals, such as the client's boss. Options 1, 3, and 4 breech client confidentiality.

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  • 42. 

    A client with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a colonoscopy. How should the nurse position the client for this test initially?

    • A.

      Lying on the right side with legs straight

    • B.

      Lying on the left side with knees bent

    • C.

      Prone with the torso elevated

    • D.

      Bent over with hands touching the floor

    Correct Answer
    B. Lying on the left side with knees bent
    Explanation
    For a colonoscopy, the nurse initially should position the client on the left side with knees bent to allow proper visualization of the large intestine.

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  • 43. 

    A client has a newly created colostomy. After participating in counseling with the nurse and receiving support from the spouse, the client decides to change the colostomy pouch unaided. Which behavior suggests that the client is beginning to accept the change in body image?

    • A.

      The client asks his wife to leave the room

    • B.

      The client closes the eyes when the abdomen is exposed

    • C.

      The client avoids talking about the recent surgery

    • D.

      The client touches the altered body part

    Correct Answer
    D. The client touches the altered body part
    Explanation
    By touching the altered body part, the client recognizes the body change and establishes that the change is real. Closing the eyes, not looking at the abdomen when the colostomy is exposed, or avoiding talking about the surgery reflects denial.

    Rate this question:

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 25, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Chimene02
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