Maternal And Child Health Nursing (Intrapartum And Postpartum)

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1. What the do you call the procedure whereby the OB/GYN physician removes amniotic fluid sample from the uterus during 14th to 16 th weeks of gestation?

Explanation

Amniocentesis is the procedure where an OB/GYN physician removes a sample of amniotic fluid from the uterus during the 14th to 16th weeks of gestation. This procedure is commonly performed to diagnose any genetic abnormalities or chromosomal disorders in the fetus. It involves inserting a needle into the amniotic sac and withdrawing a small amount of fluid for testing. Amniocentesis is a crucial diagnostic tool in prenatal care and allows for early detection of potential health issues in the unborn baby.

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About This Quiz
Maternal And Child Health Nursing (Intrapartum And Postpartum) - Quiz

Welcome to Maternal and Child Health Nursing (HESI EXAMINATION) Prepared by: Jeffrey Viernes
The care of childbearing and childrearing families is a major focus of nursing practice, because to have healthy adults you must have healthy children. To have healthy children, it is important to promote the health of the childbearing... see morewoman and her family from the time before children are born until they reach adulthood. Both preconceptual and prenatal care are essential contributions to the health of a woman and fetus and to a family’s emo- tional preparation for childbearing and childrearing. As chil- dren grow, families need continued health supervision and support. As children reach maturity and plan for their fam- ilies, a new cycle begins and new support becomes nec- essary. The nurse’s role in all these phases focuses on promoting healthy growth and development of the child and family in health and in illness. Although the field of nursing typically divides its con- cerns for families during childbearing and childrearing into two separate entities, maternity care and child health care, the full scope of nursing practice in this area is not two separate entities, but one: maternal and child health nursing.
Philosophy of Maternal and Child Health Nursing • Maternal and child health nursing is family- centered; assessment data must include a family and individual assessment. • Maternal and child health nursing is community- centered; the health see less

2. What is the condition called whereby the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment. It can be classified as partially, totally, or marginal.?

Explanation

Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment. It can be classified as partially, totally, or marginal. This condition can cause bleeding during pregnancy, especially during the third trimester, and can be a risk factor for complications during childbirth. It requires close monitoring and may require medical intervention or a cesarean delivery to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

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3. A woman is seen in the prenatal clinic and complains of morning sickness. Which self care measures will the nurse suggest to the client?

Explanation

The nurse will suggest eating a dry cracker before getting out of bed in the morning as a self-care measure for morning sickness. This is because eating a dry cracker can help alleviate nausea and settle the stomach. It is a simple and easily accessible remedy that can be done before starting the day.

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4. Mrs. Lim begins to cry as the nurse discusses hair loss. The best response would be: 

Explanation

“I know this will be difficult” acknowledges the problem and suggests a resolution to it. “Don’t worry..” offers some relief but doesn’t recognize the patient’s feelings. “..I didn’t get to the bad news yet” would be inappropriate at any time. “Your hair is really pretty” offers no consolation or alternatives to the patient.

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5. A nurse is administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30 day-old infant. Which of the following tar- get areas is the most appropriate? 

Explanation

Vastus lateralis is the most appropriate location.

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6. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The nurse takes the client's vital sign hereafter. What phrase of nursing process is being implemented here by the nurse? 

Explanation

The nurse is implementing the assessment phase of the nursing process by taking the client's vital signs. Assessment involves gathering information about the client's health status, including their current symptoms and vital signs, in order to identify any potential health issues or areas of concern. By assessing the client's vital signs, the nurse is gathering important data that will help inform any further actions or decisions in the nursing process.

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7. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may experience shortness of breath. This complaint maybe explained as: 

Explanation

During the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may experience shortness of breath due to the fundus of the uterus being high and pushing the diaphragm upwards. As the uterus expands to accommodate the growing fetus, it pushes against the diaphragm, reducing the lung's capacity to fully expand and causing the feeling of breathlessness. This is a normal occurrence in pregnancy and is not necessarily a complication or an allergic reaction.

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8. Sterile technique is used whenever: 

Explanation

All invasive procedures, including surgery, catheter insertion, and administration of parenteral therapy, require sterile technique to maintain a sterile environment. All equipment must be sterile, and the nurse and the physician must wear sterile gloves and maintain surgical asepsis. In the operating room, the nurse and physician are required to wear sterile gowns, gloves, masks, hair covers, and shoe covers for all invasive procedures. Strictisolation requires the use of clean gloves, masks, gowns and equipment to prevent the transmission of highly communicable diseases by contact or by airborne routes. Terminal disinfection is the disinfection of all contaminated supplies and equipment after a patient has been discharged to prepare them for reuse by another patient. The purpose of protective (reverse)isolation is to prevent a person with seriously impaired resistance from coming into contact who potentially pathogenic organisms.

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9. The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is: 

Explanation

Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) is the hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test. This hormone is produced by the placenta after the fertilized egg implants in the uterus. hCG levels increase rapidly in the early stages of pregnancy and can be detected in a urine or blood test, indicating that a woman is pregnant. Estrogen and progesterone are also important hormones during pregnancy, but they are not specifically responsible for a positive pregnancy test. Follicle stimulating hormone is involved in the menstrual cycle and egg development, but it is not directly related to pregnancy.

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10. It is best describe as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for individual, families, group and community 

Explanation

The nursing process is best described as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for individuals, families, groups, and communities. It involves a series of steps that include assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. By following this process, nurses are able to provide comprehensive and holistic care to their patients, ensuring that all their needs are met and that the care provided is evidence-based and effective.

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11. A patient asks a nurse, "My doctor recom- mended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain the highest concentration of folic acids?" 

Explanation

Green vegetables and liver are a great source of folic acid.

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12. The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period started on January 14 and ended on January 20. Using Nagele's rule, the nurse determines her EDD to be which of the following? 

Explanation

To calculate the EDD by Nagele’s rule, add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period and count back 3 months, changing the year appropriately. To obtain a date of September 27, 7 days have been added to the last day of the LMP (rather than the first day of the LMP), plus 4 months (instead of 3 months) were counted back. To obtain the date of November 7, 7 days have been subtracted (instead of added) from the first day of LMP plus November indicates counting back 2 months (instead of 3 months) from January. To obtain the date of December 27, 7 days were added to the last day of the LMP (rather than the first day of the LMP) and December indicates counting back only 1 month (instead of 3 months) from January.

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13. When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who states, "I had a son born at 38 weeks gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at about 8 weeks,"the nurse should record her obstetrical history as which of the following? 

Explanation

The client has been pregnant four times, including current pregnancy (G). Birth at 38 weeks’ gestation is considered full term (T), while birth form 20 weeks to 38 weeks is considered preterm (P). A spontaneous abortion occurred at 8 weeks (A). She has two living children (L).

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14. The nurse is preparing to take vital sign in an alert client admitted to the hospital with dehydration secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to assess the client's temperature? 

Explanation

The best method used to assess the client's temperature in this scenario is the axillary method. This is because the client is alert and able to cooperate with the nurse, making it possible to obtain an accurate temperature reading through the armpit. Additionally, the client's condition of dehydration may affect oral temperature readings, and the radial method is not commonly used for assessing temperature. Heat sensitive tape is not a reliable method for temperature assessment.

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15. If there is a decrease of alpha-fetoprotein in the amniotic fluid, it would signify what disease is the fetus risk for?

Explanation

A decrease in alpha-fetoprotein in the amniotic fluid is associated with an increased risk of trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome. Trisomy 21 is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. It is characterized by intellectual disability, developmental delays, distinct physical features, and an increased risk of certain health conditions. The decrease in alpha-fetoprotein levels can be detected through prenatal screening tests and can help identify the risk of Down syndrome in the fetus.

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16. Incident of prostate cancer is found to have been reduced on a population exposed in tolerable amount of sunlight. Which vitamin is associated with this phenomenon?

Explanation

Vitamin D is associated with the reduction in the incidence of prostate cancer in a population exposed to tolerable amounts of sunlight. This is because sunlight is a natural source of vitamin D, and it plays a crucial role in regulating cell growth and preventing the development of cancer cells. Vitamin D has been found to inhibit the growth of prostate cancer cells and promote their death, thus reducing the risk of developing prostate cancer. Therefore, ensuring adequate levels of vitamin D through sunlight exposure or supplementation can help in the prevention of prostate cancer.

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17. Basing on the normal Conduction System of the heart, numer 2 is called the:

Explanation

The correct answer is AV node. In the normal conduction system of the heart, the AV node is responsible for conducting electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles. It acts as a gatekeeper, delaying the transmission of the signal to allow for the atria to fully contract before the ventricles are activated. This delay ensures efficient pumping of blood and coordination between the atria and ventricles.

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18. Match the following medical maternal terms in the first stage of labor that relates to the Intrapartum Nursing care to their appropriate descriptions.
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19. Which of the following is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage? 

Explanation

Abruptio placentae is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severehemorrhage. Placenta previa refers to implantation of the placenta in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy refers to the implantation of the products of conception in a site other than the endometrium. Incompetent cervix is a conduction characterized by painful dilation of the cervical os without uterine contractions.

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20. How would you correctly document this ECG strip on the client's chart using the correct medical terminology?

Explanation

The correct answer is "sinus rhythm" or "Sinus rhythm". Sinus rhythm refers to the normal electrical activity of the heart, where the electrical impulses originate from the sinus node. This is the normal rhythm of a healthy heart and is characterized by a regular and consistent pattern on the ECG strip. By documenting "sinus rhythm" or "Sinus rhythm" on the client's chart, it accurately describes the normal electrical activity of the heart during the ECG recording.

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21. The nurse prepare IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. Which of the following is the best action in order to prevent tracking of the medication 

Explanation

The Z track technique is the best action to prevent tracking of the medication. This technique involves pulling the skin to one side before injecting the medication, creating a zigzag or "Z" shape. This helps to seal the medication within the muscle and prevents it from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue. Using a small gauge needle may reduce discomfort, but it does not specifically prevent tracking of the medication. Applying ice on the injection site may help with pain and swelling, but it does not prevent tracking. Administering at a 45-degree angle does not have any effect on preventing tracking.

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22. Which of the following best describes preterm labor?    

Explanation

Preterm labor is best described as labor that begins after 20 weeks’ gestation and before 37 weeks’ gestation. The other time periods are inaccurate.

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23. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers? 

Explanation

Pressure ulcers are most likely to develop in patients with impaired mental status, mobility, activity level, nutrition, circulation and bladder or bowel control. Age is also a factor. Thus, the 88-year old incontinent patient who has impaired nutrition (from gastric cancer) and is confined to bed is at greater risk.

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24. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing: 

Explanation

Fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weaknesses are symptoms of hypokalemia (an inadequate potassium level), which is a potential side effect of diuretic therapy. The physician usually orders supplemental potassium to prevent hypokalemia in patients receiving diuretics. Anorexia is another symptom of hypokalemia. Dysphagia means difficulty swallowing.

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25. The main reason for an expected increased need for iron in pregnancy is: 

Explanation

The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the increased need for red blood cell mass as well as the fetal requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow
About 400 mgs of Iron is needed by the mother in order to produce more RBC mass to be able to provide the needed increase in blood supply for the fetus. Also, about 350-400 mgs of iron is need for the normal growth of the fetus. Thus, about 750-800 mgs iron supplementation is needed by the mother to meet this additional requirement.

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26. Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy? 

Explanation

An ultrasound is a positive sign of pregnancy because it can confirm the presence of a developing fetus in the uterus. This imaging technique uses sound waves to create images of the fetus and can provide important information about the health and development of the pregnancy. Fetal movement felt by the mother and enlargement of the uterus can also be signs of pregnancy, but they are subjective and can vary from person to person. A positive pregnancy test indicates the presence of the pregnancy hormone hCG, but it is not a definitive confirmation of pregnancy as false positives can occur.

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27. What is the procedure called whereby the physician removes a small piece of villi between 8 to 12 weeks' gestation under ultrasound guidance?

Explanation

Chorionic villi sampling is the procedure in which a physician removes a small piece of villi, which are finger-like projections in the placenta, between 8 to 12 weeks' gestation under ultrasound guidance. This procedure is used to diagnose genetic disorders and chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.

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28. If there is an INCREASE in alpha-fetoprotein 

Explanation

An increase in alpha-fetoprotein is associated with neural tube defects. Alpha-fetoprotein is a protein produced by the developing fetus and is normally found in high levels in the amniotic fluid and maternal blood. An increase in alpha-fetoprotein levels can indicate a problem with the development of the neural tube, which is the precursor to the brain and spinal cord. Neural tube defects are birth defects that occur when the neural tube fails to close properly during early embryonic development. This can lead to conditions such as spina bifida and anencephaly.

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29. Which of the following is an example of nursing malpractice?

Explanation

The three elements necessary to establish a nursing malpractice are nursing error (administering penicillin to a patient with a documented allergy to the drug), injury (cerebral damage), and proximal cause (administering the penicillin caused the cerebral damage). Applying a hot water bottle or heating pad to a patient without a physician’s order does not include the three required components. Assisting a patient out of bed with the bed locked in position is the correct nursing practice; therefore, the fracture was not the result of malpractice. Administering an incorrect medication is a nursing error; however, if such action resulted in a serious illness or chronic problem, the nurse could be sued for malpractice.

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30. A patient has exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) manifested by shortness of breath; orthopnea: thick, tenacious secretions; and a dry hacking cough. An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be: 

Explanation

Thick, tenacious secretions, a dry, hacking cough, orthopnea, and shortness of breath are signs of ineffective airway clearance. Ineffective airway clearance related to dry, hacking cough is incorrect because the cough is not the reason for the ineffective airway clearance. Ineffective individual coping related to COPD is wrong because the etiology for a nursing diagnosis should not be a medical diagnosis (COPD) and because no data indicate that the patient is coping ineffectively. Pain related to immobilization of affected leg would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with a leg fracture.

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31. A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse assessing the client finds the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best method to take the client's body temperature? 

Explanation

The nurse should take the client's body temperature using the axillary method. This is because the client has undergone oral surgery, which may make it difficult or uncomfortable for them to use the oral method. The skin being flushed and warm could indicate inflammation or infection, which may affect the accuracy of the oral temperature. The axillary method is a non-invasive and convenient way to measure body temperature, especially when other methods are not suitable or contraindicated.

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32. Calculate the heart rate of the patient using the ECG strip provided above.

Explanation

The answer provided is 40 bpm, 40bpm, 40. This indicates that the heart rate of the patient is 40 beats per minute.

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33. What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid to maintain the HOMEOSTASIS of the body?

Explanation

The normal ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid in the body is 20:1. This ratio is important for maintaining homeostasis, as it helps regulate the pH of the blood and other bodily fluids. Bicarbonate acts as a buffer, helping to neutralize acids in the body, while carbonic acid helps regulate the levels of carbon dioxide in the blood. This balance is crucial for proper functioning of various physiological processes in the body.

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34. A registered nurse reaches to answer the telephone on a busy pediatric unit, momentarily turning away from a 3 month-old infant she has been weighing. The infant falls off the scale, suffering a skull fracture. The nurse could be charged with: 

Explanation

Malpractice is defined as injurious or unprofessional actions that harm another. It involves professional misconduct, such as omission or commission of an act that a reasonable and prudent nurse would or would not do. In this example, the standard of care was breached; a 3-month-old infant should never be left unattended on a scale.

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35. Which of the following principles of primary nursing has proven the most satisfying to the patient and nurse? 

Explanation

Studies have shown that patients and nurses both respond well to primary nursing care units. Patients feel less anxious and isolated and more secure because they are allowed to participate in planning their own care. Nurses feel personal satisfaction, much of it related to positive feedback from the patients. They also seem to gain a greater sense of achievement and esprit de corps.

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36. Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client experiencing abruptio placenta? 

Explanation

A client with abruptio placentae may exhibit concealed or dark red bleeding, possibly reporting sudden intense localized uterine pain. The uterus is typically firm to boardlike, and the fetal presenting part may be engaged. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding, a palpable fetal outline and a soft nontender abdomen are manifestations of placenta previa.

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37. The physician orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml? 

Explanation

100ml/60 min X 15 gtt/ 1 ml = 25 gtt/minute

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38. A client with gravida 3 para 2 at 40 weeks' gestation is admitted with spontaneous contractions. The physician performs an amniotomy to augment her labor. The PRIORITY nursing action is to: Client's needs category: Physiological Integrity Cognitive level: Knowledge

Explanation

The nurse should first monitor fetal heart tone. After an amniotomy is performed, the umbilical cord may be washed down below the presenting part and cause umbilical cord compression, which would indicate by vitiable deceleration on the fetal heart tracing.

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39. An LPN assists a registered nurse in developing a teaching plan for a pregnant client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is inappropriate to include in the plan?

Explanation

This option is inappropriate to include in the teaching plan because exercise has a positive effect on insulin production and can help control diabetes. It is important for the pregnant client to engage in regular exercise as part of their diabetic management plan.

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40. An iron supplement is prescribed for a pregnant client. The nurse tells the client that it is best to take the iron supplemet with:

Explanation

Orange juice is the best option to take the iron supplement with because it contains vitamin C. Vitamin C enhances the absorption of iron in the body. Iron supplements are better absorbed in an acidic environment, and the vitamin C in orange juice helps to create this environment in the stomach. This increases the effectiveness of the iron supplement and ensures that the client is able to absorb and utilize the iron properly.

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41. When preparing the mother who is on her 4th month of pregnancy for abdominal ultrasound, the nurse should instruct her to: 

Explanation

The correct answer is to drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours before the procedure and not void until the procedure is done. This instruction is given to ensure that the mother has a full bladder during the abdominal ultrasound. A full bladder helps to push the uterus up and provides a better visualization of the fetus.

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42. Calculate the heart rate of the patient using the ECG strip above.

Explanation

The given answer states that the heart rate of the patient is 140 bpm. This indicates that the patient's heart is beating at a rate of 140 beats per minute. The ECG strip provided may contain information or patterns that suggest this heart rate. However, without visual representation of the ECG strip, it is difficult to provide a more detailed explanation.

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43. A client in the active phase of labor has a reactive fetal monitor strip and has been encouraged to walk. When she returns to bed for a monitor check, she complains for an urge to push. The nurse notes that the amniotic membranes have ruptured and she can visualize the umbilical cord. What should the nurse do next? Client's needs category: Physiological Integrity Client's needs subcategory: Reduction of risk potential Cognitive level: Analysis

Explanation

The knee to chest position gets the weight off the baby and umbilical cord, which would prevent blood flow. Calling the physician or midwife, and arranging for blood sampling are IMPORTANT, but they have a lower priority than getting the baby off the cord.

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44. If patient asks the nurse her opinion about a particular physicians and the nurse replies that the physician is incompetent, the nurse could be held liable for: 

Explanation

Oral communication that injures an individual’s reputation is considered slander. Written communication that does the same is considered libel.

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45. Deficiency of this mineral results in tetany, osteomalacia, osteoporosis and rickets.

Explanation

Calcium is the correct answer because a deficiency in this mineral can lead to various health conditions such as tetany, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and rickets. Tetany is characterized by muscle spasms and contractions, while osteomalacia and osteoporosis are conditions that weaken the bones. Rickets is a condition that affects bone development in children. Calcium is essential for maintaining strong and healthy bones, and a deficiency can result in these harmful effects on the body.

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46. It is th partial or complete premature detachment of the placenta from its site of implantation in the uterus. It is usually occuring in the late third trimester or in labor.

Explanation

Abruptio placentae refers to the partial or complete premature detachment of the placenta from its site of implantation in the uterus. This condition typically occurs in the late third trimester of pregnancy or during labor. The term "abruptio placentae" is used to describe this medical condition.

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47. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess "crowning"? 

Explanation

Crowing, which occurs when the newborn’s head
or presenting part appears at the vaginal opening, occurs during the second stage of labor. During the first stage of labor, cervical dilation and effacement occur. During the third stage of labor, the newborn and placenta are delivered. The fourth stage of labor lasts from 1 to 4 hours after birth, during which time the mother and newborn recover from the physical process of birth and the mother’s organs undergo the initial readjustment to the nonpregnant state.

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48. Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform during the third stage of labor?

Explanation

During the third stage of labor, which begins with the delivery of the newborn, the nurse would promote parent-newborn interaction by placing the newborn on the mother’s abdomen and encouraging the parents to touch the newborn. Collecting a urine specimen and other laboratory tests is done on admission during the first stage of labor. Assessing uterine contractions every 30 minutes is performed during the latent phase of the first stage of labor. Coaching the client to push effectively is appropriate during the second stage of labor.

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49. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect if the client develops DVT? 

Explanation

Classic symptoms of DVT include muscle pain, the
presence of Homans sign, and swelling of the affected limb. Midcalf pain, tenderness, and redness, along the vein reflect superficial thrombophlebitis. Chills, fever and malaise occurring 2 weeks after delivery reflect pelvic thrombophlebitis. Chills, fever, stiffness and pain occurring 10 to 14 days after

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50. If nurse administers an injection to a patient who refuses that injection, she has committed: 

Explanation

Assault is the unjustifiable attempt or threat to touch or injure another person. Battery is the unlawful touching of another person or the carrying out of threatened physical harm. Thus, any act that a nurse performs on the patient against his will is considered assault and battery.

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51. A second year nursing student has just suf- fered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most important action that nursing student should take? 

Explanation

AZT treatment is the most critical innervention.

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52.  A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his diet. As a nurse, which of the following food should you instruct the client to avoid?

Explanation

These foods are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of Coumadin (a blood-thinning medication). Therefore, the client should avoid consuming these foods in large amounts to maintain the proper balance of the medication in their system.

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53. Which of the following statement about L/S ratio in amniotic fluid is correct?    

Explanation

When the L/S ratio is below 2:1, the majority of infants develop respiratory distress. This means that a lower L/S ratio indicates a higher risk of respiratory issues in newborns.

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54. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving prenatal care, and the nurse teaches the client about the early signs of hyperglycemia. The nurse determines that the teaching is effective when the client states that an early sign of hyperglycemia is which of the following?

Explanation

Polyuria, or excessive urination, is an early sign of hyperglycemia in clients with diabetes mellitus. When blood glucose levels are high, the kidneys try to eliminate the excess glucose from the body through urine. This leads to increased urine production and frequent urination. Therefore, the client's statement that polyuria is an early sign of hyperglycemia indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse.

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55. Which of the following is the nurse's initial action when umbilical cord prolapse occurs?

Explanation

The immediate priority is to minimize pressure on the cord. Thus the nurse’s initial action involves placing the client on bed rest and then placing the client in a knee-chest position or lowering the head of the bed, and elevating the maternal hips on a pillow to minimize the pressure on the cord. Monitoring maternal vital signs and FHR, notifying the physician and preparing the client for delivery, and wrapping the cord with sterile saline soaked warm gauze are important. But these actions have no effect on minimizing the pressure on the cord.

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56. The appropriate needle size for insulin injection is: 

Explanation

A 25G, 5/8” needle is the recommended size for insulin injection because insulin is administered by the subcutaneous route. An 18G, 1 ½” needle is usually used for I.M. injections in children, typically in the vastus lateralis. A 22G, 1 ½” needle is usually used for adult I.M. injections, which are typically administered in the vastus lateralis or ventrogluteal site.

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57. A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery. When does the discharge training and planning begin for this patient? 

Explanation

Discharge education begins upon admit.

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58. A client is prescribed warfarin sodium (Coumadin) to be continued at home. Which focus is critical to be included in the nurse's discharge instruction? 

Explanation

Report any nose or gum bleeds
The client should notify the health care provider if blood is noted in stools or urine, or any other signs of bleeding occur.

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59. At a senior citizens meeting a nurse talks with a client who has Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the client during the conversation is most predictive of a potential for impaired skin integrity? 

Explanation

“Sometimes when I put my shoes on I don’’t know where my toes are.”
Peripheral neuropathy can lead to lack of sensa- tion in the lower extremities. Clients who do not feel pressure and/or pain are at high risk for skin impairment.

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60.  After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant symptom of his disorder? 

Explanation

Presenting symptoms of hypokalemia ( a serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/liter) include muscle weakness, chronic fatigue, and cardiac dysrhythmias. The combined effects of inadequate food intake and prolonged diarrhea can deplete the potassium stores of a patient with GI problems.

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61. Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change? 

Explanation

The edges of a sterile field are considered contaminated. When sterile items are allowed to come in contact with the edges of the field, the sterile items also become contaminated.

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62. Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the oxygen and how many does human requires? Which of the following is the best response :

Explanation

The best response is "Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air." This answer correctly states that humans require 21% of oxygen and that we have 21% available in our air. It provides the accurate information in response to Cassandra's question.

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63. A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal? 

Explanation

HR and Respirations are slightly in- creased. BP is down.

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64. Which of the following best describes thrombophlebitis?

Explanation

Thrombophlebitis refers to an inflammation of the vascular endothelium with clot formation on the wall of the vessel. Blood components combining to form an aggregate body describe a thrombus or thrombosis. Clots lodging in the pulmonary vasculature refers to pulmonary embolism; in the
femoral vein, femoral thrombophlebitis.

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65.  Which of the following is not true regarding the third stage of labor?    

Explanation

The administration of a bolus of oxytocin during the third stage of labor does not cause hypertension. Oxytocin is commonly used to prevent postpartum hemorrhage by stimulating uterine contractions and aiding in the delivery of the placenta. However, it is important to monitor the administration of oxytocin and adjust the dosage to avoid excessive uterine contractions, which can lead to hypertonicity and potentially cause hypertension.

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66. Which Vitamin is not given in conjunction with the intake of LEVODOPA in cases of Parkinson's Disease due to the fact that levodopa increases its level in the body?

Explanation

Levodopa is a medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. It works by increasing the levels of dopamine in the brain. However, levodopa can also increase the breakdown of vitamin B6 in the body. Therefore, it is not given in conjunction with vitamin B6 supplementation, as it may reduce the effectiveness of levodopa. This is why vitamin B6 is not recommended to be taken with levodopa in cases of Parkinson's disease.

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67. Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor?

Explanation

With true labor, contractions increase in intensity with walking. In addition, true labor contractions occur at regular intervals, usually starting in the back and sweeping around to the abdomen. The interval of
true labor contractions gradually shortens.

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68. A woman in her third trimester complains of severe heartburn. What is appropriate teaching by the nurse to help the woman alleviate these symptoms? 

Explanation

Sleep with head propped on several pillows Heartburn is a burning sensation caused by re- gurgitation of gastric contents. It is best relieved by sleeping position, eating small meals, and not eating before bedtime.

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69. A vitamin taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis

Explanation

Vitamin B6 is the correct answer because it is commonly used in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis. ISONIAZID is an anti-tuberculosis medication that can cause a deficiency of vitamin B6 in the body, leading to peripheral neuritis. Therefore, taking vitamin B6 along with ISONIAZID helps to prevent this deficiency and the associated peripheral neuritis.

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70. What is the most IMPORTANT determinant of fetal maturity for extrauterine survival? Cognitive level: Application and Knowledge

Explanation

The most important determinants of fetal maturity for extrauterine survival is L/S ratio of 2:1.

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71. Antepartum care refers to the care of a mother before childbirth. Knowledge of the physiologic changes that accompany pregnancy and of fetal development is essential to understanding patient care during the antepartum period. Match the following medical terms to their respected definitions. 
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72. Antepartum care refers to the care of a mother before childbirth. Knowledge of the physiologic changes that accompany pregnancy and of fetal development is essential to understanding patient care during the antepartum period. Match the following medical terms to their respected definitions. 
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73. A nurse is assisting with evaluating the deep tendon reflexes of a pregnant client. The nurse exposes the woman's lower leg, places one hand under the woman's knee to raise it slightly off the bed, and uses the percussion hammer to strike the patellar tendon just below the patella. The nurse documents the response as 4+. This response is interpreted as:

Explanation

The response of 4+ indicates that the deep tendon reflex is very brisk or hyperactive. This means that the client's reflex response is stronger than average.

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74. The nurse is caring for a client with extracellular fluid volume deficit. Which of the following assessments would the nurse anticipate finding? 

Explanation

oliguria
Kidneys maintain fluid volume through adjust- ments in urine volume.

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75. A client is attempting to deliver vaginally despite the fact that her previous delivery was by cesarean delivery. Her contractions are 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting from 75 to 100 seconds. Suddenly, the client complains of intense abdominal pain, and the fetal monitor stops picking up contractions. The nurse recognizes that which of the following events may have occured? Client's needs category: Physiological Integrity Cognitive level: Application

Explanation

With complete uterine contraction, the client would feel a sharp pain in the lower abdomen and contractions would cease. FHR would also cease within a few minutes.

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76. The nurse must verify the client's identity before administration of medication. Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client? 

Explanation

To ensure the safety of the client, it is important for the nurse to verify the client's identity before administering medication. Asking the client his name is the safest way to do so as it directly involves the client in the identification process. This method allows for active participation from the client and reduces the chances of any confusion or error in identifying the correct individual. Checking the client's ID band, stating the client's name aloud and having the client repeat it, or checking the room number may not be as reliable as they do not directly involve the client in confirming their identity.

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77. S1 is heard best at the: 

Explanation

The S1 heart sound is best heard at the apex of the heart, at the fifth intercoastal space along the midclavicular line. (An infant's apex is located at the third or fourth intercoastal space just to the left of the midclavicular line)

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78. A nrse teaches a pregnant client with HIV about measures to prevent an opportunistic infection. Which client statement indicates an understanding of these measures?

Explanation

The correct answer is "My husband is taking care of the cat's litter box." This statement indicates an understanding of measures to prevent an opportunistic infection because pregnant individuals with HIV should avoid handling cat litter boxes due to the risk of contracting toxoplasmosis, an opportunistic infection. Toxoplasmosis can be harmful to the baby and can be transmitted through contact with infected cat feces. By having her husband take care of the cat's litter box, the client is taking a precautionary measure to reduce the risk of infection.

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79. A client in the 28th week of gestation comes to the emergency department because she thinks that she's in labor. To confirm the diagnosis of PRETERM LABOR, the nurse would expect the physical examinations to reveal: Client's needs category: Physiological integrity Client's need subcategory: Physiological adaptation Cognitive level: Knowledge

Explanation

Regular uterine contractions (every 10 minutes or more) along with cervical dilation before 36 weeks' gestation or rupture of fluids indicates preterm labor.

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80. The appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection is: 

Explanation

Because an intradermal injection does not penetrate deeply into the skin, a small-bore 25G needle is recommended. This type of injection is used primarily to administer antigens to evaluate reactions for allergy or sensitivity studies. A 20G needle is usually used for I.M. injections of oil-based medications; a 22G needle for I.M. injections; and a 25G needle, for I.M. injections; and a 25G needle, for subcutaneous insulin injections.

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81. A 36 years old pregnant patient (is on her 36th weeks of gestation) has been diagnosed with hypertension with a blood pressure of 140/90 for the past two weeks has been admitted to the labor and delivery department. Suddenly within the first 24 hours of her stay, the patient described a bright red bleeding on her drape. The nurse ask about her pain level, the patient rated her pain as 1 out of 10. What are the necessary nursing intervention you need to provide for this patient? Select all that apply. 

Explanation

To evaluate maternal well-being, we need to monitor maternal vital signs, including uterine activity. Patients with placenta previa are at increased risk for infection. We need to monitor fetal heart rate to detect complications. You don't need to take her blood glucose, administer vitamin K and tylenol to the patient which will further compromised the condition of the patient.

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82. Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of which Vitamin?

Explanation

Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin B1. Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is essential for the proper functioning of the nervous system and the metabolism of carbohydrates. A deficiency in this vitamin can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, fatigue, loss of appetite, and nerve damage. Therefore, it is important to consume foods rich in Vitamin B1, such as whole grains, legumes, and lean meats, to prevent the development of beri beri.

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83. Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during active labor for which of the following reasons?

Explanation

Barbiturates are rapidly transferred across the placental barrier, and lack of an antagonist makes them generally inappropriate during active labor. Neonatal side effects of barbiturates include central nervous system depression, prolonged drowsiness, delayed establishment of feeding (e.g. due to poor sucking reflex or poor sucking pressure). Tranquilizers are associated with neonatal effects such as hypotonia, hypothermia, generalized drowsiness, and reluctance to feed for the first few days. Narcotic analgesic readily cross the placental barrier, causing depressive effects in the newborn 2 to 3 hours afterintramuscular injection. Regional anesthesia is associated with adverse reactions such as maternal hypotension, allergic or toxic reaction, or partial or total respiratory failure.

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84. An LPN is watching a nurse practitioner performs an abdominal palpation that is used to determine fetal presentatio, lie, postion, and engagement. As an LPN, you know that this is procedure is called:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Leopold maneuvers." This procedure is used to determine fetal presentation, lie, position, and engagement. It involves a series of palpations on the abdomen to assess the position and orientation of the fetus. The term "Leopold maneuvers" is named after the German obstetrician Christian Gerhard Leopold, who developed this technique in the late 19th century.

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85. Match the following medical ECG terms into their corresponding definitions or characteristics.
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86. Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin A?

Explanation

Liver is a good source of Vitamin A because it contains high levels of retinol, which is a form of Vitamin A. Retinol is essential for maintaining good vision, promoting healthy skin, and supporting the immune system. Liver is particularly rich in Vitamin A compared to other food sources, making it an excellent choice for meeting the body's Vitamin A requirements.

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87. What are the ways to help prevent or decrease the occurence of falls in the older adult? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Falls in older adults can be prevented or decreased by removing throw rugs, as they can be a tripping hazard. Ambulating the patient with a gait belt can provide support and stability while walking. Ensuring adequate lighting can help older adults see obstacles and hazards more clearly. Wearing proper footwear that supports the foot can improve balance and reduce the risk of falls. Painting the edges of stairs red color and administering antihypertensive medications during the night are not effective strategies for preventing or decreasing falls in older adults.

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88. A patient's chart indicates a history of hyperkalemia. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute? 

Explanation

Answer choices A-C were symptoms of acute hyperkalemia.

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89. Older adults are vulnerable to diseases because of decreased physiologic reserve, less flexible homeostatic processes, and less effective body defenses. What are the most common physiologic changes that is related to aging? Select all that apply.

Explanation

As individuals age, their physiologic reserve decreases, making them more vulnerable to diseases. Chronic illness becomes more prevalent as one ages because the body's ability to maintain homeostasis declines. The resistance to stressors also diminishes with age, making older adults more susceptible to various stress-related conditions. Additionally, there is a decreased absorption of vitamins B1 and B2 in older adults, which can lead to deficiencies and health issues. Furthermore, decreased peristalsis and impaired absorption contribute to constipation problems in older adults. However, increased thirst and hunger sensations are not mentioned as common physiologic changes related to aging.

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90. Micronutrients are those nutrients needed by the body in a very minute amount. Which of the following vitamin is considered as a MICRONUTRIENT

Explanation

Iron is considered as a micronutrient because it is needed by the body in very small amounts. It plays a crucial role in the production of red blood cells and helps transport oxygen throughout the body. Iron deficiency can lead to anemia and other health problems. While phosphorus, calcium, and sodium are all important minerals for the body, they are not classified as micronutrients because they are needed in larger quantities.

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91. Which nutrient deficiency is associated with the development of Pellagra, Dermatitis and Diarrhea?

Explanation

Pellagra, dermatitis, and diarrhea are all symptoms associated with a deficiency in Vitamin B3, also known as niacin. Niacin is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in energy metabolism and the maintenance of healthy skin, nerves, and digestive system. A deficiency in Vitamin B3 can lead to the development of pellagra, which is characterized by symptoms such as dermatitis (inflammation of the skin), diarrhea, and mental confusion. Therefore, the correct answer is Vitamin B3.

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92. The inflammation of the Lips, Palate and Tongue is associated in the deficiency of this vitamin

Explanation

The inflammation of the lips, palate, and tongue is associated with a deficiency of vitamin B2. Vitamin B2, also known as riboflavin, plays a crucial role in maintaining the health of the skin, including the lips, palate, and tongue. A deficiency of this vitamin can lead to inflammation and soreness in these areas.

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93. What are the normal physical responses of a pregnant woman who is on a Latent Phase of the First Stage of Labor?

Explanation

During the Latent Phase of the First Stage of Labor, a pregnant woman may experience contractions that are mild and occur at intervals of 10 to 20 minutes apart. Additionally, she should be able to continue her usual activities without significant discomfort or disruption. This is because the cervix is starting to efface and dilate, but the contractions are not yet intense or frequent. Nausea and hiccups are not typically associated with this phase of labor.

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94. Determine the correct number of cells per cubic millimeters in the different stages of HIV.
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95. Aging is an individual process, which affects people differently. For the purpose of data collection, those 65 years and older are considered older adults. Match the following terms to their appropriate definitions.
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96. The LPN is helping the RN to complete the necessary assessment data on the Biophysical Profile (BPP) to detect if the fetus is healthy and well. What are the necessary components of this profile?

Explanation

There are five components of the biophysical profile
a. fetal breathing movement
b. fetal tone
c. gross body movement
d. reactivity of FHR
e. amniotic fluid volume

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97. Among the following foods, which has the highest amount of potassium per area of their meat?

Explanation

Cantaloupe has the highest amount of potassium per area of their meat compared to the other listed foods. Potassium is an essential mineral that helps maintain proper heart and muscle function, as well as balance fluids in the body. Cantaloupe is known for its high water content and is a good source of potassium, making it the food with the highest amount of potassium per area of their meat among the options given.

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98. An 86 years old patient has been admitted into the Long Term Care facility. She has an admitting diagnosis of Hypertensio, diabetes mellitus, and she has a history of falls at home. Last night, the patient was trying to climb the rails and suddenly she fell with her face first on the floor. No blood was found on the scene. the physician ordere a MRI to check f there is internal bleeding on the patient. When the nurse assessed the patient's level of consciousness, she cannot identify her name and time. The patient is currently taking Atenolol 200 mg PO to control her blood pressure. The physician diagnosed a Transient Ischemic Attack for the patient. As a nurse, you know that TIA has the following hallmark signs and symptoms. Select all that apply.

Explanation

Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) is a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain, causing temporary neurological symptoms. The hallmark signs and symptoms of TIA include weakness, blackouts (loss of consciousness), and difficulty speaking. Persistent nausea and vomiting, presence or leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and tremors are not typically associated with TIA.

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99. Infection that occurs during pregnancy is very compromising for the fetus. A 12 weeks pregant Asian female is asking the LPN what TORCH disease is. As a knowledgable LPN, you know that TORCH disease includes:  

Explanation

TORCH (Toxoplasmosis and other infections: rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex)

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100. Match the following opportunistic infection that are commonly affecting the patient who is diagnosed with HIV/AIDS to their corresponding clinical manifestation.
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101. A nursing student is discussing the normal findings in labor to a 39 weeks pregnant patient. What are the normal findings common to laboring client and the fetus? Select all that apply.

Explanation

The normal findings common to a laboring client and the fetus include a FHR of 130, maternal blood pressure of 139/89, maternal pulse of 100, maternal temperature of 100.4, and dehydration due to the work of labor. These findings indicate that the fetus is experiencing a normal heart rate, the mother's blood pressure and pulse are within normal range, and she is experiencing the normal physiological response of dehydration during labor. The elevated temperature may indicate a slight fever, which can be a normal finding during labor. Leukorrhea, or increased vaginal discharge, is also a common finding in pregnancy but is not specific to labor.

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102. What are the manifestations of Hypertension in pregnancy (Preeclampsia)? Select all that apply.

Explanation

The manifestations of Hypertension in pregnancy (Preeclampsia) include systolic blood pressure greater than 140 or diastolic blood pressure greater than 90, proteinuria, weight gain, decreased urine output, presence of HELLP syndrome, headaches, blurred vision, hyperreflexia, nausea, and vomiting. These symptoms are commonly seen in women with preeclampsia and indicate the presence of high blood pressure and organ damage.

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103. The characteristics of the HELLP syndrome are: Select all that apply. Cognitive level: Analysis and Knowledge

Explanation

HELLP syndrome is characterized by:
1. Hemolysis
2. Elevated liver enzyme
3. Low platelet count
4. usually occurring before the 37th weeks' gestation

Submit
104. Match the following diseases commonly occuring to the older adults with the MOST appropriate nursing intervention. 
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105. Match the following laboratory tests to their corresponding values.
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106. Match the following water soluble vitamins with each appropriate food sources. 
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What the do you call the procedure whereby the OB/GYN physician...
What is the condition called whereby the placenta is implanted in the...
A woman is seen in the prenatal clinic and complains of morning...
Mrs. Lim begins to cry as the nurse discusses hair loss. The best...
A nurse is administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30 day-old infant....
A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of...
In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may experience...
Sterile technique is used whenever: 
The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is: 
It is best describe as a systematic, rational method of planning and...
A patient asks a nurse, "My doctor recom- mended I increase my intake...
The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period started on...
When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who states, "I...
The nurse is preparing to take vital sign in an alert client admitted...
If there is a decrease of alpha-fetoprotein in the amniotic fluid, it...
Incident of prostate cancer is found to have been reduced on a...
Basing on the normal Conduction System of the heart, numer 2 is called...
Match the following medical maternal terms in the first stage of labor...
Which of the following is described as premature separation of a...
How would you correctly document this ECG strip on the client's...
The nurse prepare IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous...
Which of the following best describes preterm labor?    
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing...
After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix)...
The main reason for an expected increased need for iron in pregnancy...
Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy? 
What is the procedure called whereby the physician removes a small...
If there is an INCREASE in alpha-fetoprotein 
Which of the following is an example of nursing malpractice?
A patient has exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...
A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The...
Calculate the heart rate of the patient using the ECG strip provided...
What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid to maintain...
A registered nurse reaches to answer the telephone on a busy pediatric...
Which of the following principles of primary nursing has proven the...
Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client...
The physician orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at...
A client with gravida 3 para 2 at 40 weeks' gestation is admitted...
An LPN assists a registered nurse in developing a teaching plan for a...
An iron supplement is prescribed for a pregnant client. The nurse...
When preparing the mother who is on her 4th month of pregnancy for...
Calculate the heart rate of the patient using the ECG strip above.
A client in the active phase of labor has a reactive fetal monitor...
If patient asks the nurse her opinion about a particular physicians...
Deficiency of this mineral results in tetany, osteomalacia,...
It is th partial or complete premature detachment of the placenta from...
During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse...
Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse...
Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect if...
If nurse administers an injection to a patient who refuses that...
A second year nursing student has just suf- fered a needlestick while...
 A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his diet. As a...
Which of the following statement about L/S ratio in amniotic fluid is...
A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving prenatal care, and the...
Which of the following is the nurse's initial action when...
The appropriate needle size for insulin injection is: 
A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal...
A client is prescribed warfarin sodium (Coumadin) to be continued at...
At a senior citizens meeting a nurse talks with a client who has Type...
 After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia....
Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while...
Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the oxygen and how many...
A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the following...
Which of the following best describes thrombophlebitis?
 Which of the following is not true regarding the third stage of...
Which Vitamin is not given in conjunction with the intake of LEVODOPA...
Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the...
A woman in her third trimester complains of severe heartburn. What is...
A vitamin taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral...
What is the most IMPORTANT determinant of fetal maturity for...
Antepartum care refers to the care of a mother before childbirth....
Antepartum care refers to the care of a mother before childbirth....
A nurse is assisting with evaluating the deep tendon reflexes of a...
The nurse is caring for a client with extracellular fluid volume...
A client is attempting to deliver vaginally despite the fact that her...
The nurse must verify the client's identity before administration of...
S1 is heard best at the: 
A nrse teaches a pregnant client with HIV about measures to prevent an...
A client in the 28th week of gestation comes to the emergency...
The appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection is: 
A 36 years old pregnant patient (is on her 36th weeks of gestation)...
Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of which Vitamin?
Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during active...
An LPN is watching a nurse practitioner performs an abdominal...
Match the following medical ECG terms into their corresponding...
Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin A?
What are the ways to help prevent or decrease the occurence of falls...
A patient's chart indicates a history of hyperkalemia. Which of the...
Older adults are vulnerable to diseases because of decreased...
Micronutrients are those nutrients needed by the body in a very minute...
Which nutrient deficiency is associated with the development of...
The inflammation of the Lips, Palate and Tongue is associated in the...
What are the normal physical responses of a pregnant woman who is on a...
Determine the correct number of cells per cubic millimeters in the...
Aging is an individual process, which affects people differently. For...
The LPN is helping the RN to complete the necessary assessment data on...
Among the following foods, which has the highest amount of potassium...
An 86 years old patient has been admitted into the Long Term Care...
Infection that occurs during pregnancy is very compromising for the...
Match the following opportunistic infection that are commonly...
A nursing student is discussing the normal findings in labor to a 39...
What are the manifestations of Hypertension in pregnancy...
The characteristics of the HELLP syndrome are: Select all that apply....
Match the following diseases commonly occuring to the older adults...
Match the following laboratory tests to their corresponding values.
Match the following water soluble vitamins with each appropriate food...
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