Manual Of Rules 1 (2019)

1. The vehicle extrication team shall consist of an Operations/Extrication Officer and a minimum of ____ additional firefighter(s).

Two

One

Three

Four

The correct answer is two. The vehicle extrication team needs to have an Operations/Extrication Officer and at least two additional firefighters. This is necessary to ensure that there are enough personnel to safely and effectively perform the extrication operation. Having a team of at least three members allows for better coordination, distribution of tasks, and support during the rescue process.

Explanation

The correct answer is two. The vehicle extrication team needs to have an Operations/Extrication Officer and at least two additional firefighters. This is necessary to ensure that there are enough personnel to safely and effectively perform the extrication operation. Having a team of at least three members allows for better coordination, distribution of tasks, and support during the rescue process.

2. Examples of _________ are failure to take appropriate action on the occasion of a crime; disorder or other act or condition deserving police attention; absence without leave; failure to report for duty at the time and place designated; unnecessary absence from the beat during a tour of duty

Neglect of duty

Insubordination

Deportment

Incompetence

Neglect of duty refers to the failure to fulfill one's responsibilities or obligations. In the context of the given examples, neglect of duty can be seen in the failure to take appropriate action during a crime, absence without leave or failure to report for duty, and unnecessary absence from the assigned area. It implies a lack of diligence and attention to one's duties, which can have serious consequences in law enforcement or any profession where responsibilities must be carried out effectively. Insubordination, deportment, and incompetence do not encompass the specific examples provided and therefore do not align with the given correct answer.

Explanation

Neglect of duty refers to the failure to fulfill one's responsibilities or obligations. In the context of the given examples, neglect of duty can be seen in the failure to take appropriate action during a crime, absence without leave or failure to report for duty, and unnecessary absence from the assigned area. It implies a lack of diligence and attention to one's duties, which can have serious consequences in law enforcement or any profession where responsibilities must be carried out effectively. Insubordination, deportment, and incompetence do not encompass the specific examples provided and therefore do not align with the given correct answer.

3. A Sergeant may issue a written reprimand if an absence of their Lieutenant causes an untimely resolution to the issue.

True

False

A Sergeant may issue a written reprimand if an absence of their Lieutenant causes an untimely resolution to the issue. This means that if the Lieutenant is not present and the Sergeant is left to handle the situation, and as a result, the issue is not resolved in a timely manner, the Sergeant has the authority to issue a written reprimand. This shows that the Sergeant has the power to take disciplinary action in such situations. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

A Sergeant may issue a written reprimand if an absence of their Lieutenant causes an untimely resolution to the issue. This means that if the Lieutenant is not present and the Sergeant is left to handle the situation, and as a result, the issue is not resolved in a timely manner, the Sergeant has the authority to issue a written reprimand. This shows that the Sergeant has the power to take disciplinary action in such situations. Therefore, the statement is true.

4. Lieutenants AND Sergeants have the authority to impose emergency suspensions until the next business day when it appears to be in the best interest of the department. They may also order the employee to surrender their firearm and all police identification.

True

False

Lieutenants and Sergeants have the authority to impose emergency suspensions until the next business day when it appears to be in the best interest of the department. This means that they are able to temporarily suspend an employee's duties and responsibilities if they believe it is necessary for the department's well-being. Additionally, they can also order the employee to surrender their firearm and all police identification during this suspension period. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

Lieutenants and Sergeants have the authority to impose emergency suspensions until the next business day when it appears to be in the best interest of the department. This means that they are able to temporarily suspend an employee's duties and responsibilities if they believe it is necessary for the department's well-being. Additionally, they can also order the employee to surrender their firearm and all police identification during this suspension period. Therefore, the statement is true.

5. On ALL multiple alarm fires, it shall be the responsibility of the responding mutual aid agency to report to the Incident Commander and present all personal identification tags. The tags will be located on an IC board located outside the Command Post

True

False

The given statement is true. On all multiple alarm fires, the responding mutual aid agency is responsible for reporting to the Incident Commander and presenting all personal identification tags. These tags are located on an IC board outside the Command Post.

Explanation

The given statement is true. On all multiple alarm fires, the responding mutual aid agency is responsible for reporting to the Incident Commander and presenting all personal identification tags. These tags are located on an IC board outside the Command Post.

6. When filling overtime for special details (Safety Town, assist detectives,..) the supervisor should record all hours worked but he should not record hours refused

True

False

The supervisor should record all hours worked for filling overtime for special details such as Safety Town or assisting detectives. However, the supervisor should not record hours refused, as this implies that the supervisor declined to work those hours. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

The supervisor should record all hours worked for filling overtime for special details such as Safety Town or assisting detectives. However, the supervisor should not record hours refused, as this implies that the supervisor declined to work those hours. Therefore, the statement is true.

7. During fire size up, after an Incident Commander determines the location and extent of the fire, he shall use ________ as a guide in determining the proper fire attack.

R.I.C.E.O

R.A.C.E.O

R.E.C.E.O.

R.E.D.I.O.

R.A.D.I.O.

During fire size up, after an Incident Commander determines the location and extent of the fire, he shall use R.E.C.E.O. as a guide in determining the proper fire attack. R.E.C.E.O. stands for Rescue, Exposures, Confinement, Extinguishment, and Overhaul. These are the key steps that need to be followed in a systematic manner during fire attack. First, the priority is to rescue any trapped individuals. Then, the focus is on protecting exposures, such as neighboring buildings or hazardous materials. After that, the fire needs to be confined to prevent further spread. Once the fire is contained, the next step is extinguishment. Finally, overhaul is done to ensure that all hotspots are completely extinguished.

Explanation

During fire size up, after an Incident Commander determines the location and extent of the fire, he shall use R.E.C.E.O. as a guide in determining the proper fire attack. R.E.C.E.O. stands for Rescue, Exposures, Confinement, Extinguishment, and Overhaul. These are the key steps that need to be followed in a systematic manner during fire attack. First, the priority is to rescue any trapped individuals. Then, the focus is on protecting exposures, such as neighboring buildings or hazardous materials. After that, the fire needs to be confined to prevent further spread. Once the fire is contained, the next step is extinguishment. Finally, overhaul is done to ensure that all hotspots are completely extinguished.

8. Employees on extended sick leave must periodically report to an on-duty supervisor the status of their condition. Unless otherwise noted, weekly reporting will be required

True

False

Employees on extended sick leave must periodically report to an on-duty supervisor the status of their condition. This means that unless there is a specific exception mentioned, employees are indeed required to provide weekly reports to their supervisor regarding their condition. Therefore, the statement "True" is the correct answer.

Explanation

Employees on extended sick leave must periodically report to an on-duty supervisor the status of their condition. This means that unless there is a specific exception mentioned, employees are indeed required to provide weekly reports to their supervisor regarding their condition. Therefore, the statement "True" is the correct answer.

9. HAZMAT incident will be classified as Level _________

I and II

I, II, and III

1 through 5

1 through 10

A, B, C, or D

The correct answer is I, II, and III. This means that a HAZMAT incident can be classified as Level I, Level II, or Level III. This classification system is used to determine the severity and potential danger of a hazardous material incident. Level I incidents are considered to have the lowest level of severity, while Level III incidents are considered to have the highest level of severity. This classification helps emergency responders to effectively respond to and manage HAZMAT incidents based on their level of risk.

Explanation

The correct answer is I, II, and III. This means that a HAZMAT incident can be classified as Level I, Level II, or Level III. This classification system is used to determine the severity and potential danger of a hazardous material incident. Level I incidents are considered to have the lowest level of severity, while Level III incidents are considered to have the highest level of severity. This classification helps emergency responders to effectively respond to and manage HAZMAT incidents based on their level of risk.

10. A ______ ZONE provides an area of high risk from the HAZMAT involved. Entrance is restricted to those with the proper training and in proper protective clothing.

DANGER

HIGH-RISK

COLD

HAZARADOUS

HOT

A HOT ZONE provides an area of high risk from the HAZMAT involved. Entrance is restricted to those with the proper training and in proper protective clothing. This suggests that the area is highly dangerous and requires specific precautions to prevent harm.

Explanation

A HOT ZONE provides an area of high risk from the HAZMAT involved. Entrance is restricted to those with the proper training and in proper protective clothing. This suggests that the area is highly dangerous and requires specific precautions to prevent harm.

11. To insure an arrest is valid, when a prisoner is brought to the station, it shall be the responsibility of the PC/APC to review all available documentation as soon as practical

True

False

The statement is true because it is important for the PC/APC (Police Constable/Arresting Police Constable) to review all available documentation as soon as possible to ensure that the arrest is valid. This helps in verifying the legality of the arrest and ensures that the prisoner's rights are protected. By reviewing the documentation, the PC/APC can confirm the grounds for arrest, check for any errors or inconsistencies, and ensure that all necessary procedures have been followed. This step is crucial in maintaining the integrity of the arrest process and upholding the principles of justice.

Explanation

The statement is true because it is important for the PC/APC (Police Constable/Arresting Police Constable) to review all available documentation as soon as possible to ensure that the arrest is valid. This helps in verifying the legality of the arrest and ensures that the prisoner's rights are protected. By reviewing the documentation, the PC/APC can confirm the grounds for arrest, check for any errors or inconsistencies, and ensure that all necessary procedures have been followed. This step is crucial in maintaining the integrity of the arrest process and upholding the principles of justice.

12. When placing or removing a subject into or out of the restraint chair, a minimum of two officers shall be used to reduce the risk of injury to both the detainee and officers.

True

False

When placing or removing a subject into or out of the restraint chair, it is important to have a minimum of two officers present. This is done to reduce the risk of injury to both the detainee and the officers. Having two officers ensures that there is enough manpower to safely control the detainee and prevent any potential harm or resistance. It also allows for better coordination and communication between the officers, making the process safer and more effective. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

When placing or removing a subject into or out of the restraint chair, it is important to have a minimum of two officers present. This is done to reduce the risk of injury to both the detainee and the officers. Having two officers ensures that there is enough manpower to safely control the detainee and prevent any potential harm or resistance. It also allows for better coordination and communication between the officers, making the process safer and more effective. Therefore, the statement is true.

13. When a water main break occurs, a notification will be made if the break is sufficient enough to cause water to flow in the street or cause the ground to collapse or sink.

True

False

When a water main break occurs, a notification will be made if the break is significant enough to cause water to flow in the street or cause the ground to collapse or sink. This means that if the break is not severe, no notification will be made. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

When a water main break occurs, a notification will be made if the break is significant enough to cause water to flow in the street or cause the ground to collapse or sink. This means that if the break is not severe, no notification will be made. Therefore, the statement is true.

14. If the cartridge of a TASER is deployed during an incident, the following must occur:

A use of force report must be filed

Tag the empty cartridge, probes, and AFIDS

Photograph the probe impact site on the subject

All of the above

If the cartridge of a TASER is deployed during an incident, all of the above actions must occur. This includes filing a use of force report, tagging the empty cartridge, probes, and AFIDS, and photographing the probe impact site on the subject. These actions are necessary to document and report the use of the TASER and its effects on the subject.

Explanation

If the cartridge of a TASER is deployed during an incident, all of the above actions must occur. This includes filing a use of force report, tagging the empty cartridge, probes, and AFIDS, and photographing the probe impact site on the subject. These actions are necessary to document and report the use of the TASER and its effects on the subject.

15. According to department policy, no more than ___ police vehicle(s) are to be actively involved in a pursuit at any given time, unless a supervisor decides otherwise

1

2

3

4

5

According to department policy, no more than two police vehicles are allowed to be actively involved in a pursuit at any given time, unless a supervisor decides otherwise. This policy is likely in place to ensure the safety of officers and the public during high-speed pursuits, as having too many vehicles involved can increase the risk of accidents and make coordination more difficult. By limiting the number of vehicles, the department can better manage and control the situation.

Explanation

According to department policy, no more than two police vehicles are allowed to be actively involved in a pursuit at any given time, unless a supervisor decides otherwise. This policy is likely in place to ensure the safety of officers and the public during high-speed pursuits, as having too many vehicles involved can increase the risk of accidents and make coordination more difficult. By limiting the number of vehicles, the department can better manage and control the situation.

16. The summer uniform shall be worn from __________ through __________

June 1 , September 1

June 30 , September 30

May 30 , October 1

May 1 , September 30

The correct answer is May 1, September 30. This means that the summer uniform should be worn starting from May 1st and continue to be worn until September 30th.

Explanation

The correct answer is May 1, September 30. This means that the summer uniform should be worn starting from May 1st and continue to be worn until September 30th.

17. During vacation selection, no more than one additional selection between Memorial Day and Labor Day may be made on second draw.

True

False

This statement means that when selecting vacation dates, it is allowed to make one additional selection between Memorial Day and Labor Day on the second draw. In other words, if you have already chosen one vacation date between Memorial Day and Labor Day on the first draw, you are still allowed to choose one more vacation date between those dates on the second draw. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

This statement means that when selecting vacation dates, it is allowed to make one additional selection between Memorial Day and Labor Day on the second draw. In other words, if you have already chosen one vacation date between Memorial Day and Labor Day on the first draw, you are still allowed to choose one more vacation date between those dates on the second draw. Therefore, the statement is true.

18. An officer may recommend an attorney or bondsman as long as he has no direct affiliation with such person

True

False

No, you may never directly or indirectly recommend or endorse either

Explanation

No, you may never directly or indirectly recommend or endorse either

19. Any employee who disagrees with a disciplinary action taken against him at any other level may request a Directors Hearing.

True

False

Any employee who disagrees with a disciplinary action taken against him at any other level may request a Directors Hearing. This statement is true because it states that any employee who disagrees with a disciplinary action can request a Directors Hearing. This means that if an employee believes that a disciplinary action taken against them is unfair or unjust, they have the right to request a hearing with the directors to present their case and potentially have the disciplinary action reviewed or overturned.

Explanation

Any employee who disagrees with a disciplinary action taken against him at any other level may request a Directors Hearing. This statement is true because it states that any employee who disagrees with a disciplinary action can request a Directors Hearing. This means that if an employee believes that a disciplinary action taken against them is unfair or unjust, they have the right to request a hearing with the directors to present their case and potentially have the disciplinary action reviewed or overturned.

20. Members of the Major Incident Review Board may serve as members of any Trial Board arising out of the same incident.

True

False

Members of the Major Incident Review Board may not serve as members of any Trial Board arising out of the same incident.

Explanation

Members of the Major Incident Review Board may not serve as members of any Trial Board arising out of the same incident.

21. The three fire operations modes are:

Investigation, Stationary Attack, Fixed Command

Exploratory, Stationary Attack, Mobile Command

Investigation, Mobile Attack, Mobile Command

Investigation, Mobile Attack, Fixed Command

Exploratory, Mobile Attack, Fixed Command

The correct answer is Investigation, Mobile Attack, Fixed Command. In fire operations, the investigation mode is used to gather information about the fire incident, such as its cause and potential hazards. The mobile attack mode involves actively fighting the fire using fire suppression techniques and equipment. The fixed command mode refers to the establishment of a command post at a strategic location to coordinate and manage the firefighting operations. This combination of modes ensures a systematic approach to fire response, starting with gathering information, followed by active firefighting, and effective command and control.

Explanation

The correct answer is Investigation, Mobile Attack, Fixed Command. In fire operations, the investigation mode is used to gather information about the fire incident, such as its cause and potential hazards. The mobile attack mode involves actively fighting the fire using fire suppression techniques and equipment. The fixed command mode refers to the establishment of a command post at a strategic location to coordinate and manage the firefighting operations. This combination of modes ensures a systematic approach to fire response, starting with gathering information, followed by active firefighting, and effective command and control.

22. Under no circumstance shall the status of an employee being carried sick or on the job injured be changed without the written authorization of the ___________

City Physician

Captain

Chief of Police

Immediate Supervisor

The correct answer is City Physician because the status of an employee being carried sick or on the job injured should not be changed without the written authorization of the City Physician. This is because the City Physician is responsible for assessing and determining the employee's medical condition and fitness for work. Their authorization ensures that any changes in the employee's status are made based on medical expertise and in compliance with relevant regulations and policies.

Explanation

The correct answer is City Physician because the status of an employee being carried sick or on the job injured should not be changed without the written authorization of the City Physician. This is because the City Physician is responsible for assessing and determining the employee's medical condition and fitness for work. Their authorization ensures that any changes in the employee's status are made based on medical expertise and in compliance with relevant regulations and policies.

23. Firefighter protective clothing should be cleaned at least twice a year using the department approved method and cleaning facility

True

False

Once a year regardless of exposure

Explanation

Once a year regardless of exposure

24. A ______ ZONE provides an area of transition between the contaminated area and the clean area. Those in this zone must also be in proper protective clothing.

HOT

MEDIUM

COLD

WARM

NEUTRAL

***Decontamination Corridor – The area located in the warm zone where decontamination is performed

Explanation

***Decontamination Corridor – The area located in the warm zone where decontamination is performed

25. A RIT Team consists of at least _____ members

2

3

4

5

A RIT Team consists of at least 2 members. This means that the team must have a minimum of 2 individuals in order to be considered a RIT Team. It is possible for the team to have more than 2 members, but the minimum requirement is 2.

Explanation

A RIT Team consists of at least 2 members. This means that the team must have a minimum of 2 individuals in order to be considered a RIT Team. It is possible for the team to have more than 2 members, but the minimum requirement is 2.

26. At no time shall an attorney, without proper identification, be permitted to visit a client prior to formal charges being approved by a prosecutor

True

False

After subject has been charged it is permissable, but confirm with the OIC

Explanation

After subject has been charged it is permissable, but confirm with the OIC

27. In the event of a portion of road, alley, or sewer collapse, the on duty crew chief will be notified and will be responsible for proper response. On duty DPW personnel will be responsible for proper traffic control.

True

False

Dept of Public Safety is responsible for traffic

Explanation

Dept of Public Safety is responsible for traffic

28. Units transporting civilian personnel at the time of a pursuit are prohibited from participating unless such civilian personnel have signed a proper waiver of all the city's liability.

True

False

Units transporting civilian personnel during a pursuit are prohibited from participating unless those civilians have signed a waiver releasing the city from any liability. This means that if civilians are being transported in a vehicle during a pursuit, they must have signed a waiver to ensure that the city cannot be held responsible for any injuries or damages that may occur during the pursuit. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

Units transporting civilian personnel during a pursuit are prohibited from participating unless those civilians have signed a waiver releasing the city from any liability. This means that if civilians are being transported in a vehicle during a pursuit, they must have signed a waiver to ensure that the city cannot be held responsible for any injuries or damages that may occur during the pursuit. Therefore, the statement is true.

29. The winter uniform shall be worn from __________ through __________

September 1 , April 1

September 30 , April 30

October 1 , April 30

October 1 , April 1

The correct answer is October 1, April 30. This means that the winter uniform should be worn starting from October 1st and until April 30th. This period covers the colder months of the year when the weather is typically colder and requires warmer clothing. Wearing the winter uniform during this time ensures that students are dressed appropriately for the weather conditions.

Explanation

The correct answer is October 1, April 30. This means that the winter uniform should be worn starting from October 1st and until April 30th. This period covers the colder months of the year when the weather is typically colder and requires warmer clothing. Wearing the winter uniform during this time ensures that students are dressed appropriately for the weather conditions.

30. According to the manual the term Habitual means ____ or more incidents involving violation of rules and regulations within any ____ month period

5 , 12

3 , 12

5 , 18

3 , 6

The term "Habitual" refers to the number of incidents involving violation of rules and regulations. According to the manual, the term "Habitual" means 3 or more incidents involving violation of rules and regulations within any 12-month period.

Explanation

The term "Habitual" refers to the number of incidents involving violation of rules and regulations. According to the manual, the term "Habitual" means 3 or more incidents involving violation of rules and regulations within any 12-month period.

31. A member of the department who commits an act tending to bring reproach or disrespect upon the department, whether on duty or off duty has committed ____________

Insubordination

A Policy Violation

Deportment

Unprofessionalism

Deportment refers to the behavior and conduct of a person, particularly in relation to their role or position. In this context, if a member of the department commits an act that brings reproach or disrespect upon the department, it can be considered a violation of proper deportment. This implies that the individual's actions have negatively impacted the reputation and image of the department, regardless of whether they were on duty or off duty at the time.

Explanation

Deportment refers to the behavior and conduct of a person, particularly in relation to their role or position. In this context, if a member of the department commits an act that brings reproach or disrespect upon the department, it can be considered a violation of proper deportment. This implies that the individual's actions have negatively impacted the reputation and image of the department, regardless of whether they were on duty or off duty at the time.

32. Any member who is arrested for a crime must immediately notify the on duty command officer

True

False

Members who are arrested for a crime must immediately notify the on-duty command officer to ensure proper handling of the situation and to comply with departmental policies and procedures. This notification allows the command officer to take appropriate actions, such as notifying superiors, coordinating legal representation, and initiating internal investigations if necessary. It also helps maintain transparency and accountability within the organization. Failure to notify the command officer promptly may result in disciplinary actions or further legal consequences for the member.

Explanation

Members who are arrested for a crime must immediately notify the on-duty command officer to ensure proper handling of the situation and to comply with departmental policies and procedures. This notification allows the command officer to take appropriate actions, such as notifying superiors, coordinating legal representation, and initiating internal investigations if necessary. It also helps maintain transparency and accountability within the organization. Failure to notify the command officer promptly may result in disciplinary actions or further legal consequences for the member.

33. A Major Incident Review Board consists of three supervisors, ranked Sergeant or higher, the highest ranking of whom shall chair.

True

False

A Major Incident Review Board is composed of three supervisors, with the rank of Sergeant or higher. The highest-ranking supervisor among them is designated as the chairperson of the board. Therefore, the statement is true as it accurately describes the composition and leadership structure of a Major Incident Review Board.

Explanation

A Major Incident Review Board is composed of three supervisors, with the rank of Sergeant or higher. The highest-ranking supervisor among them is designated as the chairperson of the board. Therefore, the statement is true as it accurately describes the composition and leadership structure of a Major Incident Review Board.

34. As an Incident Commander, the incident priorities in order of importance are:

Incident Stabilization, Life Safety, Conservation of Property

Conservation of Property, Life Safety, Incident Stabilization

Life Safety, Conservation of Property, Incident Stabilization

Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Conservation of Property

Incident Stabilization, Conservation of Property, Life Safety

The correct answer is Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Conservation of Property. This order of priorities reflects the importance of ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals involved in the incident first, followed by stabilizing the situation to prevent further harm or damage, and then focusing on protecting and preserving property. By prioritizing life safety first, the Incident Commander ensures that the most critical needs are addressed first before addressing other concerns.

Explanation

The correct answer is Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Conservation of Property. This order of priorities reflects the importance of ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals involved in the incident first, followed by stabilizing the situation to prevent further harm or damage, and then focusing on protecting and preserving property. By prioritizing life safety first, the Incident Commander ensures that the most critical needs are addressed first before addressing other concerns.

35. The standards for determining probable cause in a domestic violence case are the same as in any other criminal action

True

False

In a domestic violence case, the standards for determining probable cause are the same as in any other criminal action. This means that the same criteria and evidence are used to establish whether there is enough reason to believe that a crime has been committed. The legal system does not differentiate between domestic violence cases and other criminal actions when it comes to determining probable cause. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

In a domestic violence case, the standards for determining probable cause are the same as in any other criminal action. This means that the same criteria and evidence are used to establish whether there is enough reason to believe that a crime has been committed. The legal system does not differentiate between domestic violence cases and other criminal actions when it comes to determining probable cause. Therefore, the statement is true.

36. PSOs in the FTO program are eligible for overtime when they have completed Step 2 of the FTO program and when an FTO is working the shift that the overtime is required

True

False

Step 1

Explanation

Step 1

37. In any extrication situation, _________ must take place before the operation can proceed

Triage

Scene Size-up

Investigation

Stabilization

Initial Precautions

In any extrication situation, stabilization must take place before the operation can proceed. This means that the first step is to ensure that the scene is safe and secure, and that any potential hazards or dangers are addressed. Stabilization also refers to immobilizing the patient or the vehicle involved in the extrication, to prevent further injury or complications. Only after the situation is stable and secure can the operation proceed safely.

Explanation

In any extrication situation, stabilization must take place before the operation can proceed. This means that the first step is to ensure that the scene is safe and secure, and that any potential hazards or dangers are addressed. Stabilization also refers to immobilizing the patient or the vehicle involved in the extrication, to prevent further injury or complications. Only after the situation is stable and secure can the operation proceed safely.

38. Personnel working on IDLH atmospheres shall work in teams of no less than ____ and must remain in visual or voice contact at all times

2

3

4

5

6

Personnel working on IDLH atmospheres must work in teams of no less than 2 and maintain visual or voice contact at all times. This is important for their safety as IDLH atmospheres are immediately dangerous to life and health. Working in teams ensures that there is someone to provide assistance or rescue in case of an emergency. It also allows for better communication and coordination during the work, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries.

Explanation

Personnel working on IDLH atmospheres must work in teams of no less than 2 and maintain visual or voice contact at all times. This is important for their safety as IDLH atmospheres are immediately dangerous to life and health. Working in teams ensures that there is someone to provide assistance or rescue in case of an emergency. It also allows for better communication and coordination during the work, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries.

39. All transmissions on the MDC system are stored and logged on the CLEMIS servers. The servers are maintained by and are the property of CLEMIS. MDC transmissions are not subject to disclosure through FOIA.

True

False

They are subject to disclosure through FOIA.

Explanation

They are subject to disclosure through FOIA.

40. Officers who fail to satisfactorily perform the required skills and/or knowledge during training for a second time will be retested within ______ of the written notice to the member of his/her failure

Two weeks

One week

One month

Three weeks

Officers who fail to satisfactorily perform the required skills and/or knowledge during training for a second time will be retested within two weeks of the written notice to the member of his/her failure. This means that if an officer fails the training for the second time, they will have two weeks to prepare and retest. This timeframe allows the officer to review and improve their skills and knowledge before being reevaluated.

Explanation

Officers who fail to satisfactorily perform the required skills and/or knowledge during training for a second time will be retested within two weeks of the written notice to the member of his/her failure. This means that if an officer fails the training for the second time, they will have two weeks to prepare and retest. This timeframe allows the officer to review and improve their skills and knowledge before being reevaluated.

41. Hydrant flushing: Open hydrant slowly _______ turns to allow air to clear from line.

3 to 5

2 to 4

4 to 6

5 to 7

When hydrant flushing is performed, it is important to open the hydrant slowly to allow air to clear from the line. This process helps to remove any trapped air and maintain a steady flow of water. The correct answer, 3 to 5, indicates the range of time that should be taken to open the hydrant and ensure proper clearing of air from the line.

Explanation

When hydrant flushing is performed, it is important to open the hydrant slowly to allow air to clear from the line. This process helps to remove any trapped air and maintain a steady flow of water. The correct answer, 3 to 5, indicates the range of time that should be taken to open the hydrant and ensure proper clearing of air from the line.

42. _________ are of an informational nature only. They are used to disseminate information that is of interest or concern to Department members. They may be issued at levels of command with approval of the Director of Public Safety.

Memorandums

Orders

Special attentions

Policies

Memorandums are of an informational nature only. They are used to disseminate information that is of interest or concern to Department members. They may be issued at levels of command with approval of the Director of Public Safety. Memorandums serve as a means of communication within the department, providing important information to the members. They are not orders, special attentions, or policies, which have different purposes and functions within the department.

Explanation

Memorandums are of an informational nature only. They are used to disseminate information that is of interest or concern to Department members. They may be issued at levels of command with approval of the Director of Public Safety. Memorandums serve as a means of communication within the department, providing important information to the members. They are not orders, special attentions, or policies, which have different purposes and functions within the department.

43. In sexual harassment cases involving the Director, employees must report any incident directly to their lieutenant or highest ranking supervisor available

True

False

City Manager

Explanation

City Manager

44. A Level ___ HAZMAT is an incident involving hazardous materials that are beyond the handling capabilities of the department. It requires the services of a state or regional response team.

I

II

III

IV

Level II HAZMAT incidents are those that require the services of a state or regional response team because they involve hazardous materials that are beyond the handling capabilities of the department. This suggests that Level II incidents are more severe and require specialized expertise and resources to effectively manage and mitigate the risks associated with the hazardous materials involved.

Explanation

Level II HAZMAT incidents are those that require the services of a state or regional response team because they involve hazardous materials that are beyond the handling capabilities of the department. This suggests that Level II incidents are more severe and require specialized expertise and resources to effectively manage and mitigate the risks associated with the hazardous materials involved.

45. The maximum penalty that may be imposed as a result of a Deputy Directors Hearing shall be _______ days suspension without pay

3

5

7

10

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

46. The sequence to be used in searching a fire building for victims should be made in which order:

Fire area, floor above the fire, very top floor, all floors working downwards from the very top floor

Floor above the fire, fire area, very top floor, all floors working downwards from the very top floor

Very top floor, all floors working downwards from the very top floor, floor above the fire, fire area

Very top floor, all floors working downwards from the very top floor, fire area, floor above the fire

The correct sequence for searching a fire building for victims is to start with the fire area, then move to the floor above the fire, followed by the very top floor, and finally search all floors working downwards from the very top floor. This order ensures that the immediate danger of the fire area is addressed first, followed by the area directly above it, and then systematically covering all other floors in a logical and efficient manner.

Explanation

The correct sequence for searching a fire building for victims is to start with the fire area, then move to the floor above the fire, followed by the very top floor, and finally search all floors working downwards from the very top floor. This order ensures that the immediate danger of the fire area is addressed first, followed by the area directly above it, and then systematically covering all other floors in a logical and efficient manner.

47. PSO's off sick are eligible for overtime when they call that he/she will report for their next regularly scheduled shift, however, not within the same 24 hour period of the sick call.

True

False

PSOs who are off sick can be eligible for overtime if they notify that they will report for their next regularly scheduled shift. However, this overtime cannot be within the same 24-hour period of the sick call. This means that if a PSO calls in sick for a shift, they cannot work overtime during that same shift, but they may be eligible for overtime on their next scheduled shift after they have recovered. Therefore, the statement "PSO's off sick are eligible for overtime when they call that he/she will report for their next regularly scheduled shift, however, not within the same 24 hour period of the sick call" is true.

Explanation

PSOs who are off sick can be eligible for overtime if they notify that they will report for their next regularly scheduled shift. However, this overtime cannot be within the same 24-hour period of the sick call. This means that if a PSO calls in sick for a shift, they cannot work overtime during that same shift, but they may be eligible for overtime on their next scheduled shift after they have recovered. Therefore, the statement "PSO's off sick are eligible for overtime when they call that he/she will report for their next regularly scheduled shift, however, not within the same 24 hour period of the sick call" is true.

48. Beginning the first full week of ______ the flushing of hydrants will be the responsibility of the platoon working ______

June , days

June , nights

July , days

July , nights

In June, during the daytime, the responsibility of flushing hydrants will be assigned to the platoon working.

Explanation

In June, during the daytime, the responsibility of flushing hydrants will be assigned to the platoon working.

49. If a vehicle is fueled by Liquid Propane Gas (LPG), maintain a safe distance and evacuate all people within a _______ area that has exposure to the vehicle.

300 foot

500 foot

1 block

1/4 mile

If a vehicle is fueled by Liquid Propane Gas (LPG), it is important to maintain a safe distance and evacuate all people within a 1 block area that has exposure to the vehicle. This is necessary because LPG is highly flammable and can pose a significant risk if there is a leak or any kind of accident. Evacuating people within a 1 block radius helps to ensure their safety and minimize the potential for harm in case of an incident involving the LPG-fueled vehicle.

Explanation

If a vehicle is fueled by Liquid Propane Gas (LPG), it is important to maintain a safe distance and evacuate all people within a 1 block area that has exposure to the vehicle. This is necessary because LPG is highly flammable and can pose a significant risk if there is a leak or any kind of accident. Evacuating people within a 1 block radius helps to ensure their safety and minimize the potential for harm in case of an incident involving the LPG-fueled vehicle.

50. You should always fight fires from the ends of containers, never from the sides

True

False

Fight the sides, never the ends

Explanation

Fight the sides, never the ends

51. Policies and procedures will be issued only at the Department level by the __________ and will remain effective until reversed by a subsequent order

Chief of Police

Manual of rules

City charter

Management level

The correct answer is Chief of Police. This is because the statement mentions that policies and procedures will be issued only at the Department level, and the Chief of Police holds the highest position within the police department. Additionally, it is stated that these policies and procedures will remain effective until reversed by a subsequent order, indicating that the Chief of Police has the authority to make and change these policies.

Explanation

The correct answer is Chief of Police. This is because the statement mentions that policies and procedures will be issued only at the Department level, and the Chief of Police holds the highest position within the police department. Additionally, it is stated that these policies and procedures will remain effective until reversed by a subsequent order, indicating that the Chief of Police has the authority to make and change these policies.

52. Smoking is prohibited within any city building or city vehicle. It is also prohibited within _______ of any door, window, or ventilation system

2 feet

6 feet

10 feet

50 feet

100 feet

Smoking is prohibited within any city building or city vehicle to ensure the health and safety of individuals. It is also prohibited within 6 feet of any door, window, or ventilation system to prevent the entry of secondhand smoke into the building or vehicle. This distance helps to minimize the exposure of nonsmokers to harmful chemicals and reduces the risk of fire hazards.

Explanation

Smoking is prohibited within any city building or city vehicle to ensure the health and safety of individuals. It is also prohibited within 6 feet of any door, window, or ventilation system to prevent the entry of secondhand smoke into the building or vehicle. This distance helps to minimize the exposure of nonsmokers to harmful chemicals and reduces the risk of fire hazards.

53. A knife that is carried by an officer is classified as primarily being a defensive or secondary weapon

True

False

The knife should be carried primarily a utility tool

Explanation

The knife should be carried primarily a utility tool

54. If the cartridge of a TASER is deployed during an incident, at least ___ AFIDS should be collected as evidence

2

4

5

10

If the cartridge of a TASER is deployed during an incident, at least 4 AFIDS should be collected as evidence. This suggests that there are multiple AFIDS (Anti-Felon Identification System) in a TASER cartridge that can be used as evidence. Collecting 4 AFIDS ensures that there is enough evidence to support the incident and provide a comprehensive picture of what occurred.

Explanation

If the cartridge of a TASER is deployed during an incident, at least 4 AFIDS should be collected as evidence. This suggests that there are multiple AFIDS (Anti-Felon Identification System) in a TASER cartridge that can be used as evidence. Collecting 4 AFIDS ensures that there is enough evidence to support the incident and provide a comprehensive picture of what occurred.

55. PPE shall be provided by the Department at no cost to the employee and shall comply with the requirements of MIOSHA _______.

PART 74

PART 62

PART 31

PART 19

The correct answer is PART 74. This is because MIOSHA stands for the Michigan Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and PART 74 refers to the specific regulations and requirements for personal protective equipment (PPE) in the workplace. Therefore, the Department is responsible for providing PPE to employees at no cost, in accordance with the requirements outlined in PART 74.

Explanation

The correct answer is PART 74. This is because MIOSHA stands for the Michigan Occupational Safety and Health Administration, and PART 74 refers to the specific regulations and requirements for personal protective equipment (PPE) in the workplace. Therefore, the Department is responsible for providing PPE to employees at no cost, in accordance with the requirements outlined in PART 74.

56. A supervisor who smells the odor of intoxicants on the breath of a member reporting for regular duty, or while on active duty, may be evidence the member is unfit for duty. The supervisor can/should:

Order the member to take a PBT

Immediately suspend the member as unfit for duty

Take the members firearm

All of the above

The correct answer is "All of the above". If a supervisor smells the odor of intoxicants on the breath of a member reporting for regular duty or while on active duty, it may be evidence that the member is unfit for duty. In this situation, the supervisor can order the member to take a PBT (Portable Breath Test) to confirm the presence of alcohol. The supervisor can also immediately suspend the member as unfit for duty to ensure the safety of the workplace. Additionally, the supervisor may take the member's firearm to prevent any potential harm or misuse.

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above". If a supervisor smells the odor of intoxicants on the breath of a member reporting for regular duty or while on active duty, it may be evidence that the member is unfit for duty. In this situation, the supervisor can order the member to take a PBT (Portable Breath Test) to confirm the presence of alcohol. The supervisor can also immediately suspend the member as unfit for duty to ensure the safety of the workplace. Additionally, the supervisor may take the member's firearm to prevent any potential harm or misuse.

57. Any member subpoenaed to testify for the defense or against the city in any hearing or trial shall notify _____________ upon receipt of such subpoena

The Director of Public Safety

His or her immediate supervisor

The Grosse Pointe Park court office

The City Attorney

When a member is subpoenaed to testify for the defense or against the city in a hearing or trial, they are required to notify the Director of Public Safety. This is likely because the Director of Public Safety oversees the overall operations and administration of the city's public safety department, which includes law enforcement. By notifying the Director of Public Safety, they can ensure that the appropriate measures are taken to address the situation and provide any necessary support or guidance to the member involved.

Explanation

When a member is subpoenaed to testify for the defense or against the city in a hearing or trial, they are required to notify the Director of Public Safety. This is likely because the Director of Public Safety oversees the overall operations and administration of the city's public safety department, which includes law enforcement. By notifying the Director of Public Safety, they can ensure that the appropriate measures are taken to address the situation and provide any necessary support or guidance to the member involved.

58. Within the first ____ days of medical care for a work related illness or injury, the employee must utilize the City Physician

3

5

7

10

14

After 10 days from the inception of medical care the employee may use a physician of their choosing

Explanation

After 10 days from the inception of medical care the employee may use a physician of their choosing

59. The 21-day rule, as it applies to a specific vacancy, will not be invoked if the department fails to fill the position after 90 days.

True

False

120 days

Explanation

120 days

60. Any member who has elected to save furlough time must schedule the time off no later than _________

September 1st

October 1st

October 31st

December 1st

Members who have chosen to save furlough time must ensure that they schedule their time off before September 1st. This means that they need to plan and take their furlough time before this date, otherwise they will not be able to use it. It is important for members to be aware of this deadline and make the necessary arrangements to take their furlough time before September 1st.

Explanation

Members who have chosen to save furlough time must ensure that they schedule their time off before September 1st. This means that they need to plan and take their furlough time before this date, otherwise they will not be able to use it. It is important for members to be aware of this deadline and make the necessary arrangements to take their furlough time before September 1st.

61. A(n) _______________ Attack is an aggressive interior attack and shall be utilized when an immediate penetration into the structure is necessary to perform rescue and/or extinguishment operations

Structured

Offensive

Emergency

Marginal

Aggressive

An offensive attack is an aggressive interior attack that is used when there is a need for immediate penetration into a structure to perform rescue and extinguishment operations. This approach involves firefighters entering the structure to directly attack the fire and save lives. It is a proactive and assertive approach that aims to quickly control and extinguish the fire.

Explanation

An offensive attack is an aggressive interior attack that is used when there is a need for immediate penetration into a structure to perform rescue and extinguishment operations. This approach involves firefighters entering the structure to directly attack the fire and save lives. It is a proactive and assertive approach that aims to quickly control and extinguish the fire.

62. An evacuation signal during a fire should be a series of two second blasts from the air horns of all available vehicles, with a two second interval in between followed by a radio broadcast

True

False

The signals should be ONE second blasts

Explanation

The signals should be ONE second blasts

63. The fire protective clothing and equipment purchased by the Department shall meet or exceed the requirements of _____ Standard on Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting and Department specifications

NFPA 1971

NFPA 1959

NFPA 1645

NFPA 1683

The correct answer is NFPA 1971. The question is asking for the standard that the fire protective clothing and equipment purchased by the Department should meet or exceed. NFPA 1971 is the standard for Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting. Therefore, the correct answer is NFPA 1971.

Explanation

The correct answer is NFPA 1971. The question is asking for the standard that the fire protective clothing and equipment purchased by the Department should meet or exceed. NFPA 1971 is the standard for Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting. Therefore, the correct answer is NFPA 1971.

64. A Level ___ HAZMAT Incident poses a severe hazard on a large area which poses an extreme threat to life and property and may require a large scale protective action.

II

III

4

5

C

D

10

Level III HAZMAT incidents pose a severe hazard on a large area and pose an extreme threat to life and property. These incidents typically involve hazardous materials that can cause serious injury or death and require a large-scale protective action.

Explanation

Level III HAZMAT incidents pose a severe hazard on a large area and pose an extreme threat to life and property. These incidents typically involve hazardous materials that can cause serious injury or death and require a large-scale protective action.

65. ________ will be known as any fire that has progressed past the incipient state involving a structure or emergency operation involving a known or unknown HAZMAT condition.

R.E.C.E.O.

IDLH

Unsalvageable

Flashover

Emergency stage

IDLH = Immediate Dangerous to Life and Health

Explanation

IDLH = Immediate Dangerous to Life and Health

66. Any juvenile detained shall be handled as directed by the _________________

Standard Operating Procedures

Juvenile Justice and Deliquency Prevention Act

Youth Services Unit

Wayne County Prosecutors Office

State Guidelines on Juvenile Detention

Juvenile Justice and Deliquency Prevention Act (J.J.D.P.A.)

Explanation

Juvenile Justice and Deliquency Prevention Act (J.J.D.P.A.)

67. Intoxicated prisoners between the ages of 17 and 20 can be released when their BAL, based on a PBT is _____ or less

.08

.07

.04

.02

.00

Intoxicated prisoners between the ages of 17 and 20 can be released when their blood alcohol level (BAL), based on a portable breath test (PBT), is .02 or less. This means that if their BAL is higher than .02, they cannot be released.

Explanation

Intoxicated prisoners between the ages of 17 and 20 can be released when their blood alcohol level (BAL), based on a portable breath test (PBT), is .02 or less. This means that if their BAL is higher than .02, they cannot be released.

68. A detainee in the restraint chair, who has demonstrated acceptable behavior for ___________ will be assessed for possible removal from the chair

30 minutes to one hour

One to two hours

Two to three hours

Two to four hours

Four to six hours

After being placed in a restraint chair, a detainee's behavior is monitored for a period of one to two hours. If the detainee demonstrates acceptable behavior during this time, they may be considered for removal from the chair. This suggests that the purpose of the restraint chair is to temporarily restrain individuals who may pose a risk or threat, and the assessment period allows for observation of their behavior to determine if they can be safely released from the restraints.

Explanation

After being placed in a restraint chair, a detainee's behavior is monitored for a period of one to two hours. If the detainee demonstrates acceptable behavior during this time, they may be considered for removal from the chair. This suggests that the purpose of the restraint chair is to temporarily restrain individuals who may pose a risk or threat, and the assessment period allows for observation of their behavior to determine if they can be safely released from the restraints.

69. The Trial Board shall be an Administrative Hearing without a strict adherence to the Rule of Evidence. The standard of proof shall be substantial evidence on the record.

True

False

The explanation for the correct answer, which is True, is that the statement clearly states that the Trial Board will be an Administrative Hearing without strict adherence to the Rule of Evidence. It also mentions that the standard of proof will be substantial evidence on the record. Therefore, the statement supports the idea that the Trial Board will not strictly follow the Rule of Evidence and will rely on substantial evidence instead.

Explanation

The explanation for the correct answer, which is True, is that the statement clearly states that the Trial Board will be an Administrative Hearing without strict adherence to the Rule of Evidence. It also mentions that the standard of proof will be substantial evidence on the record. Therefore, the statement supports the idea that the Trial Board will not strictly follow the Rule of Evidence and will rely on substantial evidence instead.

70. An officer who fails to successfully compete required training shall be provided additional instruction while on duty. The member shall be allowed up to _____ working days from the date of the retraining to improve his/her skills and/or knowledge

7

10

14

21

An officer who fails to successfully compete required training shall be provided additional instruction while on duty. The member shall be allowed up to 7 working days from the date of the retraining to improve his/her skills and/or knowledge. This means that the officer will have a maximum of 7 working days to receive additional instruction and work on improving their skills and knowledge after failing the required training.

Explanation

An officer who fails to successfully compete required training shall be provided additional instruction while on duty. The member shall be allowed up to 7 working days from the date of the retraining to improve his/her skills and/or knowledge. This means that the officer will have a maximum of 7 working days to receive additional instruction and work on improving their skills and knowledge after failing the required training.

71. During an emergency call in (fire, disater,..) it may be filled at the supervisors discretion and the hours not recorded

True

False

During an emergency call, it is possible that the supervisor may choose to fill out the necessary paperwork and not record the hours worked by the employee. This could be due to the urgent nature of the situation and the need to prioritize immediate action over administrative tasks. Therefore, the statement "During an emergency call in (fire, disaster,..) it may be filled at the supervisor's discretion and the hours not recorded" is true.

Explanation

During an emergency call, it is possible that the supervisor may choose to fill out the necessary paperwork and not record the hours worked by the employee. This could be due to the urgent nature of the situation and the need to prioritize immediate action over administrative tasks. Therefore, the statement "During an emergency call in (fire, disaster,..) it may be filled at the supervisor's discretion and the hours not recorded" is true.

72. Personnel called by a supervisor in error that report for overtime will be given ____ hours overtime pay and hours _________

2 , recorded

2 , not recorded

3 , recorded

3 , not recorded

When a supervisor calls personnel in error, the report for overtime will not be recorded. This means that the personnel will not receive any overtime pay for the hours worked. The correct answer, "2 , not recorded," reflects this situation.

Explanation

When a supervisor calls personnel in error, the report for overtime will not be recorded. This means that the personnel will not receive any overtime pay for the hours worked. The correct answer, "2 , not recorded," reflects this situation.

73. Ground ladders shall not be painted except for the top and bottom _________ of each section for purposes of identification or visibility.

460 mm (18 in.)

480 mm (19 in)

520 mm (20 in.)

430 mm (17 in.)

Ground ladders should not be painted, except for the top and bottom 460 mm (18 in.) of each section. This is done for the purpose of identification or visibility. Painting the top and bottom sections of the ladder can help firefighters easily identify and locate the ladder during emergencies or in low visibility conditions. The rest of the ladder should remain unpainted to maintain its natural grip and prevent any potential damage or interference with its functionality.

Explanation

Ground ladders should not be painted, except for the top and bottom 460 mm (18 in.) of each section. This is done for the purpose of identification or visibility. Painting the top and bottom sections of the ladder can help firefighters easily identify and locate the ladder during emergencies or in low visibility conditions. The rest of the ladder should remain unpainted to maintain its natural grip and prevent any potential damage or interference with its functionality.

74. Any time there is a dispatcher shortage of 6 hours or more, whether the shift is short or not, a dispatcher will be offered the time before a position is filled by a PSO

True

False

If there is a shortage of dispatchers for 6 hours or more, regardless of whether the shift is already short-staffed or not, a dispatcher will be given the opportunity to work the shift before it is filled by a Public Safety Officer (PSO). This means that dispatchers are prioritized for filling any vacancies in their schedule, even if the shift is already understaffed. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

If there is a shortage of dispatchers for 6 hours or more, regardless of whether the shift is already short-staffed or not, a dispatcher will be given the opportunity to work the shift before it is filled by a Public Safety Officer (PSO). This means that dispatchers are prioritized for filling any vacancies in their schedule, even if the shift is already understaffed. Therefore, the statement is true.

75. During a non-structure fire the dispatcher shall notify the stand-by personnel of the fire as well as available patrol units. Afterwards the dispatcher shall broadcast the RUNNING CARD.

True

False

at a NON-structure fire the Incident Commander will instruct the dispatcher if and when to broadcast the Running Card.

Explanation

at a NON-structure fire the Incident Commander will instruct the dispatcher if and when to broadcast the Running Card.

76. During an extrication, the three things requiring Stabilization are:

Area

Scene

Command

Incident

Vehicle

Equipment

Personnel

Victim

Emotions

Roadway

Boundaries

Safety

*** Also keep in mind extrication can only begin after the vehicle has been deemed stabilized. In
addition a means of fire suppression (1 ¾” hose-line or fire extinguisher) needs to be deployed and positioned.

Explanation

*** Also keep in mind extrication can only begin after the vehicle has been deemed stabilized. In
addition a means of fire suppression (1 ¾” hose-line or fire extinguisher) needs to be deployed and positioned.

Submit

77. When using hydraulic equipment, specifically chains and hooks for extrication, always make sure all pulls are to the front of the hook and not to the opening

True

False

always make sure all pulls are to the REAR of the hook and not to the opening

Explanation

always make sure all pulls are to the REAR of the hook and not to the opening

78. Public Safety Officers shall have and perform such duties as are imposed upon police officers and firefighters by the

General orders, policies and procedures and standard operating guidelines of the City of Grosse Pointe Park

United States Constitution, laws of the state of Michigan and the chain of command

The correct answer is the Charter of the City of Grosse Pointe Park, ordinances of the City of Grosse Pointe Park, and the laws of the state of Michigan. This answer is correct because it states that Public Safety Officers are required to have and perform duties as imposed by the Charter, ordinances, and laws of the city and state. This means that they must follow the specific regulations and laws set forth by the city and state in order to fulfill their duties as Public Safety Officers.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Charter of the City of Grosse Pointe Park, ordinances of the City of Grosse Pointe Park, and the laws of the state of Michigan. This answer is correct because it states that Public Safety Officers are required to have and perform duties as imposed by the Charter, ordinances, and laws of the city and state. This means that they must follow the specific regulations and laws set forth by the city and state in order to fulfill their duties as Public Safety Officers.

79. A body cavity search shall not be conducted without a search warrant. It shall be the responsibility of the PC/APC to prepare and obtain a body cavity search warrant.

True

False

Responsibility of the Detective Bureau

Explanation

Responsibility of the Detective Bureau

80. A trial board will consist of three officers of the rank of Sergeant or higher

True

False

Trial board = Lieutenant >
Major Incident Review = Sergeant >

Explanation

Trial board = Lieutenant >
Major Incident Review = Sergeant >

81. It is recognized that the primary consideration in evaluating a response to an emergency situation is that of _____________

Reasonableness

Urgency

Priority

Control

In evaluating a response to an emergency situation, the primary consideration is reasonableness. This means that the response should be logical, practical, and sensible given the circumstances. It involves assessing the available resources, assessing the risks and benefits of different actions, and making a decision that is both effective and appropriate. Reasonableness ensures that the response is well-thought-out and based on sound judgment, taking into account the best interests of those involved and the overall situation.

Explanation

In evaluating a response to an emergency situation, the primary consideration is reasonableness. This means that the response should be logical, practical, and sensible given the circumstances. It involves assessing the available resources, assessing the risks and benefits of different actions, and making a decision that is both effective and appropriate. Reasonableness ensures that the response is well-thought-out and based on sound judgment, taking into account the best interests of those involved and the overall situation.

82. At a structure fire at least one hose-line shall be advanced to the seat of the fire. The line chosen shall never be less than 1 1/2" in diameter.

True

False

Never less than 1 3/4"

Explanation

Never less than 1 3/4"

83. Any disciplinary action involving a suspension or above will be documented in a Special Order. This Special Order shall be posted and shall remain for a period of ___________

1 month

3 months

6 months

12 months

Any disciplinary action involving a suspension or above will be documented in a Special Order and posted for a period of 6 months. This allows for transparency and ensures that the information regarding the disciplinary action remains accessible for a reasonable amount of time. It also serves as a reminder to the individual involved and others within the organization about the consequences of such actions.

Explanation

Any disciplinary action involving a suspension or above will be documented in a Special Order and posted for a period of 6 months. This allows for transparency and ensures that the information regarding the disciplinary action remains accessible for a reasonable amount of time. It also serves as a reminder to the individual involved and others within the organization about the consequences of such actions.

84. The Deputy Chief or Captain may suspend or discharge an employee, with or without pay, for disciplinary action upon just cause

True

False

Only the Director can discharge an employee

Explanation

Only the Director can discharge an employee

85. An employee receiving an emergency suspension shall report to the __________ on the next business day at _________

Director , 9:00AM

Director , 10:00AM

Deputy Director , 9:00AM

Deputy Director , 10:00AM

The correct answer is "Director, 9:00AM". When an employee receives an emergency suspension, they are required to report to the Director on the next business day at 9:00AM.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Director, 9:00AM". When an employee receives an emergency suspension, they are required to report to the Director on the next business day at 9:00AM.

86. The _________ will be designated as the Training Supervisor

Administrative Sergeant

Captain

Director

Shift Lieutenant

The Director or his designee

Explanation

The Director or his designee

87. Scheduled time off that creates the need for overtime must be cancelled within 48 hours before that leave day

True

False

24 hours

Explanation

24 hours

88. The platoon working _____ the first two weeks of _______ shall be responsible for pumping all hydrants. The platoon working _____ the last two weeks of _______ shall recheck all hydrants for water in the barrel.

(days , September) (days , October)

(days , September) (nights , October)

(nights , September) (days , September)

(days , September) (days , September)

(days , October) (days , October)

The platoon working during the first two weeks of September shall be responsible for pumping all hydrants. The platoon working during the last two weeks of September shall recheck all hydrants for water in the barrel.

Explanation

The platoon working during the first two weeks of September shall be responsible for pumping all hydrants. The platoon working during the last two weeks of September shall recheck all hydrants for water in the barrel.

89. Officers may carry a fixed blade knife no longer than 5 inches

True

False

No FIXED blade knives, must be 5 inches or less and OPERABLE with one hand

Explanation

No FIXED blade knives, must be 5 inches or less and OPERABLE with one hand

90. When an officer is carrying a secondary/backup firearm, he is required to carry at a minimum ONE reload

True

False

There are NO reload requirements for secondary/backup weapons

Explanation

There are NO reload requirements for secondary/backup weapons

91. Intoxicated prisoners over the age of 20 can be released when their BAL, based on a PBT reaches _____ or less

.08

.07

.06

.02

.00

Intoxicated prisoners over the age of 20 can be released when their blood alcohol level (BAL), based on a portable breathalyzer test (PBT), reaches .07 or less. This means that if their BAL is .07 or lower, it is considered safe for them to be released from custody.

Explanation

Intoxicated prisoners over the age of 20 can be released when their blood alcohol level (BAL), based on a portable breathalyzer test (PBT), reaches .07 or less. This means that if their BAL is .07 or lower, it is considered safe for them to be released from custody.

92. An officer may use lethal force to prevent the escape of a fleeing felon ONLY when the officer has probable cause to believe the suspect poses a threat of serious physical harm to the officer or other persons OR there is no other reasonable means available to prevent the subject's escape

True

False

AND there is no other reasonable means available to prevent the subject's escape

Explanation

AND there is no other reasonable means available to prevent the subject's escape

93. Whenever a disciplinary action is taken or recommended, a written report must be submitted immediately to ____________

The Director

The Deputy Director

The on-duty Lieutenant

The Administrative Secretary

Whenever a disciplinary action is taken or recommended, a written report must be submitted immediately to the Director. This is because the Director is the highest authority in the organization and is responsible for overseeing all disciplinary matters. By submitting the report to the Director, it ensures that the appropriate person is informed and can take necessary actions based on the disciplinary action or recommendation. The Director has the authority to review the report, make decisions, and implement any necessary disciplinary measures.

Explanation

Whenever a disciplinary action is taken or recommended, a written report must be submitted immediately to the Director. This is because the Director is the highest authority in the organization and is responsible for overseeing all disciplinary matters. By submitting the report to the Director, it ensures that the appropriate person is informed and can take necessary actions based on the disciplinary action or recommendation. The Director has the authority to review the report, make decisions, and implement any necessary disciplinary measures.

94. _________ Attack or ________ Operations are those initial deployments where immediate intervention with limited personnel and equipment are utilized to perform a rescue, confinement, or exposure operation. This operation is considered to be a temporary status awaiting sufficient manpower or equipment to transfer into an offensive or defensive attack.

Median

Immediate

Marginal

Specialized

Direct

Marginal operations are those initial deployments where immediate intervention with limited personnel and equipment are utilized to perform a rescue, confinement, or exposure operation. This operation is considered to be a temporary status awaiting sufficient manpower or equipment to transfer into an offensive or defensive attack.

Explanation

Marginal operations are those initial deployments where immediate intervention with limited personnel and equipment are utilized to perform a rescue, confinement, or exposure operation. This operation is considered to be a temporary status awaiting sufficient manpower or equipment to transfer into an offensive or defensive attack.

95. Regarding fires involving electricity, all members must maintain a minimum distance of at least 10' from all energized electrical equipment.

True

False

Never use less than 10 feet

Explanation

Never use less than 10 feet

96. For hose testing a 2 1/2" gate shall be attached to a discharge NOT located adjacent to the pump operator's panel.

True

False

In hose testing, it is necessary to attach a 2 1/2" gate to a discharge that is not located adjacent to the pump operator's panel. This is because the pump operator's panel is where the controls for the pump are located, and it is important to have a separate discharge for hose testing to ensure that the pump is not accidentally activated during the testing process. Therefore, the statement is true.

Explanation

In hose testing, it is necessary to attach a 2 1/2" gate to a discharge that is not located adjacent to the pump operator's panel. This is because the pump operator's panel is where the controls for the pump are located, and it is important to have a separate discharge for hose testing to ensure that the pump is not accidentally activated during the testing process. Therefore, the statement is true.

97. Operations-trained personnel cannot enter a hot zone. (The hot zone is defined as the area that is determined to be immediately dangerous to life and health.) The only exceptions are incidents involving gasoline, diesel fuel, and propane.

True

False

Operations-trained personnel are not allowed to enter a hot zone, which is an area that poses an immediate danger to life and health. This is a safety measure to protect the personnel from potential harm. However, there are exceptions for incidents involving gasoline, diesel fuel, and propane. In these specific cases, operations-trained personnel may be permitted to enter the hot zone to address the situation. Therefore, the statement that operations-trained personnel cannot enter a hot zone is true, with the mentioned exceptions.

Explanation

Operations-trained personnel are not allowed to enter a hot zone, which is an area that poses an immediate danger to life and health. This is a safety measure to protect the personnel from potential harm. However, there are exceptions for incidents involving gasoline, diesel fuel, and propane. In these specific cases, operations-trained personnel may be permitted to enter the hot zone to address the situation. Therefore, the statement that operations-trained personnel cannot enter a hot zone is true, with the mentioned exceptions.

98. If a member wishes to file a work complaint regarding a supervisor, the member shall reduce his complaint to writing and direct it through the chain of command to the Chief of Police. Failure of a command officer to forward the communication shall be treated as _____________

Insubordination

Dereliction of Duty

Deportment

Failure to Act

Violation of SOP's

If a member wishes to file a work complaint regarding a supervisor, they are required to reduce the complaint to writing and direct it through the chain of command to the Chief of Police. If a command officer fails to forward the communication, it is considered a dereliction of duty. This means that the command officer is neglecting or failing to perform their duty or responsibility to properly handle and address the complaint.

Explanation

If a member wishes to file a work complaint regarding a supervisor, they are required to reduce the complaint to writing and direct it through the chain of command to the Chief of Police. If a command officer fails to forward the communication, it is considered a dereliction of duty. This means that the command officer is neglecting or failing to perform their duty or responsibility to properly handle and address the complaint.

99. Fire apparatus tires and rims shall be inspected inside at least once every ___ years.

10

5

2

3

Fire apparatus tires and rims shall be inspected inside at least once every 10 years. This ensures that the tires and rims are in proper condition and can withstand the demands of firefighting operations. Regular inspections help identify any potential issues or damage that may compromise the safety and effectiveness of the fire apparatus. By inspecting the tires and rims every 10 years, firefighters can ensure that they are using equipment that is reliable and can perform optimally during emergencies.

Explanation

Fire apparatus tires and rims shall be inspected inside at least once every 10 years. This ensures that the tires and rims are in proper condition and can withstand the demands of firefighting operations. Regular inspections help identify any potential issues or damage that may compromise the safety and effectiveness of the fire apparatus. By inspecting the tires and rims every 10 years, firefighters can ensure that they are using equipment that is reliable and can perform optimally during emergencies.

100. A Grosse Pointe Park Department of Public Safety Restraint Chair Use Record shall be filled out whenever the restraint chair is used and an officer or detainee suffers an injury of any kind

True

False

It should be used EVERY time anyone is placed in the chair regardless of duration or outcome

Explanation

It should be used EVERY time anyone is placed in the chair regardless of duration or outcome

101. Ground ladders, as for all portable fire equipment, shall be inspected at least _______ and within _______ after each use in compliance with MiOSHA Part 74.

Yearly, 1 month

Monthly, 24 hours

Monthly, 1 week

Yearly, 1 week

Ground ladders, like all portable fire equipment, need to be inspected regularly to ensure they are in proper working condition. According to MiOSHA Part 74, ground ladders should be inspected at least monthly and within 24 hours after each use. This ensures that any damage or issues with the ladder can be identified and addressed promptly, helping to maintain the safety and effectiveness of the equipment.

Explanation

Ground ladders, like all portable fire equipment, need to be inspected regularly to ensure they are in proper working condition. According to MiOSHA Part 74, ground ladders should be inspected at least monthly and within 24 hours after each use. This ensures that any damage or issues with the ladder can be identified and addressed promptly, helping to maintain the safety and effectiveness of the equipment.

102. If a prisoner is being transferred to another facility, the receiving or transporting officer shall sign for the prisoners property. If he refuses to accept any of the prisoners property it shall be held by the department for a period of ___ days

14

7

21

10

When a prisoner is being transferred to another facility, the receiving or transporting officer is responsible for signing for the prisoner's property. If the officer refuses to accept any of the prisoner's property, the department is required to hold it for a period of 14 days. This ensures that the prisoner's belongings are properly accounted for and can be returned to them if necessary.

Explanation

When a prisoner is being transferred to another facility, the receiving or transporting officer is responsible for signing for the prisoner's property. If the officer refuses to accept any of the prisoner's property, the department is required to hold it for a period of 14 days. This ensures that the prisoner's belongings are properly accounted for and can be returned to them if necessary.

103. An officer who fails to successfully complete required training shall be provided additional instruction while on duty. The member shall be allowed up to _____ working days from the date of retraining to improve his/her skills/knowledge. Officers who again fail to perform the required skills will be retested within _________ of the written notice to the member of of his/her failure. If the member again fails to perform the required skills, a written report shall be submitted by the Instructor to the ________ stating the outcome and any recommendations.

7 , 2 weeks, Director

7 , 1 month , Director

5 , 1 week , Director

14 , 1 month, Captain

5 , 2 weeks, Director

7 , 1 month, Captain

If an officer fails to successfully complete required training, they will be provided additional instruction while on duty. The officer will be allowed up to 7 working days from the date of retraining to improve their skills/knowledge. If the officer fails again, they will be retested within 2 weeks of receiving written notice of their failure. If they fail a third time, the instructor will submit a written report to the Director stating the outcome and any recommendations.

Explanation

If an officer fails to successfully complete required training, they will be provided additional instruction while on duty. The officer will be allowed up to 7 working days from the date of retraining to improve their skills/knowledge. If the officer fails again, they will be retested within 2 weeks of receiving written notice of their failure. If they fail a third time, the instructor will submit a written report to the Director stating the outcome and any recommendations.

104. Visual Inspection Records for ground ladders shall be retained for _______

24 months

12 months

6 months

18 months

** Testing and repair records shall be kept for the life of the ladder.

Explanation

** Testing and repair records shall be kept for the life of the ladder.

105. If a Trial Board determines that a violation of the Rules and Regulations has been proven, their conclusion and a recommendation for penalty will be given to the Deputy Director

True

False

It is given to the Director

Explanation

It is given to the Director

106. Incident Commanders should utilize R.E.C.E.O. as a guide which conists of:

Rate

Rescue

Rapid

Express

Egress

Exposures

Confinement

Containment

Concealment

Excitement

Exit

Extinguishment

Overhead

Overhaul

Outside

The correct answer is a list of steps that an Incident Commander should follow during an emergency situation. The acronym R.E.C.E.O. stands for Rescue, Exposures, Confinement, Extinguishment, and Overhaul. These steps represent the priorities that need to be addressed in order to effectively manage and control the incident. First, the focus is on rescuing individuals who may be in immediate danger. Then, the attention shifts to identifying and addressing any potential exposures or hazards. Next, efforts are made to confine the incident and prevent it from spreading further. Once these steps are taken, the emphasis is on extinguishing the fire or mitigating the emergency. Finally, the area is thoroughly inspected and overhauled to ensure that there are no remaining hazards.

Explanation

The correct answer is a list of steps that an Incident Commander should follow during an emergency situation. The acronym R.E.C.E.O. stands for Rescue, Exposures, Confinement, Extinguishment, and Overhaul. These steps represent the priorities that need to be addressed in order to effectively manage and control the incident. First, the focus is on rescuing individuals who may be in immediate danger. Then, the attention shifts to identifying and addressing any potential exposures or hazards. Next, efforts are made to confine the incident and prevent it from spreading further. Once these steps are taken, the emphasis is on extinguishing the fire or mitigating the emergency. Finally, the area is thoroughly inspected and overhauled to ensure that there are no remaining hazards.

Submit

107. Static pressure testing hose: Fire Attack (2 ½" and less) hose tested at ___ psi or a pressure not to exceed the service test pressure marked on the hose. Supply hose (greater than 2 ½") tested at ___ psi or a pressure not to exceed the service test pressure marked on the hose.

300, 200

200, 100

100, 50

200, 50

*** This pressure should be maintained for 3 minutes

Explanation

*** This pressure should be maintained for 3 minutes

108. Aerial devices should have A Non Destructive Test (NDT) performed as required by NFPA 1911 Chapter 22 at least once every ___ years.

5

2

3

10

Aerial devices should have a Non Destructive Test (NDT) performed as required by NFPA 1911 Chapter 22 at least once every 5 years. This means that according to the NFPA 1911 standard, it is necessary to conduct an NDT on aerial devices every 5 years to ensure their safety and functionality. This test helps to identify any potential defects or weaknesses in the equipment that could compromise its performance and put operators at risk. By conducting regular NDTs, the aerial devices can be properly maintained and any necessary repairs or replacements can be made to ensure their continued safe operation.

Explanation

Aerial devices should have a Non Destructive Test (NDT) performed as required by NFPA 1911 Chapter 22 at least once every 5 years. This means that according to the NFPA 1911 standard, it is necessary to conduct an NDT on aerial devices every 5 years to ensure their safety and functionality. This test helps to identify any potential defects or weaknesses in the equipment that could compromise its performance and put operators at risk. By conducting regular NDTs, the aerial devices can be properly maintained and any necessary repairs or replacements can be made to ensure their continued safe operation.

109. _________ are issued by an executive officer to establish temporary, self-canceling policy, procedures, or announcements which apply only to a specific segment, activity, or circumstance of the Department.

Special orders

Memorandums

Executive orders

Directives

Special orders are issued by an executive officer to establish temporary, self-canceling policy, procedures, or announcements which apply only to a specific segment, activity, or circumstance of the Department.

Explanation

Special orders are issued by an executive officer to establish temporary, self-canceling policy, procedures, or announcements which apply only to a specific segment, activity, or circumstance of the Department.

110. Annual testing of fire apparatus involving a pump test and an aerial device test will be conducted in accordance with ______

NFPA 1911

NFPA 1971

NFPA 1819

NFPA 1822

The correct answer is NFPA 1911 because this standard specifically addresses the testing and maintenance of fire apparatus, including pump tests and aerial device tests. It provides guidelines for conducting these tests on an annual basis to ensure the equipment is functioning properly and meets the necessary safety requirements. NFPA 1971 is a different standard that pertains to protective ensembles for structural firefighting, while NFPA 1819 and NFPA 1822 do not specifically address fire apparatus testing.

Explanation

The correct answer is NFPA 1911 because this standard specifically addresses the testing and maintenance of fire apparatus, including pump tests and aerial device tests. It provides guidelines for conducting these tests on an annual basis to ensure the equipment is functioning properly and meets the necessary safety requirements. NFPA 1971 is a different standard that pertains to protective ensembles for structural firefighting, while NFPA 1819 and NFPA 1822 do not specifically address fire apparatus testing.

111. Any shift shortage that requires the filling of 6 hours or less can be filled at the supervisors discretion without following the full shift call in guidelines

True

False

LESS than 6 hours

Explanation

LESS than 6 hours

112. Hose testing is based on _______ Standard for the Care, Use, Inspection, Service Testing, and Replacement of Fire Hose, Couplings, Nozzles, and Fire Hose.

NFPA 1962

NFPA 1973

NFPA 1921

NFPA 1956

Hose testing is based on NFPA 1962 Standard for the Care, Use, Inspection, Service Testing, and Replacement of Fire Hose, Couplings, Nozzles, and Fire Hose.

Explanation

Hose testing is based on NFPA 1962 Standard for the Care, Use, Inspection, Service Testing, and Replacement of Fire Hose, Couplings, Nozzles, and Fire Hose.

113. ______________ shall be defined as conditions that exist in which immediate action could prevent the loss of life, serious injury or the prevention of an incident from growing to catastrophic proportions. They are NOT to be considered standard operating procedures.

IDLH

HAZMAT Situations

Backdraft

Rescue Operations

Exigent Circumstances

Exigent circumstances refer to situations where immediate action is necessary to prevent loss of life, serious injury, or the escalation of an incident to catastrophic levels. These circumstances are not considered standard operating procedures, meaning they are not part of regular protocols or routines.

Explanation

Exigent circumstances refer to situations where immediate action is necessary to prevent loss of life, serious injury, or the escalation of an incident to catastrophic levels. These circumstances are not considered standard operating procedures, meaning they are not part of regular protocols or routines.

114. Members shall notify their commanding officer of any change in telephone number or residence __________ of said change

Immediately

Within 12 Hours

Within 24 Hours

Within 48 Hours

Members are required to inform their commanding officer about any change in their telephone number or residence within 48 hours of the change. This means that they have two days to update their commanding officer with the new information.

Explanation

Members are required to inform their commanding officer about any change in their telephone number or residence within 48 hours of the change. This means that they have two days to update their commanding officer with the new information.

115. For hose testing the maximum layout is ____ feet. Recommended layout is ____ feet.

300, 150

400, 200

300, 200

200, 100

The correct answer is 300, 150. This means that for hose testing, the maximum layout should be 300 feet, while the recommended layout is 150 feet.

Explanation

The correct answer is 300, 150. This means that for hose testing, the maximum layout should be 300 feet, while the recommended layout is 150 feet.

116. __________ consists of principles and values which guide the performance of the Department in a particular situation. It is a statement of guiding principles which should be followed in activities which are directed toward the attainment of Department objectives.

Policy

Procedure

The manual of rules

Mission statement

Policy consists of principles and values which guide the performance of the Department in a particular situation. It is a statement of guiding principles which should be followed in activities which are directed toward the attainment of Department objectives. A policy provides a framework for decision-making and helps ensure consistency and fairness in the actions of the Department. It sets out the overall direction and goals of the Department and provides guidelines for employees to follow in their day-to-day work.

Explanation

Policy consists of principles and values which guide the performance of the Department in a particular situation. It is a statement of guiding principles which should be followed in activities which are directed toward the attainment of Department objectives. A policy provides a framework for decision-making and helps ensure consistency and fairness in the actions of the Department. It sets out the overall direction and goals of the Department and provides guidelines for employees to follow in their day-to-day work.

117. If an officer has probable cause to believe an assault or assault and battery has occurred, the officer SHOULD consider the following when determining whether to make an arrest::

The marital status of the parties

The lack of a PPO, FPO or court order

The wishes of either party concerning arrest or prosecution

Assurances that the violence will stop

The financial consequences of arrest

The race, sex, religion, sexual orientation, education or occupation

The intent of the domestic violence policy and Michigan Compiled Laws to protect victims of domestic violence

The degree of injury on the individuals involved

The individuals extent of fear of physical injury to themselves or others

The history of domestic violence between the individuals

The answer suggests that when determining whether to make an arrest in a domestic violence case, the officer should consider factors such as the intent of the domestic violence policy and laws, the degree of injury on the individuals involved, the individual's extent of fear of physical injury to themselves or others, and the history of domestic violence between the individuals. These factors are important in assessing the severity of the situation and ensuring the safety and protection of the victims of domestic violence.

Explanation

The answer suggests that when determining whether to make an arrest in a domestic violence case, the officer should consider factors such as the intent of the domestic violence policy and laws, the degree of injury on the individuals involved, the individual's extent of fear of physical injury to themselves or others, and the history of domestic violence between the individuals. These factors are important in assessing the severity of the situation and ensuring the safety and protection of the victims of domestic violence.

Submit

118. The Deputy Director shall have the authority to reassign any employee subject to disciplinary hearings and initiate disciplinary action at ANY level

True

False

The statement is true because it states that the Deputy Director has the authority to reassign any employee subject to disciplinary hearings and initiate disciplinary action at any level. This means that the Deputy Director has the power to move employees to different positions and also take disciplinary measures against them, regardless of their level within the organization.

Explanation

The statement is true because it states that the Deputy Director has the authority to reassign any employee subject to disciplinary hearings and initiate disciplinary action at any level. This means that the Deputy Director has the power to move employees to different positions and also take disciplinary measures against them, regardless of their level within the organization.

119. When flow testing on hydrants is required it shall be complete in accordance with ________ Recommended Practice for Fire Flow Testing and Marking Hydrants.

NFPA 291

NFPA 283

NFPA 331

NFPA 195

The correct answer is NFPA 291 because it is the recommended practice for fire flow testing and marking hydrants. This standard provides guidelines and procedures for conducting flow tests on hydrants to determine their water supply capabilities for firefighting purposes. It also includes requirements for marking and maintaining hydrants to ensure their visibility and accessibility during emergencies. By following NFPA 291, fire departments can ensure that hydrants are properly tested and maintained to support effective fire suppression operations.

Explanation

The correct answer is NFPA 291 because it is the recommended practice for fire flow testing and marking hydrants. This standard provides guidelines and procedures for conducting flow tests on hydrants to determine their water supply capabilities for firefighting purposes. It also includes requirements for marking and maintaining hydrants to ensure their visibility and accessibility during emergencies. By following NFPA 291, fire departments can ensure that hydrants are properly tested and maintained to support effective fire suppression operations.

120. When first starting hose testing, after all air has been expelled, leave each nozzle open. Gradually raise the pressure at the nozzle to approximately ___ psi for solid streams or ___ psi for fog streams. This procedure can identify defective hose lining, which is more likely to pull loose during a flow of water under pressure than under static pressure.

50, 100

25, 50

100, 200

75, 150

When first starting hose testing, it is recommended to leave each nozzle open after all air has been expelled. Gradually raising the pressure at the nozzle to approximately 50 psi for solid streams or 100 psi for fog streams can help identify any defects in the hose lining. These pressures simulate the flow of water under pressure, which is more likely to cause a defective hose lining to pull loose compared to static pressure.

Explanation

When first starting hose testing, it is recommended to leave each nozzle open after all air has been expelled. Gradually raising the pressure at the nozzle to approximately 50 psi for solid streams or 100 psi for fog streams can help identify any defects in the hose lining. These pressures simulate the flow of water under pressure, which is more likely to cause a defective hose lining to pull loose compared to static pressure.

121. When determining whether probable cause exists to believe that a crime has been committed, an officer SHOULD NOT consider any of the following factors:

The marital status of the parties

The lack of a PPO, FPO or court order

The wishes of either party concerning arrest or prosecution

Assurances that the violence will stop

The financial consequences of arrest

The race, sex, religion, sexual orientation, education or occupation

The intent of the domestic violence policy and Michigan Compiled Laws to protect victims of domestic violence

The degree of injury on the individuals involved

The individuals extent of fear of physical injury to themselves or others

The history of domestic violence between the individuals

The factors that an officer should not consider when determining probable cause for a crime include the marital status of the parties, the lack of a protective order or court order, the wishes of either party regarding arrest or prosecution, assurances that the violence will stop, the financial consequences of arrest, and the race, sex, religion, sexual orientation, education, or occupation of the individuals involved. These factors should not be taken into account because they are irrelevant to the determination of probable cause and may introduce bias or discrimination. The intent of domestic violence policy and the history of domestic violence between the individuals should be considered as they are relevant to the assessment of probable cause.

Explanation

The factors that an officer should not consider when determining probable cause for a crime include the marital status of the parties, the lack of a protective order or court order, the wishes of either party regarding arrest or prosecution, assurances that the violence will stop, the financial consequences of arrest, and the race, sex, religion, sexual orientation, education, or occupation of the individuals involved. These factors should not be taken into account because they are irrelevant to the determination of probable cause and may introduce bias or discrimination. The intent of domestic violence policy and the history of domestic violence between the individuals should be considered as they are relevant to the assessment of probable cause.

Submit

122. Missing persons - No entry shall be made into the LEIN/NCIC unless a Missing Persons Documentation Form has been first filled out and signed. Exceptions to this rule are disaater/catastrophe victims or persons under 18 years of age who do not qualify for entry in the categories of Disability (EMD), Endangered (EME), or Involuntary (EMI).

True

False

Under 21 years of age

Explanation

Under 21 years of age

123. Social media

The name of one's online identity that is used most frequently. It can also be the name of one's Twitter identity

An online identity, Internet identity or Internet persona that a social networking user established

The name provided by the participant during the registration process associated with a website that will be displayed publicly on the site

Information provided by the user in social networking.

A computer user’s representation of himself/herself, or an alter ego.

Submit

124. Match the heat sensing label placement with the correct ladder type

The heat sensor labels shall be located on the inside of each beam of each section immediately below the second rung from the tip of each section and in the center of that section

The heat sensor labels shall be permitted to be applied to either the inside or outside of the ladder and shall be located immediately below the second rung from the tip of the ladder and in the center of the ladder

The heat sensor labels shall be located on the inside of each beam of each telescoping section assembly approximately 150 mm (6 in.) below the hinge assembly and also 150 mm (6 in.) from the bottom of each of the sections forming the telescoping section assemblies

Submit

125. Match the following

Monitors on-scene safety and reports unsafe situations and hazards to the Incident Commander. This officer has authority to correct immediately imminent hazards.

Will assist the Incident Commander with the inter-agency coordination, outside agencies (gas, electric, etc.), or other requested personnel. This officer can also provide information to the media once cleared through the Incident Commander.

Responsible for developing and releasing information about the incident to the news media, to incident personnel, and to other appropriate agencies and organizations

Provides direct supervision over the Sector Officers and handles radio communications for the Incident Commander from the Command Post.

Collects, evaluates and presents incident intelligence and information, prepares and documents Incident Action Plans and maintains incident documentation

Oversees ordering, obtaining....

Responsible for timekeeping, cost analysis and documentation for reimbursement.

Manages a specific geographic area or function of the incident. This Officer physically goes to the area to achieve the objectives of the Incident Commander.

Coordinates incoming resources and keeps the Incident Commander informed as to what resources are available. This officer then assigns personnel and equipment to meet the Incident

Submit