# Isro Electronics Lengthy Quiz 1-26/07/2020

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Noothan Kumar
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 201
Questions: 59 | Attempts: 201

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Total 60 questions
1 hour 30 minutes duration
Complete electronics syllabus
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• 1.

### Time constant of a series R-L circuit is given by (A) LR (B) L/R    (C) L2R (D) LR2

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
The time constant of a series R-L circuit is given by L/R. This is because the time constant represents the time it takes for the current in the circuit to reach approximately 63.2% of its final steady-state value. In an R-L circuit, the inductor (L) resists changes in current, while the resistor (R) determines the rate at which the current changes. Therefore, the time constant is determined by the ratio of the inductance to the resistance, L/R.

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• 2.

### The Q factor of a series RLC increases if (A) R decreases   (B) R increase (C) impedance increases (D) voltage increases

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
Explanation
The Q factor of a series RLC circuit is a measure of the quality of the circuit's resonance. It is defined as the ratio of the reactance to the resistance in the circuit. A higher Q factor indicates a more efficient and selective circuit. The reactance in a series RLC circuit is inversely proportional to the resistance, so if the resistance decreases, the reactance increases, leading to a higher Q factor. Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

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• 3.

### Which of the following is an active device ? (A) Transformer (B) Silicon controlled rectifier    (C) Electron bulb (D) Loud-speaker.

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is an active device because it is capable of controlling the flow of electric current. It is a semiconductor device that acts as a switch, allowing current to flow in one direction when a small control signal is applied to it. This makes it an active device as it requires an external signal to control its operation. In contrast, a transformer, electron bulb, and loud-speaker are passive devices that do not have the ability to control current flow.

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• 4.

### Which of the following is donor impurity element ? (A) Aluminium (B) Boron (C) Phosphorus    (D) Indium

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
Phosphorus is the donor impurity element because it has five valence electrons, one more than the four valence electrons of silicon. When phosphorus is added to silicon, it donates its extra electron, creating an excess of negative charge, and making the silicon material n-type. This extra electron is free to move and conduct electricity, making phosphorus a commonly used donor impurity in semiconductor materials.

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• 5.

### Free electrons exist in (A) first band (B) second band (C) third band (D) conduction band

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

D. Option 4
Explanation
Free electrons exist in the conduction band.

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• 6.

### The forbidden energy gap for silicon is (A) 0.12 eV (B) 1.12 eV (C) 0.72 eV    (D) 0.92 eV

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
The forbidden energy gap for silicon is 0.72 eV. This refers to the energy difference between the valence band and the conduction band in the electronic band structure of silicon. It represents the minimum energy required for an electron to move from the valence band to the conduction band and become a free charge carrier. In other words, it is the energy required to promote an electron from the filled valence band to the empty conduction band.

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• 7.

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
• 8.

### Which of the following transistor is affected by static electricity ? (A) NPN transistor (B) FET (C) UJT (D) MOSFET

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

D. Option 4
Explanation
MOSFET (Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor Field-Effect Transistor) is affected by static electricity. This is because the gate of a MOSFET is made up of a metal-oxide-semiconductor structure, which is susceptible to damage from static charges. When a static charge is applied to the gate of a MOSFET, it can cause the oxide layer to break down, leading to permanent damage or malfunction of the transistor. Therefore, proper handling and precautions are necessary when working with MOSFETs to prevent damage from static electricity.

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• 9.

### The current amplification factor (a) is given by (A) IC / IE     (B) IC / IS (C) IB / IE (D) IB / IC

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
Explanation
The current amplification factor (a) is given by IC / IE. This means that the current gain of the amplifier is determined by the ratio of the collector current (IC) to the emitter current (IE). This ratio represents the amplification capability of the transistor, as it shows how much the input current is amplified to produce the output current. The higher the value of IC / IE, the greater the amplification factor and the more effective the transistor is as an amplifier.

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• 10.

### Number of PN junctions in JFET are (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2    (D) 3

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
JFET stands for Junction Field-Effect Transistor. It is a three-terminal semiconductor device that relies on the control of current by an electric field. In a JFET, there are two PN junctions formed between the differently doped regions of the semiconductor material. These junctions are essential for the operation of the JFET as they control the flow of current. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3, which states that there are two PN junctions in a JFET.

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• 11.

### Number of h parameters of a transistors are (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

D. Option 4
Explanation
The correct answer is option 4. A transistor has 4 parameters, namely: base-emitter voltage (VBE), base current (IB), collector-emitter voltage (VCE), and collector current (IC). These parameters are important in determining the behavior and characteristics of a transistor in a circuit.

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• 12.

### An op-amp when used as a notch filter has a notch frequency = 2kHz, low frequency point = 2.2 kHz. The Q of the notch is (A) 0.5 (B) 5    (C) 0.2 (D) 2

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
The Q factor of a notch filter is calculated by dividing the notch frequency by the difference between the low frequency point and the notch frequency. In this case, the notch frequency is 2kHz and the low frequency point is 2.2kHz. Therefore, the Q factor is calculated as follows: Q = 2kHz / (2.2kHz - 2kHz) = 2kHz / 0.2kHz = 10. Option 2, which is 5, is the closest approximation to 10.

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• 13.

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
• 14.

### A Wein bridge oscillator has R1 = R2 = 220 k? and C1 = C2 = 250 pF.  The frequency of oscillations will be nearly (A) 0.89 kHz (B) 1.89 kHz (C) 2.89 kHz    (D) 3.89 kHz

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
The frequency of oscillations in a Wein bridge oscillator is determined by the values of the resistors and capacitors used in the circuit. In this case, the resistors R1 and R2 have a value of 220 kÎ©, and the capacitors C1 and C2 have a value of 250 pF. By using the formula for the frequency of oscillations in a Wein bridge oscillator, which is f = 1 / (2Ï€RC), where R is the total resistance and C is the total capacitance, we can calculate the frequency to be approximately 2.89 kHz.

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• 15.

### Transistors have not replaced vacuum tubes because (A) transistors are non-linear (B) transistors do not have grid (C) high power transistors are not available     (D) heat dissipation from transistors is difficult

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
High power transistors are not available.

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• 16.

### Demodulation (A) is performed at the transmitting station (B) removes side bands (C) rectifies modulated signal (D) is opposite of modulation

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

D. Option 4
Explanation
Demodulation is the process of extracting the original information signal from a modulated carrier signal. It is the opposite of modulation, which is the process of adding the information signal to the carrier signal. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it correctly states that demodulation is the opposite of modulation.

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• 17.

### A frequency multiplier stage should operate as (A) Class A (B) Class B (C) Class C     (D) Either of the above

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
A frequency multiplier stage should operate as Class C. Class C amplifiers are known for their high efficiency and are commonly used in frequency multiplier circuits. They only conduct for a portion of the input waveform cycle, resulting in high power efficiency. This is important in frequency multiplier circuits as it allows for the generation of higher frequency signals without significant power loss. Class A and Class B amplifiers, on the other hand, are not suitable for frequency multiplier stages due to their lower efficiency and inability to handle high-frequency signals effectively.

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• 18.

### A frequency multiplier stage should operate as (A) Class A (B) Class B (C) Class C     (D) Either of the above

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
A frequency multiplier stage should operate as Class C. Class C amplifiers are known for their high efficiency and are commonly used in frequency multiplier circuits. These amplifiers only conduct for a portion of the input signal cycle, allowing for greater power output. This makes them ideal for applications where high power and efficiency are required, such as in frequency multipliers.

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• 19.

### Pulse modulation is used in (A) radio navigation (B) automatic landing equipment (C) data communication (D) all of the above

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

D. Option 4
Explanation
Pulse modulation is used in all of the above applications, including radio navigation, automatic landing equipment, and data communication. This technique involves encoding information by varying the amplitude, duration, or position of pulses in a signal. In radio navigation, pulse modulation is used to transmit navigational information to aircraft. Automatic landing equipment also utilizes pulse modulation to accurately guide aircraft during landing. Additionally, pulse modulation is commonly used in data communication to transmit digital data over a communication channel. Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.

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• 20.

### Which of the following modulating system is digital ? (A) PPM (B) PWM (C) PCM    (D) PEM

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
PCM (Pulse Code Modulation) is a digital modulating system because it converts analog signals into a digital format by sampling the signal at regular intervals and quantizing the amplitude levels. This digital representation allows for accurate transmission and reproduction of the original analog signal. PPM (Pulse Position Modulation), PWM (Pulse Width Modulation), and PEM (Pulse Excitation Modulation) are all analog modulating systems.

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• 21.

### The balanced modulator circuit uses - (A) two identical diodes (B) two identical triodes    (C) two diodes with different V-I characteristics (D) two triodes with different V-I characteristics

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
The balanced modulator circuit uses two identical triodes.

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• 22.

### To observe a portion of a wave form we must use (A) free-running oscilloscope (B) triggered-sweep oscilloscope     (C) vector scope (D) cathode ray tube

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
To observe a portion of a wave form, we must use a triggered-sweep oscilloscope. This type of oscilloscope allows us to capture and display a specific portion of the waveform by triggering the sweep at a specific point or condition. This is useful for analyzing specific events or abnormalities in the waveform. The other options, such as a free-running oscilloscope, vector scope, or cathode ray tube, do not offer the same level of control and precision for observing a specific portion of a waveform.

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• 23.

### An oscilloscope is generally used to measure the value of (A) dc voltage (B) rms, ac voltage (C) peak to peak ac voltage      (D) average value of ac voltage

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
An oscilloscope is generally used to measure the peak to peak AC voltage. It is a device that displays the waveform of an electrical signal, allowing the user to measure various parameters such as amplitude, frequency, and time period. The peak to peak voltage refers to the difference between the maximum positive and negative amplitudes of an AC signal. The oscilloscope can accurately measure this value, making option 3 the correct answer.

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• 24.

### Which one do you like?

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
Explanation
The explanation for why Option 1 is the correct answer is not available as the question does not provide any context or criteria for making a choice.

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• 25.

### The purpose of a syne control in an oscilloscope is to (A) set the intensity level (B) control brightness (C) set the focus (D) lock the signal

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

D. Option 4
Explanation
A sync control in an oscilloscope is used to lock the signal. This means that it synchronizes the horizontal sweep of the oscilloscope's display with the input signal, ensuring that the waveform is displayed accurately and stably on the screen. By locking the signal, the sync control helps to eliminate any jitter or instability in the waveform, allowing for a clear and precise display of the signal.

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• 26.

### The length of the sweep on the CRT screen controlled by (A) syne control (B) sweep selector (C) horizontal gain      (D) vertical gain

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
The correct answer is option 3, horizontal gain. The length of the sweep on the CRT screen refers to the horizontal distance covered by the electron beam as it scans across the screen. The horizontal gain controls the amplification of the horizontal deflection signal, which determines the length of the sweep. By adjusting the horizontal gain, the user can control the width of the displayed waveform or image on the screen.

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• 27.

### Precision measurement of resistance is generally carried out by (A) Potentiometer method (B) CRO method (C) Voltmeter-ammeter method (D) Bridge method

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

D. Option 4
Explanation
The correct answer is option 4, the bridge method. The bridge method is commonly used for precision measurement of resistance. It involves the use of a bridge circuit, such as a Wheatstone bridge, which allows for accurate comparison and measurement of resistances. The bridge circuit is balanced when the ratio of resistances in the circuit is equal, and this balance point can be used to determine the unknown resistance. This method is widely used in laboratories and industries for precise resistance measurements.

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• 28.

### A network which contains one or more than one source of e.m.f. is known as      A. Linear network    B. Non-linear network    C. Passive network    D. Active network

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

D. Option 4
Explanation
An active network is one that contains one or more sources of electromotive force (e.m.f.), such as batteries or generators. These sources provide energy to the network and actively contribute to the circuit's behavior. In contrast, a passive network does not contain any sources of e.m.f. and relies solely on passive components like resistors, capacitors, and inductors. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4, as it describes a network with one or more sources of e.m.f.

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• 29.

### In non-linear network does not satisfy      A. Superposition condition    B. Homogeneity condition    C. Both homogeneity and superposition condition    D. Homogeneity, superposition and associative condition

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
A non-linear network does not satisfy both the homogeneity and superposition conditions. The homogeneity condition states that when the input to a system is scaled by a constant factor, the output should also be scaled by the same factor. The superposition condition states that when multiple inputs are applied to a system simultaneously, the output should be the sum of the individual outputs produced by each input. In a non-linear network, the output is not directly proportional to the input and does not follow these conditions.

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• 30.

### A closed path made by several branches of the network is known as      A. Branch    B. Loop    C. Circuit    D. Junction

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
A closed path made by several branches of the network is known as a loop.

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• 31.

### In nodal analysis, if there are N nodes in the circuit then how many equations will be written to solve the network ?    A. N - 1    B. N + 1    C. N    D. N - 2

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
Explanation
In nodal analysis, the number of equations written to solve the network is equal to the number of nodes minus one. This is because one of the nodes is taken as the reference node and the voltages at all other nodes are measured with respect to this reference node. Therefore, only N-1 equations are needed to solve the network.

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• 32.

### The power factor of an AC circuit is equal to      A. Cosine of the phase angle    B. Sine of the phase angle    C. Unity for a resistive circuit    D. Unity for a reactive circuit

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
Explanation
The power factor of an AC circuit is equal to the cosine of the phase angle because the power factor is the ratio of the true power (P) to the apparent power (S) in the circuit, and the cosine of the phase angle is equal to the ratio of the adjacent side to the hypotenuse in a right triangle. In an AC circuit, the true power is the product of the voltage, current, and the power factor. Therefore, the power factor is directly related to the cosine of the phase angle.

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• 33.

### A circuit component that oppose the change in the circuit voltage is      A. Resistance    B. Capacitance    C. Inductance    D. All of the above

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
Capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the change in circuit voltage. When the voltage across a capacitor changes, it takes time for the capacitor to charge or discharge, causing it to oppose the change in voltage. This property of capacitance is utilized in various electronic applications such as smoothing power supplies, filtering signals, and storing energy.

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• 34.

### To improve the power factor in three phase circuits, the capacitor bank is connected in Delta to make      A. Capacitance calculation easy    B. Capacitance very small    C. The connection elegant    D. The power factor correction more effective

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
Connecting the capacitor bank in Delta configuration in three phase circuits improves the power factor by making the power factor correction more effective.

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• 35.

### Electric pressure is also called      A. Resistance    B. Power    C. Voltage    D. Energy

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
Electric pressure is also called voltage. Voltage refers to the electric potential difference between two points in an electrical circuit. It is the force that drives electric current through a conductor.

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• 36.

### The most commonly used input signal in control system is/are      A. Step function    B. Ramp or velocity function    C.Accelerating function    D. All of the above

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
Explanation
The most commonly used input signal in control systems is a step function. A step function is a signal that changes instantaneously from one constant value to another constant value. This type of input signal is commonly used in control systems to analyze the response and stability of the system. It allows for the observation of the system's behavior when there is a sudden change in the input. Ramp or velocity functions and accelerating functions are also used in control systems, but they are not as commonly used as step functions.

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• 37.

### Feedback control systems are      A. Insensitive to both forward and feedback path parameter changes    B. Less sensitive to feedback path parameter changes than to forward path parameter changes    C. Less sensitive to forward path parameter changes than to feedback path parameter changes    D. Equally sensitive to forward and feedback path parameter changes

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
Feedback control systems are less sensitive to forward path parameter changes than to feedback path parameter changes. This means that changes in the parameters of the feedback path have a greater impact on the overall system performance compared to changes in the parameters of the forward path.

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• 38.

### In a transistor largest dimension is that of      A.Emitter    B.Base    C.Collector    D.None of the above

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
The largest dimension in a transistor is that of the collector.

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• 39.

### The operation of a JFET involves a flow of      A.Minority carriers    B.Majority carriers    C.Recombination carriers    D.Any of the above

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Majority carriers. In a JFET (junction field-effect transistor), the operation involves the flow of majority carriers, which are the majority charge carriers in the semiconductor material. In an N-channel JFET, the majority carriers are electrons, while in a P-channel JFET, the majority carriers are holes. The flow of majority carriers controls the conductivity of the JFET and allows it to function as a voltage-controlled current device.

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• 40.

### A JFET can operate in      A.Depletion mode only    B.Enhancement mode only    C.Depletion and enhancement modes    D.Neither enhancement nor depletion mode

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
Explanation
A JFET can operate in depletion mode only. This means that the JFET is normally conducting current and can be turned off by applying a reverse bias voltage. In depletion mode, the channel of the JFET is already formed and applying a reverse bias depletes the channel, reducing the current flow. In enhancement mode, the JFET is normally off and can be turned on by applying a forward bias voltage. However, a JFET does not have the ability to operate in enhancement mode, so option 1 is the correct answer.

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• 41.

### The gunn diode is used in the range of      A.Below 100 MHz    B.More than 100 KHz    C.Below 1500 MHz    D.Above 15 GHz

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
The correct answer is B. More than 100 KHz. Gunn diodes are typically used in the microwave frequency range, which is above 1 GHz. Therefore, option B, which states "more than 100 KHz," is the most appropriate answer.

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• 42.

### How many flip-flops are required to make a MOD-32 binary counter?   A. 5   B.8   C. 6   D. 45

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
Explanation
To make a MOD-32 binary counter, we need to count up to 32 in binary. In binary, 32 is represented as 100000. Each bit in the binary representation represents a flip-flop. Therefore, we need 5 flip-flops to make a MOD-32 binary counter.

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• 43.

### A BCD counter is a ________. A.divide-by-10 counter B.Decade counter C.binary counter D.full-modulus counter

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
A BCD counter is a decade counter. A decade counter is a type of counter that counts in decimal numbers from 0 to 9. BCD stands for Binary Coded Decimal, which means that each decimal digit is represented by a binary code. Therefore, a BCD counter is specifically designed to count in BCD format, making it a type of decade counter.

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• 44.

### _____ counter is a type of a shift register counter. A.BCDB.RingC.Decade D.Binary

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
A binary counter is a type of shift register counter. A shift register is a digital circuit that can store and shift data. A counter is a circuit that counts the number of clock cycles or pulses. In a binary counter, the count value is represented in binary form, with each bit representing a power of 2. This allows the counter to count in binary sequence, incrementing by one for each clock pulse. Therefore, option 2, Binary, is the correct answer.

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• 45.

### 3. Why do the microprocessors possess very few bit manipulating instructions ? A. Because they mostly operate on bits/ word data B. Because they mostly operate on byte/word data C. Both a & b D. None of the above

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

B. Option 2
Explanation
Microprocessors possess very few bit manipulating instructions because they mostly operate on byte/word data.

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• 46.

### Which among the following is an application of high frequency? A. SONAR B. Subsurface communication C. Radio navigation D. Facsimile

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

D. Option 4
Explanation
Facsimile is an application of high frequency. Facsimile, also known as fax, is a technology that is used to transmit scanned documents or images over a telephone line. High frequency is used in fax machines to transmit data quickly and efficiently. This allows for the quick and accurate transmission of documents over long distances.

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• 47.

### In which kind of waveform is the phase velocity defined? A.Sinusoidal B.Rectangular C.Square D.Triangular

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
Explanation
The phase velocity is defined in a sinusoidal waveform.

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• 48.

### Power density is basically termed as power per unit area A.Reflected B.Refracted C.Radiated D.Diffracted

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

C. Option 3
Explanation
Power density refers to the amount of power that is radiated or transmitted per unit area. It is a measure of how concentrated the power is in a given area. This can be seen in various applications, such as in wireless communication systems where power density is important for determining the range and coverage of the signal. In this case, power density is specifically referring to power that is radiated, making option C, "Radiated," the correct answer.

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• 49.

### Which waveform plays a crucial role in determining the radiation pattern ofthe  dipole/wire antennas? A.Current B.Voltage C.Frequency D.Phase

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
Explanation
The current waveform plays a crucial role in determining the radiation pattern of dipole/wire antennas. This is because the current flowing through the antenna creates the electromagnetic fields that radiate the signal. The shape and amplitude of the current waveform directly affect the shape and direction of the radiation pattern.

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• 50.

### What is the area of a Unit Impulse function? a) Zero b) Half of Unity c) Depends on the function d) Unity

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

D. Option 4
Explanation
The area of a unit impulse function is equal to unity. This is because a unit impulse function is defined as a function that is zero everywhere except at a single point, where it is infinitely large. The area under the curve of a unit impulse function is therefore equal to the value of the function at that point, which is unity.

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• Current Version
• Mar 15, 2023
Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
• Jul 26, 2020
Quiz Created by
Noothan Kumar

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