ISTQB Mock Test 8

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Quizzes Created: 9 | Total Attempts: 6,652
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ISTQB Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Q1    A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

    • A.

      An error

    • B.

      A fault

    • C.

      A failure

    • D.

      A defect

    Correct Answer
    C. A failure
    Explanation
    A failure refers to a deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users. It is a situation where the system does not perform its intended function correctly or produces incorrect results. This can be observed by the users and may lead to dissatisfaction or inconvenience. A failure can occur due to errors, faults, or defects in the system.

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  • 2. 

    Q2  Regression testing should be performed: v)    every week w)    after the software has changed x)    as often as possible y)    when the environment has changed z)    when the project manager says

    • A.

      V & w are true, x, y & z are false

    • B.

      W, x & y are true, v & z are false

    • C.

      W & y are true, v, x & z are false

    • D.

      W is true, v, x, y & z are false

    Correct Answer
    C. W & y are true, v, x & z are false
    Explanation
    Regression testing should be performed after the software has changed and when the environment has changed. This is because regression testing is done to ensure that the changes made to the software do not have any unintended side effects and that the software still functions correctly in the new environment. Performing regression testing every week, as often as possible, or when the project manager says to do so may not be necessary or efficient.

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  • 3. 

    Q3    IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except

    • A.

      Test items

    • B.

      Test deliverables

    • C.

      Test tasks

    • D.

      Test specifications

    Correct Answer
    D. Test specifications
    Explanation
    The IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard includes test items, test deliverables, and test tasks. However, it does not include test specifications. Test specifications are typically included in other documentation standards, such as test design specifications or test case specifications.

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  • 4. 

    Q4    When should testing be stopped?

    • A.

      When all the planned tests have been run

    • B.

      When time has run out

    • C.

      When all faults have been fixed correctly

    • D.

      It depends on the risks for the system being tested

    Correct Answer
    D. It depends on the risks for the system being tested
    Explanation
    Testing should be stopped when it is aligned with the risks associated with the system being tested. The decision to stop testing should be based on an evaluation of the potential risks and the level of confidence achieved through testing. If the risks are deemed acceptable and the desired level of confidence has been reached, testing can be concluded. However, if there are significant risks remaining or if the desired level of confidence has not been achieved, testing should continue until these concerns are addressed.

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  • 5. 

    Q5    Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?

    • A.

      1000, 50000, 99999

    • B.

      9999, 50000, 100000

    • C.

      10000, 50000, 99999

    • D.

      10000, 99999, 100000

    Correct Answer
    C. 10000, 50000, 99999
    Explanation
    The given answer (10000, 50000, 99999) is correct because it includes the valid boundaries of the range (10000 and 99999) and a value within the valid equivalence class (50000). This ensures that the tests cover the minimum and maximum values as well as a representative value within the valid range.

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  • 6. 

    Q6    Consider the following statements about early test design: i.    early test design can prevent fault multiplication ii.    faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix iii.    early test design can find faults iv.    early test design can cause changes to the requirements v.    early test design normally takes more effort 

    • A.

      I, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false

    • B.

      Iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false

    • C.

      I, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false

    • D.

      I & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false

    Correct Answer
    A. I, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
    Explanation
    Early test design refers to the process of designing tests at the earliest stage of the software development life cycle. The given answer states that statements i, iii, and iv are true, while ii and v are false. This means that early test design can prevent fault multiplication, can find faults, and can cause changes to the requirements. On the other hand, faults found during early test design are not necessarily more expensive to fix, and early test design does not always require more effort.

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  • 7. 

    Q7    Non-functional system testing includes:

    • A.

      Testing to see where the system does not function correctly

    • B.

      Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability

    • C.

      Testing a system function using only the software required for that function

    • D.

      Testing for functions that should not exist

    Correct Answer
    B. Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
    Explanation
    Non-functional system testing focuses on evaluating the quality attributes of the system, such as performance and usability. This type of testing aims to assess how well the system performs under different conditions and how user-friendly it is. It involves testing aspects that are not directly related to the system's primary functions, but rather its overall performance and user experience. By conducting non-functional system testing, organizations can ensure that their system meets the desired quality standards and provides a satisfactory user experience.

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  • 8. 

    Q8    Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?

    • A.

      Auditing conformance to ISO 9000

    • B.

      Status accounting of configuration items

    • C.

      Identification of test versions

    • D.

      Controlled library access

    Correct Answer
    A. Auditing conformance to ISO 9000
    Explanation
    Auditing conformance to ISO 9000 is not part of configuration management because ISO 9000 is a quality management standard that focuses on ensuring consistent quality in the processes and products of an organization. Configuration management, on the other hand, is a discipline that focuses on managing and controlling changes to software or hardware configurations throughout their lifecycle. While configuration management may involve auditing and quality control processes, specifically auditing conformance to ISO 9000 is not directly related to configuration management.

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  • 9. 

    Q9    Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?

    • A.

      To ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately

    • B.

      To ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks

    • C.

      To specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once

    • D.

      To specify how the software should be divided into modules

    Correct Answer
    C. To specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
    Explanation
    The main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small is to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once. This strategy helps in determining the order and timing of integrating different modules of the software system. It ensures that the integration process is organized and systematic, allowing for efficient testing and identification of any issues or bugs that may arise during the integration process. By specifying which modules to combine and when, the integration strategy helps in managing the complexity of the integration process and ensuring that it is carried out effectively.

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  • 10. 

    Q10    What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

    • A.

      To know when a specific test has finished its execution

    • B.

      To ensure that the test case specification is complete

    • C.

      To set the criteria used in generating test inputs

    • D.

      To determine when to stop testing

    Correct Answer
    D. To determine when to stop testing
    Explanation
    The purpose of a test completion criterion is to determine when to stop testing. This criterion helps in setting a specific condition or criteria that need to be met in order to consider the testing phase complete. It helps in ensuring that sufficient testing has been done and that the desired level of quality has been achieved. By defining this criterion, it becomes easier to make a decision on when to halt the testing process and move forward with the next phase of the software development lifecycle.

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  • 11. 

    Q11    Consider the following statements: i.    an incident may be closed without being fixed. ii.    incidents may not be raised against documentation. iii.    the final stage of incident tracking is fixing. iv.    the incident record does not include information on test environments.

    • A.

      Ii is true, i, iii and iv are false

    • B.

      I is true, ii, iii and iv are false

    • C.

      I and iv are true, ii and iii are false

    • D.

      I and ii are true, iii and iv are false

    Correct Answer
    B. I is true, ii, iii and iv are false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "i is true, ii, iii and iv are false." This means that statement i is true, which states that an incident may be closed without being fixed. However, statements ii, iii, and iv are false. Statement ii states that incidents may not be raised against documentation, which is not true. Statement iii states that the final stage of incident tracking is fixing, which is also not true. Lastly, statement iv states that the incident record does not include information on test environments, which is false.

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  • 12. 

    Q12    Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage? Read p Read q IF p+q > 100 THEN Print “Large” ENDIF IF p > 50 THEN Print “p Large” ENDIF

    • A.

      1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

    • B.

      1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    • C.

      1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage

    • D.

      2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    Explanation
    The given code has two IF statements. To achieve full statement coverage, it is enough to execute the code once, so only 1 test is required. However, for branch coverage, each branch of the IF statements needs to be tested separately. The first IF statement has two branches (p+q > 100 and p+q 50 and p

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  • 13. 

      Q13    Consider the following statements: i.    100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. ii.    100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. iii.    100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. iv.    100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. v.    100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

    • A.

      Ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

    • B.

      I & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False

    • C.

      Ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False

    • D.

      Ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

    Correct Answer
    D. Ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
    Explanation
    This answer states that statements ii, iii, and iv are true, while statements i and v are false. This means that 100% branch coverage does guarantee 100% statement coverage, 100% branch coverage does guarantee 100% decision coverage, and 100% decision coverage does guarantee 100% branch coverage. However, 100% statement coverage does not guarantee 100% branch coverage, and 100% statement coverage does not guarantee 100% decision coverage.

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  • 14. 

    Q14    Functional system testing is:

    • A.

      Testing that the system functions with other systems

    • B.

      Testing that the components that comprise the system function together

    • C.

      Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole

    • D.

      Testing the system performs functions within specified response times

    Correct Answer
    C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
    Explanation
    Functional system testing is a type of testing that focuses on testing the end-to-end functionality of the system as a whole. This means that the testing is done to ensure that all the different components and features of the system work together correctly and meet the desired requirements. It involves testing the system's functionality from the user's perspective, making sure that all the functions and interactions within the system are working as expected. This type of testing helps to identify any issues or bugs that may arise when different parts of the system are integrated and used together.

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  • 15. 

    Q15    Incidents would not be raised against:

    • A.

      Requirements

    • B.

      Documentation

    • C.

      Test cases

    • D.

      Improvements suggested by users

    Correct Answer
    D. Improvements suggested by users
    Explanation
    Incidents are typically raised to report and track issues or problems in a system or process. In this context, incidents are not raised against improvements suggested by users. Instead, improvements suggested by users are usually considered as valuable feedback and suggestions for enhancing the system or process. Incidents are more commonly raised against requirements, documentation, and test cases when there are discrepancies or errors identified in these areas.

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  • 16. 

    Q16    Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

    • A.

      Operating systems

    • B.

      Test documentation

    • C.

      Live data

    • D.

      User requirement documents

    Correct Answer
    C. Live data
    Explanation
    Live data would not come under Configuration Management because Configuration Management is the process of managing and controlling changes to software, hardware, documentation, and other items that make up a system. Live data refers to the current and active data being used in a system, and it is not typically managed or controlled as part of the configuration management process.

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  • 17. 

    Q17    Maintenance testing is:

    • A.

      Updating tests when the software has changed

    • B.

      Testing a released system that has been changed

    • C.

      Testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need

    • D.

      Testing to maintain business advantage

    Correct Answer
    C. Testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
    Explanation
    Maintenance testing refers to the process of testing a released system that has been changed. This type of testing is conducted to ensure that the modifications made to the software do not introduce any new defects or issues. It involves testing the system's functionality, performance, and reliability after the changes have been implemented. The purpose of maintenance testing is to verify that the system still meets the business needs and requirements effectively. It is typically performed by users or testers who are familiar with the system and its intended usage.

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  • 18. 

    Q18    What can static analysis NOT find?  

    • A.

      The use of a variable before it has been defined

    • B.

      Unreachable (“dead”) code

    • C.

      Memory leaks

    • D.

      Array bound violations

    Correct Answer
    C. Memory leaks
    Explanation
    Static analysis is a method used to analyze code without actually executing it. It can detect various issues such as the use of a variable before it has been defined, unreachable code, and array bound violations. However, static analysis is not able to find memory leaks. Memory leaks occur when a program fails to release memory that is no longer needed, leading to a gradual loss of available memory. Static analysis focuses on code structure and syntax, whereas memory leaks involve runtime behavior and memory management, which cannot be fully analyzed without executing the code.

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  • 19. 

    Q19    Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

    • A.

      State transition testing

    • B.

      LCSAJ

    • C.

      Syntax testing

    • D.

      Boundary value analysis

    Correct Answer
    B. LCSAJ
    Explanation
    LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump) is not a black box testing technique because it involves analyzing the code structure and logic flow of a program. Black box testing techniques focus on testing the functionality of a system without considering its internal structure. State transition testing, syntax testing, and boundary value analysis are all examples of black box testing techniques as they only consider the inputs and outputs of the system under test.

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  • 20. 

    Q20    Beta testing is:

    • A.

      Performed by customers at their own site

    • B.

      Performed by customers at the software developer’s site

    • C.

      Performed by an Independent Test Team

    • D.

      Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

    Correct Answer
    A. Performed by customers at their own site
    Explanation
    Beta testing is performed by customers at their own site. This means that the customers who will be using the software in the real-world environment test the software in their own environment to identify any issues or bugs. This type of testing allows for real-world scenarios and feedback from actual users, which can help identify any potential problems before the software is released to the general public.

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  • 21. 

    Q21    Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an independent system test team? i.    static analysis ii.    performance testing iii.    test management iv.    dynamic analysis

    • A.

      Developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii

    • B.

      Developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv

    • C.

      Developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii

    • D.

      Developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii

    Correct Answer
    A. Developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
    Explanation
    Developers typically use static analysis (i) to analyze code without executing it and identify potential issues or bugs. They also use dynamic analysis (iv) to analyze code while it is running and identify runtime errors. On the other hand, the independent system test team typically uses performance testing (ii) to test the system's performance under different conditions and test management (iii) to plan, organize, and track the testing activities. Therefore, the correct answer is that developers would typically use i and iv, while the test team would typically use ii and iii.

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  • 22. 

    Q22    The main focus of acceptance testing is:

    • A.

      Finding faults in the system

    • B.

      Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users

    • C.

      Testing the system with other systems

    • D.

      Testing from a business perspective

    Correct Answer
    D. Testing from a business perspective
    Explanation
    Acceptance testing is a type of testing that evaluates whether a system meets the business requirements and is acceptable to the end users. It focuses on testing the system from a business perspective to ensure that it meets the desired objectives and functions correctly in real-world scenarios. This type of testing is crucial to ensure that the system is ready for deployment and meets the expectations of the stakeholders. It is not primarily focused on finding faults in the system or testing its integration with other systems, but rather on assessing its suitability for business use.

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  • 23. 

    Q23    Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?

    • A.

      Black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique

    • B.

      White box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique

    • C.

      Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique

    • D.

      Black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

    Correct Answer
    A. Black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
    Explanation
    The given statement that "black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique" is FALSE. Black box test design techniques focus on testing the functionality of a component without considering its internal structure. These techniques do not necessarily have an associated test measurement technique because they primarily involve testing the inputs and outputs of the component without knowledge of its internal workings. Test measurement techniques are typically associated with white box test design techniques, which involve testing the internal structure and logic of the component.

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  • 24. 

    Q24    Which of the following statements is NOT true?

    • A.

      Inspection is the most formal review process

    • B.

      Inspections should be led by a trained leader

    • C.

      Managers can perform inspections on management documents

    • D.

      Inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

    Correct Answer
    D. Inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents". This statement is not true because inspections typically involve reviewing written documents or physical objects to identify defects or non-compliance with standards. Without any written documents or physical evidence, there would be nothing to inspect. Inspections are a formal review process that should be led by a trained leader and can be performed by managers on management documents.

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  • 25. 

    Q25    A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Calculating expected outputs

    • B.

      Comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes

    • C.

      Recording test inputs

    • D.

      Reading test values from a data file

    Correct Answer
    A. Calculating expected outputs
    Explanation
    A typical commercial test execution tool is capable of performing various tasks such as recording test inputs, reading test values from a data file, and comparing expected outcomes with actual outcomes. However, it is not designed to calculate expected outputs. This means that the tool may not have built-in functionality to perform complex calculations or generate expected outputs based on specific criteria. Therefore, calculating expected outputs would be the one task that a typical commercial test execution tool would not be able to perform.

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  • 26. 

    Q26    The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

    • A.

      Re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects

    • B.

      Re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed

    • C.

      Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

    • D.

      Re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers

    Correct Answer
    A. Re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
    Explanation
    Re-testing is the process of testing a previously failed test case again after the identified fault has been fixed to ensure that the fault has been successfully removed. On the other hand, regression testing is performed to verify that the changes or fixes made to the software have not introduced any new faults or unexpected side-effects in the existing functionality. Therefore, the correct answer states that re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed, while regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects.

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  • 27. 

    Q27    Expected results are:

    • A.

      Only important in system testing

    • B.

      Only used in component testing

    • C.

      Most useful when specified in advance

    • D.

      Derived from the code

    Correct Answer
    D. Derived from the code
    Explanation
    The expected results are derived from the code. This means that the expected outcomes or outputs of a program are determined by analyzing the code itself. This is important because it ensures that the program is functioning correctly and producing the desired results. It also helps in identifying any discrepancies or errors in the code that may affect the expected results.

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  • 28. 

    Q28    What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:

    • A.

      Walkthrough

    • B.

      Inspection

    • C.

      Management review

    • D.

      Post project review

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspection
    Explanation
    Inspection is the correct answer because it is a type of review that follows a formal process with specific entry and exit criteria, including metrics. During an inspection, a team of reviewers examines the work product or deliverable in detail to identify defects, errors, or deviations from standards. The process is systematic and rigorous, aiming to ensure quality and adherence to requirements. Walkthroughs, management reviews, and post-project reviews may also involve some level of review, but they may not have the same level of formality and structured criteria as inspections.

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  • 29. 

    Q29    Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

    • A.

      Component testing

    • B.

      Non-functional system testing

    • C.

      User acceptance testing

    • D.

      Maintenance testing

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance testing
    Explanation
    Maintenance testing uses Impact Analysis most because it involves testing changes made to an existing system or software. Impact Analysis helps in understanding the potential consequences of these changes on the system as a whole. It identifies the areas that may be affected by the changes and helps in determining the extent of testing required. This ensures that the changes do not introduce any new defects or disrupt the existing functionality of the system. Therefore, maintenance testing heavily relies on Impact Analysis to ensure the smooth functioning of the system after modifications.

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  • 30. 

    Q30    What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?

    • A.

      Setting up forms and databases

    • B.

      Analyzing metrics and improving processes

    • C.

      Writing the documents to be inspected

    • D.

      Time spent on the document outside the meeting

    Correct Answer
    C. Writing the documents to be inspected
    Explanation
    The typical costs for an inspection process include setting up forms and databases, analyzing metrics and improving processes, and the time spent on the document outside the meeting. However, writing the documents to be inspected is not included in these costs. This suggests that the documents to be inspected are likely prepared separately and are not considered as part of the inspection process itself.

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  • 31. 

    Q31    Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

    • A.

      To find faults in the software

    • B.

      To prove that the software has no faults

    • C.

      To give confidence in the software

    • D.

      To find performance problems

    Correct Answer
    B. To prove that the software has no faults
    Explanation
    The objective of proving that the software has no faults is not a reasonable test objective because it is practically impossible to prove that any software is completely free of faults. Testing is a process of finding defects and identifying areas of improvement, rather than proving perfection. Therefore, this objective is not feasible and does not align with the purpose of software testing.

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  • 32. 

    Q32    Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes: 1.    led by the author 2.    undocumented 3.    no management participation 4.    led by a moderator or leader 5.    uses entry and exit criteria s)    inspection t)    peer review u)    informal review v)    walkthrough

    • A.

      S = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1

    • B.

      S = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1

    • C.

      S = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4

    • D.

      S = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3

    Correct Answer
    A. S = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1. This is because the characteristics mentioned in the question, such as being led by a moderator or leader, and using entry and exit criteria, are typically associated with an inspection process. Additionally, the absence of management participation and the lack of documentation suggest an informal review process. Therefore, option s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1 aligns with these characteristics.

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  • 33. 

    Q33    Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?

    • A.

      Business process-based testing

    • B.

      Performance, load and stress testing

    • C.

      Usability testing

    • D.

      Top-down integration testing

    Correct Answer
    D. Top-down integration testing
    Explanation
    Top-down integration testing is not part of system testing because it is a type of integration testing, which focuses on testing the interaction between modules or components of a system. System testing, on the other hand, is a level of testing that verifies the complete and integrated system against the specified requirements. It involves testing the system as a whole, including its functionality, performance, usability, and other aspects. Therefore, top-down integration testing is not considered as part of system testing.

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  • 34. 

    Q34    Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?

    • A.

      Expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour

    • B.

      Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code

    • C.

      Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run

    • D.

      Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

    Correct Answer
    A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
    Explanation
    Expected outcomes are not defined by the software's behavior. Instead, they are derived from a specification, which outlines the desired behavior of the software. The software's behavior may or may not align with the expected outcomes, and it is the purpose of testing to identify any discrepancies. Therefore, the statement that expected outcomes are defined by the software's behavior is false.

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  • 35. 

    Q35    The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

    • A.

      ISO/IEC 12207

    • B.

      BS 7925-1

    • C.

      ANSI/IEEE 829

    • D.

      ANSI/IEEE 729

    Correct Answer
    B. BS 7925-1
    Explanation
    BS 7925-1 is the correct answer because it is a standard that provides definitions of testing terms. ISO/IEC 12207 is a standard for software life cycle processes, ANSI/IEEE 829 is a standard for software test documentation, and ANSI/IEEE 729 does not exist. Therefore, BS 7925-1 is the most appropriate standard for providing definitions of testing terms.

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  • 36. 

    Q36    The cost of fixing a fault:

    • A.

      Is not important

    • B.

      Increases the later a fault is found

    • C.

      Decreases the later a fault is found

    • D.

      Can never be determined

    Correct Answer
    B. Increases the later a fault is found
    Explanation
    The cost of fixing a fault increases the later it is found because as time progresses, the fault can cause more damage and impact other parts of the system. Additionally, the longer a fault goes undetected, the more effort and resources will be required to identify and fix it. Therefore, it is important to identify and fix faults as early as possible to minimize the cost and impact on the system.

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  • 37. 

    Q37    Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?

    • A.

      What is not to be tested

    • B.

      Test environment properties

    • C.

      Quality plans

    • D.

      Schedules and deadlines

    Correct Answer
    C. Quality plans
    Explanation
    The Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard includes various elements such as test objectives, test scope, test deliverables, test strategies, test environment requirements, test execution schedule, and resource requirements. However, quality plans are not typically included in the Test Plan document. Quality plans usually focus on the overall quality management process and are separate documents that outline the organization's quality goals, metrics, and processes. Therefore, quality plans are not included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard.

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  • 38. 

    Q38    Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?

    • A.

      No, because they apply to development documentation

    • B.

      No, because they are normally applied before testing

    • C.

      Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality

    • D.

      Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

    Correct Answer
    C. Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
    Explanation
    Reviews and inspections can be considered part of testing because they help detect faults and improve the quality of the software. Reviews and inspections involve examining the development documentation, code, or design to identify defects, inconsistencies, or areas for improvement. This process helps ensure that the software meets the required standards and specifications. While reviews and inspections are typically conducted before testing, they are still an integral part of the overall testing process as they contribute to the overall quality of the software.

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  • 39. 

    Q39    Which of the following is not part of performance testing?

    • A.

      Measuring response times

    • B.

      Recovery testing

    • C.

      Simulating many users

    • D.

      Generating many transactions

    Correct Answer
    B. Recovery testing
    Explanation
    Recovery testing is not part of performance testing. Performance testing focuses on measuring response times, simulating many users, and generating many transactions to evaluate the system's performance under different loads. Recovery testing, on the other hand, is a type of testing that checks how well the system recovers from failures or crashes. While recovery testing is important for ensuring system stability and resilience, it is not directly related to evaluating performance.

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  • 40. 

    Q40     Error guessing is best used:

    • A.

      After more formal techniques have been applied

    • B.

      As the first approach to deriving test cases

    • C.

      By inexperienced testers

    • D.

      After the system has gone live

    Correct Answer
    A. After more formal techniques have been applied
    Explanation
    Error guessing is best used after more formal techniques have been applied because formal techniques such as requirements analysis, specification-based testing, and structural testing help in identifying and covering the majority of the known and predictable errors. Once these formal techniques have been applied, error guessing can be used to uncover any additional errors that were not identified through the formal techniques. This approach ensures that a comprehensive set of test cases is developed, covering both known and unknown potential errors in the system.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 23, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Salbhar
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