The Ultimate IAHCSMM CRCST Practice Test Quiz!

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The Ultimate IAHCSMM CRCST Practice Test Quiz!

Service technicians are charged with ensuring that all the materials used in the hospital are properly sterilized. Are you studying to be a service technician and thing you are well prepared for the exam? The practice test below is designed to help you pass and refresh your memory before the Certified Registered Central Service Technician exams. Give it a shot!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Nosocomial infections are:
    • A. 

      Most likely to accur during international travel

    • B. 

      Caused by drug resistant organisms

    • C. 

      Those without known cures

    • D. 

      Those which occur in the course of being treated in the hospital

  • 2. 
    The human resources tool that identifies major tasks performed by persons in specific positions is called a:
    • A. 

      Job duty list

    • B. 

      Job specification

    • C. 

      Task summary review

    • D. 

      Job description

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is the most popular title for the central service department head?
    • A. 

      Coordinator

    • B. 

      Director

    • C. 

      Manager

    • D. 

      Supervisor

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Drain line of the sterilizer

    • B. 

      Center of the sterilizer

    • C. 

      Bottom of the sterilizer

    • D. 

      Side of the sterilizer

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      No class

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Class II

  • 6. 
     In a sterilization  load containing 2 small basins, the chemicals indicators will be positioned.
    • A. 

      On the middle of the basins

    • B. 

      On the top of the basins

    • C. 

      On the lowest par of the basin

    • D. 

      On the handles to check proper identification

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Placing hot or warm packages in cold surfaces

    • B. 

      Wet packs

    • C. 

      Because a water leak in the sterilizer

    • D. 

      Open to soon the sterilizer door

  • 8. 
    What is the preferred  pH of detergents used for most cleaning processes?
    • A. 

      Low pH

    • B. 

      High pH

    • C. 

      Neutral pH

    • D. 

      It depends on the water temperature and exposure time

  • 9. 
    The moisture content of saturated steam should posses a relative humidity of:
    • A. 

      88% to 100%

    • B. 

      97% to 100%

    • C. 

      99% to 100%

    • D. 

      50% to 50%

  • 10. 
    Which the following steps happens first when proceeding flexible endoscopies?
    • A. 

      Leak testing

    • B. 

      Higth-level disinfecting/sterilizing

    • C. 

      Manual cleaning

    • D. 

      Drying

  • 11. 
    Information regarding cleaning processes for endoscopes should be provided by:
    • A. 

      The SGNA

    • B. 

      APIC

    • C. 

      The instrument manufacturer

    • D. 

      The operating room staff

  • 12. 
    Winch of the following statements about endoscopes is true?`
    • A. 

      Not all endoscopes can be processed in the AER

    • B. 

      Ultrasonic cleaning is the process of choice for endoscopes

    • C. 

      Flexible endoscopes are not easily damaged

    • D. 

      All endoscopes should be steam sterilized

  • 13. 
    The FDA classifies sterilization packaging as a:
    • A. 

      Class I medical device

    • B. 

      Class II medical device

    • C. 

      Class III medical device

    • D. 

      Class IV medical device

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      Muslim

    • B. 

      Barrier cloth

    • C. 

      Canvas

    • D. 

      Twills

  • 15. 
    Wicking materials are used to:
    • A. 

      Dry instruments before sterilization

    • B. 

      Allow air removal,steam penetration and facilitate drying

    • C. 

      Cushion instruments from the extreme force in steam sterilizer chambers

    • D. 

      Hold water away from the bottom of instrument trays

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      Paper to plastic

    • B. 

      Paper to paper

    • C. 

      Plastic to plastic

    • D. 

      The way in which the most packages can be placed in the sterilizer

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Less than 75%

    • B. 

      Less than 60%

    • C. 

      Less than 50%

    • D. 

      Less than 35%

  • 18. 
    When placing ring handled instruments in an instrument tray,you should:
    • A. 

      Lock the handles to prevent damage during sterilization

    • B. 

      Arrange the instruments in alphabetical order

    • C. 

      Arrange the instruments in the order of their use

    • D. 

      Unlock the handles and open the instruments

  • 19. 
    A material that removes electrons from another substance is called:
    • A. 

      An oxidizing agent

    • B. 

      A demagnetizer

    • C. 

      An atom

    • D. 

      A molecule

  • 20. 
    Before an item can be placed in a liquid chemical sterile processing system they must be:
    • A. 

      Heated

    • B. 

      Filled with air

    • C. 

      Sterilized

    • D. 

      Cleaned

  • 21. 
    Both AORN and the joint commission recommend that::
    • A. 

      The use of flash sterilization be minimized or decreased

    • B. 

      Flash sterilization be performed in only one sterilizer per facility

    • C. 

      Healthcare facility get FDA approval for flash sterilization

    • D. 

      Only central service technicians operate flash sterilizers

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Should be flash sterilized in extended cycles

    • B. 

      Should only be sterilized using ethylene oxide

    • C. 

      Should not be flash sterilized

    • D. 

      Should be discarded if not used

  • 23. 
    Heat sensitive items:
    • A. 

      Cannot be flash sterilized

    • B. 

      Should be disposable

    • C. 

      Must not be inmersed

    • D. 

      Should not be used

  • 24. 
    Sterilizer recording charts and/or printouts should be checked:
    • A. 

      At the end of the shift

    • B. 

      Every 24 hours

    • C. 

      By the supervisor

    • D. 

      During and at the end of of each cycle

  • 25. 
    Two most common temperatures used in steam sterilization are
    • A. 

      120° and 140° F

    • B. 

      100° and 130° F

    • C. 

      320° AND 350°- 355° F

    • D. 

      250° AND 270° - 275° f

  • 26. 
    Test which use live bacterial spores to challenge the efficacy of the sterilization process and provide a direct measure of lethality are called
    • A. 

      Chemical indicator tests

    • B. 

      Chemical integrator tests

    • C. 

      Ampulization tests

    • D. 

      Biological tests

  • 27. 
    In order to elevate the temperature in a steam sterilizer,you must:
    • A. 

      Increase the steam pressure

    • B. 

      Decrease the steam pressure

    • C. 

      Archieve ambient pressure

    • D. 

      Inject boiler amines

  • 28. 
    Bowie dick tests should be run in:
    • A. 

      Dynamic air removal steam sterilizers

    • B. 

      Downward displacement sterilizers

    • C. 

      Ethylene oxide sterilizers

    • D. 

      Washers/sterilizers

  • 29. 
    Chemical indicators:
    • A. 

      Prove than an item is sterile

    • B. 

      Provide a visual indication that an item was exposed to a sterilization process

    • C. 

      Prove that the sterilizer did not damage heat sensitive items

    • D. 

      Provide information about bacterial spore kill within the sterilizer

  • 30. 
    The term "super heated steam" means:
    • A. 

      The type of steam necessary for high temperature sterilization

    • B. 

      Steam that has had chemicals added to it increase its temperature

    • C. 

      Dry steam

    • D. 

      Moist steam at sea level

  • 31. 
    The amount of time that it takes to kill 90% of the microorganisms present on an object is called:
    • A. 

      Time weighted average

    • B. 

      A D value

    • C. 

      A sterilization cycle

    • D. 

      Exposure time

  • 32. 
    Impregnated gauze strips may be sterilized using
    • A. 

      Ethylene oxide sterilization

    • B. 

      Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization

    • C. 

      Dry heat sterilization

    • D. 

      Steam sterilization

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      The gravity convection sterilizer

    • B. 

      The mechanical convection sterilizer

    • C. 

      The dynamic air removal sterilizer

    • D. 

      The special purpose dry heat oven

  • 34. 
    • A. 

      Placed in a uprigth position

    • B. 

      Loaded first

    • C. 

      Placed on edge

    • D. 

      Placed in a wire basket

  • 35. 
    Paper/plastic sterilization pouches:
    • A. 

      Are not suitable for steam sterilization processes

    • B. 

      Should not be placed inside of wrapped sets or containers

    • C. 

      Should be used only for dry heat sterilization processes

    • D. 

      Are used to package wood and cork products for sterilization

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      The more difficult it will be to sterilize

    • B. 

      The less time it will take to sterilize it

    • C. 

      The more biological tests you will need in the load

    • D. 

      The longer it will take to cool after sterilization

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Terminal sterilization

    • B. 

      Dry heat sterilization

    • C. 

      A decontamination process

    • D. 

      Flash sterilization for immediate patient use

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      Exchage cart

    • B. 

      Par level

    • C. 

      Case cart

    • D. 

      Requisition

  • 39. 
    disadvantages to a Case Cart Distribution System:
    • A. 

      a lag time between usage and replinishment

    • B. 

      A waste of time

    • C. 

      Not require orders

    • D. 

      Less efficiency organization

  • 40. 
    Official inventory:
    • A. 

      Does nor exist in today's modern healthcare facilities

    • B. 

      Can be counted as an asset on the facility's balance sheet

    • C. 

      Is owned by the vendor but stored at the healthcare facility

    • D. 

      Is owned by the healthcare facility but stored by the vendor

  • 41. 
    The inventory system that stocks supplies by established levels is called:
    • A. 

      Par-level

    • B. 

      Case cart

    • C. 

      ADT system

    • D. 

      Exchange system

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      Case cart system

    • B. 

      Exchange cart system

    • C. 

      Par-level system

    • D. 

      Requisition system

  • 43. 
    Automated supply replenishment systems:
    • A. 

      Are not longer used

    • B. 

      Are used only in surgery

    • C. 

      Are difficult to manage

    • D. 

      Are computarized

  • 44. 
    The movement of supplies throughout the healthcare facility is called:
    • A. 

      Distribution

    • B. 

      Inventory management

    • C. 

      Case cart system

    • D. 

      Procurement

  • 45. 
    In this system items are owned by the vendor,but stores at the healthcare facility
    • A. 

      Just-in-time

    • B. 

      Stockless

    • C. 

      Min/max

    • D. 

      Consignement

  • 46. 
    The system where items are ordered in large quantities to save money is called:
    • A. 

      Just-in-time

    • B. 

      Min/max

    • C. 

      Pick-n-pack

    • D. 

      Economic order quantity

  • 47. 
    Technicians on the ___________ department perform safety inspections and functional test on equipment
    • A. 

      Material management

    • B. 

      Infection control

    • C. 

      Biomedical engineering

    • D. 

      Facilities and manteniance

  • 48. 
    When patient equipment enters a healthcare facility,it must be safety checked by a_________ before it is cleared for patient use
    • A. 

      Biomedical technician

    • B. 

      Infection control committee member

    • C. 

      Central service technician

    • D. 

      Central service director

  • 49. 
    All patient care equipment dispensed for use must be considered __________ and handled as such , regardless of it's appearance
    • A. 

      Sterile

    • B. 

      Clean

    • C. 

      Contaminated

    • D. 

      Defribilator

  • 50. 
    Disposable components such as pads and tubing on patient care equipment should be:
    • A. 

      Discarded at point of use

    • B. 

      Be reprocessed for re-use

    • C. 

      Discarded during preventive mainteniance

    • D. 

      Removed in the biomedical engineering department

  • 51. 
    Which of the following common items of patient care equipment limits the development of DVT deep vein thrombosis and peripheral edema in immobile patients?
    • A. 

      Respirator

    • B. 

      Intermittent suction device

    • C. 

      Sequential compression unit

    • D. 

      Defribilator

  • 52. 
    Equipment should be inspected for obvious hazards such as cracked or frayed electrical cords:
    • A. 

      Only by trained biomedical engineering technicians

    • B. 

      Only during preventive maintenance activities

    • C. 

      Only when there are complains from user department personnel

    • D. 

      Whenever the equipment is cleaned

  • 53. 
    If an equipment malfunction causes harm to patients,it should be:
    • A. 

      Discarded inmediately

    • B. 

      Sent to the manufacturer for repairs

    • C. 

      Sequestered for inspection by OSHA personnel

    • D. 

      Returned immediately to the biomedical department

  • 54. 
    Patient care equipment should be stored in a________ condition
    • A. 

      Ready to use

    • B. 

      Ready to clean

    • C. 

      Ready to inspect

    • D. 

      Ready to sterilize

  • 55. 
    • A. 

      In the biomedical engineering department

    • B. 

      In the patient units "wards"

    • C. 

      In the central service department

    • D. 

      In sterile storage areas of the materiel management department

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      OSHA patient safety act

    • B. 

      Safe medical devices act

    • C. 

      EPA patient security act

    • D. 

      FDA equipment notification act

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      Patient care equipment tracking requires a computer

    • B. 

      Patient care equipment should only be tracked if it has a value in excess of an amount specified by the facility

    • C. 

      Tracking patient care equipment can prevent equipment shortages

    • D. 

      Patient care equipment must only be tracked if is usage will be charged will be charged to patients

  • 58. 
    Equipment leasing and the rental differ in that:
    • A. 

      Leasing involves purchase:rental does not require ownership

    • B. 

      Equipment rental is usually done on a shorter-term basis than equipment leasing

    • C. 

      Equipment leasing involves the most expensive equipment;equipment rental involves less expensive equipment

    • D. 

      Equipment leasing is an operating expense;equipment rental does not have cost implications

  • 59. 
    Preventive maintenance:
    • A. 

      Is performed when a piece of equipment injures apatient

    • B. 

      Is designed to identify potential problems before occur

    • C. 

      Is performed when a user unit notices a problem

    • D. 

      Is done by central service equipment is dispensed

  • 60. 
    Which of the following is NOT a reason for tracking supplies, equipment and instruments.
    • A. 

      Measure item usage

    • B. 

      Ensure that items can be quickly located

    • C. 

      Meet CDC and OSHA requirements

    • D. 

      Assist with quality processes

  • 61. 
    Which of the following tracking methods provides real time information?
    • A. 

      RFID

    • B. 

      Laser etched bar codes

    • C. 

      Standard bar code

    • D. 

      Do matrix applications

  • 62. 
    Point of use computing:
    • A. 

      Is impossible in central service department because of infection control requirements

    • B. 

      Provide no benefit to the central service department

    • C. 

      Moves computers into central service department work areas

    • D. 

      Eliminates data entry jobs

  • 63. 
    Which of the following is NOT a feature  of an instrument tracking system?
    • A. 

      Productivity information

    • B. 

      Financial data

    • C. 

      Quality assurance information

    • D. 

      Product updates and recall information

  • 64. 
    Which of the following is NOT required for sharps safety?
    • A. 

      Dispose of all single use sharps in an appropiate comtainer

    • B. 

      Never use your fingers to remove a blade form scalpel

    • C. 

      Wash all disposable sharps before discarding them

    • D. 

      Separate reusable sharps from other instruments when processing

  • 65. 
    • A. 

      Wood or paper

    • B. 

      Cloth or plastic

    • C. 

      Flammable liquid

    • D. 

      Energized electrical equipment

  • 66. 
    Ergonomic injuries:
    • A. 

      Are not a concern for central service employees

    • B. 

      Are rare in today's work enviroment

    • C. 

      Are risk factor for persons who perform repetitive or physical work

    • D. 

      Happen only in the office setting

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      Must be labeled with a copy of the original manufacturer's label of generic label that identifies hazard warnings and directions

    • B. 

      Must be labeled with a permanent marker and must state the chemical's name and designated storage location

    • C. 

      Secondary containers of chemicals are not allowed in healthcare facilities

    • D. 

      There are no restrictions for secondary container labels at this time

  • 68. 
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      The FDA

    • C. 

      THE RISK MANAGEMENT DEPARTMENT

    • D. 

      The product manufacturer

  • 69. 
    • A. 

      Combustion

    • B. 

      Polymerization

    • C. 

      Vapor density

    • D. 

      Fire

  • 70. 
    1005 ethylene oxide gas canisters should be stored:
    • A. 

      In a chemical storage cabinet

    • B. 

      Outside

    • C. 

      In a refrigerator

    • D. 

      In a chamber heated to 75°F

  • 71. 
    Which type of fire extinguisher should be used on flammable liquids?
    • A. 

      Type A

    • B. 

      Type B

    • C. 

      Type C

    • D. 

      Type D

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      Special precautions

    • B. 

      Physical data

    • C. 

      Required inventory levels

    • D. 

      Product identification

  • 73. 
    Parts of this surgical instrument?
    • A. 

      Jaw,tips,box lock,shanks ,handle,neck

    • B. 

      Rings,ratchet,shanks,box lock,jaw ,tips

    • C. 

      Loop handle.shank ,blade

    • D. 

      Proximal end,handle,tip serrations

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      The words you speak

    • B. 

      The words you write

    • C. 

      Non –verbal expressions you use

    • D. 

      ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE EXAMPLES OF COMMUNICATION

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      find another job

    • B. 

      discuss the problem with their workplace peers

    • C. 

      discuss the situation with the supervisor

    • D. 

      accept the situation as “the way things are done” at the facility.

  • 76. 
    Behavior relating to what is “right and wrong” relative to the standards of conduct for you profession are called:
    • A. 

      Ethical behavior

    • B. 

      Moral behavior

    • C. 

      Legal behavior

    • D. 

      Personal behavior

  • 77. 
    A step in communication that occurs when a listener asks a question is called:
    • A. 

      STEREOTYPING

    • B. 

      Feedback

    • C. 

      Communication looping

    • D. 

      Halo interpretation

  • 78. 
    Which of the following statements is true?
    • A. 

      We only communicate when we want to

    • B. 

      Words mean the same to everyone

    • C. 

      message should contain all possible information

    • D. 

      none of the above statements is true

  • 79. 
    When speaking, you should
    • A. 

      Be influenced by the listeners emotions

    • B. 

      Concentrate on the listener rather than oneself

    • C. 

      Use technical jargon to impress the listener

    • D. 

      Concentrates on yourself rather than the listener

  • 80. 
    Which of the following basic listening tactics is most useful?
    • A. 

      Try to listen the specific facts

    • B. 

      Ignore all non-verbal communication “sent “by the speaker

    • C. 

      Focus on the delivery of the message rather than this content

    • D. 

      None of the above tactics is useful listening tactics.

  • 81. 
    Which of the following questions is open- ended?
    • A. 

      How long have you worked here?

    • B. 

      What is the name of the central service director?

    • C. 

      Do you like your job?

    • D. 

      What problems do you most frequently encounter on the job?

  • 82. 
    Which of the following is the most important factor necessary for team work?
    • A. 

      Attitude

    • B. 

      Promptness

    • C. 

      Loyalty

    • D. 

      Cooperation

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      Extra condensation will make the set more difficult to dry

    • B. 

      Because the sterilizer have big space

    • C. 

      Follow procedures of the supervisor

    • D. 

      Contact manufacturer for further instructions

  • 84. 
    Blue stain on a scope ,what is the reason?
    • A. 

      Improper cleaning

    • B. 

      To much acidity of the water

    • C. 

      Used a wrong detergent

    • D. 

      Dry to sun

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      Down

    • B. 

      Up

    • C. 

      Sideways

    • D. 

      Not need be rinsed

  • 86. 
    What is the concentration   on an antiseptic liquid used in healthcare facilities?
    • A. 

      60% to 95%

    • B. 

      80% to 20%

    • C. 

      100% to 70%

    • D. 

      505 to 50%

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 88. 
    Central Service Technicians practice resource management when they control costs and reduce waste.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 90. 
    Central Service Technicians must be able to adapt to change
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 91. 
    Because all Central Services Departments have the same structure, healthcare facilities use one standardized job description for all Central Service Technicians.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 92. 
    Career growth and progression is virtually non-existent for Central Service Technicians.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 93. 
    Department that perform central service functions may go by other names at different facilities. For example, Sterile Processing and Distribution, Surgical Supply, etc.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 94. 
    Central Service workflow can be divided into the handling of 3 categories of items: soiled items, clean items and sterile items.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 95. 
    The use of positive and negative air pressure in the Central Service Department is designed to take the place of heating and air conditioning.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 96. 
    Since modern Central Service Departments are virtually risk-free, Central Service Technicians need not to be concerned with safety.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 97. 
    Soiled instruments and other items are received in the blank area of the Central Service Department.
    • A. 

      Preparation

    • B. 

      Packaging

    • C. 

      Decontamination

    • D. 

      Sterilization

  • 98. 
    Instrument sets and other required instrumentation needed for all surgical procedures for an entire day are usually pulled (collected):
    • A. 

      Two days before they will be used

    • B. 

      The day or evening before they will be used

    • C. 

      The morning of the planned surgery

    • D. 

      Early morning (for morning procedures) and early afternoon (for afternoon procedures) on the day of surgery

  • 99. 
    In the future, which of the following will more frequently become a requirement for working in a Central Service department?
    • A. 

      On-the-job training

    • B. 

      Experience

    • C. 

      Formal education

    • D. 

      Reference from facility administrator

  • 100. 
    Which of the following is not a growing trend in Central Service?
    • A. 

      Decentralization of Central Service responsibilities

    • B. 

      The use of more reusable and more complex devices

    • C. 

      Satellite-processing units with centralized management

    • D. 

      Consolidation into entire integrated delivery networks

  • 101. 
    • A. 

      From Central Service to surgical areas

    • B. 

      From surgical areas to Central Service

    • C. 

      From soiled areas to clean processing areas within Central Service

    • D. 

      From clean processing areas to soiled areas in the Central Service

  • 102. 
    Surgical instruments should be inspected:
    • A. 

      Before they are cleaned

    • B. 

      After they are cleaned

    • C. 

      After they are sterilized

    • D. 

      During storage

  • 103. 
    • A. 

      Central Service managers and supervisors

    • B. 

      Operating Room personnel

    • C. 

      Central Service employees only

    • D. 

      Properly attired personnel meeting facility requirements

  • 104. 
    The term "hemi" is a
    • A. 

      Prefix

    • B. 

      Root

    • C. 

      Suffix

    • D. 

      Noun

  • 105. 
    • A. 

      Para

    • B. 

      Peri

    • C. 

      Parta

    • D. 

      Pana

  • 106. 
    Which of the following surgical abbreviations might be used relating to a fracture bone?
    • A. 

      CABG

    • B. 

      BSO

    • C. 

      ORIF

    • D. 

      TAH

  • 107. 
    The term "intercosto" means
    • A. 

      Within the colon

    • B. 

      Between the toes

    • C. 

      Within the bladder

    • D. 

      Between the ribs

  • 108. 
    The term "hypo" means
    • A. 

      Quickly

    • B. 

      Above

    • C. 

      Below

    • D. 

      Measured

  • 109. 
    The majority of medical terms are of either BLANK or BLANK origin.
    • A. 

      Greek or French

    • B. 

      Greek or Latin

    • C. 

      Latin or French

    • D. 

      Latin or English

  • 110. 
    Which of the following tells a primary meaning of a word?
    • A. 

      Prefix word element

    • B. 

      Root word element

    • C. 

      Suffix word element

    • D. 

      Combining vowel

  • 111. 
    • A. 

      Tell the primary meaning of a word

    • B. 

      Suggest the meaning of the root word element

    • C. 

      Ease pronunciation

    • D. 

      Ease spelling

  • 112. 
    The last word element in a medical term is the:
    • A. 

      Prefix

    • B. 

      Suffix

    • C. 

      Root

    • D. 

      Analog

  • 113. 
    The root element, "gastro," refers to the:
    • A. 

      Colon

    • B. 

      Heart

    • C. 

      Muscles

    • D. 

      Stomach

  • 114. 
    The suffix, "ectomy," refers to:
    • A. 

      Surgical removal

    • B. 

      Inflammation

    • C. 

      Surgical revision

    • D. 

      Visual examination of organs

  • 115. 
    "Hyperglycemia" refers to:
    • A. 

      A malignant tumor

    • B. 

      Tissue death of an artery

    • C. 

      High blood sugar

    • D. 

      Enlargement of the heart

  • 116. 
    The term "rhinoplasty," refers to:
    • A. 

      Surgery of a muscle wound

    • B. 

      Surgical repair of the nose

    • C. 

      Removal of cyst

    • D. 

      Incision of the stomach

  • 117. 
    "Dermopathy" is a(an):
    • A. 

      Skin disease

    • B. 

      Inflammation of the liver

    • C. 

      Fluid-filled sack

    • D. 

      Inflammation of a joint

  • 118. 
    "Lithotripsy" refers to:
    • A. 

      Aspiration of fatty tissue

    • B. 

      Surgical removal of the ovary

    • C. 

      Crushing of a stone

    • D. 

      Visual examination of a joint

  • 119. 
    "subcutaneous" refers to:
    • A. 

      Low sugar content in the blood

    • B. 

      Displacement of the pelvic joint

    • C. 

      Beneath the skin

    • D. 

      Without infection; sterile

  • 120. 
    The term, "periosteal elevator," refers to"
    • A. 

      Surgical removal of tissue near the thyroid

    • B. 

      Surgical removal of one-half of the stomach

    • C. 

      An instrument for cutting skin

    • D. 

      An instrument used to remove tissue around the bone

  • 121. 
    • A. 

      Treatment of a fractured bone without a surgical incision

    • B. 

      Surgical removal of both the fallopian tubes and ovaries

    • C. 

      Surgical removal of the leg below the knee

    • D. 

      A type of hip joint reconstruction

  • 122. 
    The term, "CR", relates to a surgical procedure for:
    • A. 

      Treating a fractured bone without a surgical incision

    • B. 

      Creating a new blood supply to an area of the heart

    • C. 

      Surgical removal of the uterus

    • D. 

      Surgical removal of part of the prostate gland

  • 123. 
    This organ pumps blood throughout the body
    • A. 

      Ovaries

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Heart

    • D. 

      Calcification

  • 124. 
    The process by which cartilage is replaced by bone.
    • A. 

      Joint

    • B. 

      Ossification

    • C. 

      Calcification

    • D. 

      Ureters

  • 125. 
    Any place where two bones meet.
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Tendon

    • C. 

      Metacarpals

    • D. 

      Joint

  • 126. 
    The main control unit of the central nervous system.
    • A. 

      Brain

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Pituitary Gland

    • D. 

      Cell

  • 127. 
    Considered the master gland because it helps control the activities of all other endocrine glands.
    • A. 

      Prostate Gland

    • B. 

      Pituitary Gland

    • C. 

      Kidney

    • D. 

      Brain Stem

  • 128. 
    This organ filters blood to remove amino acids and neutralize some harmful toxins.
    • A. 

      Liver

    • B. 

      Kidney

    • C. 

      Arteries

    • D. 

      Heart

  • 129. 
    Produces a fluid element in semen that stimulates the motility of sperm.
    • A. 

      Ovaries

    • B. 

      Prostate Gland

    • C. 

      Ureters

    • D. 

      Chromosomes

  • 130. 
    The largest part of the brain, it controls mental activities and movement.
    • A. 

      Cerebrum

    • B. 

      Cell

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Brain Stem

  • 131. 
    These carry blood away from the heart.
    • A. 

      Arteries

    • B. 

      Veins

    • C. 

      Alimentary Canal

    • D. 

      Liver

  • 132. 
    A somewhat flexible muscular tube that helps move food into the stomach.
    • A. 

      Alimentary Canal

    • B. 

      Ureters

    • C. 

      Esophagus

    • D. 

      Mouth

  • 133. 
    A type of connective tissue fluid that moves throughout the circulatory system.
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Veins

    • C. 

      Arteries

    • D. 

      Heart

  • 134. 
    The pathway that food takes through the digestive system.
    • A. 

      Alimentary Canal

    • B. 

      Esophagus

    • C. 

      Stomach

    • D. 

      Veins

  • 135. 
    A cord of fibrous tissue that connects muscle to a bone.
    • A. 

      Tendon

    • B. 

      Joint

    • C. 

      Metacarpals

    • D. 

      Chromosomes

  • 136. 
    • A. 

      Heart

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Brain

    • D. 

      Skin

  • 137. 
    The basic unit of life.
    • A. 

      Brain

    • B. 

      Chromosomes

    • C. 

      Cell

    • D. 

      Heart

  • 138. 
    Tube-like structures that connect the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
    • A. 

      Ureters

    • B. 

      Fallopian Tubes

    • C. 

      Esophagus

    • D. 

      Intestines

  • 139. 
    This is where the digestive process begins.
    • A. 

      Esophagus

    • B. 

      Mouth

    • C. 

      Stomach

    • D. 

      Colon

  • 140. 
    These cell components are comprised of DNA and pass on traits of parent cells to new cells.
    • A. 

      Chromosomes

    • B. 

      Cell

    • C. 

      Genetics

    • D. 

      Sperm

  • 141. 
    This part of the nervous system controls many automatic body functions like the heartbeat and breathing.
    • A. 

      Cerebellum

    • B. 

      Brain

    • C. 

      Nerves

    • D. 

      Brain Stem

  • 142. 
    This system gives the body shape and support.
    • A. 

      Muscular System

    • B. 

      Nervous System

    • C. 

      Skeletal System

    • D. 

      Circulatory System

  • 143. 
    This tissue connects one bone to another.
    • A. 

      Tendon

    • B. 

      Muscle

    • C. 

      Cartilage

    • D. 

      Ligament

  • 144. 
    These muscles control involuntary movements like, breathing, digestion, etc.
    • A. 

      Smooth Muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac Muscle

    • C. 

      Skeletal Muscle

    • D. 

      Fascia Muscle

  • 145. 
    More than 55% of blood is made up of this yellowish liquid.
    • A. 

      Platelets

    • B. 

      Red Blood Cells

    • C. 

      White Blood Cells

    • D. 

      Plasma

  • 146. 
    This surgical procedure removes the uterus.
    • A. 

      Hysteroscopy

    • B. 

      Hysterectomy

    • C. 

      Dilatation and Curettage

    • D. 

      Bilateral-Salpingoophorectomy

  • 147. 
    This gland stimulates body growth.
    • A. 

      Adrenal Gland

    • B. 

      Thyroid Gland

    • C. 

      Pancreas

    • D. 

      Pituitary Gland

  • 148. 
    The lining of the uterus.
    • A. 

      Vagina

    • B. 

      Endometrium

    • C. 

      Fimbriae

    • D. 

      Skin

  • 149. 
    This surgical procedure removes tissue or displaced bone from the wrist area to release pressure on the median nerve.
    • A. 

      Carpal Tunnel Repair

    • B. 

      Ulner Nerve Transposition

    • C. 

      Arthrotomy

    • D. 

      Fasciotomy

  • 150. 
    This surgical procedure is the removal of a testicle.
    • A. 

      Transurethral Resection

    • B. 

      Prostatectomy

    • C. 

      Orchiopexy

    • D. 

      Orchiectomy

  • 151. 
    The "throat".
    • A. 

      Esophagus

    • B. 

      Larynx

    • C. 

      Trachea

    • D. 

      Pharnyx

  • 152. 
    This procedure is the removal of the gall bladder.
    • A. 

      Cholecystectomy

    • B. 

      Colectomy

    • C. 

      Parotidectomy

    • D. 

      Gastrectomy

  • 153. 
    The hip joint is an example of a:
    • A. 

      Gliding joint

    • B. 

      Ball and socket joint

    • C. 

      Pivot joint

    • D. 

      Hinge joint

  • 154. 
    This tissue covers the body's external surface.
    • A. 

      Epithelial Tissue

    • B. 

      Connective Tissue

    • C. 

      Muscular Tissue

    • D. 

      Nervous Tissue

  • 155. 
    The brain center of a cell.
    • A. 

      Cell Membranes

    • B. 

      Cytoplasm

    • C. 

      Nucleus

    • D. 

      DNA

  • 156. 
    The white portion of the eye is called the:
    • A. 

      Retina

    • B. 

      Iris

    • C. 

      Pupil

    • D. 

      Sclera

  • 157. 
    The "voice box".
    • A. 

      Pharynx

    • B. 

      Larnyx

    • C. 

      Mouth

    • D. 

      Trachea

  • 158. 
    The functional center of a cell that governs activity and heredity is called the:
    • A. 

      Flagella

    • B. 

      Nucleus

    • C. 

      Cocci

    • D. 

      Port of exit

  • 159. 
    Thread-like "tails" that help bacteria move through liquids are called:
    • A. 

      Nucleus

    • B. 

      Causative agent

    • C. 

      Flagella

    • D. 

      Spores

  • 160. 
    BLANK are often pathogenic to humans because they grow best at body temperatures.
    • A. 

      Gram-Stain

    • B. 

      Spores

    • C. 

      Bacillus

    • D. 

      Mesophiles

  • 161. 
    Herpes Simplex is a BLANK disease.
    • A. 

      Ziehl-Nielson Stain

    • B. 

      Viral

    • C. 

      Fungus

    • D. 

      Susceptible host

  • 162. 
    Bacteria that require free oxygen to grow are called BLANK bacteria.
    • A. 

      Anaerobic

    • B. 

      Aerobic

    • C. 

      Viral

    • D. 

      Vegetative

  • 163. 
    Microorganisms that are capable of forming a thick wall around themselves to survive in adverse conditions are called:
    • A. 

      Spores

    • B. 

      Flagella

    • C. 

      Bacillus

    • D. 

      Airborne

  • 164. 
    Tetanus and botulism do not require free oxygen to grow, so they are classified as BLANK bacteria
    • A. 

      Aerobic

    • B. 

      Vegetative

    • C. 

      Anaerobic

    • D. 

      Cytoplasm

  • 165. 
    Using Gram-Stain classifications, Staphylococcus, Enterococcus, and Streptococcus are examples of Gram-BLANK bacteria.
    • A. 

      Negative

    • B. 

      Positive

  • 166. 
    The bacterial reproductive process that takes place when a mother cell divides into two daughter cells is called:
    • A. 

      Reproduction

    • B. 

      Binary Fission

    • C. 

      Binary Fusion

    • D. 

      Division

  • 167. 
    BLANK is defined as the state of being soiled or infected by contact with infectious organisms or other material.
    • A. 

      Decontaminate

    • B. 

      Viral

    • C. 

      Contamination

    • D. 

      Airborne

  • 168. 
    Most bacteria are approximately BLANK microns in size.
    • A. 

      1 to 2

    • B. 

      2 to 3

    • C. 

      1 to 3

    • D. 

      1

  • 169. 
    Sunlight is lethal to the BLANK stage of pathogens.
    • A. 

      Growth

    • B. 

      Viral

    • C. 

      Reproduction

    • D. 

      Vegetative

  • 170. 
    Healthy people do not harbor or transmit bacteria.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 171. 
    Anaerobic bacteria require free oxygen to live.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 172. 
    Viruses are larger than bacteria.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 173. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 174. 
    Staphylococcus is classified as a gram-positive bacteria.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 175. 
    All microorganisms are harmful to humans.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 176. 
    Central Service Technicians can protect patients by breaking the chain of infection.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 177. 
    Spores help some microorganisms survive in adverse conditions.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 178. 
    All bacteria require the same conditions to live and grow.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 179. 
    Psychrophiles grow best at warm temperatures.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 180. 
    Microorganisms reproduce by a process called:
    • A. 

      Repopulation

    • B. 

      Binary Fission

    • C. 

      Replication

    • D. 

      Bilateral Reproduction

  • 181. 
    For safety purposes, Central Service Technicians should consider all microorganisms in the decontamination area:
    • A. 

      Gram-Positive

    • B. 

      Gram-Negative

    • C. 

      Manageable

    • D. 

      Potentially Infectious

  • 182. 
    Wich of the following is a system used to treat the final rinse water used for cleaning?
    • A. 

      Water conductivity

    • B. 

      Sanitization

    • C. 

      Deionization

    • D. 

      Sterilization

  • 183. 
    Purified water should have a ph of ______
    • A. 

      4.5 - 5.5

    • B. 

      5.5 - 6.5

    • C. 

      6.5 - 7.5

    • D. 

      7.5 - 8.5

  • 184. 
    The term " hemi " is a
    • A. 

      Prefix

    • B. 

      Root

    • C. 

      Suffix

    • D. 

      Noun

  • 185. 
    The term "excise" means
    • A. 

      To repair

    • B. 

      To open

    • C. 

      To cut out

    • D. 

      Examine

  • 186. 
    The term "BKA" refers to a surgical procedure involving:
    • A. 

      Treatment of a fractured bone without an incision

    • B. 

      Surgical removal of both the fallopian tubes and ovaries

    • C. 

      Surgical removal of the leg below the knee

    • D. 

      A type of hip joint reconstruction

  • 187. 
    __________ is an example of a fungus.
    • A. 

      Pneumonia

    • B. 

      Tuberculosis

    • C. 

      Athlete's foot

    • D. 

      Herpes simplex type 2

  • 188. 
    Scissors with tungsten carbide cutting edges are usually identified by:
    • A. 

      Black handles

    • B. 

      Silver handles

    • C. 

      Gold handles

    • D. 

      The letters "TC"

  • 189. 
    Wich of the following statements about flexible endoscopes its true?
    • A. 

      Not all endoscopes can be processed in an AER

    • B. 

      Ultrasonic cleaning is the process of choice for endoscopes

    • C. 

      Flexible endoscopes are not easily damaged

    • D. 

      All endoscopes should be steam sterilized

  • 190. 
    • A. 

      Emergency sterilization

    • B. 

      Flash sterilization

    • C. 

      Core sterilization

    • D. 

      Rapid reprocessing

  • 191. 
    Endotracheal tubes and anesthesia breathing circuits are examples of :
    • A. 

      Critical devices

    • B. 

      Semi-critical devices

    • C. 

      Non-crtical devices

    • D. 

      Surgical instruments

  • 192. 
    Which of the following statements about flash steriliztion is true?
    • A. 

      Its the method of choice for metal instruments

    • B. 

      It is recommended to be used as a primary sterilization process by AAMI and AORN

    • C. 

      It reduces turnaround time because cleaning its not required

    • D. 

      It should be used only in emergencies

  • 193. 
    The largest part of the human brain is the:
    • A. 

      Brain stem

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Cerebrum

    • D. 

      Spinal cord

  • 194. 
    The part of a cell that controls cell function is the:
    • A. 

      Cytoplasm

    • B. 

      Nucleus

    • C. 

      Cell membrane

    • D. 

      Capsule

  • 195. 
    A mode of bacterial transmission that would take place when an infectious agent was transmited through anitem such as food or water is called:
    • A. 

      Contact

    • B. 

      Common vehicle

    • C. 

      Airborne

    • D. 

      Vector-borne

  • 196. 
    • A. 

      High temperature

    • B. 

      Low temperature

    • C. 

      Liquid

    • D. 

      Flash

  • 197. 
    In the event of a load recall, information about specific load contents can be obtained from
    • A. 

      The central service supervisor

    • B. 

      The procedure manual

    • C. 

      The sterilization log

    • D. 

      The hospital safety director

  • 198. 
    • A. 

      It is called a positive test

    • B. 

      It is called negative test

    • C. 

      It is taken out of service until its repaired

    • D. 

      An alarm will soundat the completion of the cycle

  • 199. 
    • A. 

      1 hour

    • B. 

      1.5 hours

    • C. 

      2 hours

    • D. 

      2.5 hours

  • 200. 
    • A. 

      Biological tests

    • B. 

      Bowie dick tests

    • C. 

      Mechanical recording charts/printouts

    • D. 

      Chemical integrators

  • 201. 
    The spore used in the testing of steam sterilization is
    • A. 

      Bacillus atrophaeus

    • B. 

      Geobacillus stearothermophilus

    • C. 

      Bacillus subtillus

    • D. 

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • 202. 
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      After each use

    • C. 

      Once weekly

    • D. 

      Only when the machine's operating control gauge indicates cleaning is necessary

  • 203. 
    The transport of flash sterilized items is difficult because:
    • A. 

      They have no protecting wrapping

    • B. 

      They are wet

    • C. 

      They are hot

    • D. 

      Contained in heavy trays

  • 204. 
    • A. 

      Pressurize the scope before starting the machine

    • B. 

      Use tap water as pre-rinse

    • C. 

      Connect channels to special connectors that allow liquid to flow through them

    • D. 

      Run the cycle twice to ensure that proper microbial kill has take place

  • 205. 
    Which of the following systems provides supplies and instruments for individual surgical procedures?
    • A. 

      Exchange carts

    • B. 

      Par-level

    • C. 

      Case cart

    • D. 

      Requisition

  • 206. 
    The inventory system that stocks supplies by stablished stock levels is called:
    • A. 

      Par-level

    • B. 

      Case cart

    • C. 

      ADT system

    • D. 

      Exchange system

  • 207. 
    This organization has established standards for the effective processing of flexible endoscopes.
    • A. 

      CDC

    • B. 

      AAMI

    • C. 

      SGNA

    • D. 

      APIC

  • 208. 
    Furthers international cooperation in improving health conditions.
    • A. 

      WHO

    • B. 

      AAMI

    • C. 

      EPA

    • D. 

      ANSI

  • 209. 
    Develops nationally recognized Standards, Recommended Practices and Guidelines for the PeriOperative setting.
    • A. 

      DOT

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      AORN

    • D. 

      SGNA

  • 210. 
    Protects workers from occupationally-caused illnesses and injuries.
    • A. 

      ISO

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      OSHA

    • D. 

      Joint Commission

  • 211. 
    Proposed standards are submitted from members such as AAMI.
    • A. 

      ANSI

    • B. 

      APIC

    • C. 

      CDC

    • D. 

      WHO

  • 212. 
    Provides standards and evaluations for health care facilities. These evaluations are in the form of on-site surveys at least every three years.
    • A. 

      DOT

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      Joint Commission

    • D. 

      CDC

  • 213. 
    Creates and revises standards for processing water for irrigation.
    • A. 

      EPA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      ISO

    • D. 

      USP-NFR

  • 214. 
    Creates and enforces laws relating to cleaner water, air, and land.
    • A. 

      FDA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      SGNA

    • D. 

      DOT

  • 215. 
    A voluntary international organization dedicated to the prevention and control of infections and related outcomes.
    • A. 

      APIC

    • B. 

      CDC

    • C. 

      AORN

    • D. 

      AAMI

  • 216. 
    Enforces laws relating the transportation of medical wastes.
    • A. 

      CDC

    • B. 

      APIC

    • C. 

      DOT

    • D. 

      OSHA

  • 217. 
    International standards to reduce the burden of fire and other hazards.
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      CDC

    • D. 

      NFPA

  • 218. 
    Promotes health by preventing and controlling disease.
    • A. 

      CDC

    • B. 

      APIC

    • C. 

      AAMI

    • D. 

      OSHA

  • 219. 
    Responsible for pre and post market medical device requirements, MedWatch, medical device classification, medical device recall.
    • A. 

      Joint Commission

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      SGNA

    • D. 

      AORN

  • 220. 
    • A. 

      ANSI

    • B. 

      AORN

    • C. 

      WHO

    • D. 

      USP-NFR

  • 221. 
    Agency responsible for regulating EO.
    • A. 

      DOT and FDA

    • B. 

      FDA and CDC

    • C. 

      OSHA and EPA

    • D. 

      APIC and CDC

  • 222. 
    Agency responsible for the MedWatch program
    • A. 

      CDC

    • B. 

      AORN

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      ISO

  • 223. 
    Agency which may intervene in a matter of worker protection even if there are no specific regulations covering the situation.
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      AORN

  • 224. 
    Regulations under the Clean Air Act are administered by
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      EPA

    • D. 

      AORN

  • 225. 
    Agency which imposes very strict labeling requirements on manufacturers of chemicals used by Central Service departments.
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      EPA

    • D. 

      AAMI

  • 226. 
    Healthcare Regulations and Standards provide consistency of departmental activities by outlining.
    • A. 

      Minimal performance standards

    • B. 

      Equal pay practices

    • C. 

      Productivity time lines

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 227. 
    Established national emissions standards for EO used by hospitals are regulated
    • A. 

      In all states

    • B. 

      In Washington DC

    • C. 

      In the western states

    • D. 

      There are no established national emissions standards

  • 228. 
    Chemical indicators are FDA BLANK devices
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      Class II

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Not regulated by FDA

  • 229. 
    Heart valves and pacemakers are examples of FDA BLANK medical devices
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      Class II

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Not regulated by FDA

  • 230. 
    Under current regulations who is required to report suspected medical device-related deaths to the FDA?
    • A. 

      Device manufacturer

    • B. 

      Hospitals

    • C. 

      All of the above

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 231. 
    Standards and regulations help set levels of BLANK in our departments
    • A. 

      Quality

    • B. 

      Safety

    • C. 

      Efficiency

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 232. 
    Medical Device reporting is regulated by the
    • A. 

      NFPA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      WHO

    • D. 

      FDA

  • 233. 
    Sometimes State or local regulations differ from Federal regulations and when that happens, the most stringent regulations apply.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 234. 
    Following OSHA regulations for wearing Personal Protective Equipment in the Central Service Decontamination area is optional
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 235. 
    Third Party Reprocessors are regulated by the FDA
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 236. 
    Recommendations regarding sterilization practices are provided by AAMI
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 237. 
    ANSI is a voluntary association dedicated to infection control and prevention
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 238. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 239. 
    Failure to receive accreditation from the Joint Commission can result in the loss of Medicare and Medicaid payments
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 240. 
    The SGNA is a good source for information about the proper processing of flexible endoscopes
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 241. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 242. 
    Re-use of single use medical devices is less regulated now than it was in the 1990s
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 243. 
    • A. 

      1 million

    • B. 

      2 million

    • C. 

      10 million

    • D. 

      20 million

  • 244. 
    Watches and other jewelry should not be worn in the Central Service department work areas because:
    • A. 

      They harbor bacteria

    • B. 

      They are expensive

    • C. 

      They may be damaged

    • D. 

      They may be misplaced or stolen

  • 245. 
    • A. 

      10 seconds

    • B. 

      15 seconds

    • C. 

      1 minute

    • D. 

      2 minutes

  • 246. 
    To protect themselves from splashes and spills, Central Service Techs assigned to the decontamination area should wear:
    • A. 

      Double-cloth gowns

    • B. 

      Blue Surgical Scrubs

    • C. 

      Fluid-Resistant Gowns

    • D. 

      Sterile Operating Room Gowns

  • 247. 
    The main theory of Standard Precautions is that:
    • A. 

      Patients in high-risk categories may be infectious

    • B. 

      Patients in diagnosed with a specific disease may be infectious

    • C. 

      Patients are generally healthy unless they show symptoms of an infectious disease

    • D. 

      Patients may pose a risk of infection whether they have been diagnosed with an infectious disease or not

  • 248. 
    Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard?
    • A. 

      Provide hepatitis B vaccine to employees at no cost

    • B. 

      Observe standard precautions

    • C. 

      Keep biohazards areas locked

    • D. 

      Use engineering controls to prevent biohazard exposures

  • 249. 
    Following Standard Precautions protocols is required by:
    • A. 

      The FDA

    • B. 

      The NFPA

    • C. 

      The EPA

    • D. 

      OSHA

  • 250. 
    Departmental dress code apply to:
    • A. 

      Everyone entering the Central Service department

    • B. 

      Only hospital employees

    • C. 

      Only persons who will be spending more than 10 minutes in the Central Service work area

    • D. 

      Only visitors such as sales reps, maintenance personnel, etc

  • 251. 
    Inanimate objects that can transmit bacteria are called:
    • A. 

      Transmission devices

    • B. 

      Fomites

    • C. 

      Carriers

    • D. 

      Framiseals

  • 252. 
    Floors in the Central Service department should be:
    • A. 

      Wet-mopped daily

    • B. 

      Wet-mopped weekly

    • C. 

      Swept daily and wet-mopped weekly

    • D. 

      Swept daily

  • 253. 
    The absence of microorganisms that cause disease is called:
    • A. 

      Infection prevention

    • B. 

      Infection control

    • C. 

      Asepsis

    • D. 

      HIA-control

  • 254. 
    Know what is dirty, know what is clean, know what is sterile, keep the three conditions separate, and remedy contamination immediately are:
    • A. 

      The principles of asepsis

    • B. 

      The basics of the bloodborne pathogen standard

    • C. 

      The principles of infection prevention and control

    • D. 

      The basics of environmental control

  • 255. 
    What color should biohazard labels/signs be?
    • A. 

      Red/orange

    • B. 

      Orange/yellow

    • C. 

      Orange/blue

    • D. 

      Green/black

  • 256. 
    The decontamination area of the Central Service department should have:
    • A. 

      10 air exchanges per hour

    • B. 

      15 air exchanges per hour

    • C. 

      20 air exchanges per hour

    • D. 

      No air exchanges because it is a biohazard area

  • 257. 
    Which of these traffic control/dress code requirements applies to the Operating Room?
    • A. 

      Biohazard

    • B. 

      Unrestricted

    • C. 

      Semi-Restricted

    • D. 

      Restricted

  • 258. 
    A compound in which chlorine is combined with another element or radical (e.g., a salt or hydrochloric acid)
    • A. 

      Silicate

    • B. 

      Chloride

  • 259. 
    A measurement of the ability of water to carry an electrical current.
    • A. 

      Conductivity

    • B. 

      Turbidity

  • 260. 
    To remove ions which are have an electrical charge.
    • A. 

      Reverse Osmosis

    • B. 

      Deionize

  • 261. 
    The diffusion of water through semi-permeable membrane to eliminate impurities in the water.
    • A. 

      Descaler

    • B. 

      Reverse Osmosis

  • 262. 
    • A. 

      Tap Water

    • B. 

      Potable Water

  • 263. 
    Having the sediment or solids stirred up to appear cloudy silicate - a mineral derived from silca which is from quartz, sand, opal, etc.
    • A. 

      GAC

    • B. 

      Turbidity

  • 264. 
    A unit of measure that measures the amount of resistance to an electrical current.
    • A. 

      Conductivity

    • B. 

      Ohm

  • 265. 
    Solution used to remove the white, hard-to-remove, substance that sometimes appears on sinks and equipment.
    • A. 

      Silicate

    • B. 

      Descaler

  • 266. 
    Which of the following is a system used to treat the final rinse water used for cleaning?
    • A. 

      Water conductivity

    • B. 

      Sanitization

    • C. 

      Deionization

    • D. 

      Sterilization

  • 267. 
    Bluish or rainbow-type stains are caused by BLANK in water.
    • A. 

      Chlorides and solids

    • B. 

      Iron and silicates

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Fluoride

  • 268. 
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      50

  • 269. 
    Water purification usually involves the use of a:
    • A. 

      Pre-filter

    • B. 

      Post-filter

    • C. 

      Pre-filter or post-filter

    • D. 

      Pre-and post-filter

  • 270. 
    Water that is turbid is:
    • A. 

      Hot

    • B. 

      Tepid

    • C. 

      Clear

    • D. 

      Cloudy

  • 271. 
    Water softeners are used to remove BLANK in the water
    • A. 

      Iron and pyrogens

    • B. 

      Silicates and pyrogens

    • C. 

      Chloride and iron

    • D. 

      Calcium and magnesium

  • 272. 
    Which of the following can be removed from water when reverse osmosis process is used?
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Pyrogens

    • C. 

      Endotoxins

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 273. 
    Which of the following kills microorganisms?
    • A. 

      Soaps

    • B. 

      Detergents

    • C. 

      Germicidal presoaks

    • D. 

      Enzyme presoaks

  • 274. 
    • A. 

      As soon as devices reach the Central Service area

    • B. 

      Immediately after the completion of an invasive procedure

    • C. 

      Immediately after instruments are inspected

    • D. 

      Before items are sorted

  • 275. 
    The main purpose of manual cleaners is to:
    • A. 

      Kill microorganisms

    • B. 

      Remove soil

    • C. 

      Reduce cleaning costs

    • D. 

      Provide back-ups if automated equipment is not working

  • 276. 
    Which of the following techniques for brushing instruments should be used?
    • A. 

      Brushing should be done under water

    • B. 

      Brushing should be done above water

    • C. 

      Brushing should be done against the grain of the device

    • D. 

      Brushes made of wire are the best because of their exceptional cleaning ability

  • 277. 
    • A. 

      User

    • B. 

      Radiology

    • C. 

      Surgery

    • D. 

      Labor and delivery

  • 278. 
    Soiled items that are held in user departments for pick up must be stored in designated areas labeled with BLANK signage.
    • A. 

      Caution

    • B. 

      Hazardous

    • C. 

      Contagious

    • D. 

      Biohazard

  • 279. 
    If grossly soiled instruments cannot be cleaned immediately, they should be kept BLANK.
    • A. 

      Dry

    • B. 

      Soiled

    • C. 

      Moist

    • D. 

      In the operating room

  • 280. 
    Tissue, body fat, blood, and other body substances are examples of BLANK soil.
    • A. 

      Gross

    • B. 

      Infectious

    • C. 

      Contagious

    • D. 

      Biohazardous

  • 281. 
    Disposable sharp items (i.e. blades, needles, etc.) should be removed at point-of-use and placed in a BLANK container labeled biohazard.
    • A. 

      Trash

    • B. 

      Paper

    • C. 

      Hard-sided

    • D. 

      Soft-sided

  • 282. 
    Soiled instruments should be transported in an BLANK container or cart.
    • A. 

      Open

    • B. 

      Enclosed

  • 283. 
    Point-of-use preparation of soiled items is normally performed by the user department.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 284. 
    Disposable components should be removed at point-of-use.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 285. 
    Before transport, reusable sharps should be separated from other instruments.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 286. 
    Items that have been used in patient care should be considered contaminated.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 287. 
    If soiled items are held in user units before pick up for processing, they must be kept at the patient's bedside until Central Service collect them.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 288. 
    To impede the growth of bacteria, soil on used instrument should be allowed to dry.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 289. 
    Users are responsible to notify Central Service if they discover instruments or equipment that are in need of repair.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 290. 
    It is acceptable to transport soiled and clean items at the same time in the same cart if they are placed on separated shelves.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 291. 
    When moving transport carts throughout the healthcare facility, Central Service Techs must always yield right of way to patients and visitors.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 292. 
    Failure to perform soiled pick up rounds as scheduled can lead to instrument and equipment shortages.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 293. 
    Everyone who may have contact with biohazard items must be educated about the dangers associated with those items.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 294. 
    When it is necessary to transport soiled items between facilities using a truck or van, facilities must consult U.S. Department of Transportation, as well as state and local laws for transporting biohazard items.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 295. 
    One goal of point of use preparation is to prevent instruments from being damaged.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 296. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 297. 
    The mechanical process by which an ultrasonic cleaner works is called cavitation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 298. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 299. 
    Instruments received from Surgery and tagged for repair do not need to be cleaned until they come back from repair.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 300. 
    Powered surgical instruments should be cleaned using a mechanical cleaning process.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 301. 
    There are currently no methods available to verify cleaning process outcomes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 302. 
    Infectious medical waste is regulated by the EPA
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 303. 
    Horziontal work surfaces in the decontamination area should be cleaned and disinfected once per day.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 304. 
    PPE should be changed immediately if it becomes soaked with blood or other infectious material.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 305. 
    What is the preferred pH for detergents used for most cleaning processes?
    • A. 

      Low pH

    • B. 

      High pH

    • C. 

      Neutral pH

    • D. 

      It depends on the water temperature and exposure time.

  • 306. 
    Which of the following is an example of regulated medical waste?
    • A. 

      Discarded sterilization wraps

    • B. 

      Blood-soaked sponges

    • C. 

      Used copier toner cartridges

    • D. 

      General trash from the surgery department

  • 307. 
    Which of the following statements about the use of mechanical washers is NOT true?
    • A. 

      Multi-level trays should be separated

    • B. 

      Trays with lids should be opened

    • C. 

      Instruments should be disassembled and opened

    • D. 

      All items should be washed on the same cycle

  • 308. 
    • A. 

      Excess bubbles from filling reduce the energy of the cavitation process

    • B. 

      Excess bubbles reduce the effectiveness of the detergent

    • C. 

      Excess bubbles decreased the temperature of the tank

    • D. 

      Excess bubbles make it difficult to see items being cleaned.

  • 309. 
    Specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard is called:
    • A. 

      Restricted Apparel

    • B. 

      Safety Apparel

    • C. 

      Hazard Equipment

    • D. 

      Personal Protective Equipment

  • 310. 
    Written cleaning instructions for surgical instruments should be provided by:
    • A. 

      The mechanical washer manufacturer

    • B. 

      The instrument manufacturer

    • C. 

      The detergent manufacturer

    • D. 

      The healthcare facility

  • 311. 
    Pyrogens:
    • A. 

      Are fever-producing substances

    • B. 

      Are microorganisms that have survived sterilization

    • C. 

      Cause CJD

    • D. 

      Are soiled particles

  • 312. 
    Softened water:
    • A. 

      Increases the likelihood of mineral scale deposits

    • B. 

      Decreases the likelihood of mineral scale deposits

    • C. 

      In not compatible with detergents

    • D. 

      Can cause rusting of metal substances

  • 313. 
    The desired solution for cleaning instruments is:
    • A. 

      Soap

    • B. 

      Steam

    • C. 

      A disinfectant

    • D. 

      A detergent

  • 314. 
    These are used to breakdown fatty tissue on instruments:
    • A. 

      Protease enzymes

    • B. 

      Lipase enzymes

    • C. 

      Amylase enzymes

    • D. 

      Neutral pH cleaners

  • 315. 
    • A. 

      Below 43°C (110°F)

    • B. 

      Above 43°C (110°F)

    • C. 

      Below 100°C (212°F)

    • D. 

      Below 24°C (75°F)

  • 316. 
    Instrument lubrication is performed:
    • A. 

      Immediately before use

    • B. 

      After sterilization

    • C. 

      After cleaning

    • D. 

      Before cleaning

  • 317. 
    Aluminum items should be cleaned:
    • A. 

      Using a circular motion

    • B. 

      Using a to and fro motion with the grain

    • C. 

      Using a stiff metal brush

    • D. 

      Using a water spray

  • 318. 
    Powered surgical instruments:
    • A. 

      Can not be immersed

    • B. 

      Can be immersed

    • C. 

      Should be cleaned at the point of use

    • D. 

      Should be cleaned using a mechanical washer

  • 319. 
    The use of heat to kill microorganisms, expect spores.
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Thermal Disinfection

  • 320. 
    Detergents used in mechanical cleaners should be:
    • A. 

      Low alkaline

    • B. 

      Low acid

    • C. 

      Low temperature

    • D. 

      Low foaming

  • 321. 
    Compounds that contain a positive electrical charge. They exhibit germicidal properties.
    • A. 

      Cationic

    • B. 

      Anionic

  • 322. 
    A chemical which kills most pathogenic organisms, but does not kill spores.
    • A. 

      Antiseptic

    • B. 

      Disinfectant

  • 323. 
    A solution which inhibits the growth of bacteria. It is usually used topically and only on animate objects.
    • A. 

      Antiseptic

    • B. 

      Disinfectant

  • 324. 
    The length of time a disinfectant can be properly stored after which it must be discarded.
    • A. 

      Use life

    • B. 

      Shelf life

  • 325. 
    Compounds that have a negative electrical charge. They form a large group of synthetic detergents.
    • A. 

      Cationic

    • B. 

      Anionic

  • 326. 
    The destruction of nearly all pathogenic microoganisms on an inanimate surface.
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Disinfection

  • 327. 
    Relating to the destruction of bacteria.
    • A. 

      Bactericidal

    • B. 

      Sterilization

  • 328. 
    The length of time (or number of uses) after which the efficiency of a disinfectant is diminished.
    • A. 

      Shelf life

    • B. 

      Use life

  • 329. 
    A process by which all forms of microbial life are destroyed.
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Disinfection

  • 330. 
    These chemicals are used on animate (living tissue) to slow the growth of microorganisms:
    • A. 

      Glutaraldehydes

    • B. 

      Disinfectants

    • C. 

      Halogens

    • D. 

      Antiseptics

  • 331. 
    Items that are introduced directly into the bloodsteam or other normally sterile areas of the body are classified as:
    • A. 

      Critical Items

    • B. 

      Semi-Critical Items

    • C. 

      Non-Critical Items

    • D. 

      Equipment

  • 332. 
    The process by which all forms of microorganisms are completely destroyed is called:
    • A. 

      High-level disinfection

    • B. 

      Thermal disinfection

    • C. 

      Sterilization

    • D. 

      Chemical disinfection

  • 333. 
    Iodophors are a member of this disinfectant family:
    • A. 

      Halogens

    • B. 

      Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

    • C. 

      Alcohol

    • D. 

      Phenolics

  • 334. 
    Phenolics are classified as:
    • A. 

      Intermediate to low-level disinfectants

    • B. 

      Intermediate to high-level disinfectants

    • C. 

      High-level disinfectants

    • D. 

      Sterilants

  • 335. 
    Which of the following are classified as high-level disinfectants?
    • A. 

      Glutaraldehyde and OPA

    • B. 

      Glutaraldehyde and Phenolics

    • C. 

      Quaternary Ammonium Compunds and Phenolics

    • D. 

      Halogens and OPA

  • 336. 
    Thermal disinfection is accomplished using
    • A. 

      Heated chemicals

    • B. 

      Heated glurataldehyde

    • C. 

      Prolonged high pressure steam

    • D. 

      Heated water

  • 337. 
    • A. 

      3 minutes

    • B. 

      5 minutes

    • C. 

      10 minutes

    • D. 

      20 minutes

  • 338. 
    Which of the following would be the best choice for high level disinfection of instruments?
    • A. 

      Phenolics

    • B. 

      Chlorine

    • C. 

      Iodophors

    • D. 

      OPA

  • 339. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 340. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 341. 
    Mechanical washers and washer-decontaminators are regulated by the CDC.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 342. 
    All liquid disinfectants are capable of sterilization if their exposure time is increased.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 343. 
    Log books should be maintained when using Gluataraldehyde and OPA.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 344. 
    Microgrind, or Supercut Scissors are usually indentified with a black handle.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 345. 
    Stainless Steel jaw needleholders last longer than Tungsten Carbide jaw needleholders.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 346. 
    Instruments are heat treated to give their surface a mirror (shiny) finish.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 347. 
    Tissue forceps have teeth.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 348. 
    During instrument manufacture the process of passivation helps build a protective chromium oxide layer on each instrument's surface.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 349. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 350. 
    Laser-finished instruments are coated with a durable protective finish that cannot be chipped or scratched.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 351. 
    When assembling an instrument set, heavier instruments should be placed on top of the lighter ones to hold them in place.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 352. 
    After applying instrument identification tape, instruments should be autoclaved to help the tape bound to the instrument.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 353. 
    Instrument marking tape should be wrapped approximately BLANK around the instrument.
    • A. 

      1 to 1½

    • B. 

      1½ to 2

    • C. 

      2 to 2½

    • D. 

      2½ to 3

  • 354. 
    Which of the following is NOT an acceptable form of instrument marking?
    • A. 

      Laser-etching

    • B. 

      Acid0base etching

    • C. 

      Electric etching (engraving)

    • D. 

      Heat-fused nylon

  • 355. 
    The purpose of a suction stylet is to:
    • A. 

      Unclog the suction during surgery

    • B. 

      Clean the suction in the decontamination area

    • C. 

      Facilitate the sterilization process

    • D. 

      Provide a measuring quide for the surgeon

  • 356. 
    • A. 

      Tissue paper

    • B. 

      A plastic dowel rod

    • C. 

      Rubber testing material

    • D. 

      An index card

  • 357. 
    Used to repair and reconstruct teeth and jawbones.
    • A. 

      Dermabraider

    • B. 

      Dental drill

  • 358. 
    Used in ear surgery and for driving very small wires through the bone.
    • A. 

      Cebatome

    • B. 

      Micro Drill

  • 359. 
    Used in open heart surgery.
    • A. 

      Sternal Saw

    • B. 

      Micro Drill

  • 360. 
    Used to remove cement.
    • A. 

      Dermatome

    • B. 

      Cebatome

  • 361. 
    Used to harvest skin grafts and reshape skin surfaces.
    • A. 

      Dermatome/Dermabraider

    • B. 

      Micro Drill

  • 362. 
    Used to perform specific cutting actions such as reciprocating or oscillating.
    • A. 

      Drill

    • B. 

      Saw

  • 363. 
    Allows for visual inspection of the upper digestive tract.
    • A. 

      Gastroscope

    • B. 

      Bronchoscope

  • 364. 
    Used to visualize the urethra and bladder.
    • A. 

      Cystoscope

    • B. 

      Hysteroscope

  • 365. 
    Used to visualize the tracheobronchial tree.
    • A. 

      Tracheoscope

    • B. 

      Bronchoscope

  • 366. 
    Used to visualize the entire large intestine.
    • A. 

      Sigmoidoscope

    • B. 

      Colonoscope

  • 367. 
    Leak testing should be performed on each flexible endoscope annually.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 368. 
    Loaner instruments trays that are received sterile from other facilities do not need to be decontaminated and resterilized before use.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 369. 
    Endoscope channels should be cleaned and then left moist for storage.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 370. 
    Powered surgical instruments have one of three power sources; electricity, air, or battery.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 371. 
    Modern powered surgical instruments are immersible.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 372. 
    Laparoscopic instrument insulation failure can cause burns.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 373. 
    The purpose of a decontamination battery is to protect PSIs from fluid invasion.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 374. 
    Dental Drills are used to remove cement.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 375. 
    Automatic endoscope reprocessors are not recommended for flexible endoscopes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 376. 
    The first step to inspect the insulation of a laparoscopic instrument is to:
    • A. 

      Check the collar at the distal tip

    • B. 

      Try to slide the insulation back

    • C. 

      Check the handle for chipping or cracking

    • D. 

      Visually check the instrument's shaft

  • 377. 
    Which of the following steps happens first when processing flexible endoscopes?
    • A. 

      Leak-testing

    • B. 

      High-level disinfecting/sterilizing

    • C. 

      Manual cleaning

    • D. 

      Drying

  • 378. 
    Which of the following should be used to thoroughly rinse (remove) all traces of disinfectant from an endoscope's channels?
    • A. 

      Forced air

    • B. 

      Water containing approved sterilant

    • C. 

      Filtered water

    • D. 

      A heated glutaraldehyde

  • 379. 
    The purpose of using a decontamination battery or cord when cleaning powered surgical powered surgical instruments is:
    • A. 

      To keep fluid from entering the unit

    • B. 

      To keep functioning batteries and cords clean

    • C. 

      To prevent electrial shock

    • D. 

      To test the unit while cleaning

  • 380. 
    Endoscopes are often processed in a mechanical unit called:
    • A. 

      An ultrasonic cleaner

    • B. 

      A washer-decontaminator

    • C. 

      A flush-pulse endoscope reprocessor

    • D. 

      An automatic endoscope reprocessor

  • 381. 
    • A. 

      Colonoscope

    • B. 

      Sigmoidoscope

    • C. 

      Gastroscope

    • D. 

      Ureteroscope

  • 382. 
    Loaner instruments should:
    • A. 

      Be decontaminated if they appear soiled upon arrival

    • B. 

      Be sterilized using a low temperature process

    • C. 

      Be decontaminated before use

    • D. 

      Not be used

  • 383. 
    Information regarding cleaning processes for endoscopes should be provided by:
    • A. 

      The SGNA

    • B. 

      APIC

    • C. 

      The instrument manufacturer

    • D. 

      The operating room staff

  • 384. 
    Which of the following statements about endoscopes is true?
    • A. 

      Not all endoscopes can be processed in an AER

    • B. 

      Ultrasonic cleaning is the process of choice for endoscopes

    • C. 

      Flexible endoscopes are not easily damaged

    • D. 

      All endoscopes should be steam sterilized

  • 385. 
    Electronic testing of laparoscopic insulation should be done:
    • A. 

      In the decontamination area prior to cleaning

    • B. 

      In the clean assembly area prior to set assembly

    • C. 

      At the faactory or onsite repair unit

    • D. 

      In the operating room at the end of the procedure

  • 386. 
    Loaner instrumentation poses storage and workload challenges.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 387. 
    Flexible endoscopes that fail a leak test may continue to be used until the break/hole impacts the scope's function.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 388. 
    All flexible endoscopes have internal channels.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 389. 
    After use, loaner instrumentation must be decontaminated before it is shipped out.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 390. 
    The biggest advantage to battery-powered surgical instruments is that they can be immersed for cleaning.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 391. 
    • A. 

      Receiving

    • B. 

      Sorting

    • C. 

      Soaking

    • D. 

      Cleaning

  • 392. 
    Central Service Technicians must wear special attire referred to as ____ to minimize their exposure to blood-borne pathogens and other contaminants.
    • A. 

      PPE

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      SCRUBS

    • D. 

      CDC

  • 393. 
    What type of a pressure is required for decontamination areas?
    • A. 

      Negative

    • B. 

      Neutral

    • C. 

      Forced air

    • D. 

      Positive

  • 394. 
    The use of analytical skills to solve problems and make decisions is a component of which of the following knowledge and skills dimensions?
    • A. 

      Communication abilities

    • B. 

      Facility system responsabilities

    • C. 

      Employability skills

    • D. 

      Safety practices

  • 395. 
    System that includes inflatable compression sleeves and a characteristic pressure modulation in order to reduce risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
    • A. 

      Gastric suction unit

    • B. 

      Sequential compression device

    • C. 

      IV pump

    • D. 

      Defribilator

  • 396. 
    Which of the following requires preventive maintenance standards be established for medical equipment?
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      Joint Commission

    • C. 

      AAMI

    • D. 

      AORN

  • 397. 
    Maintenance insurance:
    • A. 

      Can help manage costs

    • B. 

      Is required by the FDA

    • C. 

      Is the same as outsoursing

    • D. 

      Can reduce equipment downtime

  • 398. 
    • A. 

      TWA

    • B. 

      STEL

    • C. 

      PEL

    • D. 

      PPM

  • 399. 
    A solution having a 7 ph , mean?
    • A. 

      To acidic

    • B. 

      Neutral

    • C. 

      To dense

    • D. 

      To alkaline

  • 400. 
    What instruments are cleaned by the sonic Irrigator?
    • A. 

      Lummens in instruments

    • B. 

      Power instruments

    • C. 

      Case carts

    • D. 

      Forceps

  • 401. 
    • A. 

      Uterus

    • B. 

      Ovaries

    • C. 

      Prostate Gland

    • D. 

      Fallopian Tubes

  • 402. 
    This surgical procedure consists of removing an ear bone that has thickened and no longer transmits sound waves and replacing it with an artificial implant to improve hearing.
    • A. 

      Tympanoplasty

    • B. 

      Stapedectomy

    • C. 

      Auditory Implantation

    • D. 

      Myringotomy

  • 403. 
    • A. 

      AORN

    • B. 

      AAMI

    • C. 

      Joint Commission

    • D. 

      WHO

  • 404. 
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      50

  • 405. 
    • A. 

      Sterile irrigation

    • B. 

      Heating/cooling therapy units

    • C. 

      Injection

    • D. 

      Steam sterilizers

  • 406. 
    To prevent aerosols, items should be brushed below the surface of the water.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 407. 
    The use of heat to kill all microorganisms, except spores, is called:
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Thermal Disinfection

    • C. 

      High-Level Disinfection

    • D. 

      Mechanical Disinfection

  • 408. 
    The place where the two parts of a ring handled instrument meet and pivot is called the box lock.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 409. 
    The physical method by which a ultrasonic units clean is called:
    • A. 

      Bubbles

    • B. 

      Cavitation

    • C. 

      Captivation

    • D. 

      Calibration

  • 410. 
    Which of the following statements about microorganisms is true?
    • A. 

      Microorganisms are unnecessary for life

    • B. 

      Microorganisms are all the same

    • C. 

      Microorganisms are blue

    • D. 

      Microorganisms are necessary for life

  • 411. 
    The largest operating channel of an endoscope is the BLANK channel:
    • A. 

      Lumen

    • B. 

      Instrument

    • C. 

      Cleaning

    • D. 

      Water

  • 412. 
    How frequently should a steam sterilizer's door gasket be inspected and cleaned
    • A. 

      Every hour

    • B. 

      Daily

    • C. 

      Monthy

    • D. 

      Weekly

  • 413. 
    Which of the following should not be processed in an ultrasonic cleaner
    • A. 

      Stainless steel instruments

    • B. 

      Instruments with box locks

    • C. 

      Medicine cups

    • D. 

      Plastic instruments

  • 414. 
    In a ABC inventory control system "A" items represent
    • A. 

      The smallest number of items and the largest dollar value

    • B. 

      The largest number of items and the smallest dollar value

  • 415. 
    The test used to evaluate the efficacy of air removal in dynamic air removal steam sterilizer is the
    • A. 

      BI test

    • B. 

      Bowie-dick test

    • C. 

      Steris test

    • D. 

      Sterrad test

  • 416. 
    Biological test should be performed in an ethylene oxide sterilizer
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Every load

  • 417. 
    Flash sterilization of implants is NOT recommended by
    • A. 

      AAMI and AORN

    • B. 

      PETA

    • C. 

      DOT

    • D. 

      CDC

  • 418. 
    The agency responsible for pre-market requirements of medical devices is 
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      CDC

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      EPA

  • 419. 
    What type of carts or baskets should be used in an ETO sterilizer
    • A. 

      Plastic

    • B. 

      Paper

    • C. 

      Metal

    • D. 

      Rubbermaid

  • 420. 
    Spiral shaped bacteria are classified as
    • A. 

      Coccus

    • B. 

      Rods

    • C. 

      Spirillum

    • D. 

      Flaggella

  • 421. 
    What type of hepatitis vaccine is strongly recommended for most healthcare workers
    • A. 

      HEP A

    • B. 

      HEP B

    • C. 

      HEP C

    • D. 

      HEP D

  • 422. 
    Develops recommended Standards, Practices and Guidelines for care and processing of devices
    • A. 

      DOT

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      AAMI

    • D. 

      SGNA

  • 423. 
    Cellulosic materials(paper, cotton, and linen) cannot be processed in a/an
    • A. 

      Steam

    • B. 

      ETO

    • C. 

      Hydrogen peroxide gas/plasma

    • D. 

      Autoclave

  • 424. 
    In the 3 sink arrangement used for manual cleaning the third sink should contain
    • A. 

      Tap water

    • B. 

      Distilled or deionized water

  • 425. 
    • A. 

      Instruments should be locked shut to keep them clean

    • B. 

      Instruments should be open and disassembled to ffacilitate steam contact to all surfaces

  • 426. 
    This procedure is performed by healthcare facilities to confirm that the sterilization validation undertaken by the equipment manufacturer is applicable to the specific setting 
    • A. 

      Verification

    • B. 

      Communication

  • 427. 
    The two most common techniques of flat wrap packaging are
    • A. 

      Square fold and envelope fold

    • B. 

      Envelope and round fold

  • 428. 
    An iodopher is a 
    • A. 

      Quant chemical

    • B. 

      Buffered iodine

  • 429. 
    Which of the following disinfectants is also known as a wetting agent
    • A. 

      Formaldehyde

    • B. 

      OPA

    • C. 

      Phenolic

    • D. 

      QUATs ( quaternary ammonium compounds )

  • 430. 
    Cretion of a new blood supply to an area of he heart with a clotted/blocked artery
    • A. 

      TBA

    • B. 

      ORIF

    • C. 

      CABG

    • D. 

      BKA

  • 431. 
    The lining matter of a cell between the cell membrane and the cell nucleus.
    • A. 

      Derma

    • B. 

      Wall

    • C. 

      Cytoplasm

    • D. 

      Plasma

  • 432. 
    "-itis" is:
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Skin disease

    • C. 

      Inflammation of the liver

    • D. 

      Fluid-filled sack

  • 433. 
    • A. 

      Cerebrum

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Brain Stem

    • D. 

      Brain

  • 434. 
    The desired flow of materials in a CS Dept; from soiled to clean to sterile.
    • A. 

      Two-Way Workflow

    • B. 

      Backwards

    • C. 

      One-Way Workflow

    • D. 

      Sideways

  • 435. 
    The healthcare dept. responsible for researching, ordering, receiving, and managing inventory (conumable supplies).
    • A. 

      Bio-med

    • B. 

      OR

    • C. 

      Material Management Dept.

    • D. 

      Nursery

  • 436. 
    A succession of progressively more responsible professional positions that serves as the foundation of a professional development plan.
    • A. 

      Overcome

    • B. 

      Career Ladder

    • C. 

      Standing up

    • D. 

      Succession Career

  • 437. 
    "-oscopy" is :
    • A. 

      Inflammation of a joint

    • B. 

      Skin disease

    • C. 

      Visual examination of an organ or joint.

    • D. 

      Fluid-filled sack

  • 438. 
    "Cystectomy" is :
    • A. 

      Inflammation of a joint

    • B. 

      Skin disease

    • C. 

      Visual examination of an organ or joint

    • D. 

      Removal of a cyst

  • 439. 
    Study of diseases affecting the female
    • A. 

      Sexulism

    • B. 

      Gynecology

    • C. 

      Sexting

    • D. 

      Feminism

  • 440. 
    Tissue of communication that is located throughout the body
    • A. 

      Connective Tissue

    • B. 

      Epithelial Tissue

    • C. 

      Nervous Tissue

    • D. 

      Muscular Tissue

  • 441. 
    When attached to bone, this tissue makes body movement possible
    • A. 

      Connective Tissue

    • B. 

      Epithelial Tissue

    • C. 

      Nervous Tissue

    • D. 

      Muscular Tissue

  • 442. 
    This surgery uses implants, like screws & plates, to realign a fractured bone
    • A. 

      ORIF

    • B. 

      CR

    • C. 

      CABG

    • D. 

      BKA

  • 443. 
    This surgery repairs muscles & ligaments of the shoulder joint
    • A. 

      ORIF

    • B. 

      Rotator Cuff Repair

    • C. 

      CABG

    • D. 

      BKA

  • 444. 
    Body balance is regulated by fluid in
    • A. 

      Inner Ear

    • B. 

      Brain

    • C. 

      Legs

    • D. 

      Arms

  • 445. 
    Chemical messengers that travel through the body and act on larger organs.
    • A. 

      Pheromones

    • B. 

      Chems

    • C. 

      Virus

    • D. 

      Hormones

  • 446. 
    These organs act as a filter to remove excess water & waste substances from the blood
    • A. 

      Kidneys

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Uterus

    • D. 

      Small intestines

  • 447. 
    "Pneumonectomy" is:
    • A. 

      Inflammation of a joint

    • B. 

      Surgical removal of the lung

    • C. 

      Inflammation of the liver

    • D. 

      Fluid-filled sack

  • 448. 
    The part of the digestive system where the greatest absorption of nutrients into body cells takes place
    • A. 

      Intestines

    • B. 

      Large intestines

    • C. 

      Small intestines

    • D. 

      Stomach

  • 449. 
    These carry blood back towards the heart
    • A. 

      Arteries

    • B. 

      Veins

    • C. 

      Atria

    • D. 

      Ventricles

  • 450. 
    • A. 

      Ectomy

    • B. 

      Tonsillectomy

    • C. 

      Cholecystectomy

    • D. 

      Pneumonectomy

  • 451. 
    "Cocci" is:
    • A. 

      Round or Spherical-Shaped Bacteria

    • B. 

      Rod-Shaped Bacteria

    • C. 

      Spiral-shaped Bacteria

    • D. 

      Square-shaped Bacteria

  • 452. 
    "Bacillus" is:
    • A. 

      Round or Spherical-Shaped Bacteria

    • B. 

      Rod-Shaped Bacteria

    • C. 

      Spiral-shaped Bacteria

    • D. 

      Square-shaped Bacteria

  • 453. 
    Percentage of hospital patients that develop a health-care facility-associated infection
    • A. 

      10%

    • B. 

      20%

    • C. 

      30%

    • D. 

      40%

  • 454. 
    Prion disease that requires that instruments be processed differently than standard protocols
    • A. 

      CJD Creutzfedt-Jakob Disease

    • B. 

      ADJ

    • C. 

      PPG

    • D. 

      Mad Cow Disease

  • 455. 
    Recommended temp. for Decontamination area of CS
    • A. 

      68 to 75 F

    • B. 

      60 to 65 F

    • C. 

      63 to 70 F

    • D. 

      62 to 65 F

  • 456. 
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      10

  • 457. 
    • A. 

      Droplet

    • B. 

      Common Vehicle

    • C. 

      Fomite

    • D. 

      Vector

  • 458. 
    • A. 

      Descaler

    • B. 

      Surfactant

    • C. 

      Wetting Agent

    • D. 

      Softener

  • 459. 
    • A. 

      Martensitic

    • B. 

      Ausenitic

  • 460. 
    Liquid oxidizing agent that is an effective biocide at low temps. Used in sterilization system that processes immersible instruments for immediate use
    • A. 

      OPA

    • B. 

      Peracetic Acid

    • C. 

      CIDEX

    • D. 

      ETO

  • 461. 
    Process of sterilizing an item that is packaged
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Steam Sterilization

    • C. 

      Terminal Sterilization

    • D. 

      Dry Heat Sterilization

  • 462. 
    Enzymes that break down blood, mucous, feces, & albumin
    • A. 

      Protease Enzymes

    • B. 

      Lipase Enzymes

  • 463. 
    Award given by the American Nurses Credentialing Center to hospitals that satisfy factors that measure the strength and quality of nursing care; viewed as one of the highest achievements a hospital can attain
    • A. 

      ANCC Status

    • B. 

      Magnet Status

    • C. 

      BBB Status

    • D. 

      Quality of Nursing Care

  • 464. 
    In condition and exhuast phases, air and steam are mechanically injected and removed; standard sterilization cycle with a limited drying time
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Gravity Flash Sterilization

    • C. 

      Steam Sterilization

    • D. 

      Pre-Vacuum Flash Sterilization

  • 465. 
    Consistent delivery of products and services according to established standards; it "integrates" the concerns for the customers with those of the department and facility
    • A. 

      Validation

    • B. 

      Sterility Assurance Level (SAL)

    • C. 

      Quality

    • D. 

      ISO 9000

  • 466. 
    Probability of a viable microorganism being present on a product unit after sterilization
    • A. 

      Validation

    • B. 

      Sterility Assurance Level (SAL)

    • C. 

      Quality

    • D. 

      ISO 9000

  • 467. 
    Procedures used by equipment manufacturers to obtain, record, and interpret test results required to establish that a process consistently produces a sterile product
    • A. 

      Validation

    • B. 

      Sterility Assurance Level (SAL)

    • C. 

      Quality

    • D. 

      ISO 9000

  • 468. 
    • A. 

      Validation

    • B. 

      Sterility Assurance Level (SAL)

    • C. 

      Quality

    • D. 

      ISO 9000

  • 469. 
    • A. 

      Drying Phase of Steam Sterilization

    • B. 

      Class 5 Integrators

    • C. 

      Class 4 Integrators

    • D. 

      Class 6 Integrators

  • 470. 
    Typically 1 min of drying time programmed into flash cycles--removes steam from chamber but doesn't dry device completely
    • A. 

      Exhaust Phase of Steam Sterilization

    • B. 

      Drying Phase of Steam Sterilization

    • C. 

      Conditioning Phase of Steam Sterilization

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 471. 
    "Dys-" is:
    • A. 

      Painful

    • B. 

      Skin disease

    • C. 

      Inflammation

    • D. 

      Fluid-filled sack

  • 472. 
    • A. 

      Process Monitoring for High Temperature Sterilization

    • B. 

      Process Monitoring for Low Temperature Sterilization

    • C. 

      Process Monitoring for Water Temperature Sterilization

    • D. 

      Process Monitoring for Sterilization

  • 473. 
    An unexpected occurrence involving death, serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk thereof
    • A. 

      Sentinal Event

    • B. 

      Event

    • C. 

      Major Event

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 474. 
    Disciplined, complex, and data-driven quality process that focuses on developing and delivering near-perfect products and services
    • A. 

      Five Sigma

    • B. 

      Six Sigma

    • C. 

      Four Sigma

    • D. 

      Ten Sigma

  • 475. 
    Steam pressure on the chamber and jacket gauges should be equal, and at least 27 pounds per square inch gauge (psig)
    • A. 

      Exhaust Phase of Steam Sterilization

    • B. 

      Drying Phase of Steam Sterilization

    • C. 

      Conditioning Phase of Steam Sterilization

    • D. 

      Exposure Phase Pressure Reading

  • 476. 
    Pre-vacuum steam sterilizers & steam flush pressure-pulse (SFPP)
    • A. 

      Active Air Removal

    • B. 

      Gas Removal

    • C. 

      Air Removal

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 477. 
    Process of sterilizing an item that is packaged
    • A. 

      Terminal Sterilization

    • B. 

      Thermal Sterilization

    • C. 

      Chemical Sterilization

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 478. 
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 479. 
    • A. 

      Par-Level

    • B. 

      Automated Supply Replenishment System

    • C. 

      Requisition

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 480. 
    Financial summary of what a facility owns (assets), owes (liabilities), and is worth (equity) at a specific point in time
    • A. 

      Time sheet

    • B. 

      Money Sheet

    • C. 

      Balance Sheet

    • D. 

      Books

  • 481. 
    • A. 

      "A" Items in ABC Inventory Control System

    • B. 

      "B" Items in ABC Inventory Control System

    • C. 

      "C" Items in ABC Inventory Control System

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 482. 
    The largest number of items and smallest dollar value
    • A. 

      "A" Items in ABC Inventory Control System

    • B. 

      "B" Items in ABC Inventory Control System

    • C. 

      "C" Items in ABC Inventory Control System

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 483. 
    • A. 

      "A" Items in ABC Inventory Control System

    • B. 

      "B" Items in ABC Inventory Control System

    • C. 

      "C" Items in ABC Inventory Control System

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 484. 
    "Dis-" is:
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Fluid-filled sack

    • C. 

      Apart, away

    • D. 

      Skin disease

  • 485. 
    Begins when thermocouple senses the constant pre-set cycle temperature
    • A. 

      Exposure Phase of Steam Sterilization

    • B. 

      Exhaust Phase of Steam Sterilization

    • C. 

      All of the above

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 486. 
    Pump-oxygenator that temporarily assumes the functions of the heart and lungs during open heart surgery
    • A. 

      Heart-Lung Machine

    • B. 

      Machine

    • C. 

      Foot Machine

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 487. 
    Inventory control method in which minimal stock is kept on-site, and most orders are delivered when needed (although some medically critical items must always be on-site); all facilities operate some form
    • A. 

      Exchange cart

    • B. 

      Just-In-Time System

    • C. 

      Case cart

    • D. 

      Automated Ordering

  • 488. 
    12" (height) x 12" (width) x 20" (length)
    • A. 

      Maximum Linen Pack Size

    • B. 

      Maximum Density for Linen Packs

  • 489. 
    7.2 pounds per cubic foot
    • A. 

      Maximum Linen Pack Size

    • B. 

      Maximum Density for Linen Packs

  • 490. 
    Minimum Recommendations for EtO Aeration
    • A. 

      8 hours at 140 F or 12 hours at 122 F

    • B. 

      8 hours at 140 F or 10 hours at 122 F

    • C. 

      6 hours at 140 F or 8 hours at 122 F

  • 491. 
    "-Pexy" is:
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Skin disease

    • C. 

      Surgical fixation

    • D. 

      Fluid-filled sack

  • 492. 
    "-Rrhage" is:
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Skin disease

    • C. 

      Surgical fixation

    • D. 

      Flow

  • 493. 
    Pre-cleaning, leak testing, cleaning, high level disinfection, drying, and storing is the proper sequence for processing
    • A. 

      All surgical trays

    • B. 

      Flexible endoscopes

    • C. 

      Rigid endoscopes

    • D. 

      Suctions

  • 494. 
    The number of times per year that inventory is purchased, consumed, and replaced is called the
    • A. 

      Buy

    • B. 

      Buyer

    • C. 

      Inventory turnover rate

    • D. 

      Best buy

  • 495. 
    Which of the following types of trash must be red bagged (biohazard)
    • A. 

      Regulated medical waste

    • B. 

      Unregulated medical waste

    • C. 

      All items used in surgery

    • D. 

      All patient use items

  • 496. 
    Which of the following means "around or about'?
    • A. 

      Para

    • B. 

      Peri

    • C. 

      Parta

    • D. 

      Pana

  • 497. 
    This unit pumps heated or cooled water through a coiled pad to therapeutically raise or lower the body temperature
    • A. 

      PCA pump

    • B. 

      Hypothermia unit

    • C. 

      Feeding pump

    • D. 

      Pump