IT Helpdesk Quiz
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Welcome to the ultimate IT Helpdesk Quiz! Are you a tech enthusiast ready to put your knowledge to the test? Whether you're an aspiring IT professional or simply a curious tech lover, this quiz will challenge your skills, broaden your knowledge, and have you on the edge of your seat.
Get ready to tackle a series of mind-bending questions covering a wide range of IT Helpdesk topics. From troubleshooting common hardware and software issues to mastering network protocols and security practices, this quiz will push your problem-solving abilities to the limit. But fear not, as we promise to make your Read morejourney as engaging, interactive, and entertaining as possible!
Whether you're facing a tricky situation with a perplexing error code or need to decide on the best course of action for network optimization, this quiz has got you covered. So, grab your virtual cape, flex your mental muscles, and embark on this thrilling journey through the IT Helpdesk Quiz. Get ready to prove your IT prowess and earn the title of the ultimate tech champion! Let's dive in and show the world what you're made of!
- 1.
What does FDISK do?
- A.
Performs low-level formatting of the hard drive.
- B.
Fixes bad sectors on the hard drive.
- C.
Recovers lost clusters on the hard drive.
- D.
Creates partitions on the hard drive.
Correct Answer
D. Creates partitions on the hard drive.Explanation
FDISK is a utility that is used to create partitions on a hard drive. Partitions divide the hard drive into separate sections, allowing different file systems or operating systems to be installed on each partition. This enables better organization and management of data on the hard drive. FDISK does not perform low-level formatting, fix bad sectors, or recover lost clusters on the hard drive.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Toner cartridge is used in
- A.
Inkjet Plotter
- B.
Laser Printer
- C.
Thermal Printer
- D.
Dot Matrix printer
- E.
InkJet Printer
Correct Answer
B. Laser PrinterExplanation
A toner cartridge is used in a laser printer because laser printers use a dry powder called toner to create images on paper. The toner is stored in a cartridge, which is then inserted into the printer. When a print job is initiated, the laser printer uses a laser beam to create an electrostatic image on a drum inside the printer. The toner is attracted to the charged areas on the drum, and then transferred onto the paper to create the final printed image. Therefore, a toner cartridge is specifically designed for laser printers to hold and dispense the toner powder.Rate this question:
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- 3.
You want to perform multiple backups of only those files that are modified since the last normal backup. You also want to ensure that the backed up files use minimum amount of media. In this case, you will take a:
- A.
Normal backup.
- B.
Differential backup.
- C.
Incremental backup
- D.
Copy backup
Correct Answer
C. Incremental backupExplanation
An incremental backup is the best choice in this scenario because it only backs up the files that have been modified since the last normal backup. This means that it will use the minimum amount of media since it only includes the changes made since the last backup. Differential backup would include all the changes made since the last normal backup, not just the modified files. A copy backup would create a duplicate copy of all the files, regardless of whether they have been modified or not.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following RAID levels uses a fault-tolerance technique known as "disk mirroring"?
- A.
Raid 0
- B.
Raid 1
- C.
Raid 5
- D.
Raid 10
Correct Answer
B. Raid 1Explanation
RAID 1 is the correct answer because it uses disk mirroring as a fault-tolerance technique. In RAID 1, data is written simultaneously to two or more drives, creating an exact copy or mirror of the data. This ensures that if one drive fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining drive(s). RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance, RAID 5 uses parity for fault tolerance, and RAID 10 combines disk striping and mirroring.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID 5?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- E.
5
- F.
6
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
RAID 5 requires a minimum of 3 disks. In RAID 5, data is striped across multiple disks with parity information distributed across all the disks. This provides fault tolerance as the system can continue to function even if one disk fails. The minimum number of disks required is 3 because at least two disks are needed for data storage and one disk is needed for parity information.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which wireless standard is faster ?
- A.
IEEE 802.11b
- B.
IEEE 802.11g
- C.
IEEE 802.6
- D.
IEEE 802.11a
- E.
IEEE 802.11n
Correct Answer
E. IEEE 802.11nExplanation
IEEE 802.11n is faster than the other wireless standards listed. This is because IEEE 802.11n operates on both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands, allowing for higher data transfer rates. It also utilizes multiple-input and multiple-output (MIMO) technology, which improves signal quality and increases throughput. IEEE 802.11n can achieve speeds of up to 600 Mbps, making it the fastest option among the given choices.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the default port number for SMTP ?
- A.
21
- B.
22
- C.
25
- D.
28
Correct Answer
C. 25Explanation
The default port number for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is 25. SMTP is a protocol used for sending email messages between servers. The port number 25 is reserved for SMTP communication and is used by mail servers to send outgoing mail to other mail servers.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is 127.0.0.1?
- A.
Class A IP address
- B.
Class B IP address
- C.
Router address
- D.
Loopback address
Correct Answer
D. Loopback addressExplanation
127.0.0.1 is a loopback address. In computer networking, a loopback address is a special IP address used to test the network interface of a device. It allows a device to send and receive data internally, without actually transmitting it over a physical network. The loopback address is commonly used for troubleshooting purposes and for testing network applications on a local machine.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the difference between the Bcc field and the Cc field?
- A.
Recipients specified in the Cc field are not displayed to other recipients.
- B.
Recipients specified in the Bcc field are not displayed to other recipients.
- C.
The Bcc field can only use addresses that are stored in a distribution list.
- D.
The Bcc field can only use addresses that are stored in your address book.
Correct Answer
B. Recipients specified in the Bcc field are not displayed to other recipients.Explanation
The Bcc field is used for sending a copy of an email to recipients without disclosing their identities to other recipients. This allows for discreet communication and maintains privacy. On the other hand, the Cc field is used for sending a copy of an email to recipients, but their identities are visible to all other recipients. Therefore, the correct answer is that recipients specified in the Bcc field are not displayed to other recipients.Rate this question:
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- 10.
You are using MS Outlook 2003 or MS Outlook 2007. What is the file type that contains the autocomplete cache?
- A.
.nk2
- B.
.pst
- C.
.nk1
- D.
.dat
Correct Answer
A. .nk2Explanation
The correct answer is .nk2. In MS Outlook 2003 and 2007, the autocomplete cache is stored in a file with the .nk2 extension. This file contains a list of email addresses that have been previously used by the user, making it easier to autocomplete email addresses when composing new messages.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is this?
- A.
Video Graphics Adaptor
- B.
Wireless BGN
- C.
Network Interface Card
- D.
Audio Output Controller
Correct Answer
C. Network Interface CardExplanation
A network interface card is a hardware component that allows a computer to connect to a network. It provides the necessary interface for the computer to communicate with other devices on the network. This card is responsible for transmitting and receiving data packets over the network, enabling the computer to access resources and services available on the network.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The command to show IP address and DNS server.
Correct Answer
ipconfig /all, ipconfig -allExplanation
The correct command to show IP address and DNS server is "ipconfig /all."Rate this question:
- 13.
Do the permissions of a SHARED folder overrule the NTFS permissions?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
False. NTFS folder permissions always take precedence over shared folder permissions.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What best describes a distribution list?
- A.
A distribution list can provide an efficient way to assign access to resources on your network.
- B.
A distribution list is a feature that allows a user to maintain a list of email addresses and send messages to all of them at once.
- C.
A distribution list is a list that multiple users can use to read and send email messages. Distribution lists can also be used to provide a common calendar, allowing multiple users to schedule and view vacation time or work shifts.
- D.
Distribution lists are a feature of Microsoft Exchange that are used to share information with others within your organization.
Correct Answer
B. A distribution list is a feature that allows a user to maintain a list of email addresses and send messages to all of them at once.Explanation
A distribution list is a feature that allows a user to maintain a list of email addresses and send messages to all of them at once. This means that instead of manually entering each individual email address every time a message needs to be sent, the distribution list provides a convenient way to send the same message to multiple recipients simultaneously. This can save time and effort, especially when sending messages to a large group of people.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Select all output devices.
- A.
Printer
- B.
Keyboard
- C.
Mouse
- D.
Monitor
Correct Answer(s)
A. Printer
D. MonitorExplanation
The correct answer includes "Printer" and "Monitor" because both of these devices are output devices. A printer is used to produce a hard copy of documents, images, or other digital files, while a monitor is used to display visual output from a computer or other electronic device. The other options, "Keyboard" and "Mouse," are input devices as they are used to input data or commands into a computer.Rate this question:
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- 16.
In this network, which device is the gateway?
- A.
Switch
- B.
Internet
- C.
Server
- D.
Router
Correct Answer
D. RouterExplanation
A router is the device that connects multiple networks together and acts as a gateway for data to flow between them. It determines the best path for data packets to reach their destination and forwards them accordingly. In this network, the router would be the device responsible for connecting the local network to the internet, making it the gateway.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the most common type of network Topology?
- A.
Token Ring
- B.
Star
- C.
Bus
- D.
Line
Correct Answer
B. StarExplanation
The most common type of network topology is the star topology. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, forming a star-like structure. This topology offers several advantages such as easy troubleshooting, scalability, and the ability to add or remove devices without affecting the rest of the network. Additionally, in a star topology, if one device fails, it does not affect the rest of the network, making it a reliable and widely adopted choice in networking.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What does 'active partition' mean?
- A.
Single partition.
- B.
Partition with all the hard disk drive capacity.
- C.
Partition has the most free space.
- D.
Partition that will be used to boot the operating system.
Correct Answer
D. Partition that will be used to boot the operating system.Explanation
The term 'active partition' refers to the partition on a hard disk drive that is designated to boot the operating system. This partition contains the necessary files and configurations for the computer to start up and load the operating system. It is typically set as the active partition in the system's boot loader, allowing the computer to recognize and boot from it during startup.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which tab in Task Manager enables you to view the programs that start up when your computer boots?
- A.
Processes tab
- B.
Performance tab
- C.
Startup tab
- D.
Networking tab
Correct Answer
C. Startup tabExplanation
The correct answer is: “Startup tab”. This tab allows you to manage the programs that are set to run at startup, which can impact the boot time and performance of your computer. You can enable or disable programs from this tab, but you cannot start a new program directly from Task Manager.Rate this question:
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- 20.
How many disks failures can a RAID 0 sustain ?
- A.
0
- B.
1
- C.
2
- D.
3
Correct Answer
A. 0Explanation
RAID 0 does not provide any fault tolerance or redundancy. It stripes data across multiple disks without any parity or mirroring. As a result, if any disk fails in a RAID 0 configuration, all the data stored on that disk will be lost. Therefore, RAID 0 cannot sustain any disk failures.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which equipment allows sharing of a broadband internet connection ?
- A.
Hub
- B.
Adapter
- C.
Router
- D.
Modem
Correct Answer
C. RouterExplanation
A router allows sharing of a broadband internet connection. It acts as a central hub for multiple devices to connect to the internet simultaneously. It receives the internet signal from the modem and then distributes it to the connected devices, allowing them to access the internet. Unlike a hub or adapter, a router has the capability to manage and direct internet traffic efficiently, ensuring that each device receives the necessary bandwidth for optimal performance.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following IP networks are reserved for use on private intranets?
- A.
199.14.0.0
- B.
192.168.0.0
- C.
224.0.0.0
- D.
10.0.0.0
- E.
172.152.0.0
- F.
All of the above
Correct Answer(s)
B. 192.168.0.0
D. 10.0.0.0Explanation
The IP networks 192.168.0.0 and 10.0.0.0 are reserved for use on private intranets. These IP addresses are part of the private IP address ranges defined by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). Private IP addresses are used within local networks and are not routable on the public internet. The other IP networks mentioned in the question (199.14.0.0, 224.0.0.0, and 172.152.0.0) are not reserved for private intranets.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What does the term "Map Network Drive" mean?
- A.
Map the host HDD into memory locations.
- B.
Map a shortcut to a network location.
- C.
Map the path to the local area network gateway.
- D.
Send instructions to a user to map the remote local area network.
- E.
A schematic drawing of all mapped adapter locations on the network system.
Correct Answer
B. Map a shortcut to a network location.Explanation
The term "Map Network Drive" refers to the process of creating a shortcut to a network location on a computer. This allows the user to easily access and navigate to the network location as if it were a local drive or folder on their computer. It simplifies the process of accessing files and resources stored on a network, making it more convenient for users to work with networked data.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What does an assigned IP address 169.254.0.12 indicate?
- A.
The computer is configured with a static IP address.
- B.
The computer is using a dial-up modem.
- C.
The computer is being used as an Internet shared connection host
- D.
The computer is configured for DHCP and cannot connect to the DHCP server
- E.
The computer has been configurd to work with a Linux system.
Correct Answer
D. The computer is configured for DHCP and cannot connect to the DHCP serverExplanation
The assigned IP address 169.254.0.12 indicates that the computer is configured for DHCP and cannot connect to the DHCP server. This address falls within the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) range, which is used when a computer is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. The APIPA address is assigned automatically by the computer itself, allowing it to communicate with other devices on the local network. However, since it cannot connect to the DHCP server, it is unable to obtain a valid IP address.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which item is an example of an OSI Layer 2 address?
- A.
IP address
- B.
Hostname
- C.
MAC address
- D.
Www.rezolvit.au
- E.
Correct Answer
C. MAC addressExplanation
A MAC address is an example of an OSI Layer 2 address. The MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to network interface cards (NICs) by the manufacturer. It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and is used to identify devices within a local area network (LAN). Unlike IP addresses, which operate at the network layer, MAC addresses are specific to the hardware of the device and do not change.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the purpose of a DNS server?
- A.
To resolve MAC addresses to NetBIOS names.
- B.
To check that the hostname is unique and not assigned elsewhere.
- C.
To resolve IP addresses to MAC address
- D.
To resolve domain names to IP addresses.
Correct Answer
D. To resolve domain names to IP addresses.Explanation
The purpose of a DNS server is to resolve domain names to IP addresses. When a user enters a domain name in their web browser, the DNS server translates that domain name into the corresponding IP address of the server hosting the website. This allows the user's device to connect to the correct server and retrieve the requested web page.Rate this question:
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- 27.
E-mail servers use the following communication protocol for sending emails from one server to the other server.
- A.
SMTP
- B.
HTTP
- C.
ICMP
- D.
POP3
- E.
IMAP
Correct Answer
A. SMTPExplanation
SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which is a communication protocol used by email servers to send emails from one server to another. It is the standard protocol for email transmission on the internet. SMTP works by establishing a connection between the sending and receiving servers, and then transferring the email message from the sender's server to the recipient's server. It ensures reliable and efficient delivery of emails across different servers and networks.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What utility can you use to verify if a remote computer is accepting connections on the PORT you are connected to?
- A.
Ftp
- B.
Telnet
- C.
Snmp
- D.
Ping
Correct Answer
B. TelnetExplanation
Telnet is the correct answer because it is a utility that allows you to establish a connection with a remote computer and verify if it is accepting connections on a specific port. By using Telnet, you can attempt to connect to the remote computer on the port you are connected to and check if the connection is successful. If the connection is established, it means that the remote computer is accepting connections on that port. If the connection fails, it indicates that the remote computer is not accepting connections on that port.Rate this question:
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- 29.
You are using Outlook Express and a POP3 e-mail account. You delete a message from your Inbox. What happens to this message?
- A.
It is permanently deleted from your mailbox.
- B.
It is stored in the Deleted Items folder until the folder is emptied.
- C.
It is stored in the Recycle Bin on your computer until it is emptied.
- D.
It is temporarily stored on your ISP’s server.
Correct Answer
B. It is stored in the Deleted Items folder until the folder is emptied.Explanation
When you delete a message from your Inbox in Outlook Express with a POP3 e-mail account, the message is moved to the Deleted Items folder. It stays there until you empty the Deleted Items folder. If you want to permanently delete messages from the server when you delete them from Deleted Items, you can adjust your settings in Outlook Express.Rate this question:
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Feb 13, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Aug 04, 2016Quiz Created by
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