IAHCSMM CRCST Practice Test Question & Answers

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IAHCSMM CRCST Practice Test Question & Answers - Quiz

Are you studying to be a service technician and think you are well prepared for the exam? Attempt these IAHCSMM CRCST practice test questions & answers and check your preparation level. Service technicians ensure that all the materials used in the hospital are properly sterilized. The practice test below is designed to help you pass and refresh your memory before appearing for the Certified Registered Central Service Technician exams. Play the quiz below and test your knowledge for the same.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Nosocomial infections are:

    • A. 

      Most likely to accur during international travel

    • B. 

      Caused by drug resistant organisms

    • C. 

      Those without known cures

    • D. 

      Those which occur in the course of being treated in the hospital

    Correct Answer
    D. Those which occur in the course of being treated in the hospital
    Explanation
    Nosocomial infections are infections that occur in the course of being treated in the hospital. These infections are acquired during a hospital stay and are not present or incubating at the time of admission. They can be caused by a variety of organisms, including drug-resistant ones. Nosocomial infections are not necessarily related to international travel and may have known cures or treatments available.

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  • 2. 

    The human resources tool that identifies major tasks performed by persons in specific positions is called a:

    • A. 

      Job duty list

    • B. 

      Job specification

    • C. 

      Task summary review

    • D. 

      Job description

    Correct Answer
    D. Job description
    Explanation
    A job description is a human resources tool that identifies the major tasks performed by individuals in specific positions. It provides a detailed overview of the responsibilities, duties, qualifications, and requirements of a particular job. This document helps in attracting suitable candidates, setting performance expectations, and evaluating employee performance. It serves as a valuable resource for both managers and employees by providing clarity about job roles and responsibilities.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is the most popular title for the central service department head?

    • A. 

      Coordinator

    • B. 

      Director

    • C. 

      Manager

    • D. 

      Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    B. Director
    Explanation
    The most popular title for the central service department head is "director." This title is commonly used to designate the individual who oversees and manages the central service department. Directors are typically responsible for setting the department's goals and objectives, making strategic decisions, and ensuring the smooth operation of the department. They often have a higher level of authority and responsibility compared to coordinators, managers, and supervisors.

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  • 4. 

    What is the coolest part of the sterilizer?

    • A. 

      Drain line of the sterilizer

    • B. 

      Center of the sterilizer

    • C. 

      Bottom of the sterilizer

    • D. 

      Side of the sterilizer

    Correct Answer
    A. Drain line of the sterilizer
    Explanation
    The drain line of the sterilizer is the coolest part because it is responsible for removing excess heat and steam from the sterilization process. This helps to prevent overheating and ensures that the sterilizer operates at a safe temperature. Additionally, the drain line is usually made of materials that have good heat conductivity, allowing for efficient cooling.

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  • 5. 

    Autoclave sterilizer is a _____ class of device.

    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      No class

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Class II

    Correct Answer
    A. Class I
    Explanation
    An autoclave sterilizer is classified as a class I device. Class I devices are considered low-risk devices that do not require a pre-market submission to the regulatory authorities. They are typically simple in design and do not pose a significant risk to the user or patient. Autoclave sterilizers are used to sterilize medical equipment and instruments and fall under this classification due to their low risk nature.

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  • 6. 

     In a sterilization  load containing 2 small basins, the chemicals indicators will be positioned.

    • A. 

      On the middle of the basins

    • B. 

      On the top of the basins

    • C. 

      On the lowest par of the basin

    • D. 

      On the handles to check proper identification

    Correct Answer
    B. On the top of the basins
    Explanation
    Chemical indicators are used to monitor the effectiveness of the sterilization process. Placing them on the top of the basins ensures that they are exposed to the sterilizing agent and can accurately indicate whether the sterilization has occurred or not. Placing them on the middle or lowest part of the basins may not provide accurate results as the sterilizing agent may not reach those areas effectively. Placing them on the handles would not serve the purpose of checking proper identification and would not provide accurate monitoring of the sterilization process.

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  • 7. 

    Package condensation will occur when:

    • A. 

      Placing hot or warm packages in cold surfaces

    • B. 

      Wet packs

    • C. 

      Because a water leak in the sterilizer

    • D. 

      Open to soon the sterilizer door

    Correct Answer
    A. Placing hot or warm packages in cold surfaces
    Explanation
    Condensation occurs when hot or warm packages are placed on cold surfaces. When the temperature of the packages is higher than that of the surface, the moisture in the air surrounding the packages condenses and forms water droplets. This can be observed when steam from hot food or drinks comes into contact with a cold glass, causing water droplets to form on the surface of the glass.

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  • 8. 

    What is the preferred  pH of detergents used for most cleaning processes?

    • A. 

      Low pH

    • B. 

      High pH

    • C. 

      Neutral pH

    • D. 

      It depends on the water temperature and exposure time

    Correct Answer
    C. Neutral pH
    Explanation
    The preferred pH of detergents used for most cleaning processes is neutral. This is because a neutral pH is neither too acidic nor too alkaline, making it safe to use on a wide range of surfaces without causing damage. Additionally, a neutral pH ensures effective cleaning by allowing the detergent to break down dirt and grime efficiently.

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  • 9. 

    The moisture content of saturated steam should posses a relative humidity of:

    • A. 

      88% to 100%

    • B. 

      97% to 100%

    • C. 

      99% to 100%

    • D. 

      50% to 50%

    Correct Answer
    B. 97% to 100%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 97% to 100%. This is because saturated steam is the maximum amount of water vapor that can exist at a given temperature and pressure. In order for the steam to be saturated, it must be at 100% relative humidity. Therefore, the moisture content of saturated steam should have a relative humidity of 97% to 100%.

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  • 10. 

    Which the following steps happens first when proceeding flexible endoscopies?

    • A. 

      Leak testing

    • B. 

      Higth-level disinfecting/sterilizing

    • C. 

      Manual cleaning

    • D. 

      Drying

    Correct Answer
    A. Leak testing
    Explanation
    Before proceeding with flexible endoscopies, the first step is to perform leak testing. This is done to ensure that there are no leaks or damages in the endoscope that could potentially cause harm to the patient or compromise the effectiveness of the procedure. Once the leak testing is completed and the endoscope is deemed safe to use, the next steps, which include high-level disinfecting/sterilizing, manual cleaning, and drying, can be carried out.

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  • 11. 

    Information regarding cleaning processes for endoscopes should be provided by:

    • A. 

      The SGNA

    • B. 

      APIC

    • C. 

      The instrument manufacturer

    • D. 

      The operating room staff

    Correct Answer
    C. The instrument manufacturer
    Explanation
    The instrument manufacturer should provide information regarding cleaning processes for endoscopes because they are the ones who design, manufacture, and have in-depth knowledge about the specific instruments. They are responsible for ensuring that the cleaning processes are effective and safe for use. The manufacturer can provide detailed instructions, guidelines, and recommendations on how to properly clean and disinfect the endoscopes to maintain their functionality and prevent any potential risks or infections. It is important to follow the manufacturer's instructions to ensure the longevity and proper functioning of the equipment.

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  • 12. 

    Winch of the following statements about endoscopes is true?`

    • A. 

      Not all endoscopes can be processed in the AER

    • B. 

      Ultrasonic cleaning is the process of choice for endoscopes

    • C. 

      Flexible endoscopes are not easily damaged

    • D. 

      All endoscopes should be steam sterilized

    Correct Answer
    A. Not all endoscopes can be processed in the AER
    Explanation
    The Automated Endoscope Reprocessor (AER) is a machine used for cleaning and disinfecting endoscopes. However, not all endoscopes can be processed in the AER. Some endoscopes may have complex designs or delicate components that cannot withstand the automated cleaning process. Therefore, it is important to carefully assess each endoscope and determine whether it can be safely processed in the AER or if it requires alternative cleaning methods.

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  • 13. 

    The FDA classifies sterilization packaging as a:

    • A. 

      Class I medical device

    • B. 

      Class II medical device

    • C. 

      Class III medical device

    • D. 

      Class IV medical device

    Correct Answer
    B. Class II medical device
    Explanation
    The FDA classifies sterilization packaging as a class II medical device because it is considered to have a moderate to high risk to the patient's health. Class II devices require special controls to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Sterilization packaging plays a crucial role in maintaining the sterility of medical devices and protecting patients from infections, making it an important component of the healthcare system.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is NOT an acceptable sterilization packaging material?

    • A. 

      Muslim

    • B. 

      Barrier cloth

    • C. 

      Canvas

    • D. 

      Twills

    Correct Answer
    C. Canvas
    Explanation
    Canvas is not an acceptable sterilization packaging material because it is not able to maintain an effective barrier against microorganisms. Unlike muslim, barrier cloth, and twills, canvas does not have the necessary properties to prevent the entry of bacteria, viruses, and other contaminants, which are crucial for maintaining the sterility of medical supplies and instruments during storage and transportation. Therefore, canvas is not suitable for sterilization packaging.

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  • 15. 

    Wicking materials are used to:

    • A. 

      Dry instruments before sterilization

    • B. 

      Allow air removal,steam penetration and facilitate drying

    • C. 

      Cushion instruments from the extreme force in steam sterilizer chambers

    • D. 

      Hold water away from the bottom of instrument trays

    Correct Answer
    B. Allow air removal,steam penetration and facilitate drying
    Explanation
    Wicking materials are used to allow air removal, steam penetration, and facilitate drying. This means that these materials have the ability to absorb and transfer moisture, allowing air and steam to circulate freely, which is essential for effective sterilization. By facilitating drying, wicking materials help to prevent the growth of bacteria and ensure that instruments are thoroughly sterilized.

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  • 16. 

    When arranging plastic-paper pouches in the sterilizer,the pouches should be arranged:

    • A. 

      Paper to plastic

    • B. 

      Paper to paper

    • C. 

      Plastic to plastic

    • D. 

      The way in which the most packages can be placed in the sterilizer

    Correct Answer
    A. Paper to plastic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "paper to plastic" because when arranging plastic-paper pouches in the sterilizer, it is important to place the paper side facing the plastic side. This is because the paper side is more susceptible to heat and moisture, so placing it against the plastic side helps to protect it during the sterilization process. Additionally, this arrangement ensures that the plastic side is facing outward, which makes it easier to identify the contents of each pouch after sterilization.

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  • 17. 

    The relative humidity of the central service department should be:

    • A. 

      Less than 75%

    • B. 

      Less than 60%

    • C. 

      Less than 50%

    • D. 

      Less than 35%

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 75%
    Explanation
    The relative humidity of the central service department should be less than 75% because high humidity levels can lead to discomfort and promote the growth of mold and bacteria. Maintaining a relative humidity below 75% helps to create a more comfortable and healthy environment for employees and equipment.

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  • 18. 

    When placing ring handled instruments in an instrument tray,you should:

    • A. 

      Lock the handles to prevent damage during sterilization

    • B. 

      Arrange the instruments in alphabetical order

    • C. 

      Arrange the instruments in the order of their use

    • D. 

      Unlock the handles and open the instruments

    Correct Answer
    D. Unlock the handles and open the instruments
    Explanation
    When placing ring handled instruments in an instrument tray, it is important to unlock the handles and open the instruments. This allows for proper sterilization as closed handles can prevent proper cleaning and sterilization. Additionally, opening the instruments ensures that they are ready for use and easily accessible when needed. Arranging the instruments in alphabetical order or the order of their use is not necessary for this specific task.

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  • 19. 

    A material that removes electrons from another substance is called:

    • A. 

      An oxidizing agent

    • B. 

      A demagnetizer

    • C. 

      An atom

    • D. 

      A molecule

    Correct Answer
    A. An oxidizing agent
    Explanation
    An oxidizing agent is a substance that has the ability to remove electrons from another substance during a chemical reaction. This process is known as oxidation. By accepting electrons, the oxidizing agent itself gets reduced. This property of oxidizing agents makes them useful in various chemical reactions, such as combustion and corrosion. They play a crucial role in many industrial processes, including the production of chemicals and fuels. Therefore, an oxidizing agent is the correct term for a material that removes electrons from another substance.

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  • 20. 

    Before an item can be placed in a liquid chemical sterile processing system they must be:

    • A. 

      Heated

    • B. 

      Filled with air

    • C. 

      Sterilized

    • D. 

      Cleaned

    Correct Answer
    D. Cleaned
    Explanation
    Before an item can be placed in a liquid chemical sterile processing system, it must be cleaned. Cleaning is an essential step in the sterilization process as it removes dirt, debris, and any organic or inorganic material from the item's surface. This ensures that the sterilization process is effective and eliminates any potential contaminants that could compromise the item's cleanliness and safety. Heating, filling with air, and sterilization are also important steps in the overall process, but cleaning is the initial and necessary step to prepare the item for sterilization.

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  • 21. 

    Both AORN and the joint commission recommend that::

    • A. 

      The use of flash sterilization be minimized or decreased

    • B. 

      Flash sterilization be performed in only one sterilizer per facility

    • C. 

      Healthcare facility get FDA approval for flash sterilization

    • D. 

      Only central service technicians operate flash sterilizers

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of flash sterilization be minimized or decreased
    Explanation
    Both AORN (Association of periOperative Registered Nurses) and the Joint Commission recommend that the use of flash sterilization be minimized or decreased. This means that they advise healthcare facilities to limit the use of flash sterilization as much as possible. Flash sterilization is a process that involves sterilizing instruments quickly in emergency situations. However, it is not as effective as traditional sterilization methods and can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, both organizations recommend minimizing its use to ensure patient safety.

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  • 22. 

    Implantable devices:

    • A. 

      Should be flash sterilized in extended cycles

    • B. 

      Should only be sterilized using ethylene oxide

    • C. 

      Should not be flash sterilized

    • D. 

      Should be discarded if not used

    Correct Answer
    C. Should not be flash sterilized
    Explanation
    Implantable devices should not be flash sterilized because flash sterilization is a rapid sterilization process that uses high temperatures and pressures. This method may not effectively kill all microorganisms on the surface or inside the device, increasing the risk of infection or other complications when the device is implanted in the body. Flash sterilization is typically used for items that are needed immediately and cannot undergo the standard sterilization process. Implantable devices, on the other hand, should be properly sterilized using validated methods such as steam sterilization or ethylene oxide to ensure patient safety.

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  • 23. 

    Heat sensitive items:

    • A. 

      Cannot be flash sterilized

    • B. 

      Should be disposable

    • C. 

      Must not be inmersed

    • D. 

      Should not be used

    Correct Answer
    A. Cannot be flash sterilized
    Explanation
    Heat sensitive items cannot be flash sterilized because flash sterilization involves the use of high temperatures and pressure for a short period of time to quickly sterilize instruments. However, heat sensitive items are not able to withstand these high temperatures without being damaged or destroyed. Therefore, flash sterilization is not a suitable method for sterilizing heat sensitive items.

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  • 24. 

    Sterilizer recording charts and/or printouts should be checked:

    • A. 

      At the end of the shift

    • B. 

      Every 24 hours

    • C. 

      By the supervisor

    • D. 

      During and at the end of of each cycle

    Correct Answer
    D. During and at the end of of each cycle
    Explanation
    Sterilizer recording charts and/or printouts should be checked during and at the end of each cycle to ensure that the sterilization process is effective and meets the required standards. Checking the charts and printouts at the end of the cycle allows for immediate identification of any issues or deviations from the desired parameters. Additionally, checking during the cycle provides real-time monitoring and allows for adjustments to be made if necessary to maintain the desired sterilization conditions. Regular monitoring of the sterilizer recording charts and printouts is essential to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the sterilization process.

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  • 25. 

    Two most common temperatures used in steam sterilization are

    • A. 

      120° and 140° F

    • B. 

      100° and 130° F

    • C. 

      320° AND 350°- 355° F

    • D. 

      250° AND 270° - 275° f

    Correct Answer
    D. 250° AND 270° - 275° f
    Explanation
    The two most common temperatures used in steam sterilization are 250° and 270° - 275° F. These temperatures are considered ideal for killing microorganisms and ensuring the sterility of the items being sterilized. Steam sterilization is a widely used method in healthcare facilities and laboratories to prevent the spread of infections. The combination of these temperatures provides an effective balance between achieving sterilization and avoiding damage to the items being sterilized.

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  • 26. 

    Test which use live bacterial spores to challenge the efficacy of the sterilization process and provide a direct measure of lethality are called

    • A. 

      Chemical indicator tests

    • B. 

      Chemical integrator tests

    • C. 

      Ampulization tests

    • D. 

      Biological tests

    Correct Answer
    D. Biological tests
    Explanation
    Biological tests are used to assess the effectiveness of the sterilization process by using live bacterial spores. These tests directly measure the lethality of the process by challenging the spores and determining if they are killed. Chemical indicator tests, chemical integrator tests, and ampulization tests are not specifically designed to measure the efficacy of sterilization, but rather to monitor other aspects of the process.

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  • 27. 

    In order to elevate the temperature in a steam sterilizer,you must:

    • A. 

      Increase the steam pressure

    • B. 

      Decrease the steam pressure

    • C. 

      Archieve ambient pressure

    • D. 

      Inject boiler amines

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase the steam pressure
    Explanation
    To elevate the temperature in a steam sterilizer, increasing the steam pressure is necessary. This is because temperature and pressure are directly related in a closed system like a steam sterilizer. As the pressure of the steam increases, so does its temperature. By increasing the steam pressure, the sterilizer can reach higher temperatures, which are essential for effective sterilization. Decreasing the steam pressure or achieving ambient pressure would not provide the necessary temperature for sterilization. Injecting boiler amines is unrelated to increasing the temperature in a steam sterilizer.

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  • 28. 

    Bowie dick tests should be run in:

    • A. 

      Dynamic air removal steam sterilizers

    • B. 

      Downward displacement sterilizers

    • C. 

      Ethylene oxide sterilizers

    • D. 

      Washers/sterilizers

    Correct Answer
    A. Dynamic air removal steam sterilizers
    Explanation
    Bowie Dick tests should be run in dynamic air removal steam sterilizers because these sterilizers are designed to remove air from the chamber before the sterilization process begins. The Bowie Dick test is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of air removal in steam sterilizers. This test involves placing a test pack in the sterilizer and running a specific cycle to ensure that the air is effectively removed and steam penetrates the pack. Therefore, dynamic air removal steam sterilizers are the appropriate equipment for conducting Bowie Dick tests.

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  • 29. 

    Chemical indicators:

    • A. 

      Prove than an item is sterile

    • B. 

      Provide a visual indication that an item was exposed to a sterilization process

    • C. 

      Prove that the sterilizer did not damage heat sensitive items

    • D. 

      Provide information about bacterial spore kill within the sterilizer

    Correct Answer
    B. Provide a visual indication that an item was exposed to a sterilization process
    Explanation
    Chemical indicators are used to provide a visual indication that an item was exposed to a sterilization process. They change color or undergo a chemical reaction when exposed to specific sterilization conditions such as heat, steam, or chemicals. This visual change serves as evidence that the item has undergone the sterilization process. It is important in healthcare settings to ensure that instruments and equipment have been properly sterilized to prevent the spread of infections. Chemical indicators play a crucial role in verifying the effectiveness of sterilization processes and ensuring patient safety.

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  • 30. 

    The term "super heated steam" means:

    • A. 

      The type of steam necessary for high temperature sterilization

    • B. 

      Steam that has had chemicals added to it increase its temperature

    • C. 

      Dry steam

    • D. 

      Moist steam at sea level

    Correct Answer
    C. Dry steam
    Explanation
    The term "superheated steam" refers to steam that has been heated to a temperature higher than its boiling point at a given pressure. It does not contain any water droplets and is completely dry. Superheated steam is commonly used in industrial processes where high temperatures are required, such as power generation or heating applications. Unlike moist steam, which contains water droplets, dry steam is preferred for certain applications as it provides more consistent and controlled heat transfer. Therefore, the correct answer is dry steam.

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  • 31. 

    The amount of time that it takes to kill 90% of the microorganisms present on an object is called:

    • A. 

      Time weighted average

    • B. 

      A D value

    • C. 

      A sterilization cycle

    • D. 

      Exposure time

    Correct Answer
    B. A D value
    Explanation
    A D value refers to the amount of time required to kill 90% of the microorganisms present on an object. It is a measure of the effectiveness of a sterilization process. The D value is used to determine the appropriate exposure time needed to achieve sterilization.

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  • 32. 

    Impregnated gauze strips may be sterilized using

    • A. 

      Ethylene oxide sterilization

    • B. 

      Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization

    • C. 

      Dry heat sterilization

    • D. 

      Steam sterilization

    Correct Answer
    C. Dry heat sterilization
    Explanation
    Dry heat sterilization is a method of sterilizing impregnated gauze strips that involves using high temperatures to kill microorganisms. This process involves subjecting the gauze strips to dry heat for a specified period of time, typically at temperatures ranging from 160 to 180 degrees Celsius. Dry heat sterilization is effective in killing a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. It is commonly used for heat-resistant materials, such as metal instruments and glassware, and is a suitable method for sterilizing impregnated gauze strips.

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  • 33. 

    The most efficient type of dry heat sterilizer is

    • A. 

      The gravity convection sterilizer

    • B. 

      The mechanical convection sterilizer

    • C. 

      The dynamic air removal sterilizer

    • D. 

      The special purpose dry heat oven

    Correct Answer
    B. The mechanical convection sterilizer
    Explanation
    The most efficient type of dry heat sterilizer is the mechanical convection sterilizer. This type of sterilizer uses a fan to circulate hot air evenly throughout the chamber, ensuring that all items inside are exposed to the desired temperature for the required amount of time. The mechanical convection sterilizer provides faster and more uniform heating compared to other types, making it an efficient choice for sterilization processes.

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  • 34. 

    When loading a steam sterilizer,items with solid bottoms should be:

    • A. 

      Placed in a uprigth position

    • B. 

      Loaded first

    • C. 

      Placed on edge

    • D. 

      Placed in a wire basket

    Correct Answer
    C. Placed on edge
    Explanation
    When loading a steam sterilizer, items with solid bottoms should be placed on edge. This is because placing them on edge allows for better steam penetration and ensures that all surfaces of the item are properly sterilized. Placing them in an upright position or in a wire basket may hinder the steam from reaching all areas, leading to ineffective sterilization. Loading them first does not have any relevance to the sterilization process.

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  • 35. 

    Paper/plastic sterilization pouches:

    • A. 

      Are not suitable for steam sterilization processes

    • B. 

      Should not be placed inside of wrapped sets or containers

    • C. 

      Should be used only for dry heat sterilization processes

    • D. 

      Are used to package wood and cork products for sterilization

    Correct Answer
    B. Should not be placed inside of wrapped sets or containers
    Explanation
    The given answer states that paper/plastic sterilization pouches should not be placed inside of wrapped sets or containers. This is because the pouches may not allow proper penetration of steam during the sterilization process if they are placed inside a wrapped set or container. This could result in inadequate sterilization of the items inside the pouches. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid placing these pouches inside wrapped sets or containers to ensure effective sterilization.

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  • 36. 

    The higher the bioburden on an object:

    • A. 

      The more difficult it will be to sterilize

    • B. 

      The less time it will take to sterilize it

    • C. 

      The more biological tests you will need in the load

    • D. 

      The longer it will take to cool after sterilization

    Correct Answer
    A. The more difficult it will be to sterilize
    Explanation
    The higher the bioburden on an object, the more difficult it will be to sterilize. This is because bioburden refers to the number of microorganisms present on the object, and a higher bioburden means there are more microorganisms that need to be eliminated during the sterilization process. Therefore, it will require more time, higher temperatures, or stronger sterilization methods to effectively kill or remove all the microorganisms and achieve sterilization.

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  • 37. 

    Instrument washers sterilizers provide

    • A. 

      Terminal sterilization

    • B. 

      Dry heat sterilization

    • C. 

      A decontamination process

    • D. 

      Flash sterilization for immediate patient use

    Correct Answer
    C. A decontamination process
    Explanation
    The instrument washers sterilizers provide a decontamination process. This means that they are capable of removing or reducing the number of contaminants, such as bacteria or viruses, from the instruments being washed. This process ensures that the instruments are clean and safe to use for subsequent procedures.

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  • 38. 

    disadvantages to a Case Cart Distribution System:

    • A. 

      a lag time between usage and replinishment

    • B. 

      A waste of time

    • C. 

      Not require orders

    • D. 

      Less efficiency organization

    Correct Answer
    A. a lag time between usage and replinishment
    Explanation
    The given answer correctly identifies one of the disadvantages of a Case Cart Distribution System, which is the lag time between usage and replenishment. This means that there is a delay in restocking the items or supplies after they have been used, leading to potential shortages or delays in the workflow. This can result in inefficiency and disruptions in the operations of the organization.

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  • 39. 

    Official inventory:

    • A. 

      Does nor exist in today's modern healthcare facilities

    • B. 

      Can be counted as an asset on the facility's balance sheet

    • C. 

      Is owned by the vendor but stored at the healthcare facility

    • D. 

      Is owned by the healthcare facility but stored by the vendor

    Correct Answer
    B. Can be counted as an asset on the facility's balance sheet
    Explanation
    Official inventory can be counted as an asset on the facility's balance sheet because it represents the value of the inventory owned by the healthcare facility. This inventory includes items that are essential for the facility's operations and are accounted for in financial statements. By including the official inventory as an asset, the facility can accurately represent the value of its resources and make informed financial decisions.

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  • 40. 

    The inventory system that stocks supplies by established levels is called:

    • A. 

      Par-level

    • B. 

      Case cart

    • C. 

      ADT system

    • D. 

      Exchange system

    Correct Answer
    A. Par-level
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "par-level." In an inventory system that stocks supplies by established levels, the par-level is used. This level represents the minimum quantity of each item that should be kept in stock at all times. When the stock falls below the par-level, it triggers a reorder to maintain the desired inventory level. The par-level system helps ensure that there are always enough supplies available without excess inventory or shortages.

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  • 41. 

    The inventory  system taht uses two identical carts to facilitate supply replenishment is called the:

    • A. 

      Case cart system

    • B. 

      Exchange cart system

    • C. 

      Par-level system

    • D. 

      Requisition system

    Correct Answer
    B. Exchange cart system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is exchange cart system. This system involves using two identical carts to facilitate supply replenishment. One cart is used on the nursing unit while the other is taken to the supply room to be restocked. This system ensures that supplies are readily available and eliminates the need for constant back-and-forth trips to the supply room.

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  • 42. 

    Automated supply replenishment systems:

    • A. 

      Are not longer used

    • B. 

      Are used only in surgery

    • C. 

      Are difficult to manage

    • D. 

      Are computarized

    Correct Answer
    D. Are computarized
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "are computarized". Automated supply replenishment systems are computarized, meaning they are operated and controlled by computers. This allows for efficient and accurate management of supply inventory and ensures timely replenishment of items. These systems have replaced manual methods of supply management in various industries due to their ability to streamline processes and reduce human error.

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  • 43. 

    The movement of supplies throughout the healthcare facility is called:

    • A. 

      Distribution

    • B. 

      Inventory management

    • C. 

      Case cart system

    • D. 

      Procurement

    Correct Answer
    A. Distribution
    Explanation
    The movement of supplies throughout a healthcare facility is referred to as distribution. This involves the transportation and delivery of supplies from one area to another within the facility, ensuring that the necessary resources are available when needed. Distribution is an essential aspect of inventory management, as it ensures that supplies are effectively allocated and utilized throughout the facility. The case cart system, on the other hand, is a method of organizing and transporting supplies for specific procedures or patient cases. Procurement, on the other hand, refers to the process of acquiring supplies and resources for the healthcare facility.

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  • 44. 

    In this system items are owned by the vendor,but stores at the healthcare facility

    • A. 

      Just-in-time

    • B. 

      Stockless

    • C. 

      Min/max

    • D. 

      Consignement

    Correct Answer
    D. Consignement
    Explanation
    Consignement is the correct answer because it refers to a system where items are owned by the vendor but stored at the healthcare facility. In this system, the vendor retains ownership of the items until they are used or sold by the healthcare facility. This arrangement allows the healthcare facility to have access to the necessary items without having to purchase and store them themselves. It also helps to minimize inventory costs and reduce the risk of stockouts.

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  • 45. 

    The system where items are ordered in large quantities to save money is called:

    • A. 

      Just-in-time

    • B. 

      Min/max

    • C. 

      Pick-n-pack

    • D. 

      Economic order quantity

    Correct Answer
    D. Economic order quantity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "economic order quantity." Economic order quantity refers to a system where items are ordered in large quantities to save money. This method aims to find the optimal order quantity that minimizes total inventory costs, considering factors such as ordering costs, holding costs, and demand. By ordering in bulk, businesses can take advantage of economies of scale and reduce costs associated with frequent ordering and holding excess inventory.

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  • 46. 

    Technicians on the ___________ department perform safety inspections and functional test on equipment

    • A. 

      Material management

    • B. 

      Infection control

    • C. 

      Biomedical engineering

    • D. 

      Facilities and manteniance

    Correct Answer
    C. Biomedical engineering
    Explanation
    Biomedical engineering technicians are responsible for performing safety inspections and functional tests on equipment. This department specifically focuses on the maintenance and repair of medical equipment to ensure its proper functioning and safety. They play a crucial role in maintaining the quality and efficiency of medical devices, contributing to the overall safety and well-being of patients.

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  • 47. 

    When patient equipment enters a healthcare facility,it must be safety checked by a_________ before it is cleared for patient use

    • A. 

      Biomedical technician

    • B. 

      Infection control committee member

    • C. 

      Central service technician

    • D. 

      Central service director

    Correct Answer
    A. Biomedical technician
    Explanation
    A biomedical technician is responsible for safety checking patient equipment before it is cleared for patient use. They have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition and meets all safety standards. Infection control committee members are responsible for preventing and controlling the spread of infections, but they do not typically perform safety checks on equipment. Central service technicians and directors are involved in the sterilization and distribution of medical equipment, but they may not have the necessary expertise to perform safety checks.

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  • 48. 

    All patient care equipment dispensed for use must be considered __________ and handled as such , regardless of it's appearance

    • A. 

      Sterile

    • B. 

      Clean

    • C. 

      Contaminated

    • D. 

      Defribilator

    Correct Answer
    C. Contaminated
    Explanation
    All patient care equipment, regardless of its appearance, must be considered and handled as contaminated. This means that even if the equipment looks clean, it should be treated as if it is contaminated to ensure the safety and well-being of the patients. This is important in preventing the spread of infections and maintaining a sterile environment in healthcare settings.

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  • 49. 

    Disposable components such as pads and tubing on patient care equipment should be:

    • A. 

      Discarded at point of use

    • B. 

      Be reprocessed for re-use

    • C. 

      Discarded during preventive mainteniance

    • D. 

      Removed in the biomedical engineering department

    Correct Answer
    A. Discarded at point of use
    Explanation
    Disposable components such as pads and tubing on patient care equipment should be discarded at the point of use to ensure proper infection control and prevent cross-contamination. This means that after each use, these disposable items should be immediately disposed of and not reused or stored for later use. This practice helps maintain a clean and safe healthcare environment for patients and healthcare providers.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following common items of patient care equipment limits the development of DVT deep vein thrombosis and peripheral edema in immobile patients?

    • A. 

      Respirator

    • B. 

      Intermittent suction device

    • C. 

      Sequential compression unit

    • D. 

      Defribilator

    Correct Answer
    C. Sequential compression unit
    Explanation
    A sequential compression unit is a common item of patient care equipment that limits the development of DVT (deep vein thrombosis) and peripheral edema in immobile patients. This device applies intermittent pressure to the legs, helping to improve blood circulation and prevent blood clots from forming. By compressing and releasing the legs in a sequential manner, it mimics the natural movement of walking and promotes venous return. This can be particularly beneficial for patients who are unable to move or walk on their own, as it helps prevent the complications associated with immobility.

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