Infectious Disease Exam 1

144 Questions | Total Attempts: 112

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Infectious Disease Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz made for podiatry students for their INDI exam 1.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Staph saprophyticus does which type of hemolysis?
    • A. 

      Alpha

    • B. 

      Beta

    • C. 

      Gamma

    • D. 

      Variable

    • E. 

      Non-Hemolytic

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Saprophyticus and epidermidis do beta, while aureus does gamma

    • B. 

      Saprophyticus and epidermidis do gamma, while aureus does beta

    • C. 

      Saprophyticus and aureus do beta, while epidermidis does gamma

    • D. 

      Saprophyticus and aureus do gamma, while epidermidis does beta

  • 3. 
    Is Staph saprophyticus coagulase negative or positive?
    • A. 

      Positive

    • B. 

      Negative

  • 4. 
    Is Staph saprophyticus DNase positive or negative?
    • A. 

      Positive

    • B. 

      Negative

  • 5. 
    How are saprophyticus and epidermidis different from aureus in terms of coagulase and DNase?
    • A. 

      All are the same

    • B. 

      Sapro and epidermidis are both positive

    • C. 

      Aureus is positive

  • 6. 
    Is Staph saphrophyticus Mannitol positive or negative?
    • A. 

      Positive

    • B. 

      Negative

    • C. 

      It varies

  • 7. 
    Which antiobiotic is used to treat Staph epidermidis?
    • A. 

      Penicillin

    • B. 

      Methicillin

    • C. 

      Vancomycin

    • D. 

      Bactrim

    • E. 

      Erythromycin

  • 8. 
    Staph saprophyticus is resistant to which antibiotic?
    • A. 

      Penicillin G

    • B. 

      Methicillin

    • C. 

      Vancomycin

    • D. 

      Novobiocin

  • 9. 
    UTIs are systemic infections of which Staph?
    • A. 

      Aureus

    • B. 

      Epidermidis

    • C. 

      Saprophyticus

    • D. 

      Pyogenes

  • 10. 
    Which of the following are sensitive to Novobiocin?
    • A. 

      S. aureus, S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus

    • B. 

      S. aureus, S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. aureus, S. saprophyticus

    • D. 

      S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus

  • 11. 
    Is S. saprophyticus urease positive or negative?
    • A. 

      Positive

    • B. 

      Negative

    • C. 

      It varies

  • 12. 
    Which Staph may infect the urinary tract of patients due to poor hygiene and sexual activity?
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

    • D. 

      S. pyogenes

  • 13. 
    Attachment to epithelial cells via hemagglutinins and other cell surface proteins is a virulence factor of which staph?
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

    • D. 

      S. pyogenes

  • 14. 
    The urease produced by ________ may mediate host pathogenesis.
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

    • D. 

      S. pyogenes

  • 15. 
    Which staph can cause both pyelonephritis and cystitis?
    • A. 

      Aureus

    • B. 

      Epidermidis

    • C. 

      Saprophyticus

    • D. 

      Pyogenes

  • 16. 
    Pyelonephritis is 
    • A. 

      Upper UTI

    • B. 

      Lower UTI

  • 17. 
    Cystitis is
    • A. 

      Upper UTI

    • B. 

      Lower UTI

  • 18. 
    Pyruria (Pus in the urine) is commonly due to which Staph?
    • A. 

      Aureus

    • B. 

      Epidermidis

    • C. 

      Saprophyticus

    • D. 

      Pyogenes

  • 19. 
    Which bacteria are the most important bacteria, medically speaking?
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus

    • B. 

      Streptococcus

    • C. 

      Bacillus

    • D. 

      Cornybacterium

  • 20. 
    Which bacteria can be highly invasive?
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus

    • B. 

      Streptococcus

  • 21. 
    What is the primary habitat of Streptococci?
    • A. 

      Mammalian Nasopharynx

    • B. 

      Mammalian GI Tract

    • C. 

      Mammalian Skin

  • 22. 
    Are Strep Gram positive or negative?
    • A. 

      Positive

    • B. 

      Negative

  • 23. 
    Streptococci have what cell arrangement? 
    • A. 

      Grape-like cluster

    • B. 

      Chain-like

  • 24. 
    Streptococci
    • A. 

      Catalase Positive

    • B. 

      Catalase Negative

  • 25. 
    Which is sub-grouped based on the Lancefield Groupings (A-H, K-M, O-V) based on the C carbohydrate extracted from the cell wall with hot HCl treatment?
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus

    • B. 

      Streptococcus

    • C. 

      Clostridium

  • 26. 
    Lancefield grouping scheme was developed for what purpose?
    • A. 

      To differentiate between alpha hemolytic strep

    • B. 

      To differentiate between beta hemolytic strep

    • C. 

      To differentiate between gamma hemolytic strep

    • D. 

      To ease organization

  • 27. 
    Which 2 medically important Streptococci cannot be classified by "C" antigen?
    • A. 

      Pneumoniae and viridans

    • B. 

      Pneumoniae and pyogenes

    • C. 

      Pyogenes and viridans

    • D. 

      Pyogenes and pneumoniae

  • 28. 
    Streptococci have what hemolytic properties
    • A. 

      Alpha

    • B. 

      Beta

    • C. 

      Gamma

    • D. 

      Alpha, beta and gamma

  • 29. 
    _________ have an oral and enteric clinical presenation and its manifestations include pyogenesis (pus formation)
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus

    • B. 

      Streptococcus

    • C. 

      Planococcus

    • D. 

      Stomatococcus

  • 30. 
    Sugar fermentation and esculin hydrolysis are the biotyping/biochemical properties of 
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus

    • B. 

      Streptococcus

    • C. 

      Bacillus

  • 31. 
    Strep mutans is what kind of strep?
    • A. 

      Strep bovis

    • B. 

      Strep pneumoniae

    • C. 

      Viridans Strep

    • D. 

      Strep pyogenes

  • 32. 
    Strep anginosus is what kind of strep?
    • A. 

      Strep bovis

    • B. 

      Strep pneumoniae

    • C. 

      Strep Viridans

    • D. 

      Mixed type

  • 33. 
    Streptococcus pyogenes falls into which group
    • A. 

      Group A

    • B. 

      Group B

    • C. 

      Group D

    • D. 

      Peptostreptococcus

  • 34. 
    Streptococcus pyogenes has which hemolysis pattern?
    • A. 

      Alpha

    • B. 

      Beta

    • C. 

      Gamma

  • 35. 
    Streptococcus pyogenes
    • A. 

      Catalase Positive

    • B. 

      Catalase Negative

  • 36. 
    Streptococcus pyogenes is sensitive to which antibiotic?
    • A. 

      Bacitracin

    • B. 

      Novobiocin

    • C. 

      Vancomyocin

    • D. 

      Penicillin G

  • 37. 
    Streptococcus pyogenes colonizes which 2 areas?
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Stomach

    • C. 

      Oropharynx

    • D. 

      Eustachian tube

  • 38. 
    Is Strep pyogenes hyaluronic acid capsule immunogenic?
    • A. 

      Yes - recognized as foreign

    • B. 

      No - not recognized as foreign

  • 39. 
    Molecular mimicry seen in the hyaluronic capsule of ____________ makes the capsule not immunogenic 
    • A. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • B. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

    • C. 

      Streptococcus bovis

    • D. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • 40. 
    Which 2 virulence factors causes Streptococcus pyogenes to have a pattern of beta-hemolysis
    • A. 

      SLO

    • B. 

      Erythogenic toxin

    • C. 

      SLS

    • D. 

      M protein

    • E. 

      Streptokinase

  • 41. 
    Streptolysin O (SLO)  _______ in presence of oxygen
    • A. 

      Oxygen sensitive/labile

    • B. 

      Oxygen stable

  • 42. 
    Streptolysin O (SLO)
    • A. 

      Immunogenic

    • B. 

      Non-immunogenic

  • 43. 
    You can get antibody formation with which Streptolysin of Streptococcus pyogenes?
    • A. 

      SLO

    • B. 

      SLS

    • C. 

      M protein

    • D. 

      Streptokinase

  • 44. 
    M. luteus is what type of species
    • A. 

      Kytococcus

    • B. 

      Micrococcus

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus

    • D. 

      Planococcus

  • 45. 
    This is motile
    • A. 

      Planococcus

    • B. 

      Micrococcus

    • C. 

      Stomatococcus

    • D. 

      Staphylococcus

  • 46. 
    Which is not associated with pitted keratolysis
    • A. 

      Kytococcus sendentarius

    • B. 

      Dermatophilus congolensis

    • C. 

      Corynebacteria species (diptheroids)

    • D. 

      Planococcus saprophytis

  • 47. 
    Corynebacteria species are also known as
    • A. 

      Planococci

    • B. 

      S.mucilaginous

    • C. 

      Diptheroids

    • D. 

      S. epidermidis

  • 48. 
    S. mucilaginous is an example of what type of microorganism?
    • A. 

      Stomatococcus

    • B. 

      Planococcus

    • C. 

      Micrococcus

    • D. 

      Staphylococcus

  • 49. 
    Staphylococcus
    • A. 

      Gram positive

    • B. 

      Gram negative

  • 50. 
    Staphylococcus
    • A. 

      Grape-like clusters

    • B. 

      Long chains

  • 51. 
    Staphylococcus
    • A. 

      Catalase (peroxidase) Positive

    • B. 

      Catalase (peroxidase) Negative

  • 52. 
    Frank pathogen, as opposed to opportunistic commensal
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

  • 53. 
    Halophilic (halotolerant); will grow in presence of 7.5% NaCl
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus

    • B. 

      Streptococcus

  • 54. 
    Yellow-golden colored, round shape
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

  • 55. 
    Beta-hemolytic
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

  • 56. 
    S. aureus 
    • A. 

      Coagulase positive

    • B. 

      Coagulase negative

  • 57. 
    S. aureus
    • A. 

      DNase positive

    • B. 

      DNase negative

  • 58. 
    S. aureus
    • A. 

      Mannitol positive

    • B. 

      Mannitol negative

  • 59. 
    Is S. aureus part of normal flora?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 60. 
    Can contaminated food carry S. aureus?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 61. 
    It is not possible to carry S. aureus and be unaffected
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 62. 
    S. aureus has sphingomyelinase activity thanks to this
    • A. 

      Alpha toxin

    • B. 

      Beta toxin

    • C. 

      Gamma toxin

    • D. 

      Delta toxin

  • 63. 
    S. aureus has P-V leukocidin that works with this detergent
    • A. 

      Alpha toxin

    • B. 

      Beta toxin

    • C. 

      Gamma toxin

    • D. 

      Delta toxin

  • 64. 
    P-V leukocidin associated with 
    • A. 

      Community-associated MRSA

    • B. 

      Nosocomial MRSA

  • 65. 
    Enterotoxins from S. aureus have these three characteristics
    • A. 

      Heat stable

    • B. 

      Cause diarrhea

    • C. 

      Cause blindness

    • D. 

      Cause emesis

  • 66. 
    Leukotoxin is also known as 
    • A. 

      Alpha toxin

    • B. 

      Beta toxin

    • C. 

      Gamma toxin

    • D. 

      Delta toxin

  • 67. 
    Causes tissue necrosis and acts like a detergent
    • A. 

      Alpha toxin

    • B. 

      Beta toxin

    • C. 

      Gamma toxin

    • D. 

      Delta toxin

  • 68. 
    Which exotoxin of S. aureus is most common?
    • A. 

      Toxin A

    • B. 

      Toxin B

    • C. 

      Toxins C and D

    • D. 

      Toxin F

  • 69. 
    Toxin A of S. aureus causes
    • A. 

      Staph. pseudomembranous enterocolitis

    • B. 

      Excessive release of IL-2 from TH cells

    • C. 

      Food intoxication

  • 70. 
    Ingestion of pre-formed toxin
    • A. 

      Botulism

    • B. 

      Food intoxication

    • C. 

      Food infection

  • 71. 
    Causes Staph. pseudomembranous enterocolitis (superinfection)
    • A. 

      Toxin A

    • B. 

      Toxin B

    • C. 

      Toxin C and D

    • D. 

      Toxin F

  • 72. 
    Toxin A and B, which are exotoxins of S. aureus, are what kind of exotoxins?
    • A. 

      Cytotoxins

    • B. 

      Enterotoxins

  • 73. 
    Which exotoxin of S. aureus is a superantigen?
    • A. 

      TSST

    • B. 

      Exfoliatin

    • C. 

      Alpha toxin

    • D. 

      Beta toxin

  • 74. 
    Which exotoxin of S.aureus causes excessive release of IL-2 from T-helper cells and IL-1 from macrophages leading to hypotension, multiple organ involvement and death, produced only by lysogenized isolates during their growth?
    • A. 

      Exfoliatin

    • B. 

      Toxin A

    • C. 

      TSST

    • D. 

      Toxin B

  • 75. 
    Which types of S. aureus produce exfoliatin?
    • A. 

      Phage group 1

    • B. 

      Phage group 2 (Lysogenized isolates)

    • C. 

      Phage group 3

  • 76. 
    What does beta lactamase lead to?
    • A. 

      Methicillin resistance

    • B. 

      Penicillin resistance

    • C. 

      Vancomycin resistance

  • 77. 
    What do mutant penicillin-binding proteins result in?
    • A. 

      Penicillin resistance

    • B. 

      Methicillin resistance

    • C. 

      Vancomycin resistance

  • 78. 
    Catalyzes the formation of thrombin which converts fibrinogen to fibrin
    • A. 

      Coagulase

    • B. 

      Protein A

    • C. 

      Polysaccharide A

    • D. 

      Staphylokinase

  • 79. 
    Which is not an important spreading factor for S. aureus?
    • A. 

      DNase aka staphylodornase

    • B. 

      Staphylokinase

    • C. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • D. 

      Coagulase

    • E. 

      Lipase

  • 80. 
    This S. aureus virulence factor procures nutrients and decreases pus viscosity
    • A. 

      Lipase

    • B. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • C. 

      Nuclease (DNase aka staphylodornase)

    • D. 

      Staphylokinase

  • 81. 
    Virulence factor of S. aureus that activates plasmin leading to the breakdown of fibrin clot, thereby releasing organism in host
    • A. 

      Coagulase

    • B. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • C. 

      Lipase

    • D. 

      Staphylokinase

    • E. 

      Nuclease

  • 82. 
    Staphylokinase opposes what virulance factor of S. aureus?
    • A. 

      Protein A

    • B. 

      Coagulase

    • C. 

      Lipase

    • D. 

      Beta lactamase

  • 83. 
    All of the following are localized infections produced by S. aureus except
    • A. 

      Impetigo

    • B. 

      Shingles

    • C. 

      Cellulitis

    • D. 

      Folliculitis

    • E. 

      Furuncles and carbuncles

  • 84. 
    In scalded skin syndrome (Ritter's disease), isolates lysogenized by Phage Group II produce
    • A. 

      Exfoliatin

    • B. 

      Enterotoxin A

    • C. 

      Necrotizing enterotoxins

    • D. 

      Alpha toxin

  • 85. 
    S. aureus causes
    • A. 

      Food infection via enterotoxin A

    • B. 

      Food intoxication enterotoxin A

    • C. 

      Food infection enterotoxin B

    • D. 

      Food intoxication enterotoxin B

  • 86. 
    Most common causative agent of the systemic infection Osteomyelitis
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

  • 87. 
    This should be suspected with any topical S. aureus infection of the foot
    • A. 

      Osteomyelitis

    • B. 

      Toxic Shock syndrome

    • C. 

      Infective (septic) Arthritis

    • D. 

      Post-viral lobar pneumonia

  • 88. 
    Systemic infection associated with S. aureus that affects the bone epiphysis in adults, common in the tropics, often accompanied with pyomyositis
    • A. 

      Toxic shock syndrome

    • B. 

      Osteomyelitis

    • C. 

      Infective (septic) arthritis

    • D. 

      Acute bacterial endocarditis

  • 89. 
    Most common causative agent of the system infection, infective (septic) arthritis?
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

  • 90. 
    Which system infection caused by S. aureus is often follows orthopedic surgery?
    • A. 

      Osteomyelitis

    • B. 

      Infective (septic) arthritis

    • C. 

      Acute bacterial endocarditis

  • 91. 
    Which is the most common causative agent of the systemic infection, acute bacterial endocarditis?
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

  • 92. 
    Which organism infects both normal and damaged heart valves?
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

  • 93. 
    Which causes the systemic infection post-viral lobar pneumonia
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saphrophyticus

  • 94. 
    Systemic infection caused by S. aureus in which inhalation can lead to pneumonia, pulmonary abvesses or necrosis of host cells in bronchial tree or any lung cavity
    • A. 

      Osteomyelitis

    • B. 

      Infective (septic) arthritis

    • C. 

      Acute bacterial endocarditis

    • D. 

      Post-viral lobar pneumonia

    • E. 

      Pyemia

  • 95. 
    Most common causative agent of the systemic infection, bacteremia and sepsis (pyemia)
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

  • 96. 
    Systemic infection caused by S. aureus that shows as an increased temperature due to release of pyrogens from bacteria, may lead to sinusitis, meningitis, and parotitis
    • A. 

      Infective (septic) arthritis

    • B. 

      Acute bacterial endocarditis

    • C. 

      Post-viral lobar pneumonia

    • D. 

      Bacteremia and sepsis

  • 97. 
    Systemic infection of S. aureus due to highly absorbent tampons
    • A. 

      Toxic shock syndrome

    • B. 

      Osteomyelitis

    • C. 

      Infective (septic) arthritis

    • D. 

      Post-viral lobar pneumonia

  • 98. 
    Causes the sytemic infection Staphylococcal Colitis (Necrotizing enterocolitis)
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

  • 99. 
    Staphylococcal Colitis (Necrotizing enterocolitis is a superinfection producing which enterotoxin?
    • A. 

      Enterotoxin A

    • B. 

      Enterotoxin B

    • C. 

      Enterotoxin C and D

    • D. 

      Enterotoxin F

  • 100. 
    If the S. aureus isolate is sensitive, what treatment would you use to get rid of S. aureus?
    • A. 

      Penicillin

    • B. 

      Methicillin

    • C. 

      Vancomycin

    • D. 

      Bacitracin

  • 101. 
    S. aureus resistant to methicillin (Methicillin Resistant Staph Aureus MRSA) treated with 
    • A. 

      Penicillin

    • B. 

      Methicillin

    • C. 

      Vancomycin

    • D. 

      Bacitracin

  • 102. 
    Topical treatment for S. aureus
    • A. 

      Penicillin

    • B. 

      Methicillin

    • C. 

      Vancomycin

    • D. 

      Bacitracin

  • 103. 
    For moist foot lesions caused by S. aureus, use
    • A. 

      Bacitracin Cream

    • B. 

      Bacitracin Ointment

    • C. 

      Surgical debridement

  • 104. 
    For dry foot lesions caused by S. aureus, use
    • A. 

      Bacitracin Cream

    • B. 

      Bacitracin Ointment

    • C. 

      Surgical debridement

  • 105. 
    In pustulent or necrotic tissues due to S. aureus infection, what treatment?
    • A. 

      Bacitracin Cream

    • B. 

      Bacitracin Ointment

    • C. 

      Surgical debridement

  • 106. 
    More drug resistant
    • A. 

      Community-associated MRSA

    • B. 

      Nosocomially acquired MRSA

  • 107. 
    Which drug is not appropriate for treating MRSA/VISA/GISA
    • A. 

      Linezolid (Zyvox)

    • B. 

      Clindomycin

    • C. 

      Synercid

    • D. 

      Daptomycin

  • 108. 
    Linezolid (Zyvox) and Synercid are two drugs that treat MRSA. How?
    • A. 

      Protein synthesis inhibitors

    • B. 

      AA synthesis inhibitors

  • 109. 
    This binds to the Fc portion of IgG to block complement binding and opsonization (is a virulence factor of S. aureus)
    • A. 

      Coagulase

    • B. 

      Protein A

    • C. 

      Polysaccharide A

    • D. 

      Lipase

  • 110. 
    Clumping factor associated with endocarditis as it adheres to heart valves
    • A. 

      Protein A

    • B. 

      Coagulase

    • C. 

      Lipase

    • D. 

      Staphylokinase

  • 111. 
    Where is Toxin A preformed?
    • A. 

      In food

    • B. 

      In mouth

    • C. 

      In stomach

    • D. 

      In rectum

  • 112. 
    Color of Staph epidermidis
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      White

    • C. 

      Blue

    • D. 

      Rainbow

  • 113. 
    Staph epidermidis
    • A. 

      Alpha hemolysis

    • B. 

      Beta hemolysis

    • C. 

      Gamma hemolysis

    • D. 

      Delta hemolysis

  • 114. 
    Staph epidermidis (pick two)
    • A. 

      Coagulase positive

    • B. 

      Coagulase negative

    • C. 

      DNase positive

    • D. 

      DNase negative

  • 115. 
    Staph epidermidis
    • A. 

      Mannitol positive

    • B. 

      Mannitol negative

  • 116. 
    Staph epidermidis is part of normal flora
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 117. 
    S. aureus and S. epidermidis have which 2 virulence factors in common?
    • A. 

      Beta-lactamase

    • B. 

      Mutant penicillin-binding protein

    • C. 

      Exopolysaccharide glycocalyx (slime layer)

    • D. 

      Multiple drug resistance including methicillin, oxacillin, cephalosporins

  • 118. 
    Which Staphylococcus has Exopolysaccharide Glycocalyx aka SLIME LAYER as a virulence factor?
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

  • 119. 
    This S. epidermidis virulence factor has adhesion to host tissue and plastics, anti-phagocytic, blocks antibiotic penetration
    • A. 

      Beta-lactamase

    • B. 

      Mutant penicillin-binding proteins

    • C. 

      Exopolysaccharide glycocalyx (slime layer)

  • 120. 
    This Staph has multiple drug resistances including methicillin, oxacillin, and cephalosporins as a virulence factor
    • A. 

      S. aureus

    • B. 

      S. epidermidis

    • C. 

      S. saprophyticus

  • 121. 
    Staph epidermidis is resistant which antibiotics? (Choose as many as necessary)
    • A. 

      Pencillin

    • B. 

      Methicillin

    • C. 

      Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)

    • D. 

      Oxacillin

    • E. 

      Cephalosporins

  • 122. 
    S. aureus and S. epidermidis have two which systemic infections in common?
    • A. 

      Bacteremia

    • B. 

      Subacute bacterial endocarditis

    • C. 

      Sepsis

  • 123. 
    This affects only abnormal or damaged heart valves, and prosthetic valves
    • A. 

      Acute bacterial endocarditis

    • B. 

      Subacute bacterial endocarditis

  • 124. 
    S. epidermidis systemic infections have what origin?
    • A. 

      Grocery Stores

    • B. 

      Toilet seats

    • C. 

      Hospitals

    • D. 

      Restaurants

  • 125. 
    The following applies to which Streptolysin of Streptococcus pyogenes? An increase in antibody titer is used to determine if individual had recent S. pyogenes infection
    • A. 

      SLO

    • B. 

      SLS

  • 126. 
    The immunogenicity of SLO is important for which 2 medical conditions
    • A. 

      Rheumatic fever

    • B. 

      Pyelonephritis

    • C. 

      Acute glomerulonephritis

    • D. 

      Cystitis

  • 127. 
    This exists. 
    • A. 

      ASO (antibodies to SLO)

    • B. 

      ASL (antibodies to SLS)

    • C. 

      ASO and ASL

  • 128. 
    SLS
    • A. 

      Stable in the presence of oxygen

    • B. 

      Sensitive in the presence of oxygen

  • 129. 
    This virulence factor of Strep. pyogenes causes the red rash of Scarlet fever
    • A. 

      SLO

    • B. 

      SLS

    • C. 

      Erythrogenic toxin

    • D. 

      M protein

  • 130. 
    This tests for the susceptibility to erythrogenic toxin of Strep pyogenes
    • A. 

      Dick test

    • B. 

      Esculin hydrolysis

    • C. 

      Erysipelas

    • D. 

      CAMP test

  • 131. 
    In the dick test, after injection, if a red rash appears, the person
    • A. 

      Has the antibody

    • B. 

      Does not have the antibody

  • 132. 
    In Strep pyogenes, there are at least how many different serotypes of M protein
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      1000

    • E. 

      10000

  • 133. 
    In Strep pyogenes, which M protein types are associated with invasiveness?
    • A. 

      M1

    • B. 

      M2

    • C. 

      M3

    • D. 

      M4

    • E. 

      M18

  • 134. 
    Erythrogenic toxin of Strep pyogenes is a superantigen
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 135. 
    Which virulence factor of Strep pyogenes is essential for pathogenicity?
    • A. 

      Hyaluronic acid capsule

    • B. 

      Hemolysins

    • C. 

      Erythrogenic toxin

    • D. 

      M protein

    • E. 

      Hyaluronidase

  • 136. 
    In Strep pyogenes, certain M proteins resemble sarcolemmal membrane protein of the hearth thereby leading to 
    • A. 

      Scarlet fever

    • B. 

      Rheumatic fever

    • C. 

      Necrotizing fasciitis

  • 137. 
    Describe M protein of Strep pyogenes (choose two)
    • A. 

      Anti-phagocytic

    • B. 

      Phagocytic

    • C. 

      Adhesion factor (with lipoteichoic acid)

    • D. 

      Plays a role in successful opsonization

  • 138. 
    Strep pyogenes does not have hyaluronidase activity
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 139. 
    Streptokinase of Strep pyogenes 
    • A. 

      Activates fibrin to form clots

    • B. 

      Activates plasmin to lyse clots

  • 140. 
    Nuclease of Strep pyogenes does this
    • A. 

      Degrades DNA

    • B. 

      Degrades RNA

    • C. 

      Degrades both DNA and RNA

  • 141. 
    Nuclease of strep pyogenes is a spreading factor because it
    • A. 

      Increases pus viscosity

    • B. 

      Decreases pus viscosity

  • 142. 
    Strep pyogenes uses _______ aka streptodornase as a virulence factor
    • A. 

      DNase A

    • B. 

      DNase B

    • C. 

      DNase C

    • D. 

      DNase D

  • 143. 
    In Strep pyogenes, this virulence factor is associated with increased antibody titer which indicates recent S. pyogenes infection, like ASO antibody is useful with respect to rheumatic fever
    • A. 

      Adhesion factor (with lipoteichoic acid)

    • B. 

      Hyaluronidase

    • C. 

      Streptokinase

    • D. 

      DNase B (streptodornase)

  • 144. 
    Strep pyogenes - in strains associated with tissue necrosis (Streptococcal Toxic Shock-like syndrome / necrotizing fasciitis), which virulence factor is found
    • A. 

      Adhesion factor

    • B. 

      Streptokinase

    • C. 

      Nuclease

    • D. 

      Protease