Maternal And Child Health Nursing Test II - Set A

25 Questions | Total Attempts: 1052

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Maternal And Child Health Nursing NCLEX Quizzes & Trivia

This contains 25 items Questions about Maternal and Child Health Nursing For Answer Key visit: Maternal and Child Health Nursing Test II - Set A: Answer with Rationale For Nursing Review test visit: www. NurseTopic. Com


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion?
    • A. 

      Sperm count

    • B. 

      Sperm motility

    • C. 

      Sperm maturity

    • D. 

      Semen volume

  • 2. 
    Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester?
    • A. 

      Dysuria

    • B. 

      Frequency

    • C. 

      Incontinence

    • D. 

      Burning

  • 3. 
    Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Increased plasma HCG levels

    • B. 

      Decreased intestinal motility

    • C. 

      Decreased gastric acidity

    • D. 

      Elevated estrogen levels

  • 4. 
    On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma?
    • A. 

      Breast, areola, and nipples

    • B. 

      Chest, neck, arms, and legs

    • C. 

      Abdomen, breast, and thighs

    • D. 

      Cheeks, forehead, and nose

  • 5. 
    A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on which of the following as the cause?
    • A. 

      The large size of the newborn

    • B. 

      Pressure on the pelvic muscles

    • C. 

      Relaxation of the pelvic joints

    • D. 

      Excessive weight gain

  • 6. 
    Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy?
    • A. 

      12 to 22 lb

    • B. 

      15 to 25 lb

    • C. 

      24 to 30 lb

    • D. 

      25 to 40 lb

  • 7. 
    Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
    • A. 

      Hegar sign

    • B. 

      Nausea and vomiting

    • C. 

      Skin pigmentation changes

    • D. 

      Positive serum pregnancy test

  • 8. 
    During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition?
    • A. 

      Prepregnant period

    • B. 

      First trimester

    • C. 

      Second trimester

    • D. 

      Third trimester

  • 9. 
    Which of the following would be disadvantage of breast feeding?
    • A. 

      Involution occurs more rapidly

    • B. 

      The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal antibodies

    • C. 

      The father may resent the infant’s demands on the mother’s body

    • D. 

      There is a greater chance for error during preparation

  • 10. 
    A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?
    • A. 

      January 2

    • B. 

      March 28

    • C. 

      April 12

    • D. 

      October 12

  • 11. 
    Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?
    • A. 

      Uterus in the pelvis

    • B. 

      Uterus at the xiphoid

    • C. 

      Uterus in the abdomen

    • D. 

      Uterus at the umbilicus

  • 12. 
    Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant?
    • A. 

      Hematocrit 33.5%

    • B. 

      Rubella titer less than 1:8

    • C. 

      White blood cells 8,000/mm3

    • D. 

      One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL

  • 13. 
    Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor?
    • A. 

      Occurring at irregular intervals

    • B. 

      Starting mainly in the abdomen

    • C. 

      Gradually increasing intervals

    • D. 

      Increasing intensity with walking

  • 14. 
    During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”?
    • A. 

      First stage

    • B. 

      Second stage

    • C. 

      Third stage

    • D. 

      Fourth stage

  • 15. 
    Which of the following actions demonstrates the nurse’s understanding about the newborn’s thermoregulatory ability?
    • A. 

      Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer.

    • B. 

      Suctioning with a bulb syringe

    • C. 

      Obtaining an Apgar score

    • D. 

      Inspecting the newborn’s umbilical cord

  • 16. 
    Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements occur?
    • A. 

      Descent

    • B. 

      Flexion

    • C. 

      Extension

    • D. 

      External rotation

  • 17. 
    Which of the following when present in the urine may cause a reddish stain on the diaper of a newborn?
    • A. 

      Mucus

    • B. 

      Uric acid crystals

    • C. 

      Bilirubin

    • D. 

      Excess iron

  • 18. 
    Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the newborn?
    • A. 

      The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior is diamond shaped.

    • B. 

      The posterior closes at 18 months; the anterior closes at 8 to 12 weeks.

    • C. 

      The anterior is large in size when compared to the posterior fontanel.

    • D. 

      The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears sunken.

  • 19. 
    Which of the following statements best describes hyperemesis gravidarum?
    • A. 

      Severe anemia leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.

    • B. 

      Severe nausea and vomiting leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.

    • C. 

      Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that commonly results in dehydration and ultimately decreasing maternal nutrients

    • D. 

      Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause gastrointestinal irritation and possibly internal bleeding

  • 20. 
    In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy tests?
    • A. 

      Threatened

    • B. 

      Imminent

    • C. 

      Missed

    • D. 

      Incomplete

  • 21. 
    Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client experiencing abruptio placenta?
    • A. 

      Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding

    • B. 

      Concealed or external dark red bleeding

    • C. 

      Palpable fetal outline

    • D. 

      Soft and nontender abdomen

  • 22. 
    Which of the following is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage?
    • A. 

      Placenta previa

    • B. 

      Ectopic pregnancy

    • C. 

      Incompetent cervix

    • D. 

      Abruptio placentae

  • 23. 
    When PROM occurs, which of the following provides evidence of the nurse’s understanding of the client’s immediate needs?
    • A. 

      The chorion and amnion rupture 4 hours before the onset of labor.

    • B. 

      PROM removes the fetus most effective defense against infection

    • C. 

      Nursing care is based on fetal viability and gestational age.

    • D. 

      PROM is associated with malpresentation and possibly incompetent cervix

  • 24. 
    Which of the following amounts of blood loss following birth marks the criterion for describing postpartum hemorrhage?
    • A. 

      More than 200 ml

    • B. 

      More than 300 ml

    • C. 

      More than 400 ml

    • D. 

      More than 500 ml

  • 25. 
    Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect if the client develops DVT?
    • A. 

      Midcalf pain, tenderness and redness along the vein

    • B. 

      Chills, fever, malaise, occurring 2 weeks after delivery

    • C. 

      Muscle pain the presence of Homans sign, and swelling in the affected limb

    • D. 

      Chills, fever, stiffness, and pain occurring 10 to 14 days after delivery

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